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Extension 1 Solutions PDF
Extension 1 Solutions PDF
Extension 1 Solutions PDF
Mathematics Extension 1
SOLUTIONS
Disclaimer: These solutions may contain small errors. If any are found, please feel free to
contact either Carrotsticks or Trebla on www.boredofstudies.org, regarding them.
Thanks: To Trebla, for his many hours spent verifying solutions and suggesting alternate
methods.
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. D
Brief Explanations
Question 5 Angle between two lines formula, and let the expression be 1 .
Question 6 Standard permutations problem. Note that they are in a circle, so it’s n 1! .
Question 9 Negative quartic, with a triple root at the origin and a single root at x 4 .
–1–
Written Response
Question 11 (a)
Let t tan
2
2t 1 t2
t
1 t2 1 t2
Re-arrange:
2t 1 t 2 t 1 t 2
t3 t
t3 t2 t 1 0
t t 2 1 t 2 1 0
t 1 t 2 1 0
t 1 t 1 0
2
t 1, 1
tan 1, 1
2
Solve for 0 :
2
3
,
2 4 4
3
So therefore we have , .
2 2
–2–
Question 11 (b) (i)
11!
So the number of permutations is .
2!3!
There are 4 vowels and 7 consonants, and the vowels are to be grouped together.
Example: HCL(OIOO)PMHR
8!
Arrange all the consonants and the group (OIOO) to get . Note we have 2! in the
2!
denominator because we have 2 H’s.
4!
Arrange the vowels in the group, noting that we have three O’, to get .
3!
8! 4!
So therefore the answer is .
2! 3!
We will count the number of gaps between consonants, and then insert the vowels into these
gaps.
We have 7 consonants, so therefore 8 gaps. We insert 4 vowels into these 8 gaps, and thus we
8
have .
4
4!
We must now permute the vowels to acquire .
3!
7!
Permute the consonants to acquire .
2!
8 4! 7!
So therefore the answer is .
4 3! 2!
–3–
Question 11 (c)
dx
Let u tan 1 x such that du .
1 x2
u 1 x
4
u 0 x 0
cos tan x
1 2 1
4
dx 2
cos u du
0 1 x 2
0
14
cos 2u 1 du
2 0
1 1 4
sin 2u u
2 2 0
11
22 4
1
2
8
Question 11 (d)
P x x p x p Q x Ax B
P p Ap B p 1
P q Aq B q 2
1 2 :
A p q p q A 1
pB p B 0
–4–
Question 11 (e)
h h
From AOC , OA and similarly in BOC , we have OB .
tan tan
d
2
tan tan
h2 h2
d2
tan tan
2 2
1 1
h2 d
2
tan tan
2 2
tan 2 tan 2
h2 d
2
tan tan
2 2
And therefore:
d 2 tan 2 tan 2
h2
tan 2 tan 2
Since 90 , 90 , we have tan 0, tan 0 . Also, we must have h 0 and hence:
d tan tan
h
tan 2 tan 2
–5–
Question 12 (a)
k
When x 0, x 3 , so we have 3 and thus 3b k .
b
k
When x 10, x 2 , so we have 2 and thus 20 2b k .
10 b
60 d 1 2 60
So therefore x and thus V . Integrating both sides with respect to x
x 20 dx 2 x 20
yields:
1 2
V 60ln x 20 C
2
50 60 ln 30 C
C 50 60 ln 30
1 2
V 60 ln x 20 50 60 ln 30
2
V 2 120 ln x 20 120 ln 30 100
x 20
120 ln 100
30
Let V 17 :
x 20
100 17
2
120 ln
30
x 20
120 ln 189
30
x 20
ln 1.575
30
x 20
4.83
30
x 124.92m
–6–
Alternatively
From
Substitute x 125 :
V 2 289.064
V 17.001
–7–
Question 12 (b) (i)
Base Case: n 2 .
2
1 1 1 62 8 1
LHS 2 RHS
p 2 p 1 2 1 3
2
8 3 24 3
Inductive Hypothesis: n k .
k
1 k 1 3k 2
p
p 2
2
1
4k k 1
Inductive Step: k k 1 .
Required to prove:
k 1
1 k 3k 5
p
p 2
2
1 4 k 1 k 2
k 1
1
LHS
p 2 p 1
2
k
1 1
p 2 p 1 k 12 1
2
k 1 3k 2 1
4k k 1 k 1 1
2
k 1 3k 2 1
4k k 1 k k 2
k 1 3k 2 k 2 4 k 1
4k k 1 k 2
3k 3 5k 2 4k 4 4k 4
4k k 1 k 2
3k 3 5k 2
4k k 1 k 2
k 3k 5
4 k 1 k 2
RHS
–8–
Question 12 (b) (ii)
n
1
lim S n lim
n n
p2 p 1
2
lim
n 1 3n 2
n 4n n 1
1 2
1 3
lim
n n
n 1
4 1
n
3
4
Method #1:
The equation of the normal is given to be x py ap p 2 2 . But we know that the point T
2at apt 2 ap p 2 2
2at apt 2 ap3 2ap
Re-arrange:
–9–
Method #2:
The equation of the normal intersects the parabola twice, but we know one of the roots is
x 2ap . We could easily do it the other way around, by substituting x into x 2 4ay , but that
would be quite tedious.
x py ap p 2 2
y a p2 2
x
p
Hence we have:
x
x 2 4a a p 2 2
p
4a 2 p 2 2
4a
x
p
Re-arranging:
x 4a 2 p 2 2 0
4a
x2
p
4a
Sum of roots is x1 x2 . But we already know that one of the roots is x 2ap and the
p
other is x 2at , so therefore we have:
4a
2ap 2at
p
2
pt
p
– 10 –
Method #3:
ap 2 at 2
PT
2ap 2at
a p t p t
2a p t
pt
2
dy dy dp
dx dx dp
2ap
2a
p
Hence
pt
p 1
2
p 2 pt 2
p 2 pt 2 0
So we have:
p 2 pt 2 0
q 2 qt 2 0
p2 q2 t p q 0
p q p q t p q 0 ... note that p q
pqt 0
– 11 –
Question 12 (c) (iii)
p2 p p q 2 0
p 2 p 2 pq 2 0
pq 2
P B
A T
O
Let PBT
Therefore a circle can be constructed through points B, P and T such that BT is a diameter
(converse of Thale’s Theorem). This implies that AT is tangential to the circle (also since
ATB 90 ).
– 12 –
Therefore PBT PQA .
Hence PBCQ is a cyclic quadrilateral (converse of exterior angle from cyclic quadrilateral
theorem).
Alternatively
Let PTA
Hence by the converse of the Alternate Segment Theorem, we have the result.
Alternatively
We can simply observe that AQT 90 , since it is an angle subtended from a diameter. It
follows, by supplementary angles, that TQC 90 and hence the result by the converse of
Thale’s Theorem (Angle subtended from diameter is 90 ).
– 13 –
Question 13 (a)
dT
We begin with the differential equation k E T .
dt
dT
k dt
T E
k dt
T0 T E t0
Tn tn
ln T E kt
T0 t0
ln Tn E ln T0 E k tn t0
T E
ln 0 k t n t0
Tn E
And hence:
T E
ln 0
Tn E
k
t n t0
But recall that t0 0 , hence:
1 T0 E
k ln
tn Tn E
– 14 –
Question 13 (b) (i)
a 2
b2 x 2 a 2 b2
a 2 x 2 b2 x 2 a 2 b2
b2 a 2 x 2 a 2 b2 x 2
We carefully square root both sides, knowing that the inequality is still preserved.
b2 a 2 x 2 a 2 b2 x 2
1 1
a b x 2 2 2
b a2 x2
2
Hence f x g x .
Alternatively
Let f x g x :
1 1
a b x 2 2 2
b a2 x2
2
a 2 b2 x2 b2 a 2 x2
a 2 b2 x 2 b2 a 2 x 2
x 2 a 2 b2 a 2 b2
Hence x 2 1 and thus 0 x 1 , since x 0 . The other direction of the inequality follows.
– 15 –
Question 13 (b) (ii)
1
1 1
V 2 2 2 2
dx
0 b a x a b x
2 2
1
ax bx
tan tan 1
1
ab b a 0
a b
tan 1 tan 1
ab b a
a b
tan 1 b a
ab a b
1
b a
a 2 b2
tan 1
ab 2 ab
k
Vk
1 1
2 2 2 2 dx
1 a b x b a 2 x 2
k
bx ax
tan 1 tan 1
ab a b 1
bk ak b a
tan 1 tan 1 tan 1 tan 1
ab a b a b
bk ak
Note that as k , tan 1 and tan 1 .
a 2 b 2
Hence:
b a
Vk tan 1 tan 1
ab a b
1 a b
tan tan 1
ab b a
Since A B , we have:
nt nt nt
x A cos 2 sin 2 B A sin 2
2 2 2
nt
A B A sin 2
2
B A
A 1 cos nt
2
A B B A
cos nt
2 2
B A
x n sin nt
2
B A
x n2 cos nt
2
A B
n 2 x
2
Hence, the particle moves in Simple Harmonic Motion, with centre of motion being
A B
x .
2
– 17 –
Alternatively
1 cos 2 1 cos 2
Using the results cos 2 and sin 2 , we have:
2 2
nt nt
x A cos 2 B sin 2
2 2
A B
1 cos nt 1 cos nt
2 2
1 1
A B A B cos nt
2 2
n
x A B sin nt
2
n2
x A B cos nt
2
A B
n 2 x
2
– 18 –
Question 13 (c) (ii)
A B B A
Observe that the centre of motion is x and amplitude is .
2 2
A B B A
One endpoint is x1 B.
2 2
A B B A
The other endpoint is x2 A.
2 2
Hence A x B .
l 1
sin sin APO
So:
l 1
sin sin 90
1
cos
si n
l
cos
– 19 –
Question 13 (d) (ii) (1)
d d dl d
Using the Chain Rule, we have S .
dt dl dt dl
dl cos
d
dt
d dl
dl dt
cos 2
S
cos
Let 2 :
cos 2 2
S
cos
cos 2
S
cos
S cos
– 20 –
Question 13 (d) (ii) (2)
d
We will use the formula .
d
dv
It may seem unrecognisable now, but it is actually more commonly known as a v ,
dx
which is much more well-known (as it is taught that way).
d
d
d cos
2
S
d cos
2 cos sin
S
cos
2 cos sin
S
cos
Let 2 :
2 cos sin
S
cos
2 cos sin
S
cos
S 2sin
sin
But l and when 2 ,
cos
sin 2
l
cos
2sin cos
cos
2sin
Hence:
2 cos sin
S
cos
2 cos sin
S
cos
S l
– 21 –
Alternatively
d
dt
d d
d dt
d
S cos
d
cos 2
But recall that S
cos
d 2 cos sin
S
d cos
S
sin 2 2
cos
Hence :
S 2 sin 2 2
Substitute 2 :
S 2 sin 2
2S 2 sin cos
But recall that S cos . Also, similarly to the alternative solution above, l 2sin .
Hence S l
– 22 –
Question 14 (a) (i)
n
Coefficient of x k from RHS:
k
m n m
x 0 x k
0 k
m n m
x1 x k 1
1 k 1
m n m
x 2 x k 2
2 k 2
...
m n m
x k x 0
k 0
n m n n m n n m n n m n
...
0 k 1 k 1 2 k 2 k 0
– 23 –
Question 14 (a) (ii)
2n n n 2n n n 2n n n 2n n n 2n
...
0 n 1 n 1 2 n 2 n 0 n
Simplifying this:
n n n n n n n n 2n
...
0 n 1 n 1 2 n 2 n 0 n
n n
But recall the identity :
k nk
Therefore:
2 2 2 2
n n n n 2n
...
0 1 2 n n
– 24 –
Question 14 (a) (iii)
n n
But recall that . Applying it, we have:
k nk
2 2
2
n
n n n n n
r n n r rn n r
r 0 r
n
r 1
r 1
2 2
n
n n
n
n r
r 1 r r 1 r
2 2
nn n
n
And this is possible, since r r .
r 1 r r 0 r
2n
n
n
– 25 –
Alternatively
2 2 2 2 2 2
n n n n n n
2 ... n 2 ... n
1 2 n n 1 n 2 n n
2 2 2 2
n n n n
n n 1 n 2 ...
0 1 2 n 1
n n n n n
2 2 2 2 2 2
n
n n n 2 ...
0 1 1 2 2 n 1
n 2 n 2 n n
2 2
n
2
n
2
n ... 2 ... n 1
0 1 n 1 1 2 n 1
n
n
2
n n 2 n n 2
k n k
k 1 k k 0 k k 1 k
n
n
2
n n 2
2 k n
k 1 k k 0 k
2
n
n
n 2n
k
k 1 k 2 n
– 26 –
Question 14 (b) (i)
Let y 0 :
1
gt 2 Vn t sin 0
2
1
gt Vn sin 0 ... since t 0 is when it is at the origin
2
2V sin
t n
g
2V0 sin
So therefore, we have t0 .
g
Similarly:
2k nV0 sin
tn
g
– 27 –
n
2k r V0 sin
TV0 lim
n g
r 0
2V0 sin n
lim k r
g n
r 0
2V sin
... since k 1
1
0
g 1 k
2V sin
0
g 1 k
x0 V0 t0 cos
2V0 sin
V0 cos
g
2V0 2 sin cos
g
V0 2 sin 2
g
Similarly,
k 2 n V0 2 sin 2
xn
g
– 28 –
n
k 2 r V0 2 sin 2
R lim
n g
r 0
V0 2 sin 2 n
lim k 2 r
g n
r 0
V0 2 sin 2
... since k 1
1
g 1 k 2
V0 2 sin 2
g 1 k 2
2VR sin
We know that TR .
g
So placing it as a ratio:
2VR sin
TR g
TV0 2V0 sin
g 1 k
2VR sin g 1 k
g 2V0 sin
VR
1 k
V0
VR
So we must now find .
V0
– 29 –
VR 2 sin 2 V0 2 sin 2
g g 1 k 2
V0 2
VR 2
1 k 2
VR 2 1
V0 2 1 k 2
VR 1
V0 1 k 1 k
Hence, substituting it in:
TR VR
1 k
TV0 V0
1 k
1 k 1 k
1 k
1 k
1 k
1 k
We know that 0 k 1.
1 k
Hence 1 k 1, and 1 k 1 and therefore 0 1.
1 k
1 k
Square rooting both sides yields the same bounds, so 0 1.
1 k
TR 1 k T
But recall that , so therefore 0 R 1 , and hence 0 TR TV0 .
TV0 1 k TV0
Physically, this means that it will always take less time to get the ball to a location via
landing it there in a single larger trajectory, as opposed to bouncing it there with a smaller
one.
– 30 –
– 31 –