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UNIVERSIDAD DEL VALLE

FACULTAD DE INGENIERIA
PROGRAMA DE MEJORAMIENTO CONTINUO Y ESCUELA DE CIENCIAS DEL LENGUAJE

SIMULACRO SABER-PRO AREA DE INGLÉS

La Facultad de Ingeniería en conjunto con el Programa de Mejoramiento Continuo y la Escuela de
Ciencias del Lenguaje, han preparado el presente simulacro que tiene como objetivo familiarizarlo
con el tipo de prueba que encontrará. También se pretende identificar las debilidades para
implementar algunas estrategias que le permitan obtener un buen resultado a nivel nacional.

El simulacro consta de dos partes. La PRIMERA corresponde a la prueba SABER PRO (antes
ECAES) y consta de 45 preguntas para responder en máximo 60 minutos. La SEGUNDA corresponde
a una prueba diseñada para medir el nivel de comprensión en Textos Académicos según los
lineamientos seguidos en los cursos de Lectura de Textos Académicos en Inglés I y II. Para ésta
dispondrá de máximo 40 minutos.

Parte 1

Preguntas 1 - 5
¿Dónde puede ver estos avisos?

En las preguntas 1 - 5, marque A,B ó C en su hoja de respuestas.

Ejemplo:

A in a station
0 PLEASE DO NOT B in a café Respuesta C
FEED THE ANIMALS C in a zoo

A in a high school building

1 B in a building site
C in a grocery store

A in a mine site
2 B in a bank
C in a supermarket

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A in a traffic light
3 B in a drive-in restaurant
C in a service station

A in a dining room
4 B in a kitchen
C in a park

A in a laboratory
5 B in the library
C in a museum

Parte 2

Preguntas 6 - 10
Lea las descripciones de la columna de la izquierda (6 -10) y las palabras de la
columna de la derecha (A-H). ¿Cuál palabra (A-H) concuerda con la
descripción de cada frase de la izquierda (6-10)? En las preguntas (6–10),
marque la letra correcta (A-H) en su hoja de respuestas.

Ejemplo:

0 You drink . . . Respuesta H

6 You watch… A on a computer

7 You see… B TV
8 You drive… C a car

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9 You work… D an invisible particle

10 You ride… E a movie
F a motorcycle
G a CD player
H coffee

Parte 3

Preguntas 11 - 15
Complete las cinco conversaciones.
En las preguntas 11 - 15, marque A, B o C en su hoja de respuestas.

Ejemplo:

11 She’s from India A Not at all.

B Yes, please.
C How interesting.

12 I like exercising A You are, too.

B I do, too
C I can, too.

13 I hope Emily will come on time. A I hope she hasn’t.

B She usually gets it.
C I’m sure she will.

14 I’ve just passed the exam. A It doesn’t matter.

B Here you are.
C That’s very good.

15 When do you go to the gym? A At school.

B In the evenings.
C in the library.

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Parte 4

Preguntas 16 – 23
Lea el texto de la siguiente parte.

Escoja la palabra adecuada (A, B o C) para cada espacio.

En las preguntas 16 – 23, marque A, B o C en su hoja de respuestas

What is an Environmental Crime?

Environmental crime (0)………. generally defined as crime (16)

………. is committed against the environment. Most law
enforcement agencies break environmental crime down into two
categories: pollution and threats to endangered species. Growing
awareness of environmental issues led to a crackdown on
environmental crime in (17)………. nations during the twentieth
century, and major law enforcement agencies (18)……….
environmental crime very seriously. Not only does it harm the
environment, but (19)……….. often has an impact on the economy and on general
quality of life as well.

When environmental crime is committed, it is not generally out of a desire to destroy

the environment, (20)………. it has the end effect of causing environmental damage. In
the case of pollution, environmental crime can take the form of dumping toxic
material, failing to secure toxins (21)………., or inadvertent leakage of toxins into the
natural environment, among other things. As a result of the release of toxins, air,
land, or soil are polluted. In some cases, pollution may directly cause death or serious
environmental harm, as is the case (22)……….chemical spills cause health problems in
small communities or kill (23)………. animal populations. The impact of pollution may
also be more subtle and long lasting, as was seen with the chemical DDT, which did
not always kill animals outright, but did contribute to the decline of many animal
populations.

Ejemplo:

0 A were B are C is

Respuesta C

16 A which B who C where

17 A more B many C most

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18 A taken B take C took

19 A it B they C its

20 A e.g. B through C although

21 A correctly B correction C correct

22 A when B where C whom

23 A of B off C up

Parte 5

Preguntas 24 – 30
Lea el artículo y luego responda las preguntas.

En las preguntas 24 – 30, marque A, B o C en su hoja de respuestas.

Melvin Calvin was born in St. Paul, Minnesota, April 8, 1911, of

Russian emigrant parents. He received the B.S. degree in Chemistry in
1931 at the Michigan College of Mining and Technology, and the Ph.D.
degree in Chemistry from the University of Minnesota in 1935. He spent
the academic years 1935-1937 at the University of Manchester,
England. He began his academic career at the University of California at
Berkeley in 1937, as an instructor, and has been a full professor since
1947. He has served as Director of the big-organic chemistry group in
the Lawrence Radiation Laboratory since 1946. This group became the Laboratory of
Chemical Bio dynamics in 1960.

John Muir (21 April 1838 – 24 December 1914) was a Scottish-born

American naturalist, author, and early advocate of preservation of
wilderness in the United States. His letters, essays, and books telling
of his adventures in nature, especially in the Sierra Nevada mountains
of California, have been read by millions. His activism helped to save
the Yosemite Valley, Sequoia National Park and other wilderness
areas. The Sierra Club, which he founded, is now one of the most
important conservation organizations in the United States. One of the
most well-known hiking trails in the U.S., the 211-mile John Muir
Trail, was named in his honor. Other places named in his honor are Muir Woods
National Monument, Muir Beach, John Muir College, and Muir Glacier.

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George Perkins Marsh (March 15, 1801 – July 23, 1882), an

American diplomat and philologist, is considered by some to be
America's first environmentalist. The Marsh-Billings-Rockefeller
National Historical Park in Vermont takes its name, in part, from Marsh.

Born in Woodstock, Vermont to a prominent family. His father, Charles

Marsh, had been a member of the U.S. House of Representatives.
George Marsh graduated from Phillips Academy, Andover,
Massachusetts, in 1816 and from Dartmouth College with highest
honors in 1820, was admitted to the bar in 1825, and practiced law in Burlington,
Vermont; he also devoted himself to philological studies. In 1835 he was appointed to
the Executive Council of Vermont, and from 1843 to 1849 was a Whig representative
in Congress. In 1849 President Zachary Taylor appointed Marsh United States minister
resident in Turkey.

Ejemplo:

0 Who devoted two years to an European University? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

Respuesta B

24 Who was born and died in two different centuries? A John Muir
B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

25 Who was graduated in chemistry under age 22? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

26 Who wasn`t concerned about all living things occurring naturally on Earth?
A John Muir
B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

27 Who got a full-time position in an American University? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

28 Who wasn`t born in the United States? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

29 Whose name has been given to several locations? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins
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30 Who had a diplomatic position? A John Muir

B Melvin Calvin
C George Perkins

Parte 6
Preguntas 31-35
Lea el artículo y luego responda las preguntas.

En las preguntas 31-35, marque A, B, C o D en su hoja de respuestas.

Can chimpanzees speak?

Only humans have a spoken, symbolic language; scientists have
long thought that nonhuman primates had much less
sophisticated Communications Systems. True, but line
chimpanzees use gestures and many voice sounds in the wild,
while others apes use sounds to communicate territorial
information. Chimpanzees seem to have a natural talent for learning symbolic
language under controlled conditions. A famous chimpanzee named Washoe was
trained to communicate with humans, using no less than 175 sign language gestures
similar to those of the American Sign Language. After more than a year Washoe could
associate particular signs with activities, such as eating and drinking. Another
chimpanzee named Sarah was taught to read and write with plastic symbols and
acquired a vocabulary of 130 different words, to the extent that she obeyed
sequences of written instructions given with the symbols. But such experiments in
communication with primates are a far cry from versatility and grace of human
speech.

31 According to the passage, all of the following are true of chimpanzee

communication EXCEPT

A It is less sophisticated than human language

B It is observable in the wild.
C It uses gestures
D It is as versatile as human communication

32 The passage states that the ability of chimpanzees to learn symbolic language in
certain situations is due to

A their territoriality
B their use of gestures and voice sounds in the wild
C their natural talent
D their use of American Sign Language

33 According to the passage, the chimpanzee Washoe

A was able to associate some signs with activities after a year

B used more than 175 signs to communicate
C was fluent in the American Sign Language
D could read and write anything

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34 The passage states that Sarah’s ability to read and write was judged by

A the size of her vocabulary

B her capacity in using the plastic symbols
C her obedience to instructions given in the symbol language
D the number of symbol sequences that she could manipulate

35 According to the author, spoken, symbolic language is

A not a sophisticated communication system

B only available to humans
C shared by both humans and chimpanzees
D similar to the language used by chimpanzees

Parte 7
Preguntas 36 - 45
Lea el texto de la siguiente parte.

Escoja la palabra adecuada (A,B, C o D) para cada espacio.

En las preguntas 36 - 45, marque A,B, C o D en su hoja de respuestas.

Ejemplo
0 A are B was C were D is

Respuesta B

Manhattan

The area that is now Manhattan (0) ………. long inhabited by the Lenape Indians. In
1524, some Lenape in canoes (36) ………. the Florentine Giovanni da Verrazzano, the
first European explorer to pass New York Harbor, (37) ………. he may not have (38)
………. the harbor past the Narrows. It was not until the voyage of Henry Hudson, an
Englishman (39) ………. worked for the Dutch East India Company, that the area was
(40) ……….. Hudson (41) ………. across Manhattan Island and the native people living
there in 1609, and (42) ………. up the river that would later bear his name, the Hudson
River, until he arrived at the site of present day Albany.
A permanent European presence in New Netherland (43) ………. in 1624 with the (44)
……….of a Dutch fur trading settlement on Governors Island. In 1625 construction was
(45) ………. on a citadel and a Fort Amsterdam on Manhattan Island, later called New
Amsterdam (Nieuw Amsterdam).

36 A mets B met C meet D meeting

37 A although B if C despite D unless

38 A entering B enter C entered D enters

39 A whose B what C which D who

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40 A maps B mapped C mapping D map

41 A came B coming C comes D come

42 A continuation B continues C continuous D continued

43 A beginning B begun C began D begin

44 A founding B finds C finding D found

45 A starts B started C starting D start

FIN SIMULACRO SABER-PRO

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Part 8

COMPREHENSION OF READING ACADEMIC TEXTS

I) Based on both the figure and the text, decide whether the following
statements are T (true) or F (false). For T choose A; for F choose B.

46 The number of patients waiting for a lung transplant is greater than those
waiting for a heart transplant. A B C D

47 The number of patients waiting for a liver transplant is smaller than those
waiting for a heart transplant. A B C D

48 A quantity of four thousand patients dies while waiting for a liver transplant
A B C D

49 The total number of organ donors is 71,376. A B C D

50 The total number of people listed for heart lung transplant is two hundred
ten. A B C D

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II) Choose the best Spanish equivalent for the following expressions taken
from the text.

51 overwhelming (Línea 3)
A irremediable B excesivo C abrumador

52 accounting for (Línea 5)

A considerando B estimando C correspondiendo

53 bill (Linea 5)
A billete B inversión C ley

54 are performed (Línea 6 )

A son aplazadas B están en espera C son realizadas

55 waiting for (Línea 7)

A esperando por B que esperan C la esperanza

III) Read the text below to answer the questions.

How is tempered glass made? See vocabulary below the text.

Tempered glass is about four times stronger than “ordinary,” or

annealed, glass. And unlike annealed glass, which can shatter
into jagged shards when broken, tempered glass fractures into
small, relatively harmless pieces. As a result, tempered glass is
used in those environments where human safety is an issue.
Applications include side and rear windows in vehicles, entrance
doors, shower and tub enclosures, racquetball courts, patio
furniture, microwave ovens and skylights.

To prepare glass for the tempering process, it must first be cut to the desired size.
(Strength reductions or product failure can occur if any fabrication operations, such as
etching or edging, take place after heat treatment.) The glass is then examined for
imperfections that could cause breakage at any step during tempering. An
abrasive─such as sandpaper─takes sharp edges off the glass, which is subsequently
washed. Next, the glass begins a heat treatment process in which it travels through a
tempering oven, either in a batch or continuous feed. The oven heats the glass to a
temperature of more than 600 degrees Celsius. (The industry standard is 620 degrees
Celsius.) The glass then undergoes a high-pressure cooling procedure called
“quenching.” During this process, which lasts just seconds, high-pressure air blasts
the surface of the glass from an array of nozzles in varying positions. Quenching cools
the outer surfaces of the glass much more quickly than the center. As the center of
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the glass cools, it tries to pull back from the outer surfaces. As a result, the center
remains in tension, and the outer surfaces go into compression, which gives tempered
glass its strength. Glass in tension breaks about five times more easily than it does in
compression. Annealed glass will break at 6,000 pounds per square inch (psi).
Tempered glass, according to federal specifications, must have a surface compression
of 10,000 psi or more; it generally breaks at approximately 24,000 psi.

Another approach to making tempered glass is chemical tempering, in which

various chemicals exchange ions on the surface of the glass in order to create
compression. But because this method costs more than using tempered ovens and
quenching, it is not widely used.

Special vocabulary
quench: to cool very fast a hot material (to temper)
annea: to heat and then cool a material to make it softer, to fix it colors or add another
characteristic
etch: to produce specific designs on a metal or glass surface by the action of a strong acid.
edge: to give regular or specific border to a glass piece by cutting or polishing all
redundant material

IV) Select the main idea in each paragraph.

56 PARAGRAPH 1

A Tempered glass is pretty much resistant than common glass.

B Health preservation is in danger when using annealed glass.
C When self-protection is on risk, properties are of great concern in
selecting one or another sort of glass.
D Tempered glass replaces usual glass in a great number of common items.

57 PARAGRAPH 2

A The author describes the more accustomed procedure for making

tempered glass.
B Cutting on time preserves the glass from self-fracturing during
fabrication.
C Quenching gives the glass those properties which makes it so special.
D Quenching consists on cooling the hot glass quickly enough to change its
normal behavior.

58 PARAGRAPH 3

A The heating-and-fast-cooling method is not the only one that industry

can use for making tempered glass.
B Chemical tempering induces an ion interchange on the glass outer
surfaces, generating compression in this fashion.
C Although ingenious, this other type of tempering is more expensive and
thus, it is not usually used.
D The chemical approach makes use of several chemicals to engender
compression in glass.

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V) Decide whether the following statements are T (true) or F (false).

For T choose A; for F choose B.

59 Annealed glass is about three times weaker than tempered glass. ABCD

60 Both types of glass have similar fracture patterns. ABCD

61 Tempered glass has more general applications than annealed glass. ABCD

62 Glass cutting must be done before examining the glass to avoid accidents
when tempering. ABCD

63 The weak and failure points in the glass require its quick discard in order to
avoid accidents during the tempered process. ABCD

64 There are five stages in the tempered glass production. ABCD

65 Glass being tempered must be heated at exactly 600°C. ABCD

66 Quenching is a low-pressure cooling procedure. ABCD

67 Tempering generates a fast cooling from the inner to the outer surfaces of
the piece. ABCD

68 Glass in tension breaks about five times less easily than it does in compression
ABCD

VI) Word meanings

69 The word “then” in line 11 indicates

A a contrast
B a sequence
C an instruction
D a comparison

70 The word “As the center . . . “ in line 20 introduces

A an example
B a condition
C a comparison
D a simultaneity

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HOJA DE RESPUESTAS

NOMBRE(S): _________________________ APELLIDOS(S): _________________________

PROGRAMA ACADÉMICO: _________________ CÓDIGO: ____________ FECHA: _________

PUNTAJE SIMULACRO SABER-PRO: ______

PUNTAJE COMPRENSIÓN LECTORA UNIVALLE: ______
TOTAL PUNTAJE: ______

1. A B C 25. A B C 49. A B C D

2. A B C 26. A B C 50. A B C D

3. A B C 27. A B C 51. A B C D

4. A B C 28. A B C 52. A B C D

5. A B C 29. A B C 53. A B C D

6. A B C D E F G H 30. A B C 54. A B C D

7. A B C D E F G H 31. A B C D 55. A B C D

8. A B C D E F G H 32. A B C D 56. A B C D

9. A B C D E F G H 33. A B C D 57. A B C D

10. A B C D E F G H 34. A B C D 58. A B C D

11. A B C 35. A B C D 59. A B C D

12. A B C 36. A B C D 60. A B C D

13. A B C 37. A B C D 61. A B C D

14. A B C 38. A B C D 62. A B C D

15. A B C 39. A B C D 63. A B C D

16. A B C 40. A B C D 64. A B C D

17. A B C 41. A B C D 65. A B C D

18. A B C 42. A B C D 66. A B C D

19. A B C 43. A B C D 67. A B C D

20. A B C 44. A B C D 68. A B C D

21. A B C 45. A B C D 69. A B C D

22. A B C 46. A B C D 70. A B C D

23. A B C 47. A B C D

24. A B C 48. A B C D
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