SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH

HẢI DƯƠNG LỚP 9 THCS NĂM HỌC 2016-2017

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 07 trang)

Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.

Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết chữ cái A, B, C, hoặc D.
Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài.
(Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu gì.)
_______________________________________________________________

A. LISTENING

I. You will hear five short conversations (twice for each). There is one question for each
conversation. Choose the right answer A, B, C or D. (5 points)
1. What doesn’t the girl like about her photo?
A. her eyes B. her posture C. her dress D. her nose
2. Which is the boy’s next lesson?
A. Math B. Music C. Geography D. Physics
3. What will the woman do first?
A. Paint the walls B. Clean the floor C. Clean the window D. Get the paint ready
4. What do they need to buy for dinner?
A. Some pasta B. Some fish C. Some tomatoes D. Some cheese
5. What did Joe get for her birthday?
A. The CD player B. The bike C. The CD D. The Christmas tree

II. You will hear a man called Ben, from a young people’s organization telling a youth group
about a course they can do on Saturdays. For each question, fill in the missing information in the
numbered space. You will hear the information twice. (5 points)
(NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

Saturday Course

Name of Ben’s organization: (6)____________________

Aim of course: Discovering (7) ___________________
Closest course location for this group: (8) ___________________
Length of course: (9)____________________weeks.
Examples of activities we will do:
- Learn how to climb
- Cut up wood
- Make a (10) __________________
- Design a bird house

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III. You will hear a school teacher talking to a group of students about a national poetry
competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You will
hear the information twice. (5 points) (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL

The competition for 11-14s is called the (11) _____________________Prize

The topic for this year is: (12) _____________________
The title of last year’s winning poem was: (13)_____________________
This year the prize money available is : (14)__________________ euros
For further help, see the : (15)____________________

IV. You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called Krispy
with his sister Mel. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. (5 points)

16. When Nick and Mel were younger, ______

A. they played music in a band with his father.
B. like their mother, their father never took them to live concerts.
C. their mother discouraged them from playing music professionally.
D. they studied music together in a band at school.
17. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, ______
A. they knew how to mix the styles effectively.
B. they had the same influence on music.
C. they didn’t want to work together in a band at first.
D. they both loved international music especially bands from Africa.
18. The band Krispy started after ______
A. Nick and Mel began studying music at a music school for the gifted.
B. Nick and Mel wanted to join a band after watching them play live.
C. Nick and Mel advertised for band members when they gave live concerts.
D. They received a request to play music together with two other students.
19. In the band’s first year, ______
A. they only wrote and practised playing music at Nick’s home.
B. the local audiences loved the music they played.
C. their parents helped them to sign a music contract.
D. they started to tour around the country after two successful songs.
20. What does Nick say about life in the band today?
A. The older members look after Nick and Mel.
B. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.
C. Their brother and sister give great care to them.
D. Sometimes they stay in one place more than a fortnight to relax.

B. GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTION
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each blank. ( 10 points)
21. Peter: “ How would you like your steak done?” Mary “ ______, please”.
A. Some more B. Just a little C. With care D. Well done

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22. He’d prefer to stay at the hotel room, sleeping _____ one more day on that crowded beach.
A. than spend B. rather than spend C. more than spending D. to spending
23. My parents never allow ______ out late at night without their permission.
A. to stay B. to have stayed C. staying D. having stayed
24. It was _____ that he was kept in hospital for nearly a month.
A. so a serious accident B. such serious an accident
C. so serious an accident D. a such serious accident
25. Mai: “What are you going to do this weekend, Lan?” Lan: “ ______”
A. I haven’t planned yet. B. What a great idea!
C. I don’t feel like going out. D. I went to the beach with my dad.
26. The noise from the karaoke bar nearby was unbearable. It kept me wide ______ last night.
A. wake B. waken C. awaken D. awake
27. Uncle Tom: “Remember to give my best regards to your parents, Bob.” Bob: “ ______.”
A. Yes, let’s B. Sure, I will
C. That’s very kind of you to say so D. That was the least I could do
28. My close friend is always the first student in the class to ______ the answers to my math teacher’s
questions.
A. come up with B. find ways to C. get round to D. go in for
29. I had no problem at all with my work yesterday. ______, I would have given you a ring.
A. Furthermore B. Otherwise C. Nonetheless D. Consequently
30. He had to take a week _____ to unwind himself after such a stressful period of hard work.
A. up B. over C. off D. behind

II. Use the correct form of the word given at the end of each sentence below. (5 points)

31. That man is widely known as a man of _______ wealth in our town. (TELL)
32. The government has been making every effort to ______ the remotest regions in the country.
( ELECTRIC)
33. The headmaster gave some ______ words to all the students who were about to take part in an
important exam. (COURAGE)
34. Almost all people believe that______ is the very essence of a true and lifelong friendship. (SELF)
35. We all know that we can count on your ______ cooperation and support. (FAIL)

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points)

36. The discovery of gold in the rugged mountains of Neveda in 1858 attracted many fortune-seekers
A B C
out the area.
D
37. Having not been to the sea before, the children couldn’t fall asleep due to their excitement.
A B C D
38. If he paid a little more attention to his accounting work in the first place, he would not be in the
A B C D
red now.
39. The food that my mum is cooking in the kitchen smells deliciously.
A B C D
40. The candidate is nervous waiting in the corridor for his turn in the interview.
A B C D

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C. READING
I. Read the following pieces of information and choose the best answer that has the closest
meaning to the information in the box. ( 5 points)
41.
A. Staff can take train to the shop on Tuesdays and Fridays.
WE ARE CLOSED B. The shop is not open twice a week because of the train.
FOR STAFF TRAINING ON C. The shop is closed by trained staff.
TUESDAYS AND FRIDAYS D. The shop is open 5 days a week.
42.
A. You must get on the train to Stevenage Station in
Cambridge.
PASSENGERS FOR CAMBRIDGE B. You have to get off one train and get on another if you
CHANGE AT STEVENAGE want to go to Cambridge.
STATION C. You can get off in Cambridge to change to Stevenage
Station.
D. You have to leave Cambridge to get to Stevenage Station.
43.

WE REGRET A. If you spend more than $10, you must pay by credit card.
WE CAN NOT ACCEPT B. We will regret if you pay by credit card.
PAYMENT BY CREDIT CARD C. You have to use cash if you spend less than $10.
FOR SALES OF UNDER $10 D. We prefer cash payment for large sales.

44.
A. You can not travel by train if you buy your ticket at the
ticket office.
TICKET OFFICE CLOSED, B. You can not buy your ticket at the booking office today.
BUY YOUR TICKET C. Tomorrow you will not have to buy ticket to get on the
ON THE TRAIN TODAY train.
D. Get on the train without paying, you will be kept at the
office.
45.
A. You have to pay in cash for all the purchase.
NO CHEQUES OR B. We will not check credit cards.
CREDIT CARDS ACCEPTED C. Only credit cards are used here.
D. Both cheques and credit cards are permitted.

II. Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill in each blank. ( 10 points)

Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually ___(46)___ to be
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find
that the phones are means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and
___(47)___.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals
worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may ___(48)___ health problems
from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile
phone companies are worried about the negative ___(49)___ of such ideas. They say that there is no
proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

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 On the ___(50)___ hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of those
____(51)___ use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be ___(52)___
with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire ___(53)___ a young
age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the
name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of
his working week, for a ___(54) of years. His family doctor ____(55)___ his mobile phone use, but his
employer's doctor didn't agree.
46. A. considered B. thought C. regarded D. viewed
47. A. connect B. connected C. connection D. connecting
48. A. find B. arise C. cause D. suffer
49. A. public B. publication C. publicity D. publicizing
50. A. other B. one C. first D. following
51. A. in whom B. whom C. whose D. who
52. A. explored B. detected C. investigated D. searched
53. A. from B. with C. at D. on
54. A. few B. little C. great deal D. couple
55. A. blamed B. demanded C. accused D. criticised

III. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of
the following questions. (10 points)

As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were
reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch
settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas
- was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint
Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient
children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the
religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.

Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit
from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem
introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn
sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened
the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living in the North Pole and assisted by elves, the
modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become
such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New
York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a
Santa Claus”.

56. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The transformation of Santa Claus B. The origin of Christmas
C. The source of a famous poem about Santa D. The entertaining attributes of Santa
57. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a ______.
A. tall man who could walk through the air B. fat, jolly, old man
C. religious figure D. fat man riding a white horse
58. The word “evolved” in the first line is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. developed B. originated C. derived D. appeared

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59. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as______.
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter
B. a good old man with less religious character
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas
D. a jolly man with his accompanying elf on horseback
60. The word “attributes” in line 7 of the first paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. symbols of a person B. natural qualities
C. profound effects D. outer appearance
61. 1823 was mentioned as a year when ______.
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem
B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York with his elf
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed
62. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem,
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had the ability to fly and was often used to amuse children.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry especially ones posted in the newspaper.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
63. The word “prominent” in the line 7 of the second paragraph is CLOSEST in meaning to
______.
A. customary B. realistic C. important D. evident
64. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that______.
A. the New York Sun was popular with children
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time
C. newspapers are unreliable and ineffective
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a writer of the New York Sun
65. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Santa Claus in North America?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary kindly old man based on legendary figures.
B. Living in the the USA, Santa Claus with his assistants visited children at Christmas.
C. Santa Claus was a real figure producing and giving gifts to children in northern America.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on all the qualities of Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.

IV. Read the following passage and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False
(F) Put a tick in the right box ( 5 points)
The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the
decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed
in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, Winterthur has been
a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929
and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect
of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they
were vacated only a short while ago - whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent
residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in
which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country
house, it is an organic structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the
visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the
American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the
achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed this

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current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in
an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them
more meaning for the viewers. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period
room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to
assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
True False
66. The Winterthur Museum is one of a few museums of decorative arts in the USA.
67. The museum was under a great deal of repair during the period from 1929 to
1931.
68. The museum does not look like a typical museum because people are still living
there.
69. Objects of decorative arts are displayed in a vivid and interesting way in the
period room.
70. The second paragraph explains a term that is mentioned in the first paragraph.

D.WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using the words given as the beginings. ( 5 points)
71. He had only had time to put up his umbrella when it started to pour with rain.
Hardly _______________________________________________________________.
72. They think that the two boys broke the window on purpose.
The window ___________________________________________________________.
73. It was careless of you to have allowed your fourteen-year-boy to ride a motorbike.
You should ___________________________________________________________.
74. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.
We have booked five rooms, only _________________________________________.
75. We find it hard not to laugh whenever he appears on the screen.
We can’t _____________________________________________________________.

II. Your English friend, Thomas has written to ask you about one of the heritage sites in Vietnam.
Write a letter (of about 60-80 words) to introduce him/her the site you find the most impressive.
( 10 points)

Your lettter may include

+ Location of the site
+ What activities can be done
+ Best time to visit the site
+ What is special about the site.
You must sign your name as Nguyen Thanh Binh

III. Your school has some extracurricula clubs like Green club, Sports club and Charity club.
Which one would you like to attend? Write a passage (of about 140-160 words) to explain why you
would like to be a member of that club. ( 15 points)

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 U ND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG ĐÁP ÁN VÀ I U ĐI M
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 9 THCS
NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017
ĐỀ CHÍNH THƯC MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

A. LISTENING(20 POINTS)
I. (5 points)
1.D 2.A 3. B 4. C 5. A
II. (5 points)
6. Nature 7. wildlife 8. forest 9.12/ twelve 10. fire
III. (5 points)
11. Tiger 12. Change 13. Trains 14. 2000 15. website
IV. (5 points)
16. C 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A

B. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY- LANGUAGE FUNCTION (20 POINTS)

I. (10 points)
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. A
26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C
II. (5 points)
31. untold 32. electrify 33. encouraging 34. unselfishness 35. unfailing
III. (5 points)
36. D 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. B
C. READING (30 POINTS)
I. (5 points)
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. A
II. (10 points)
46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. A
51. D 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. A
III. (10 points)
56. A 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. B
61. D 62. D 63. C 64. B 65. A
IV. (5 points)
66. F 67. T 68. F 69. T 70. T
D. WRITING (30 POINTS)
I. Rewrite the following sentences ( 5 points)
71. Hardly had he put up his umbrella when it started to pour with rain.
72. The window is thought to have been broken on purpose by the two boys.
73. You should not have allowed your fourteen-year-boy to ride a motorbike.
74. We have booked five rooms, only two of which have air conditioning.
75. We can’t help laughing whenever he appears on the screen.
II. (10 points).
1. Form:
- Correct form of an informal letter (1.0 point)
2. Task fulfillment:
- Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points)
- Well-organized (2.0 points)
3. Language:
- Accurate grammar (2.0 points)

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 - Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points)
- Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point)
III. (15 points).
Score of 14-15: A passage ( A paragraph or an essay) at this level:
 shows very effective writing skills
 is very well organized and well developed
 uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
 displays consistent ability in the use of language
 demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level:
 shows effective writing skills
 is well organized and well developed
 uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas
 displays consistent ability in the use of language
 demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice
Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level:
 may address some parts of the task more effectively than others
 is generally well organized and developed
 uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea
 displays ability in the use of the language
 shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary
Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level:
 addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task
 is adequately organized and developed
 uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea
 shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure
 may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear
Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:
 inadequate organization or development
 poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations
 a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms
 numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage
Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following
weaknesses:
 serious disorganization or underdevelopment
 little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics
 serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage
 serious problems with focus
Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:
 may be incoherent
 may be undeveloped
 may contain severe and persistent writing errors
Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:
 contains no response
 merely copies the topic
 is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

A. LISTENING
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I. You will hear five short conversations (twice for each). There is one question for each
conversation. Choose the right answer A, B or C. (5.0 points)
1. What doesn’t the girl like about her photo?
A. her eyes B. her nose C. her dress
2. Which is the boy’s next lesson?
A. Geography B. Music C. Math
3. What will the woman do first?
A. Paint the walls B. Clean the window C. Clean the floor
4. What do they need to buy for dinner?
A. Some tomatoes B. Some fish C. Some cheese
5. What did Joe get for her birthday?
A. The CD B. The bike C. The CD player

II. You will hear a man called Ben, from a young people’s organization telling a youth group
about a course they can do on Saturdays. For each question, fill in the missing information in the
numbered space. You will hear the conversation twice. (5.0 points)

Saturday Course
Name of Ben’s organization: (6)____________________
Aim of course: Discovering (7) ___________________
Closest course location for this group: (8) ___________________
Length of course: (9)____________________weeks.
Examples of activities we will do:
- Learn how to climb
- Cut up wood
- Make a (10) __________________
- Design a bird house

III. You will hear a school teacher talks to a group of students about a national poetry
competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. You will
hear the conversation twice. (5.0 points)

POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL

The competition for 11-14s is called the (11) _____________________Prize
The topic for this year is: (12) _____________________
The title of last year’s winning poem was: (13)_____________________
This year the prize money available is : (14)__________________ euros
For further help, see the : (15)____________________

IV. You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called Krispy
with his sister Mel. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. (5.0 points)

16. When Nick and Mel were younger, ______.

A. they played music in a band with his father.
B. their mother discouraged them from playing music professionally.

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C. unlike their mother, their father never took them to live concerts.
D. they studied music together in a band at school.
17. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, ______.
A. they knew how to mix the styles effectively.
B. they had the same influence on music.
C. they didn’t want to work together in a band at first.
D. they both loved international music especially bands for Africa.
18. The band Krispy started after ______.
A. Nick and Mel began studying music at a music school for the gifted.
B. They received a request to play music together with two other students.
C. Nick and Mel advertised for band members when they gave live concerts.
D. Nick and Mel wanted to join a band after watching them playing live.
19. In the band’s first year, ______.
A. they only wrote and practised playing music at Nick’s home.
B. the local audiences loved the music they played.
C. their parents helped them to sign a music contract.
D. they started to tour around the country after two successful songs.
20. What does Nick say about life in the band today?
A. The older members look after Nick and Mel.
B. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.
C. Their brother and sister give great care to them.
D. Sometimes they stay in one place more than a fortnight to relax.

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