APMC BOARD EXAM

INTERNAL MEDICINE
2005

Name________________________________________ Score__________

A. Write the best answer in the space provided before each number.

_____1. Among the viruses associated with causing bronchiectasis, choose the main
ones:
A. Coxsackie virus
B. Arena virus
C. Influenza Virus
D. Parvo virus

_____2. In patients with hospital acquired pneumonia, the following organisms are
commonly found in the ICU except:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Acinetobacter spp.
D. Hemophilus influenzae

_____3. In patients with asbestosis, smoking greatly increases the incidence of

A. Lung Cancer
B. Mesothelioma
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. A and C

_____4. In the treatment of asthma, the following are classified as leukotriene

modifiers except:
A. Montelukast
B. Nedocromil
C. Zileuton
D. Zafirlukast

_____5. In evaluating a possible lesion on chest xray, which of the following

radiologic procedure will give the best information.
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. CT scan with contrast
C. Ultrasound of the thoracic area
D. Radionuclide scanning
APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 2

_____6. Pulmonary infections is common among patients with cystic fibrosis, therapy
should be directed against which of the following organisms:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
D. None of the above

_____7. The following are radiologic signs which are found in patients with
pulmonary embolism:
A. Westermark’s sign
B. Hampton’s sign
C. Palla’s sign
D. All of the above

_____8. Aside from lung cancer, the other malignancy (cies) most commonly
associated with pleural effusion are:
A. Breast carcinoma
B. Hepatoma
C. Renal cell cancer
D. Colon cancer

_____9. Key features to describe primary alveolar hypoventilation includes:

A. Chronic Respiratory Acidosis
B. Frequent episodes of central hypopnea
C. Development of daytime somnolence, disturbed sleep and morning headaches
D. All of the above

_____10. What is the most common disease condition in patients waiting for a lung
transplant?
A. COPD
B. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Primary Pulmonary hypertension

_____11. In an alcoholic who comes in the emergency room complaining of

ophthalmoplegia, lateral rectus palsy and ataxia, the differential diagnosis should
include:
A. cerebrovascular accident
B. Korsakoff’s psychosis
C. Wernicke’s disease
D. A and B
APMC Board exam Internal Medicine 2005 -page 3

_____12. In patients with atheroembolic stroke, the treatment most shown to have
benefits included:
A. Heparin
B. Aspirin
C. Dipyridamole
D. A and B

_____13. Current accepted treatment of asymptomatic carotid disease includes:

A. Carotid endarterectomy
B. Conservative management with statins and aspirin
C. Balloon angioplasty with stenting
D. All of the above

_____14. Asking a patient what they ate for breakfast this morning is testing his:
A. Working memory
B. Episodic memory
C. Long term memory
D. Procedural memory

_____15. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the following except:

A. reduction of acetylcholine in the nucleus basalis of Meynert
B. formation of neuritic plaques composed of AL amyloid, proteoglycans
C. Maybe genetic in origin, involving the APP gene mutation in chromosome 21
D. May involve presenilin-1 and presenilin-2 in chromosome 14 and 1 respectively

_____16. Patients with post infectious GN have the following findings:

A. Depressed C3 level
B. Depressed C4 level
C. Elevated ASO titer
D. A and B

_____17. Patients with acute renal failure secondary to gentamicin has the following
findings:
A. oliguric renal failure
B. elevated eosinophil count in the urine
C. presence of dirty brown coarse granular cast in the urine sediments
D. presence of red blood cell cast in the urine

_____18. The correction of hyperkalemia which involves actual excretion of

potassium is achieved by what method?
A. administration of calcium gluconate
B. administration of sodium bicarbonate
C. administration of d50 water plus insulin
D. administration of kayaxelate
APMC Board Internal Medicine –page 4

_____19. Kidney biopsy of a patient with membranous glomerulopathy will show:

A. Mesangial deposits
B. Subendothelial deposits
C. Subepithelial deposits
D. IgG linear antibodies

_____20. Patients with kidney transplantation who have received anti-lymphocyte

antibodies (OKT3) are prone to developing what type of infection in the immediate
post transplant period?
A. Hepatitis B infection
B. Hepatitis C infection
C. Cytomegalovirus infection
D. None of the above

_____21. Patients who are undergoing dialysis for the 1st time will experience this
condition due to rapid removal of toxic metabolites:
A. First use syndrome
B. Disequilibrium syndrome
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Recirculation

_____22. Which of the following substances below are potent inhibitors of stone
formation?
A. Uric acid
B. Inorganic pyrophosphate
C. Oxalate
D. None of the above

_____23. A 5 year old male presenting with multiple cysts in the 2 kidneys associated
with hepatic fibrosis is most likely to have:
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. medullary cystic kidney disease
C. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
D. medullary sponge kidney

_____24. Patient was complaining of reducing urine output after he started taking
rifampicin and isoniazid for pulmonary tuberculosis. The lab test shows normal sgpt
but creatinine is 3.5mg/dl (baseline of 1.0mg/dl at start of treatment). Urinalysis shows
eosinophilia with WBC cast. What is the expected etiology of the renal failure?
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Acute Glomerulonephritis
C. Acute Interstitial nephritis
D. Acute Vascular thromobosis
APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 5

_____25. Which of the following post transplant malignancy is/are common?

A. Lung cancer
B. Breast Cancer
C. Colon cancer
D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma

_____26. Which of the following physical findings suggest left ventricular heart
failure?
A. Pulsus paradoxus
B. Pulsus alternans
C. Bisferiens pulse
D. Pulsus tardus

_____27. Which of the following statement is true of right bundle bunch block?
A. Only occur in pathologic conditions, that is in coronary artery disease.
B. May occur in subjects without structural heart conditions
C. May occur in patients with atrial septal defect
D. B and C

_____28. Which of the following imaging procedures is best to detect “hibernating

myocardium”
A. Thallium 201 stress testing
B. Adenosine stress echo
C. Positron emission tomography with flurodeoxyglucose
D. Technetium 99m nuclear imaging

_____29. In patients with severe knee osteoarthritis and chronic obstructive lung
disease, the best way to test for myocardial ischemia is to do:
A. Adenosine stress echo
B. Dipyridamole stress echo
C. Dobutamine stress echo
D. None of the above

_____30.Which of the following conditions can cause AV nodal dysfunction?

A. Lyme’s disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Digitalis intoxication
D. All of the above
APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 page 6

____31. A Cardiac Pacemaker is absolutely indicated in the following condition:

A. 3rd degree AV block
B. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type I
C. 2nd degree AV block Mobitz type II following anteroseptal wall infarction
D. A and C

_____32. The method with the best chance to terminate Wolf-Parkinson-White

syndrome is:
A. Digitalis
B. Verapamil
C. Beta-blocker
D. Catheter ablation

_____33. In a patient with abdominal aortic aneurysm, what diameter of the aortic
aneurysm is surgery absolutely indicated?
A. 4 cm
B. 4.5 cm
C. 5 cm
D. 5.5 cm

_____34. In treating deep vein thrombosis, the following statements are true:
A. Anticoagulation should be continued for 1 to 3 months
B. INR should be maintained between 2.5 to 3.5
C. Low molecular weight heparin should be started first then overlapped with
warfarin
D. all of the above

_____35. In patients about to receive fibrinolytic therapy, what conditions are

contraindicated to its use:
A. Previous administration of streptokinase
B. Recent history of surgical procedure within the last 2 weeks
C. Patient taking anticoagulant with INR >2.0
D. All of the above

_____ 36. In a patient presenting with upper respiratory tract infection, the sudden
onset of chest pain with pericardial friction rub and heart failure is usually due to:
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpesviruses
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Measles virus
APMC Board Exam –Internal Medicine 2005 page 7

_____37. In patients with suspected dengue hemorrhagic fever, the following should
be done:
A. Infusion of crystalloid or colloid to prevent hemoconcentration

B. Administer steroid to prevent hypotension

C. Blood transfusion if the hematocrit goes below 36%
D. Prophylactic platelet transfusion if platelet count goes below 100,000

_____38. Which of the following viral agent does not cause hemorrhagic fever:
A. Dengue virus
B. Ebola virus
C. Hantavirus
D. HTLV I

_____39. Deeply Invasive Candidiasis is treated best with:

A. IV amphotericin B
B. Oral Fluconazole
C. Itraconazole
D. IV Caspofungin

_____40. The following are zoonotic infections, EXCEPT:

A. Brucellosis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Filariasis
D. Toxoplasmosis

_____41. The following are human infections caused by bacteria located

intracellularly, EXCEPT:
A. Legionella infections
B. Chlamydia infections
C. Salmonella infections
D. Streptococcal infections

_____42. The drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is:

A. Carbapenems
B. Oxacillin
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Vancomycin

_____43. Which of the following antibacterial agents does not penetrate cells well
A. Ampicillin
B. Macrolide
C. Metronidazole
D. Quinolones

APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 8

_____44. Which antimycobacterial agent should be stopped if the patient develops

gouty arthritis
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide

_____45. Which vaccine is safe for use in pregnant women:

A. Hepatitis B
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Varicella

_____46. Very distinctive, pruritic small wheals that are surrounded by large areas of
erythema sometimes precipitated by fever or hot baths, are seen in:
A. Cholinergic Urticaria
B. Light urticaria
C. Vibratory angioedema
D. Aquagenic pruritus

_____47. Differential diagnosis of localized hypomelanosis includes:

A. Tinea Versicolor
B. Vitiligo
C. Nevus Depigmentosus
D. All of the above

_____48. Nikolsky’s sign which is separation of the epidermis is seen in:

A. Pemphigus Vulgaris
B. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
C. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
D. All of the above

_____49. Tissue and blood eosinophilia are prominent features of:

A. Wegeners Granulomatosis
B. Allergic Granulomatosis
C. Polyarteritis Nodosa
D. Lymphomatoid Granulomatosis
APMC Board Exam –Internal Medicine 2005 page 9

_____50. A transient, pruritic linear wheal with a flare at a site in which the skin is
briskly stroked with a firm object is known as:
A. Dermatosis
B. Dermographics
C. Dermatography
D. Dermographism

_____51. The following are included in the criteria for the classification of Systemic
Lupus Erythematosus except:
A. Butterfly rash
B. Alopecia
C. Photosensitivity
D. Serositis

_____52. The following are true of systemic sclerosis:

A. Acquired Disease
B. Non-contagious multisystem disease
C. Raynaud’s phenomenon is the most common symptoms
D. All of the above

_____53. The following are features of Behcet’s disease except:

A. Multiple oral aphthous ulcers
B. Uveitis
C. Malar rash
D. None of the above

_____54. The following are true of Takayasu’s arteritis:

A. Chronic vasculitis of the aorta and its branches
B. Most common in young women of Asian descent
C. Biopsy is rarely done because of the vessel size involved
D. All of the above

_____55. Antiphospholipid syndrome:

A. Recurrent arterial or venous thrombosis
B. 2nd & 3rd trimester fetal death
C. (+) lupus anticoagulant
D. all of the above

_____56. Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by the following except:

A. Dry eyes
B . Dry mouth
C. Dry hair
D. none of the above
APMC Board Exam- Internal Medicine 2005 page 10

_____57. The following are tumors commonly associated with dermatomyositis:

A. Melanoma
B. Lung cancer
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Pancreatic cancer

_____58. What is true of Rheumatoid Factor?

A. Can be found in patients with SLE and Sjogrens syndrome
B. Presence of Rheumatoid factor establishes the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
C. High titers and low titers of Rheumatoid factor has the same significance
D. All of the above

_____59. Which of the following patients is the LEAST suspicious of SLE:

A. 60 y.o female with fatigue, anorexia, cough, fever, increased ESR
B. 40 y.o female with oral ulcers, rash over cheeks, anemia, thrombocytopenia
increased ESR, arthritis
C. 30 y.o male with anemia, leucopenia, casts in the urine, decreased C3, headache,
pleural effusion
D. 42 y.o female with skin rash, photosensitivity, anemia, fatigue

_____60. HLA B-27 is associated with what condition?

A. Ankylosing Spondylitis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
D. Scleroderma

_____61. The most life threatening side effect of cytotoxic chemotherapy is

A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Leucopenia
C. Alopecia
D. Mucositis

_____62. The following are goals of cancer treatment except:

A. To cure or control the disease whenever possible
B. To palliate symptoms in advanced disease
C. To increase over-all survival in terminally ill patients
D. To ensure that minimal functional impairment results from treatment
APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 11

_____63. Telomerase, a protein found at the distal ends of DNA strands, normally fall
off. However, if it does not fall off, one of the following occurs:
A. Production of Immortal cells
B. Diseases of aging
C. Point mutation
D. Spontaneous regression

_____64. What is true of apoptosis

A. Programmed death of cells that lose normal growth regulations
B. Extrinsic pathway is activated by cross-linking members of the tumor necrosis
receptor superfamily
C. Intrinsic pathway is initiated by the release of cytochrome C and second
mitochondrial activator of caspases in response to a variety of noxious stimuli
D. All of the above

_____65. Current principles in antiangiogenic therapy depend on the following

mechanism to halt formation of new blood vessels in tumor growths:
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Anoikis
D. None of the above

_____66. Which of the following treatment may reverse the cytopenia in patients with
advanced Idiopathic myelofibrosis?
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Interferon
C. Splenectomy
D. Plateletpheresis

_____67. The enzyme that promotes myeloid proliferation in chronic myelogenous

leukemia is:
A. thymidine kinase
B. tyrosine kinase
C. leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
D. none of the above

_____68. Fever in neutropenic patients is treated with empiric antibiotics against:

A. Staphylococcus
B. Gram positive aerobes
C. Gram negative aerobes
D. All
APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 page 12

_____69. The differentiating agent that do not produce DIC and promotes
promyelocytic maturation in AML M3:
A. All-cis retinoic acid
B. All-trans retinoic acid
C. Tretinoin
D. Vitamin A

_____70.Which biochemical abnormality is associated with multiple myeloma?

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. None of the above

_____71. In a patient with hepatic cirrhosis, hepatic encephalopathy can be

precipitated by all of the following except:
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Infection
D. Vomiting

_____72. Which of the following drug used for treating peptic ulcer disease should be
avoided in patients with renal failure
A. Sucralfate
B. Famotidine
C. Aluminum Hydroxide-Magnesium Hydroxide antacid
D. A and C

_____73. What can be said of type A gastric ulcer?

A. Also called autoimmune gastritis
B. Associated with Helicobacter Pylori infection
C. Associated with pernicious anemia
D. A and C

_____74. The most common organism isolated from the ascitic fluid of patients with
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia Coli
D. Bacteroides Fragilis
APMC Board Internal Medicine 2005 page 13

_____75. The most serious pulmonary complication of pancreatitis is:

A. Pleural effusion
B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Pneumonia
D. Pulmonary embolism

_____76. The following is true of Hepatitis B infection:

A. Accounts for >50% of fulminant hepatitis, a sizable proportion of which is
associated with Hepatitis D infection
B. DNA virus
C. Risk of chronic infection is much greater in adults than in infants
D. A and B

_____77. A 71 y.o. woman with a history of coronary artery disease presents to her
family physician for a routine check up. The physician notices that she has lost 20 lbs
since her last visit 6 months ago. When questioned, she gives a history of intermittent
periumbilical pain that always begins about 30min. after eating and lasts for about 2
hours. She claims that the pain is more after a large meal so she began to eat less out of
fear of the pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Small bowel obstruction
D. Intestinal Ischemia

_____78. A 48 y.o. man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room
vomiting bright red blood. All of the following should be included in the differential
diagnosis except:
A. Ruptured Esophageal varices
B. Esophageal Reflux secondary to a hiatal hernia
C. Boerhaave’s syndrome
D. Mallory Weiss Syndrome

_____79. The most common site for ischemic colitis to occur is:
A. Splenic Flexure
B. Cecum
C. Rectum
D. Sigmoid Colon

_____80. All of the factors listed below may play a role in the development of duodenal
ulcer disease except:
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Helicobacter Pylori infection
C. Spicy Food ingestion
D. Genetic Factors
APMC Board Exam Internal Medicine 2005 – page 14

_____81. The cell mediated type of response is characterized by:

A. T cell involvement
B. Usually responsible for host defense against virus and fungus
C. Type IV hypersensitivity type of reaction
D. All of the above

_____82. The smallest concentration of antibody in the serum is:

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgM

_____83. The complement system can do all the following except:

A. Activate phagocytes
B. Lyze the target cells
C. Activates chemotaxis
D. inhibits opsonization

_____84. Mast cell degranulation is due to:

A. Crosslinking of 2 IgE antibodies
B. Primary response to antigen
C. antibody production
D. T cell activation

_____85.What is true of systemic mastocytosis:

A. Result of a point mutation
B. +Dariers sign
C. Presence of hepatosplenomegaly
D. all of the above

_____86. The following are true of hyperosmolar nonketotic coma except:

A. serum osmolality more than 320
B. ph 7.4
C. Hyperglycemia
D. serum ketones more than 2:1

_____87. A 28 year old male with mild hypertension had controlled blood pressure, he
suddenly developed hypertensive crisis with an elevated 24 hr urine metanephrines,
what is the most likely cause of his condition
A. Renal Artery Stenosis
B. Cushings syndrome
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. none of the above
APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 -page 15

_____88. The most reliable thyroid function test for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism:
A. Thyrotropin
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
C. Free T4
D. Thyroid Scan

_____89. Clinical Feature of Conn’s disease:

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Hyponatremia
D. Alternating Hypotension-Hypertension

_____90. If a young female patient is amerorrheic with galactorrhea, complaining of

slight visual problems, the blood test to check is:
A. LH, FSH
B. Prolactin
C. Dopamine
D. Estradiol

_____91. You suspect a patient to have acromegaly. To screen for this problem you
check:
A. IGF 1 level
B. Random Growth Hormone
C. TSH and T4 levels
D. serum ACTH level

_____92. A patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Serum sodium is 145 meq/l
with a dilute urine with specific gravity of 1.005. Patient has normal response to water
deprivation without any response to exogenous AVP (vasopressin). The condition is
consistent with:
A. Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Central diabetes insipidus
C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
D. SIADH

_____93. A 45 y.o. male presents with infertility. On examination he was noted to have
small firm testes and gynecomastia. The following statements is true of the above
condition:
A. Most likely due to a secondary cause like pituitary gland trauma
B. Rule out possibility of exogenous estrogen intake
C. basic defect is a chromosomal abnormality= 47 XXY
D. Biochemical tests will reveal: low testosterone and low LH/FSH levels
APMC Board Exam – Internal Medicine 2005 page 16

_____94. Clinical manifestations of Growth Hormone Excess includes the following

except:
A. Prognatism
B. Anhydrosis
C. Hypertension
D. Glucose Intolerance

_____95. 32 y.o. female with high blood sugar was examined to have “moon facies”,
truncal obesity with thin extremities, easy bruisibility and abdominal striae. She has an
excess of which hormone
A. ACTH
B. Growth Hormone
C. Cortisol
D. A and C

_____96. This syndrome is described as “an imposter has replaced your relative”:
A. Munchausen’s syndrome
B. Capgras syndrome
C. Delirium Tremens
D. Rogers Syndrome

_____97. The following drugs are used in the treatment of bipolar disorders:
A. Lithium carbonate
B. Valproic Acid
C. Carbamezepine
D. All of the above

_____98. The following is true of schizophrenia:

A. Affected by both genetic and environmental events
B. Drugs which activate dopaminergic activities are used to treat it.
C. There is gradual increase in cortical volume over time
D. None of the above

_____99. In the treatment of general anxiety disorders, what is true:

A. Benzodiazepines can be given for more than 4 weeks without problems
B. Buspirone takes more than 1 week to act but has no abuse potential
C. Over 80% of patients with general anxiety disorders have depression
D. B and C

_____100. Criteria for major depression includes:

A. Loss of energy every day
B. depressed mood daily for at least 1 week
C. Hypersomnia nearly every day
D. A and C

Answer Key:
1. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 240 page 1542
2. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 239 page 1539
3. D Harrisons 16th Edition, chapter 238 page 1522-23
4. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 236 page 1513
5. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 235 page 1505
6. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 241 page 1545
7. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 244 page 1562
8. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 245 page 1567
9. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 246 page 1571
10. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 248 page 1577
11. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 372 page 2563
12. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2375
13. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 349 page 2377
14. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2394
15. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398-2399
16. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1681
17. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1645-1647
18. C Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 3 page 58-59
19. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 264 page 1687
20. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673
21. B Washington Manual of Medical Therapeutics 30th Chap. 12 page 271
22. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 268 page 1712
23. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 265 page 1696
24. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 260 page 1648
25. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 263 page 1673
26. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 209 page 1305
27. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 210 page 1315
28. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1325
29. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 211 page 1324
30. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1336
31. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 213 page 1337
32. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 214 page 1350-1351
33. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 231 page 1483
34. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 232 page 1492
35. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 228 page 1453-1454
36. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 175 page 1145
37. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1173
38. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 180 page 1170
39. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 187 page 1187
40. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 155 p988, chap 198 p1243 chap 202 p1260
41. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 132 p871, chap 160 p1011 chap 121 p824
42. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 120 page 821
43. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 118 page 790
44. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 150 page 963
45. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 107 page 720
46. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1951
47. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 48 page 299
48. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 49 page 311
49. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2007
50. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1951
51. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1962
52. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 303 pages 1979-1981
53. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 307 page 2014
54. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 306 page 2009-2010
55. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 page 1964
56. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 304 pages 1990-1991
57. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 369 page 2541
58. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 301 page 1972
59. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 300 pages 1962-1963
60. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 296 page 1937
61. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 pages 479-481
62. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 70 page 467
63. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 454
64. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 458-459
65. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 69 page 462-463
66. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 95 page 629
67. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 637
68. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 254 page 1611
69. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 96 page 636
70. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 98 page 658
71. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 289 page 1868
72. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1753-1754
73. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 page 1761
74. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 112 page 750
75. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 294 page 1898
76. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 285 pages 1822-1825, 1834
77. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 page 1799
78. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 273 pages 1745-1746
79. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 279 pages 1797-1798
80. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 274 pages 1750-1753
81. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 297 page 1940, 1946-7
82. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1922
83. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 295 page 1907, 1913-1915
84. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1947-1949
85. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 298 page 1953
86. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 323 page 2161
87. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 322 page 2151
88. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 320 page 2111
89. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2139
90. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2086
91. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090
92. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 319 page 2098-2099
93. C Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 328 page 2215
94. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 318 page 2090
95. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 321 page 2134
96. B Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 350 page 2398
97. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2556-2557
98. A Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2559-2560
99. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2549-2550
100. D Harrisons 16th edition, chapter 371 page 2553

MPL:
1. 65% 26. 80% 51. 85% 76. 60%
2. 70% 27. 60% 52, 65% 77. 40%
3. 80% 28. 65% 53. 75% 78. 65%
4. 90% 29. 60% 54. 75% 79. 70%
5. 75% 30. 60% 55. 90% 80. 75%
6. 90% 31. 50% 56. 65% 81. 40%
7. 70% 32. 50% 57. 60% 82. 50%
8. 75% 33. 50% 58. 60% 83. 60%
9. 70% 34. 55% 59. 85% 84. 50%
10. 80% 35. 75% 60. 85% 85. 40%
11. 80% 36. 70% 61. 80% 86. 55%
12. 90% 37. 95% 62. 70% 87. 60%
13. 85% 38. 85% 63. 60% 88. 75%
14. 80% 39. 90% 64. 40% 89. 70%
15. 60% 40. 65% 65. 40% 90. 65%
16. 85% 41. 60% 66. 50% 91. 65%
17. 75% 42. 100% 67. 65% 92. 50%
18. 95% 43. 80% 68. 90% 93. 75%
19. 60% 44. 65% 69. 60% 94. 65%
20. 70% 45. 85% 70. 65% 95. 80%
21. 65% 46. 70% 71. 75% 96. 65%
22. 75% 47. 70% 72. 45% 97. 80%
23. 75% 48. 65% 73. 70% 98. 60%
24. 65% 49. 70% 74. 85% 99. 65%
25. 60% 50. 70% 75. 60% 100. 65%
Blueprint:
A. Percentage by subject:
1. Pulmonary - 10%
2. Neurology - 5%
3. Nephrology - 10%
4. Cardiology - 10%
5. Infectious Diseases – 10%
6. Dermatology - 5%
7. Rheumatology – 10%
8. Oncology – 5%
9. Hematology – 5%
10. Gastroenterology – 10%
11. Allergy/Immunology – 5%
12. Endocrinology – 10%
13. Psychiatry – 5%

B. Types of Questions:
1. Recall - 52 %
2. Analysis - 42 %
3. Case/Problem Solving - 6 %