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    ESE 18 CE Solution - 2273 PDF

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    La MADE EASY India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs ESE 2018 Preliminary Examination www.madeeasy.in Corporate Office: 44-A/1, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi-110016 | Ph: 011-45124612, 9958995830 ean Indore | Pune | Bhubaneswar | Kolkata | Patna La [maoe Ensul India’s Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs Expected Cutoff Marks (Out of 500): ESE 2018 (Pre) Dear Students, We have analysed both the papers of ESE 2018 (Prelims) in all four branch and we have taken in considerations the standard of question in both papers. We have also taken consideration of all expert faculties of MADE EASY, feedback of students after appearing in exam, the level of questions asked in ESE 2017. Based on above facts, MADE EASY Team has projected it's opinion about expected cutoff range required to qualify in ESE 2018 (Prelims) are as follows: crerr a) cry OBC sc cy ce 215-225 190-200 160-170 160-170 ME 240-250 215-225 170-180, 170-180, EE 225-235 210-220 180-190, 180-190 ERT 215-225 200-210 160-170 160-170 Note: The minimum cutoff of each paper for Gen/OBC/SC/ST is 15% (as per ESE 2017) and for PH category itis 10% (as per ESE 2017). Best wishes to all ESE 2018 Aspirants B. Singh (Ex. IES) CMD, MADE EASY Group G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Ce Q.1 Consider the following statements for selecting building stones: 1. Seasoning of stones is essential and is done by soaking in water 2. Specific gravity of stone is to be more than 2.7 3. Porosity of stone affects its durability 4. Climatic conditions decide the type of stone to be used in construction Which of the above statements are correct ? (@) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2and 4 only (©) 1,3.and 4 only (d) 2,3.and 4 only Ans. (ce) Specific gravity of stones is not suppose to be always more than 2.7; some stones are having sp. gravity less than 2.7 like, dry earth, marble etc, Q.2 Consider the following statements 1. Hydrophobic cement grains possesses low wetting ability 2. Rapid-hardening cements useful in concreting under static, or running water 3, Quick-setting cementhelps concrete to attain high strength in the intial period 4. White cements just a variety of ordinary cement free of colouring oxides Which of the above statements are correct 7 (@) 1 and4only (b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2and4 only (©) 2and3only Ans. (a) Hydrophobic cement grains acts as water repellant cement, due to oleic acid/sterlic acid, which acts as a water repellant film around grains of OPC cement. Whi ined by keeping the ion oxide (colouring agent of gray c: (max) during manufacturing of OPC cement sement o jour) 1% Erne I Q3 Consider the following statements: 1. Rich mixes are less prone to bleeding than lean ones 2. Bleeding can be reduced by increasing the fineness of coment Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (@) tonly (b) 2only (©) Both 1 and2 (A) Neither 1 nor2 Ans. (0) Rich mix offer less bleeding as compore to lean mix The factor influence the bleeding majorly are: 1, Reduce water content 2. Use the finer cement. 3. Increase the amount of fines in sand. 4, Use air entraining admixture. 5. Use lower slump mix of concrete. Paneer errant Page 2 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.4 The yield of concrete per bag of cement for a concrete mix proportion of 1: 1.5: 3 (with adopting 2/3 as the coefficient) is (@) 0.090 m () 0.128 (c) 0.135 m* (d) 0.146 m* ‘Ans. (b) v f coment = = volume of c jolume of cement = == volume of concrete Volume of concrete = 5.5 volume of cement Volume of 1 bag of cement = 35 litre Volume of concrete = 5.5 x 35 x 10% m* EET Q.5 Consider the following statements 1. Workability of concrete increases with the increase in the proportion of water content 2. Concrete having small-sized aggregates is more workable than thal containing large sized aggregate 3. For the same quantity of water, rounded aggregates produce a more workable concrete mix as compared to angular and flaky aggregates 4. Aconerete mix with no slump shown in the slump cone test indicates its very poor workability Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1,2and3 only (b) 1, 2and 4 only () 1,3and 4 only (d) 2,3.and 4 only Ans. (0) The workability of conerete is influenced by following factors: we 1. & Frio increases, workabilty increases A 2, & tallo increases, workability decreases Size of aggregate increases, workability increases 4, Shape of aggregate, rounded aggregate offer maximum workability w.rt. cubical, flaky, elongated aggregate. 5. Texture of aggregate, "smooth surface” aggregate otter better workability as compare to “rough surface” aggregat 6. Grading of aggregate, well graded aggregate offers better workability Q.6 A steel wire of 20 mm diameter is bent into a circular shape of 10 m radius. I E, the modulus of elasticity, is 2 x 10% kg/em®, then the maximum tensile stress induced in the wire is, nearly (@) 2 10° kg/cm’ (b) 4 10° kgfem’ (©) 2x 10*kglem? (d) 4x 10* kglem? Eee ane Ans. a7 Ans. as Ans. MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee (a) Snax E Yorax ~ R E, _ 2xto® Prax = RY = 305408 © = 2 x 10° kg/om? The stress-strain curve for an ideally plastic material is (@) stress (b) Stress “ ‘Stain Strain () sree Lo Swain Stain (c) Stress (a) For Ideal Plastic region without change in stress, strain is continuous. Along rod of uniform rectangular section with thickness ¢, originally straight, is bent into the form of a circular arch with displacement dat the mid-point of span |. The displacement dmay be regarded as small as compared to the length /. The longitudinal surface strain is 21d ta) 22 © Bid seta Or @ 4 (b) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee By property of circle, (R- d= 7 ard - de = (a2 =0) ree Surface strain tn. ~p ad ar -80 umm, andy = 120 um, Q.9._ If strains on a piece of metal are e, = 120 wmim, e, what is the maximum principal strain? (@o (©) 50 4mim (2) 75umim (a) 150 mim ‘Ans. (a) 120 mj = 30 umim 4120 umim eptey 2 = -752V45? +60? =~ 75 + 75 €, = 150 wmim &=0 Principal strain Q.10 The state of stress at a point is given by : 6, = 80 MPa, 6, = 100 MPa and t,, = 60 MPa. Ifthe yield strength for the material is 150 MPa, as determined in a uniaxial test, then the maximum shear sttess is, nearly (@) 1508MPa (b) 127.4MPa (©) 1193MPa (d) 1040MPa Ans. (*) = 80 MPa, o, = 100 MPa, t,, = 60 MPa onlay, = 21s 1 00-80) + 4607 150.82 MPa oR Op, = 29.18 MPa Qa Ans. aa MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee 0 ca n=O _ 180.82-0 = 5.41 MPa Absolute, Ta 7 7 "No answer matching oe Principal stresses at a point in an elastic material are 1.5 0 (tensile), « (tensile) and 0.5.6 (compressive). The elastic limit in tension is 210 MPa and u = 0.3. The value of o at failure when computed by maximum principal strain theory is nearly (@) 1405MPa (b) 1455MPa (©) 1505MPa (0) 1555MPa (d) oq = 156 op, =6 on, = -0.56 y= 210 MPa n=03 Maximum Principal Strain Theory OR Hop, - HOR, = Sy, (1.80) ~ (0.3)0 - (0.8) (-0.50) = 210 o = 155.5 MPa 250N pf A horizontal, bar of 40 mm diameter solid section is 2.40 m long and is rigidly held at both ends so that no angular rotation occurs axially or circumferentially at the ends (as shown in figure). The maximum tensile stress in the bar is nearly (@) 12.2.Nimme (b) 13.7 imme (©) 15.2Nimme (6) 16.7 imme G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (4) 12m ole _M So, Max B.M, occurs at B, _ 250% 2.4% 108 | 125x 10° ~ 8 4 = 75000 + 31.25 x 10% = 105 x 10? Nmm Bending stress = M = 105%10° _ 105x32 _ 105 oemes= Zax RxGs Oe 22 mM = 16.72Nim? Q.13 A solid shaft A of diameter D and length L is subjected to a torque T; another shaft Bot the samme material and of the same length, but aif the diameter, is also subjected to the same torque T. The ratio between the angles of twist of shaft B to that of shaft Ais (@) 2 (b) 16 8 @4 Ans. (b) ia oe 03 _ TLGdy Shatt A & B, Bea ®ve _ nf 3208, 8, Je /82(0/2)" Q.14 The required diameter for a solid shaft to transmit 400 kW at 150 rpm, with the working shear stress not to exceed 80 MNim?, is nearly (@) 125mm. (b) 121mm. (©) 117mm () 143mm. G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (e) _ 2aNT =o T= 25.47 kNm Max shear sess ‘paq= 22 ax shear st25S Sng = oe ter)" is (aaa) = 175mm @.15 An RCC column of 4 m length is rigidly connected to the slab and to the foundation Its cross-section is (400 x 400) mm?. The column will behave as a/an (a) Long column (b) Short column (0) Intermediate column (d) Linkage ‘Ans. (b) on _ 0.65% 4000 B 400 SR= b<12 at6 3501 he shear force diagram of a single overhanging beam is shown in figure. One simple, support is at end A. The ‘total’ downward load acting on the beam is (@) g00N (b) 600N (©) 400 (@) 200N ‘Ans. (a) Loading diagram 400 200 100 350 450 Total downward load = 800 N G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.17 The deformation of a vertically held bar of length L and cross-section A is due to its self-weight only. If Young's modulus is Eand the unit weight of the bar is, the elongation dis is ee oF ©) 3 w we OF © HE Ans. (c) Q.18 For amaterial, the modulus of rigidity is 100 GPa and the modulus of elasticity is 250 GPa The value of the Poisson's ralio is (a) 0.20 (b) 0.25 () 030 (6) 036 ‘Ans. (b) G= 100GPa E = 250GPa pe? E=2G(1 +p) 250 = 2(100)[1 + u] w= 025 CEE Q.19 Two persons weighing W each are sitting on a plank of length L floating on water, at L 7 {fom either end, Neglecting the weight ofthe plank, the bending moment atthe middle point of the plank is wt we @) ae ©) oa © oe (d) Zero Ans. (d) ee 4 2 4 2 T Wk kwh Moment at centre = "x >x7-Wx7 = 0 Page 9 La India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs. Ea PAE 1 YEAR / 2 YEARS PROGRAMME Batches Commencement Dates Regular Batches from | Weekend Batches from Weekend Batches fom (_ 12" Feb, 2018 13" Jan,2018 ) | 6" Jan, 2018 ) Regular Batches from Regular Batches from \ 19" Feb, 2018 Jd 21” Jan, 2018 J Regular Batches from Regular Batches from 26" Feb, 2018 JL 8" Mar, 2018 \ J ore Regular Batches from Regular Batches from \ 19" Feb, 2018 J 18" Feb, 2018 ) Pau eaace Regular Batches from | Weekend Batches from Regular Batches from (20%Jan,2018 | 18"Jan,2018 | 3" Jan, 2018 ) Eien Regular Batches from ADMISSION OPEN 16% 4an2018 at all Centres J MADE EASY Centres posed Re Perea rere cera G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.20 In the case of a rectangular beam subjected to a transverse shearing force, the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is (@) 0.75 (©) 1.00 (c) 1.25 (d) 1.50 Ans. (d) For rectangular cross-section, Tyna = 15 Toy oe Qi ‘80KN beAmey 9 3 ! Ye fp 8 mee — 8 ma} The horizontal thrust of the three-hinged arch loaded as shown in the figure is (@) 20kN (0) S0kN (©) 40kN (@) SOKN Ans. (c) EM, = 0 80x 12= R, x 16 Ry = 60 kN (7) Moment about hinge = 0 {Consider the left side of arch.) (Hy x 4) + (80 x 4) = 60x 8 Hi, = 40 KN (4) EE Q.22 Each span of a two-span continuous beam of uniform flexural rigidity is 6 m. All three supports are simple supports. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over the left span only. The moment at the middle support is (a) 90kNm Sagging (b) 45kNm Hogging (©) 90k\m Hogging (@) 45kNm Sagging ‘Ans. (b) 204Nvm A 2 c Using the theorem of three moments (6? Mj) + 2Mg(6 + 6) + Mee) = 22%) 4 36x6 2x2 x 6M, = 20x Mg = 45 kNm (Hogging) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.23 —~ A fixed beam is loaded as in figure. The fixed end moment at support A is, wi? wi? @ © wi? wi? © a5 @ ‘Ans. (b) Standard result for the given fixed beam and loading Q.24 For a plane truss member, the length is 2m, £ = 200 GPa and area of cross-section is 200 mm?. The stiffness matrix coefficient K,, with reference to its local axis is (@) 200Nim (b) 2x 107 Nim (©) 4x10" Nim (@) 400Nim Ans. (b) AE _ (200200 x 10°) x(10)° Stitfress matrix co-efficient, k,, = 00) = (2 x 107) Nim, Ans. Q.26 Ans. Q27 MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee pe 2 t 5 ne — Ir For the truss shown in the figure, the foree in the memiver PQ is F » 5 @ (b) Rr] (c) V2F (d) 2F (a) Considering the moment about, S = 0 Fog b= Fx L a An important building is located in earthquake zone V in India. The seismic weight of the building is 10000 kN and itis designed by ductity considerations. The spectral acceleration factor for this structure is 2.5. The base shear for this structure is (a) 1350kN (b) 5000 kN (c) 10000 kN (d) 25000 kN (a) Selsmic weight of building W-= 10000 kN 8. acceleration coot ($*}= 25 Horizontal seismic coefficient aE 2 R g = 288,18 95 =0.135 2 5.0 Base shear = A, x W = 0.135 x 10000 = 1950 kN {An RCC siab (M 25 grade), of dimensions 6 m x § m x 0.15 m, is supported on four square columns (M25 grade) of side 400 mm, the clear height of each column being 3m. Assuming rigid connections, the fundamental time period of vibration of the siab along the horizontal direction is nearly G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee (@) 4.128 (b) 2808 (c) 050s (a) 0.075 Ans. (d) M 2D- View 2n, 4k bo 12x 5000 fey x 10° where k= Be oes e Ts 3 12% 5O00V2B x 108 x 94x04 rr rs k = 28708703.703 Nim ho T= 2ny""7j<25703703.703 = 0°62 se So, nearest option is (). Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding suspension cables 1, The horizontal component of the cable tension in a suspension bridge is constant al every point along the length of the cable 2. Stiffening girders in a suspension bridge carry only the live load Which of the above statements is/are correct? (@) tony (b) 2only (©) Both 1 and2 (d) Neither 1 nor2 Ans. (0) Q29 Ans. Q.30 Ans. MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer (©ecun = 5000 KN? k,= 1000Nim @) 50s The fundamental time period of vibration of the system shown in the figure, by neglecting the self weight of the beam, is nearly (@) 0.2sec (b) 08sec (©) 1.4sec (d) 28sec (c) ott BEI _ 3x5000x10* "BE a 1000 Nim Kikp__ 1875000.x 100 +k, 1875000100 1000 Nim em = 2n, 0 = 14 sec = 1875000 Nim Now, Consider the following statements with reference to the design of welded tension members: 1. The entire cross-sectional area of the connected leg is assumed to contribute to the effective area in the case of angles 2. Two angles, back-to-back and tack-welded as per the codal requirements, may be assumed to behave as a tee-section 8. Acheck on slenderness ratio may be necessary in some cases Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and2only (b) 1 and3 only () 2and only (a) 1,2 and 3 only (d) oes EXIT Paneer errant Page 14 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.31 Aste! column is pinned at both ends and has a buckling load of 200 KN. Ifthe column is restrained against lateral movement at its mic-height, its buckling load will be (a) 100KN (b) 200 KN (©) 400KN (a) 800KN ‘Ans. (a) EAP RE oe sm Q.32 Consider the following statements in respect of column splicing: 1. Splices should be provided close to the point of inflection in a member 2. Splices should be located near to the point of lateral restraintin amember 3, Machined columns for perfect bearing would need splices to be designed for axial force only Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1and2only (b) 1 and3only (©) 2and3only (d) 1,2and3 ‘Ans. (b) Splice plates are provided to increase length of the member and increase strength of the member. Q.33 Bucking of the compression flange of a girder, without transverse stifeners, can be avoided if (with standard notations) @ Zsosse? ) sarod © Zs2708, @ 2260, Ans. (a) IS code clause 8.6.1.2 Q.34 A simply supported stee! beam of rectangular section and of span Lis subjected to uniformly distributed load. The length of the plastic hinge by considering moment ratio of 1.5 will be nearly (@) 0.271. (b) 0.394, (©) 0.454. (d) 058 L Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (4) EEN Q.85 A single angle of thickness 10 mm is connected to a gusset by 6 numbers of 18 mm diameter bolts, with pitch of 50 mm and with edge distance of 30 mm, The net area in block shear along the line of the transmitted force is (@) 1810 mme (b) 1840 mme (©) 1920 mn? (@) 1940 me Ans. (*) 60-88 ep 4530°50.50'50'50'50 eeeeee — 2 Q.36 Consider the following statements for the design of a laced column 1, Inabolted construction, the minimum width of the lacing bar shall be three times the nominal diameter of the end bolt 2, The thickness of the flat ofa single lacing system shalll be not less than one-fortieth of its effective length 3. The angle of inclination of the lacing bar should be less than 40° with the axis of the built-up column 4. The lacing shall be designed for a transverse shear of 2.5% of the axial load on the column Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1,2and 3 only (©) 1,2and 4 only (©) 1,8.and4only (d) 1,2,3and4 ‘Ans. (b) ‘Angle of inclination of the Lacing Bar should be (40*-70°) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.37 The permissible bending compressive strength for M25 grade of concrete is 8.5 N/mm Its short-term and long-term modular ratios are, nearly (@) Band 11 (0) Banda (©) t1and11 (a) t1and6 ‘Ans. (a) Short term modular ratio, E,_ 2x 10° n= Fs -_2x10___g9 °F. 5000x J25 Long term modular ratio (as suggested by IS456 — with partial effect of creep). 280 Bo coe 11.0 x85 Q.38 The ultimate load carrying capacity of a short circular column of 300 mm diameter with 1% helical reinforcement of Fe415 grade steel and concrete of M 20 grade, is nearly (a) 451 kN (b) S00 kN (©) 756kN (d) 734kN Ans. (d) Considering 1% longitudinal reinforcement and helical reinforcement. P, = 1.05 (0.40 fy x A, + 0.67 f, x Ay} 0.40 x 20 x 0.99 x (300)? 4.05 4 xy - > +067 415% 0.01% 7(300)*| 1° = 794 KN Note : above formula is used only when €,, € 0.05 , for size of column with 300 mm size this provision is not fuffiled, We should use P,, = 1.05 x [0.45 fy x A, + 0.75 f, x Ay] for uitimate load carrying capacity but no answer is matching with this formula.) Q.39 Ina cantlever retaining wall, the main steel reinforcement is provided (@) On the back side, in the vertical direction (©) Onboth, inner and outer, faces (©) Inhorizontal as well as in vertical directions (@) To counteract shear stresses G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (a) x Back Main toborcement On backfill side in vertical direction main reinforcement is provided Q.40 Design strength for M 25 concrete in direct compression, bending compression and flexural tension are, respectively (@) 10MPa, 1115MPaand3.5MPa (b) 25MPa, 11.15 MPa and 3 MPa (©) 10MPa, 12.5MPaand3.S5MPa — (d) 25 MPa, 11.15 MPa and 2.57 MPa Ans. (a) For M25 Concrete in LSM = 0.40 fgg = 0.40 x 25 = 10 Nimm? In bending compression in LSM = 0.48 fy, = 0.45 x 25 = Strength in flexural tension = 0.7 Vf = 0.7V25 =3.5Nim 1.25 Nimm? Q.41 Double-pitched roof trusses of span 20 m and rise 2.6 m are placed at 8 m spacing The maximum live load reaction at the supports is nearly (@) 36kN (b) 40kN (©) 48kN (@) 6OkN ‘Ans. (d) Plan area = 20 x 8 = 160 m? Live load = 0.75 kNim? Total line load = 0.7 x 160 = 120 kN Total load on each support 120 = [>| = 60 kN 2 EET G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee @.42 Ground motion during earthquake is random in nature. For the purpose of analysis, it can be converted into different harmonic excitations through (@) Fourier series (©) Newton's second law (6) Duhamel’ integral (d) Time series analysis ‘Ans. (a) EET Q.43. ANRC structure with fundamental time period of 1.2 sec vibrates at a forcing frequency of 10 radisec. The maximum dynamic displacement is X% of static displacement. The value of X is (@) 104 (b) 289 (© 377 (@) 502 Ans. (c) where R, = Response factor © = Frequency of force Nalural frequency Qn _ 2m n= 1D = 5.23 radjsec y Q.44 A steo! building has plan dimensions of 50 m x 50 m and it is 120 m tall. Itis provided with brick infill panels, The approximate fundamental time period of the building is Now, = 0.377 = 37.7% (@) 1.53sec (b) 2.72 sec (©) 3.08sec (d) 4.15 sec Ans. (a) 7 = 0.09 _ 0.08120 58 sec EET Q.45 A masonry structure has a prism strength of 10 Nimm? with p = 0.25. The modulus of elasticity and the shear modulus of the masonry are, respectively (@) 5500 MPa and 2200 MPa (b) 2000 MPa and 2200 MPa (©) 5500 MPa and 1000 MPa (d) 2000 MPa and 1000 MPa MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Ans. (a) Modulus of elasticity of brick masonry E, = 550 f, 550 x 10 = 6500 Nimm? Shear modulus of brick masonry 4 x 8800 = 2200 Nimmm? Ee Q.46 The surface tension in a soap bubble of 20 mm diameter, when the inside pressure is 2.0 Nim? above atmospheric pressure, is (@) 0.025 Nim (b) 0.0125 Nim (©) 5x10 Nim (@) 425 10" Nim ‘Ans. (c) For soap bubble ao oe “A 40. 301 0 = 5x 103 Nim @.47 _Considlor the following statements regarding labour welfare 1, Work prompted by mere sympathy and kindness may degenerate and may inure the worker's sense of sel-respect 2, Rapid industrialization on a large scale poses problems in respect of labour and its welfare 3. Construction labours stil largely unorganized, and, hence, lacks in welfare measures Which of the above statements are correct? (@) 1 and2 only (b) 1. and only (©) 1,2and3 (@) 2and3 only ‘Ans, (c) Q.48 A soil sample has an average grain diameter as 0.03 mm. The size of interstices is one- eighth of the mean grain diameter. Considering o of water as 0.075 g/cm, the water will rise in the clay to a height of (a) 24m () 3.0m () 36m () 4.0m Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee 0.08 mm _ 0.03 gs ee a a i gio m Ag _ 4x0,075x10° x9.81x108 03 453 3 x10 Wd g8ixt08 x EE Q.49 Ajet of water has a diameter of 0.3 cm. The absolute surface tension of water is 0.072 Nim and atmospheric pressure is 101.2 kN/m®, The absolute pressure within the jet of water will be (@) 101.104 kNim? (b) 101.152kNim? (c) 101.248 kNim* (d) 101.296 kKNim* ‘Ans. (c) For jet of water ap= 2 R ap = 0072 © 015x107 AP = 0,048 kPa Absolute pressure within the jet = 101.2 + 0,048 = 101.248 kPa Q.50 A glass tube of 25 mm intemal diameter is immersed in oll of mass density 940 kam? to a depth of 9 mm. If a pressure of 148 Nim? is needed to form a bubble which is, lust released, what is the surface tension of the oll ? (@) 0.041 Nim (b) 0.043 Nim (c) 0.046 Nim (d) 0.050Nim Ans. (a) 25mm ap = 22 a “OR p= 940 kgim® AP = 148 - (940 x 9.81 x 0,009) ; = 148 ~ 82.99 = 65.01 E Ne 65.01 = a ee © 425x107 6 = 0.04063 Nim LEU aE ted es a7 Me une eer + MADE EASY Mains Offline Test Series for ESE-2018 India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs ‘Mains batches are exclusively designed for practice of conventional questions for ESE-2018. Although the syllabus of ESE pre & _mains is wel covered in classroom course, but still interested candidates can enrollin these batches to develop additional sil in ‘order to excelin main examination. The approach followed in these batches are very beneficial tolmprove answer writing sillsand special emphasis is given on presentation of answers. These batches are supplemented by well-designed ESE-2018 mains offline testseriesasperUPSC-QCABpatern, ie + Very useful to develop numerical solving approach & ‘+ Special focus on improving answer layout specially for Improving writing skills theory questions. + Discussion on probable questions. + Classes will be delivered by senior faculties. + Helps to develop step by step question solving approach. Updated Mains workbook for every subject having + Comprehensive andin-depth discussion on collectionof vied Practice question sets (unsolved and solved), conventional questions, thus strengthening fundamental + Test series willbe conducted on every Sunday in concepts, “synchronisation withthe syllabus taught in lasses. cred ‘COURSE DURATION CLASS DURATION TEST SERIES TERRES) 70 to 80days | 250-300hours | 5-8 days a week and 6-7 hours day Every Sunday evening Streams Centre (Delhi) Batch Type Date Timings ce IGNOU Road Regular 7:30 AM to 1:30 PM Me hitomi Centre eguar | Batches Commencing | 7.30 aMtto 1:30PM from FE Kalu Sarai (Choudhary House) Regular 25" February, 2018 | 794M 1s0rM Eat Lado Sarai Cont Regulor 7.90 AM to 1:30 PM Ex. MADE EASY Students | Non MADE EASY Program Commencing Date Fate Pasa an pent Cerentnal (S-PosATE, GATE [V6 Bathe. students Mains Exclusive Batch Inclusive of Maine Casscoom | 25th February, 2018 712,500 % 16,500 Test Seis for ESE-2018 Mains Test Series 18th March, 2018 % 2,000 3,000 {0%ne/Onine) Documents Required '* 2 Photographs + Valid photo ID proof © o11-45124612 + Bc MADE EASY students should produce 3) www.madeeasyin their MADE EASY ID card Ronco Le ee ee es G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.51__Inarectangular open channel, 2.0m wide, water flows ata depth of 0.8 m. It discharges over an aerated sharp-crested weir over the full width, with depth over weir crest being 0.25 m. C, = 0.61. Adjusting for velocity head of approach, what would be the discharge through the channel ? /2g = 4.43 units (@) 0.439 m/sec (b) 0.445 m/sec (c) 0.453 mY/sec (d) 0.461 mY/sec ‘Ans. (c) o Q.52 A steady, two dimensional, incompressible flow field is represented by urs 3y+3and v= 2r-y-8 In tis low field, the stagnation point is (@) (3.2) (©) (3,2) © (-3,-2) (@) (6-2) ‘Ans. (4) uax+3y+3 v=2e-y-8 At stagnation point M=0 means u = 0 and v= 0 At point (3, ~2) u=3+3-2)+3 =0 v= 2(3) - (-2)-8 =0 Q.63 Ifthe energy present in a jet of water of 20 cm diameter and having a velocity of 25 mis could be extracted by a device with 90% efficiency, the power extracted would be nearly : (‘aking - 008182) 20 ) (a) 180kW (b) 225 kW (c) 260 kW (a) 300 kW Ans. (b) Power extracted = 0.9.x pine ogx ploaw. a 1 Xoo lose = 0.9% Jeo? | S002 esi = 220.89 x 10° W 120.89 KW asa Ans. Q.55 Ans. ase MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee In.a siphon, the summit is § m above the water level inthe tank from which the flow is being discharged. If the head loss from the inlet to the summitis 2.5 m and the velocity head at the summit is 0.5 m, (taking y= 70 appropriate units) the pressure head at the summit is (a) -80 kPa (b) -3 mof water (abs) (c) Sm of water (abs) (d) 18m of water (abs) (a) Apply energy equation between (A) & (S) 2 2 PMs a azen, pg 2g pg 29 Ps +404 0- 24+054+5+25 o+o+0=% Ps BL emott pg 20 P, = (10%) x (10) x 8 = 80 kPa The stream function of a doublet with horizontal axis and of strength 1 is HL at @ re (b) Bar coe? u sino sino sind (c) On (a) Qn (a) A vertical cylindrical tank, 2 m diameter has, at the bottom, a S om diameter, sharp edged orifice, for which C, = 0.6. Water enters the tank at a constant rate of 9 //se0. ‘At what depth above the orifice will the level in the tank become steady? (a) 2.95m (b) 2.75m (©) 260m (d) 250m G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (a) “4 son fe diameter @ A r) fegH = 9x 10% 0.65 (0.08) x 2x9.81xH = 9x 10% H = 297m °° RIT Q.57 A transmitter antenna is of a vertical pipe, 20 cm diameter and 25 m height, on top of a tall structure. Itis subjected to wind speed of 20 m/sec. Density of airis 1.22 kg/m® its viscosity is 1.8 x 10 Nsim?. Drag coefficient of a (tal) circular cylinder is tabulated as [10%] 10 [31051015 105] 1 06-105] 1 25105]. 10" [1.6 fos] 095 [x0] x08 | 4.0 | 029 [026 What is the drag experienced? (@) 737N (b) 700N (c) 670N (d) 63N ‘Ans. (a) pv.D _1.22x20x0.2 Re = os 271x108 # 1.8x 10° 1 2 Cp x5 xpxAxUE 2x? @ 1p = 0.602 [On the basis of linear interpolation] = 01602% 31.22% (0.225) (20)? = 734.44 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.58 A smooth fat plate with a sharp leading edge is placed along a free stream of water towing at 2.5 m/sec. At what distance trom the leading edge will the boundary layer transition from laminar to turbulent flow? Take density of water as. 1000 kgim® and its Viscosity as 1 centipoise. Also, what will be the boundary layer thickness at that distance? (@) 12.8cmand0.113.6m (b) 14.2em and0,113.¢m (©) 12.8cm and0.125 cm (d) 14.2em and 0.125 om Ans. 2.5 misec ]0® kam? 0° Pas For laminar critical Reynolds No(Re,,) = 5 x 105 Apply plasium results Us+x # (10°) x (2.5) xx 5 x 108 0 10° 2m 5 Re, — Vox io® = 1,414 mm 0. o® "No any option Q.59 What is the rotational speed in rpm of a 0.8 m diameter cylindrical container, held with axis vertical, if the fluid contained in it rises to 0.6 m height at the sides and leaves a circular space 0.3 m diameter on the bottom uncovered? (@) 20.2rpm (b) 88.4rpm (©) 86.01pm (@) 83.7 1pm Eee ane Ans. Q.60 Ans. G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee (b) f= 0.3 mont kK 0.8m——» z= Z [nba] o 2 2 o6= [oat 0.16") to = 9,259 radisee 2AN _ 9263 60 ~ N= 88.36 rpm If 8, and 8, are the laminar boundary layer thicknesses at a point M distant x from the leading edge when the Reynolds number of the flow are 100 and 484, respectively, then the rato 2 wit be (a) 22 (b) 4.84 (c) 23.43 (d) 45.45 (a) For laminar boundary layer Blasius results ee be 7 Ren Vio Page 26 Qe Ans. Qez Ans. aes am MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer In a 90° lriangular notch, the error in the estimated discharge for a given head due to an ertor of 1% in cutting the vertex angle is (@) 2010 (b) 1% @ 5% (@) 2% (©) HH agtang HI? ag soc? soot? = Fx sect tan’ go Q Consider the following statements 1. Allsoils can be identified in the field by visual examination 2. Fine-grained soils can be identified in the field by visual examination and touch 3. Fine-grained soils can be identified in the field by dilatancy test 4. By visual examination, only coarse grained soils can be identified Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and2only (b) 2and3only (©) andaony (@ tand4only () ‘An open channel is of isosceles triangle shape, with side slopes / vertical and 7 horizontal. The ratio of the ortical depth to speciic energy at oftical depth will be @) (b) (co) (d) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (e) nl Ye 1 For isoscles triangle the central angle = 90° Side slope is 1V: 1H roa = H(2¥oNYe) = ¥8 ve 7 epee Specific eneray (E,) = Yo +35 2g 0 Again for critical flow as i 95 A i) From (i) and (ii) s oo EEE 3 A 2 Q.64 = ed oy (ae 1 { sa > 2a ~—— Apipe network is shown with all needful input data to compute the firs improved magnitudes ofthe initially assumed flows in the branches. What willbe the such improved flow magnitudes in branches AB and CD? Consider to first decimal accuracy. (@) AtoB:5.1;CtoD:3.4 (b) AtoB:5.7;CtoD:28 (0) AtoB:49;CtoD:3.4 (d) AtoB:55;CtoD:38 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Ans. (a) Pipeline AB = 3 + 2.09 = 5.09 ~54 Pipeline CD = 3 + 2.09 = 3.09 ~34 Q.65 A2mwide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 10m*/s. What would be the depth of flow if the Froude number of the flow is 2.07 (@) 172m (b) 1.36m (6) 0.86m (@ 068m Ans. (c) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.66 M, profile is indicated by which of the following conditions? @) %>%>y (0) ¥,> Yo> Ye © y.>%>y @ y>y.>% Ans. (a) Y= Actual depth of flow at any secttion of GVF profile NOL opt °° ¢REEmm Q.67 Floating logs of wood tend to move to the mid-river reach on the water surface. This is due to (@) Least obstruction from the banks. (b) 2-cell transverse circulation in the flow. (6) Fastest velocity along the mid-river reach, (a) Near-symmetry of the isovels across the section is conducive to principle of least work. Ans. (b) Q.68 The sequent depth ratio in a rectangular channel is 14. The Froude number of the supercritical flow will be (@) 662 (&) 755 (©) 845 (@ 1025 Ans. (4) a4 n> nd fe ghire] 4 z and Par a var | ae Ate fora] F, = 10.25 EY lo Rank (noe ens) Improvement MADE ERSUYU eFC Td H India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs for ESE 2019 & GATE 2019 Failures are not meant to bow down, but they are for : to repeat, to improve and emerge as a winner ‘These batches are designed for repeater students who have taken classroom coaching or prepared themselves and already attempted GATE/ESE Exams, but want to give next attempt for better result-The content of Rank Improvement batches are esignedto give exposurefor olvingdifferenttypesofquestionswithinixedtime frame. Features : Eligibility : + Comprehensive problem solving sessions + Be MADE EASY students who have undergone + Smart techniques to salve problems classroom coaching from any centre of MADE EASY + Techniques to improve accuracy & speed + Students who have undergone classroom coaching ftom any + Systematic & cylic revision ofa subjects other institute + Doubt clearing sessions + Qualified in GATE Exam + Weekly class tests fr performance improvement + Qualified in ESE Pre/ Mains) written exam + Inclusive of Interview guidance fr PSUs + Qualified in any PSU exam + Specially designed workbooks for technical subjects * M.Tech from reputed colleges Been) enon ru Complete GATE syllabus & ‘Approximately 5 months 5-6 days a week Technical syllabus of ESE 450-475 teaching hours 4hours a day oo Timing Date Venue ce 5:00 PM to 9:00 PM 20th February, 2018 Saket-2 (Delhi) Me 5:00 PM to 9:00 PM. 20th February, 2018 Ghitorni (Delhi) E 5:00 PM to 9:00 PM. 21st February, 2018 Kalu Sarai (Delhi) EC 5:00 PM to 9:00 PM 2ist February, 2018 Saket.2 (Delhi) sis Ex MADE FASY Stade NomMADEEASY Those sadn who wereewledin Those student panel sud couse ant proven whovereenhein onvertnal CS Pom OnE Batches Sate eceP hes Note: Timing & Venue are subjected to periodic changes as per requirements. These batches will be conducte t Delhi centre only Note1 These batches will be focusing on solving problems and doubt clearing sessions. Therefore ifa student is ‘weakin basic concepts & fundamentals then he/ sheis recommended to join regular classroom course. Note2 G.S&OnlineTestSeriesareNOTincludedinthis course Pees ie) ADMISSION eee ters OPEN Saas Qeo Ans. Q70 Ans. a7 Ans. a7 MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee In @ hydraulic jump, the depths on the two sides are 0.4 m and 1.4 m. The head loss in the jump is neariy (@) 045m (b) 065m (c) 0.80m (d) 0.90m (a) Ye-v) _ (14-049 “ 4Y¥Wo ~ AxO.4x14 1 _ 0446 16x14 m A 20 m centrifugal pump runs at 1400 rpm delivering 0.02 m/sec against a head of 45 m with an efficiency of 87%. What is its non-dimensional specific speed Using «ps as the relevant data component? (@ 0482 (b) 0.474 (©) 0.466 (a) 0.488 @ 1400. NYG _ “69 YO? Ne (Grin) (Oat a5y™ Ny = 0.072 revolution = 0072 x 2x m = 0.458 radian Two identical centritugal pumps are connected in parallel to a common delivery pipe of a system. The discharge performance cutve of each of the pumps is represented by H = 30 - 80Q®. The discharge head equation of the parallel duplex pump set is (@) H=30-2800° (b) H= 15-2007 (e) H= 20-2002 (@) H= 15-8002 (c) For total quantity of discharge (@) the discharge from each pump will be (2). ax = 90-202 " (3) H= 30-20 . Consider the following data relating to the performance of a centrifugal pump: speed = 1200 rpm, low rate = 30 i/s, head = 20 m, and power = 5 kW. If the speed of the pump is increased to 1500 rpm, assuming the efficiency is unaltered, the new flow rate and head, respectively, will be (@) 46.9 1/s and 25.0 m (b) 87.5 I/s and 25.0m (©) 46.9 i/s and 31.3m (d) 37.5 y/sand31.3m G4MADE EASY Indi Boot Iatleute for IES, GATE & PSUs TILEY atc a ea Ans. (d) Hn Hn Dn’), = Den 20 | Hy 1200"), = 15007 Hyp = 31.8 m A DN, zo __@ 1200 ~ 7500), Q, = 87.5 Ips Q.78 The work done by a kN of water jet moving with a velocity of 60 m/sec when it impinges on a series of vanes moving in the same direction with a velocity of 9 msec is, (@) 60.2kNm (b) 55.6kNm (©) 468kNm (A) 45.0kNm Ans. (c) Work done, We m(V-u)u 1000, = pprl60-9)x9 ~ 46.8 kNem Q.74 The velocity heads of water at the inlet and outlet sections of a dratt tube are 3.5 m and 0.3 m, respectively. The frictional and other losses in the draft tube can be taken as 0.5 m. What is the efficiency of the draft tube? (a) 84.4% (b) 80.0% (©) 77.1% (@) 744% ‘Ans. (c) Vee Ve tor= 2g 29 [2-25-25 |x100 ye “35 Mor = 77.14% G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.75 Which of the following situations can be attributed to sustained excessive groundwater pumping in a basin? 1, Drying up of small lakes and streams over a period in spite of normal rainfall 2. Deterioration of groundwater quality in certain aquifers. 3. Land subsidence in the basin. 4, Increase in seismic activity 5. Increased cost of groundwater extraction. (@) 2and4only (b) 1,2,3.and5 only (©) 3and4only (d) Vand 5 only ‘Ans. (b) o° sEXEIT Q.76 Horton's infiltration equation was fitted to data from an infiltration test. It was found that the initial infitration capacity was 20 mm/h, final infiltration capacity was 5 mm/h and the exponential decay constant was 0.5 h. If the infiltration was at capacity rates, the total infiltration depth for a uniform storm of 10 h duration would be (@) 80mm (b) 50mm (9) 80mm () 20mm, ‘Ans. (a) f= 20mmnr k= 05Ihr =5 + 15 e28t Tal invatn = fhot= [(5+156°4) 2 «20 mm Endf tion Q.77 Consider the following regarding turbines: 1. The main function of a governor is to maintain a constant speed even as the load on the turbine fluctuates Inthe case of Pelton turbines, the governor closes or opens the wicket gates. In the case of Francis turbines, the governor opens or closes the needle valve 4. Inthe case of a Kaplan turbine, the governor swings the runner blades appropriately in addition to further closing of further opening of the wicket gates. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) 1.and3 only (b) Zand 4 only (6) 2and3only (@) 1 and4 only Ans. (4) Eee ane MADE EASY India Beat Inaeiute for IES, GATE & PSUS Consider the occurrence of a surge at the water surface of a wide rectangular channel flow, as in the figure, where the one-dimensionally considered velocities are v, and v, and the depths are d, and d,, with the surge height h, whereby d, — d, = h, moving ata speed of over depth d,. Joint application of continuity and momentum principles will indicate the surge front speed Vip to be v2 ye @ Vw = vaa (1432) (b) Vy ~ oa ( 325(4) } "2a, 2a, 2\ 0, v2 2 @ Yu = Saei(1+ 2) @ We = saa (2) } Ans. (b) Positive surge moving u/s neglect V and solve Me pele) WM 2n\n Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.79° Which of the following will pose difficulties in adopting u.h.g. principles and processes in evaluating flood hydrographs of basins? 4, Non-uniform areal distritvution within a storm. 2. Intensity variation within a storm, 3, The centre of the storm varying from storm to storm in case of large catchment 4, Dividing into a number of sub-basins and routing the individual DRHs through their respective channels to obtain the composite DRH 5, Large storages within the catchment, e basin outlet. (@) 1,3.and4 only (b) 2,3.and 4 only (©) 1,2and 6 only (d) 1,2,3.ands only Ans. (d) Q.80 Rainfall of magnitude 4.3 cm, followed by 3.7 om, occurred on two consecutive 4h durations on a catchment area of 25 km?, and there resulted a DRH (after isolation of base flow in the flood flow hydrograph) with the following ordinates starting from the beginning of the rainfall. (Adopt trapezoidal formula) Time (hours) [0 | 4 | 6 [12] t6] 20] 24] 28] 92] 36] 40] 44 DRH ordinate m’isec)| 0| 9 | 16| 20| 207.4134 94/62) 37\1.8| 0 What is the ¢-index value? (@) 0.149em/n (b) 0.155 em/n (©) 0.161. cm/n (6) 0.167 cmin ‘Ans. (b) 0.36z0t A = 6756 em (= Q) = 0.185 cm/hr Q.81. Groundwater lows through an aquifer with a cross-sectional area of 1.0 x 10 m? and a length of 1500 m. Hydraulic heads are 300 m and 250 m at the groundwater entry and exit points in the aquifer, respectively. Groundwater discharges into a stream at the rate of 750 m*iday. Then the hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is (@) 1.50 miday (0) 2.25 miday (©) 350miday (@) 4.25 miday Ans. (b) Q= kiA (300-250)x 10" 750 = 50 = KE K = 2.25 miday ErreT Paneer errant Page 35, G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.82 A hydraulic turbine develops 5000 KW under a head of 30 m when running at 100 rpm. his turbine belongs to the category of (@) Pelton whee (0) Francis turbine (c) Kaplan tutbine (d) Propeller turbine ‘Ans. (b) NWP _ 100¥5005 Ne= [B14 =~ ags/h Ng = 100.7118!) Francis turbine oe Q.83_ The rate of rainfall for the successive 30 min periods of a 3-hour storm are: 1.6, 3.6 5.0, 28, 2.2 and 1.0 cmjhour. The corresponding surface runoff is estimated to be 8.2 em, Then, the ¢-index is (@) 1.5cmih (b) 1.8.0mih (9) 2.4.cmih (@) 2.40mih Ans, (b) Total rainfall = (1.6+3.6+5.0+2842.241 0) = 810m (8.1- 3.2) Wyse = 2982) — 1.65 emir ai io Prox > Winder hence storm of intensity 1.6 em/hr and 1.0 cmvhr will not produce any rainfall excess. 30 (3.6+5.0+28+42.2)x 2° -3.2 San = OSS 0128122) 59°82 = 18 ommnr Q.84 For stabilly analysis of slopes of purely cohesive soils, the critical centre Is taken to lie at the intersection of (@) The perpendicular bisector ofthe slope and the locus of the centre. (0) The perpendicular drawn at the one-third siope from the toe and the locus of the centre (6) The perpendicular drawn at the (wo-third slope from the toe and the locus of the centre (@) Directional angles Ans. (4) G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.85 Consider the following statements regarding water logging 1. Water logging is the rise of groundwater table leading to possible increase in salinity resulting ina reduction in the yield of crops. 2. Water logging cannot be eliminated in certain areas but can be controlled only i the quantity of water percolating into that soil is checked and reduced. Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT? (@) 1 only (b) 2 only (©) Both t and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) Statement 1 is correct Rise in groundwater table brings soluble salt in the root zone, therefore affecting the process of osmosis, resulting in reduction in water extraction capacity of the roots, thus reducing the yield of the crops. Statement 2 is correct Surface and sub-surface drainage will check and reduce the water percolating in the soil mass, thus reducing the chances of water-logging, Q.86 Annual rainfall values at station A in mm for the years 2001 to 2010 are given in the ble below. If simple central 3-year moving mean of this rainfall record is calculated, the maximum and minimum values in the moving mean list would be Years ‘2001/[ 2002 2003] 2004] 2008 | 2006 | 2007 | 2008 | 2008] 2010] ‘Annual Rainf Pat station A (me) 506 | 621| 612 | 630 | 689 | 610 | s91| 04 | 621| 650 (a) 689 mm and 602 mm (b) 649 mm and 602 mm () 689 mm and 586 mm (d) 549mm and 586 mm ‘Ans. (b) Maximum mean precipitation, 184690 Minimum mean precipitation, 586 + 6214618 in a 608 mm Q.87 _Khosia's formulae for assessing pressure distribution under weir floors are based on (@) Potential flow in permeable layers just beneath the floors (b) Boundary layer flow with pressure drop longitudinally (©) Conformal transformation of potential flow into the w plane (A) Simplification of 3-D flow Eee ane Ans. aes Ans. Qa9 Ans. Q.20 Ans. MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee (@) The residual pressure head, as per Khosla’s theory is written as, h=oxH where, @ is residual potential function, expressed using flow net diagram of potential and seepage path below the impervious floor of weirs/barrages. Ina siphon aqueduct, the worst condition of uplift on the floor occurs when (@) The canalis full and the drainage is empty, with water table at drainage bed level (b) The canal is empty and the drainage is full, with water table at drainage bed level (©) Both the canal and the drainage are full (A) The canal is empty and the drainage is full, with water table below the floor. (d) \ canal | SN ee / Zero hardness of water is achieved by (@) Lime-soda process (b) lon exchange treatment (©) Excess lime treatment (A) Excess alum dosage (b) Zero hardness is achieved by ion-exchange method Five-days BOD of a 10% diluted sample having D, = 6.7 mall, D, = 2 mall and consumption of oxygen in blank = 0.5 mgff, will be (a) 22 mai (b) 42 mail (©) 62 mail (d) 82 moi (b) IS 3025 : Part 44 BoOD(mgi) = — 100 DD, ~ (6-8, )F re D, ~ Initial DO sample (mall) D, ~ DO of sample after incubation (mgs!) DO of seed before incubation (mgil) B, ~ DO of seed after incubation (mg/!) F~ Ratio of seed in diluted sample to seed in contra P~ % dilution of sample 67-2-05 BOD = 100 = 42 mgif 10 (fis to be used only when correction factor is given) National Scholarship Test (NST) For GATE 2019 & ESE 2019 Aspirants AsitstightysadAnunfliledvocaionsraisthecolourfromamansexstenceCvery ESP prorerrerenrranerere Fe India’s Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs budding engineer and engineering graduates dream about engineering service r 100% ‘examination publ sectors, ete bu often these sharp minds have to take step bak ; = fe to unfovourable economic conditions. MADE ERSY has taken an intve £9 ‘ a acknowleage these talented students by giving scholarship for coaching guidance and thereby assisting them in accomplishing their dreams. MADE EASY will provide p 25% scholarship worth Rs crores for those students who wish to enroll in classroomcourses, | ___ forest 2012andGATE-2019, Scholrhip wlan from 10% to 100% 6 tution fee, based on merit ist, Avail NST NST-2: Test Centres Scholarship ‘Agr, Ahmedabae,Alahabad, Amram Bangalore, Bila Bhopal, Bhubaneswar Worth 11Mer, 2018 Chandigarh, Chennal Dehra, Delhi, OhanbueChaziabae Gorakhpur Greater fovecesconmenceg Noida, Gurgaon, Gwalior, Hyderabad Indore, abalpur, Jaipur, Jalandhar, hans, Rs.9 CROFES | "9 certo nanan Test Syllabus ———__ Test Pattern a yl Objective Type Offline Test Part - A: Engineering Discipline arta: Clulengineering + strength of Materials Design of Concrete Stuctures, Soll Mechanics, Engineering Disipine sons Environmental Engg Fluid Mechanics Highway E95 pare: MechanicalEngineering : B35 Thermodynamics, Heat & Mass Transfer, Fuld Mechanie, Indusallngg, reduction EnggandTheary of Machines. Engineering Mathematics + 20.Qns FlectrcalEngineering + Network Thery Contel System, Eectral Machines, Power Systems, Reasoning &Apttide + 20Gns Elec Measreents Analog. GeneralEngish toons EecroniesEngineering : NetworkTeoy,Convelste, lector Dees & Creat, Aseg Total Maks 100 { Digtal Electonics, Communion SytemaComputer Sdence Total Questions 10 Engg TOC. Algorthms and Pegramming Wethosloy, Operating Tnebanten Show System, DBMS, camputerNetwors,Compierdsign Per Question mak Part - B: Engineering Aptitude Negatve Marking 033marks | | eagnening NaematsReworng 4 Ape Geel Eg bih as per GATE-2018 Sas X JX / Emergence) en + Logon townwmadeessyin Registration Opens fom 20 hug 2017 + INST onine registration form & pay the resstation fe. Las datetoregiterontine 20 Fed 2018 + Lagin credential be mated to you tespectve eal Download hemi are 7Marto1 Mat 2018 + Lagin & download your Admit Car Tes OR a M2018 Fess 2oMar2018, + Venve &timing willbe mentioned on Admit Card. + Candidate shoul produce Admit Card along with valid Photo ID proof to enter the examination hal Notes Msendaohpispaebleor GAIL LGAE Ebates Fee: be] |) See cca ee Cea REL CC G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.91 Which one of the following statements related to testing of water for municipal use is correctty applicable? (@) Pseudo-harcness is due to presence of fluoride in water. (0) When alkalinity > total hardiness, Carbonate hardness in magi! = Total hardness in magi (6) Bicaronate alkalinity = Total alkalinity - (carbonate alkalinity - hydroxide alkalinity) (d) Hydroxide alkalinity = Carbonate alkalinity + Bicarbonate alkalinity Ans. (b) (Total hardness, Alkarity),,, = Carbonate hardness Q.92 The capacity of a service reservoir in a campus should cater to (@) Sum total of balancing storage, breakdown storage and fire reserve, (b) Sum total of balancing storage and fire reserve. (c) Sum total of breakdown storage and fire reserve (d) Balancing storage only. Ans. (a) Total capacity of service reservoi storage, balancing storage + fire storage + emergency Q.93 Consider the following statements regarding groundwater pollutants: 1, Mostof the groundwaters are generally non-alkaline. 2. Amoderate amount of fluoride, about 0.6 mag/! to 1.5 mg/l, in drinking water would help in good development of teeth. 3. Natural waters do not have dissolved mineral matter in them. Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT? (@) 1only (b) 2only (©) 3only (d) 1,2and3 Ans. (b) @.94 Consider the following statements regarding anchorage of pipelines conveying wate’ 1. Atbends, pipes tends to pull apar. 2. Al bends, forces exerted on the joints due to longitudinal shearing stresses are enormous and the joints may get loosened, 8, Toavoid problems by hydrodynamic effects, pipes are anchored using concrete blocks which absorb side thrusts at bends. 4, Pipes are also anchored on steep slopes. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (a) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2 and 4 only (©) 1,3and 4 only (d) 1,2,3and4 Ans. (d) Paneer errant Page 39 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.95 Consider the following statements with reference to bioenergy as a renewable energy source: 41, Plants ensure continuous supply of gas due to their continuous growth. 2. Cost of obtaining energy from biogas is less than that from fossil fuels. 3. Digestion of sludge may produce H,S and NO, which are injurious to human health, 4, ‘Floating dome’ installation is the preferred option as it supplies gas at constant pressure irrespective of quantity of gas produced Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2and 4 only (©) 2,3.and 4 only (d) 1, 3.and 4 only Ans. (ce) Q.96 Consider the following statements regarding waste stabilization ponds. 1. The pond has a symbiotic process of waste stabilization through algae on one hand and bacteria on the other. 2. The oxygen in the pond is provided by algae through photosynthesis. 3, The detention period is of the order of two to three days, 4, The bacteria which develop in the pond are aerobic bacteria. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) 1and2only (b) 2and3only (©) Sand4 only (d) 1and4 only Ans. (a) In stabilisation pond symbiotic relation exist between algae and aerobic micro-organisms ©, is provided by algae during photosynthesis and from atmosphere. Detention period is 2-6 weeks. Bacteria in pond is both aerobic and anaerobic, 1 lime soda process is the Q.97 The purpose of re-carbonation after water softening by (a) Removal of excess soda from the water. (b) Removal of non-carbonate hardness in the water. (6) Recovery of lime from the water. (d) Conversion of precipitates to soluble forms Ans. (a) Recarbonation is done to make 40 mg/l of CaCO, and 10 mg! of Mg(OH), ppt back soluble in water which are formed very slowly else it would lead to incrustation of pipes in distribution system, 1e water. Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.98 Environmental flow of a river refers to the quantiy, quality and timing of the flow (@) Required in the river to sustain the river ecosystem (©) Required to maintain healthy ecological conditions in the command area of a river development project. (©) Generated by the ecosystem of the catchment of the river (@) As the minimum requirement to support the cultural practices of the community ving on the banks of the river ‘Ans. (a) oe Q.99 The moisture content of a certain Municipal Solid Waste with the following composition will be Wat Hwelght Dry Howelgt Food wasle ‘0 @ Paper 3 20 Yard wale 2 rn others 35 20 (2) 100% (b) 63% (© 37% (@) 13% Ans. (c) otal weight be 100 kg Wet wt. Dry wt. Moisture Food water 10 kg 3kg 7 kg Paper 35 kg 30 kg 5kg Yard waste 20 kg 10 kg 10 kg Others 35 kg 20 kg 15 kg Total = 37 kg weight of water = “Total weight 37 = Xt = 37% Q.100 Consider the following statements: 1, When a soil sample is dried beyond its shrinkage limit, the volume of the soil slowly decreases. 2. Plastic limit is always lower than the liquid limit for any type of soil, 3. At the liquid limit, the soil behaves like a liquid and possesses no shear strength at all 4, When subjected to drying, the volume of the soil remains unchanged once the water content of the soil goes below its shrinkage limit, Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (a) 1and3only (b) 1and4 only (©) 2and3only (d) 2and4 only Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Ans. (4) When soil is dried below shrinkage limt volume remains constant. Wy < Wy < Wi At limit liquid limti all the soils have almost same and negligible shear strongh ~ 2.7 kNim? @.101 Consider the following statements in respect of the troposphere: 1, The gaseous content constantly chums by turbulence and mixing, 2. Its behaviour makes the weather. 3, The ultimate energy source for producing any weather change is the sun 4, The height of the troposphere is nearly 11 km at the equatorial belt and is § km at the poles. Which of these are true of the troposphere? (a) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2and 4 only (©) 1,3.and 4 only (d) 2,3.and 4 only Ans. (a) ‘Atmospheric turbulence in troposphere is a chaotic structure generated by the irregular air movements in which the wind randomly varies in speed and direction. Turbulence is important because it churns and mixes the atmosphere and causes water vapour, smoke, other substances as well as energy to become distributed at al elevations. Its behavior makes the weather ((ocally) ne changes (chemical) takes place due to energy predominantly provided by the sun, (Ex. Photochemical smog) 4th statement is incorrect. The average height of troposphere is 10 km and at equator itis about 17 km and at the poles, itis about 9 km: Q.102 A sand sample has a porosity of 30% and specific gravity of solids as 2.6. Wh its degree of saturation at moisture content of 4.94%? t is (@) 40% (b) 25% (©) 30% () 25% Ans. (c) n 03 jon 1-03 oes Se= wa s x 0.428 = 4.94 x 26 Paneer errant Page 42 G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.103 What will be the unit weight of a fully saturated soil sample having water content of 38% and grain specific gravity of 2.657 (@) 19.88KN/m* (©) 17.88kNioy (c) 16.52 kN/m* (a) 14.65 kN/m* ‘Ans. (b) Se= wa 1 xe = 1.38 x 2.65 e= 1.007 (G+e)yw _(2.65+1.007)x9.81 Yat tee 1+ 1.007 Yar = 17.87% EET Q.104 How many cubic metres of soil having void ratio of 0.7 can be made from 30 m? of soil with void ratio of 1.2? (@) 366m" (b) 30.0m (©) 259m" (A) 28.2m" Ans. (a) For soll-1 e=12 V= V1 + 6) 30 = V,(1 + 1.2) V, = 18.63 m? For soil-2 e=07 V= V1 +e) V= 18.63 (1 + 0.7) V= 23.2 m? EEN Q.105 A dry sand specimen is put through a tri-axial test. The cell pressure is 50 kPa and the deviator stress at failure is 100 kPa. The angle of internal friction for the sand specimen is @ 16 (0) © @ Ans. (b) 6, = 6, = 50 kpa 04 = 3 + 94 = 50 + 100 = 150 kpa Sand C=0, o=? a, = 6, tan® (45 + 4/2) 150 = 50 tan? (45 + 4/2) =a G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.106 The theory of a consolidation predicts settlement due to primary consolidation; it cannot include settlement due to initial compression nor due to secondary consolidation. This happens because of the following assumptions made in developing the theory: 1. Soil grains and water are incompressible. 2. Soils fully saturated, 3, Compression takes place in the vertical direction only 4, Time lag in consolidation is entirely due to low permeability of soil Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2and 4 only (©) Sand4 only (d) 1,2,8.and4 ‘Ans. (b) Q.107 Consider the following statements: 1. Secondary consolidation results due to prolonged dissipation of excess hydrostatic pressure. 2, Primary consolidation happens under expulsion of both air and water from voids in early stages, 3. Initial consolidation in the case of fully saturated soils is mainly due to compression ot solid particles. 4, Primary consolidation happens more quicklyin coarse-grained soils than in fine-grained soils. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) tand2 only (b) and only (©) Sand 4 only (d) 1 and4only Ans. (4) Q.108 Consider the following statements with regard to Soil Testing: 1. The origin and pole are at the same point in a Mohr's circle. 2. The shear stress is maximum on the failure plane. 3. Mohr's circle drawn with data from an unconfined compression test passes through the origin. 4. Maximum shear stress occurs on a plane inclined at 45° to the principal plane. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? (@) 1and2only (b) 2and3 only (©) 8and4only (@ 1 and only Ans. (c) In unconfined compression test 9,= 9, =0 Hence Mohr circle passes through origin. ene =| S22 |sin20 (25%) Tmax '8 when 0 = 45° Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS NS uc ee Q.109 A soil yielded a maximum dry unit weight of 18 kNim? at a moisture content of 16% during a Standard Proctor Test. What is the degree of saturation of the soil tits specific gravity is 2.657 (@) 98.42% (b) 95.50% (©) 84.32% (a) 75.71% Ans. (b) Yammax = 18 kN/m? w= 16% G= 265 Btw Yama Tee te = 255x981 We = e= 0.446 Se= WG Sx 0.444 = 16 x 2.65 $= 95.5% Q.110. Consider the following assumptios regarding Coulomb's Wedge Theory: 4. There is equilibrium of every element within the soil mass of the material 2. There is equilibrium of the whole of the material 3. Backiillis wet, cohesive, and ideally elastic. 4, The wall surface is rough. Which of the above assumptions are CORRECT? (@) tand3 only (b) 1and4 only (©) 2and3only (A) 2and4only Ans. (d) Q.111 Ina clayey soil having 50 kN/m? as unit cohesion and 18 kN/m? as unit weight, an excavation is made with a vertical face. Taking Taylor's stability number as 0.261, what is the maximum depth of excavation so that the vertical face remains stable? (@) 530m (b) 7.06 m (9) 106m (@) 124m Ans. (c) ——— Sy = FOSxy xH 261 = —20 * taxa H= 10.6 m Page 45, General Studies & Engineering Aptitude Batches for India's Best Institute for IES, GATE & PSUs Syllabus Covered Batch Details Batch Type Regular Batch ‘Weekend Batch Non-MADE EASY Students % 22,500 6S & Engg Aptitude Books willbe issued ADMISSION OPEN ‘44-1, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi - 110016 716,500 Commencing from Venue 20" Feb, 2018 25th Feb, 2018 Ghitorni Centre (Delhi) Ghitorni Centre (Delhi) Ex. MADE EASY Students Enrolled in Postal, Rank improvement, Conventional, GS, Post GATE, GATE, 1+G+P Batches. Documents Required ‘* 2 Photographs + Valid photo ID proof * Ex MADE EASY students should produce their MADE EASY ID card Timing 8:00 AM to 12:00 Noon 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM + 68 & Engg Aptitude Books wil NOT be issued + Interested students can avail books by paying the foe of Rs. 2,000) © 011-45124612 @® wowmadecasy.in G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Q.112 What is the Boussinesq's vertical stress at a point 6 m directly below a concentrated load of 2000 KN applied at the ground surface? (63:1 kNIn (0) 268 kN? (c) 11.8 kNim?* (d) 8.8kNim* ‘Ans, (b) - 047792. = 0.4775%2002 = 26.5 san? (6) Q.113 Consider the following statements: 1, Inareinforced concrete member subjet nally applied moment is resisted by an internal couple formed by steel and concrete and their magnitudes. vary with the applied moment, while the lever arm of the internal couple remains constant. 2. Ina prestressed concrete member, the external moment is resisted by an internal couple, but itis the lever arm that changes with the loading conditions and the stress. in steel remains practically constant. Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT? (@) 1 only (b) 2only (©) Both t and2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) rE Q.114 Consider the following statements with regard to Global Positioning Systems (GPS): 1. The position of an abject can be exactly determined by a single satelite 2, The position ofthe observer (moving person or vehicle) on ground is determined by an orbiting satelite 3. Atomic clocks are fixed in satelite in determining travel times. 4, Absolute posilioning, where accuracy of 1 cm to 5 emis needed, depends upon the health of the satelite. Which of the above statements are CORRECT? ton to calculate the positioning of the satellite to aid (a) 1,2and3 only (b) 1,2and 4 only (©) 1,3.and4 only (d) 2,3.and 4 only ‘Ans. (d) Q.115 A temporary bench mark has been established at the soffit of a chelja on a window opening, and its known elevation is 102,405 m above mean sea level. The backsight Used to establish the height of the instrument is by an inverted staff reading of 1.80 m. A foresight reading with the same staff held 1.215 m on a recently (@) 95.42m0. (©) 99.39m0.D (©) 102.42m0.D (@) 105.99m0.0 Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inds Bese Inaeleure for IES, GATE & PSUS Cea au meer Ans. (4) fy (102.405) 1am 215m HI = AL of BM + BS 102.405 + (1.8) = 100.605 m RL of plinth level = HI - FS = 100.605 ~ 1.215 = 99.39 m EET Q.116 A transition curve is to be provided for a circular railway curve 300 m radius, the gauge being 1.5 m with the maximum superelevalion restricted to 15 cm. What is the length of the transition curve for balancing the centrifugal force? (@) 72.3 m (b) 78.1 m (©) 84.2 m (d) 88.3 m Ans. (a) Given R= 300m e= 15cm As per Martin's formula, Vax = 4.35VR = 67 = 66.4 kmph Length of transition curve 35/300 -67 (0.073) (€) (Vina) (0.073) x (18) (66.4) 72.71 m Q.117 Consider the following statements regarding Remote Sensing Survey: 1. Information transfer is accomplished by use of electromagnetic radiation 2. Remote Sensing from space is done by satellites 3. Remote Sensing has no application in Earthquake prediction Which of the above statements are correct ? (@) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (©) 2 and 3 only (@) 1,2 and 3 Ans. (d) Q.118 The rate of equilibrium superelevation on a road is 1. Directly porpotional to the square of vehicle velocity 2. Inversely proportional to the radius of the horizontal curve 8. Directly porportional to the square of the radius of the horizontal curve Which of the above statements are correct? Eee ane G4MADE EASY Inda's Goat atee for ES, GATE & PSUR MIC eo (@) 1 and2only (b) 1 and only (©) 2and3 only (@) 1,2and3 Ans. (a) ve °s > F27R End of Solution Q.119. As per IRC 87 : 2012, the fatigue life of flexible pavement consisting of granular base and sub-base depends upon 1. Resilient Modulus of bituminous layers 2, Horizontal tensile strain at the bottom of bituminous layer 8. Mix design of bitumen 4. Vertical subgrade strain Which of the above statements are correct ? (@) 1, 2 and 4 only (©) 1,3 and 4 only (©) 1,2 and 3 only (@) 2,3 and 4 only Ans. (c) As per IRC 37 : 2012 6.2.2 Fatigue Model oe (1 1 Pe N, = 2.21% 10 (2) el (80%) oe (1? 1

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