ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (FLASH BACK - II, AIIMS) : 28.11.
2016
[Time : 3 ½ Hours] Full Marks : 200
01. A glass flask of volume two litre at 0°C is filled 04. A sph ere, a cube and a disc all of the same
level full of mercury at this temperature. The material and of same volume are heated to 800°C
flask and mercury are now heated at 80°C. How and left in air. Which of these will have the lowest
mu ch mercu ry will spill out if coefficient of rate of cooling ?
volume expansion of mercury is 1.75 10–4 /C°
(1) cube
and linear expansion of glass is 0.25 10–4 /C°
respectively ? (2) disc
(1) 64 cc (2) 48 cc (3) 16 cc (4) 32 cc (3) sphere
02. An ice cube of mass 0.4 kg at 0°C is placed in an (4) all will have the same rate of cooling.
isolat ed co nt aine r which is at 127°C. T he 05. The pre ssure of a mon oatomic gas in creases
spe cific hea t S o f the cont ainer varies w ith linearly from 2 105 N/m2 to 6 105 N/m2 when
t empe ra tu re T acco rdin g to th e empirica l its vo lume incre ases from 0.3 m3 to 0.8 m3 .
relation, S = A + BT 2 , where A = 150 cal/kg-K Calculate molar heat capacity of the gas.
a nd B = 3 10 –2 ca l/kg-K 3 . If t he fin a l
(1) 12.25 J/mol.K (2) 10.75 J/mol.K
temperature of the container is 27°C, determine
the mass of the container. (3) 14.77 J/mol.K (4) 16.4 J/mol.K
(1) 364 g (2) 111 g (3) 151 g (4) 262 g 06. At 127°C three moles of an ideal monoatomic
gas o ccupy a volume V. T h e ga s ex pa nds
03. A metallic block A of squarle cross-section of area adiabatically to a volume 8V. Calculate change
a, length d and thermal conductivity K1 is in in its internal energy.
contact with two blocks B and C each of area of
cross-sect ion a /2, le ngth d/4 a nd the rmal (1) –8943 J (2) –7465 J
con duct ivit ies K2 a nd K3 , respectively, a nd (3) –11205 J (4) –13124 J
placed one on top of the other (see Fig.). If the
left side of A is at temperature T 2 and the right 1
07. An engine has an efficiency of . Whe n the
side of B and C is at temperarture T 1 (T 2 > T 1 ), 8
t he effective t he rma l co ndu ct ivity of th e tempe rature o f sink is reduced by 162°C, its
combination is : efficie ncy is fo ur t imes. Te mpera ture of the
T1 source is :
T2 K2 (1) 199°C (2) 179°C (3) 129°C (4) 159°C
B
K1 K3 08. T wo part icle s e x ecu te S HM of t he same
A C
amplitude and frequency along the same straight
d d lin e. Th ey pa ss on e ano ther when going in
4
o ppo sit e dire ct io ns, ea ch t ime t h eir
5K1 (K2 K 3 ) 10K 1(K 2 K3 )
(1) 4(K K ) 2K (2) 2(K K ) K 3
2 3 1 2 3 1 displacement is of their amplitude. What is
2
4K1 (K2 K 3 ) 2K1 (K2 K 3 ) the phase difference between them ?
(3) (K K ) 2K (4) 4(K K ) K
2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 5 8
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09. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant su rface to wa rds e ach ot he r a nd th e spa ce
4 106 N/m and amplitude 0.008 m has a total between them is filled with a liquid of refractive
me ch anica l ene rgy o f 192 J . W hich of t he index 5/3. Find the focal length of the system.
following statements are correct ? Its : (1) 76 cm (2) 92 cm (3) –87 cm (4) –66 cm
(i) maximum P.E. is 128 J 16. A compound microscope has a magnifying power
(ii) maximum K.E. is 128 J 80. The focal length of its eye-piece is 15 cm.
(iii) maximum P.E. is 192 J Assu ming t he fin al ima ge to be at the le ast
distance of distinct vision (25 cm), calculate the
(iv) minimum P.E. is zero magnification produced by objective.
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (1) 30 (2) 24 (3) 18 (4) 16
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) 17. A fly is sitting on the objective of a telescope
10. Two points are located at a distance of 20 m and po in te d to wa rds t he moo n. Wh at e ffect is
30 m from the source of oscillation. The period ex pect ed in ph otograph of the moon taken
of oscillation is 0.1 s and the velocity of the wave through the telescope ?
is 320 m/ s. W ha t is t he pha se diffe re nce (1) The entire field of vision is blocked
between the oscillations of two points ?
(2) There is an image of the fly on the photograph
5 5 4 8 (3) There is no effect at all
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 4 5 15 (4) There is a reduction in the intensity of the
11. A string under a tension of 320 N produces 20 image
beats per sec when it is vibrated along with a 18. Image of sun formed due to reflection at air liquid
tuning fork. When the tension in the string is interface is found to be very highly polarised.
increased to 460.8 N, it sounds in unison with
the same tuning fork. Calculate the fundamental Refractive index of liquid being = 3 , find the
frequency of the tuning fork. angle of sun above the horizon.
(1) 110 Hz (2) 120 Hz (3) 100 Hz (4) 140 Hz (1) 60° (2) 30°
12. A tunning fork having frequency of 300 Hz is
2 1 4
vibrated just above a cylindrical tube. The height (3) tan 1 (4) tan
of the tube is 140 cm. Water is slowly poured in. 3 3
What is the minimum height of water required 19. In Young’s experiment, the interfering waves
for resonance ? ( = 360 m/s) have amplitudes in the ratio 5 : 4. Find the ratio
(1) 35 cm (2) 45 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 50 cm of inte nsit ies, bet ween the bright a nd dark
13. A whistle of frequency 500 Hz rotates in a circle fringe s.
of radius 3 m at an angular speed of 20 rad/sec. (1) 25 : 16 (2) 27 : 8 (3) 81 : 1 (4) 49 : 1
Wh at is t he high est freq ue ncy h ea rd by a 20. Two short magnets of magnetic moments M1 and
listener, a long distance away at rest with respect M2 are fixed on a table as shown in Fig. What
to the centre of the circle ( = 360 m/s) ? will be the magnitude of t he ma gnetic field
(1) 462 Hz (2) 417 Hz (3) 580 Hz (4) 600 Hz produ ced by t hese magnets at the poin t P ?
14. A pa ra lle l bea m o f ligh t is incide n t o n a M1 = 800 CGS unit s, M2 = 2400 CGS units,
re ct angular tra nsparen t pla te of th ickne ss d1 = 20 cm and d2 = 30 cm.
10 cm and emerges at angle 60° with a lateral S
displacement 4.8 cm. Find refractive index of the M2
material of plate. P
d2=30cm
(1) 1.89 (2) 1.26 (3) 1.42 (4) 1.58 d1=20cm
15. Two plano–concave lenses of glass of refractive N
S
N
index 1.5 h ave radii of curvature of 25 and M1
40 cm. They are placed in contact with curved
(1) 0.62 G (2) 4.3 G (3) 2.69 G (4) 0.13 G
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21. Two bar magnets of the same length and breadth (1) increases linearly upto surface
but having magnetic moments M and 3M are (2) decreases linearly upto surface
joined together pole for pole and suspended by a
(3) remains zero upto surface
string. The time of oscillation of this assembly
in a magnetic field of strength B is 4 sec. What (4) first in crea ses an d t hen de crea ses upto
will be the period of oscillation if the polarity of surface
o ne o f t h e ma gn e t s is ch a nge d a n d t h e 27. A hemispherical surface of radius R is placed
combination is again made to oscillate in the with its cross-section perpendicular to a uniform
same field ? electric field E as shown in Fig. Flux linked with
its curved surface is :
(1) 2 2 sec. (2) 4 2 sec. E
(3) 8 2 sec. (4) 3 2 sec.
22. Diamagnetic substance are : R
(1) feebly attracted by magnets R 2E E
(1) zero (2) (3) 2 (4) R2E
(2) strongly attracted by magnets 2 0
(3) feebly repelled by magnets 28. Two equal point charges, placed 8 mm apart, are
(4) strongly repelled by magnets released from rest. Initial acceleration of one of
them is 12 m/s2 and its mass is 6 10–6 gm.
23. A dip circle is so placed that the magnetic needle Find magnitude of charge on each.
in it is vertica l. Th e circle is t he n rot at ed
through ° about a vertical axis and the angle of (1) 12 2 pC (2) 24 2 pC
dip measured in this position is found to be .
What is the true angle of dip at that place ? (3) 16 2 pC (4) 32 2 pC
(1) tan –1 (sin tan ) (2) tan –1 (cos tan ) 29. Three point charges of 10–4 C each are placed
at the corners of an equilateral triangle with
(3) tan –1 (sin cot ) (4) tan –1 (cos cot ) side L = 2 m. If this system is supplied energy at
24. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment the rate of 2 KW, how much time will be required
M. It is then bent into a quarter-circular arc; to move one of the charges on to the mid-point
the new magnetic moment will be : of the line joining the two others ?
(1) 0.75 sec. (2) 0.045 sec.
4 2 4 8M 2 2
(1) M (2) M (3) (4) M (3) 0.015 sec. (4) 0.25 sec.
30. Two capacitors C1 and C2 (C2 > C1 ) are charged
25. Three infinitely long metallic charge sheets are to the same potential difference ‘V’ by identical
placed as shown in Fig. The electric field at point batteries. They are then disconnnected from the
P is : batteries and connected across each other as
Z show n, i.e ., the ir pla tes are conn ected with
2 opposite polarity. When the switches S and S
z = 4a are closed, final potential difference across each
p capacitor will be :
–2 z = 2a
X + –C
C1 –
– z = –a + 2
5 ^ 5 ^ 3 ^ ^
(1) k (2) 2 k (3) 2 k (4) k (1) zero (2) 1 V
0 0 0 0
C1 C2 C 2 C1
26. For a uniformly charged sphere electric field from (3) C C V (4) C C V
its centre : 2 1 1 2
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31. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy slide on rough incline than on a smooth incline.
stored is U. After disconnecting battery another The coefficient of friction is :
capacitor is of same capacity is connected in
para llel with it. Then ene rgy sto red in each 3n 2 1 3n 2 1
capacitor is : (1) (2)
n2 2n2
U U U U
(1) (2) (3) (4) n2 1 2n2 1
2 4 3 5 (3) (4)
3 n2 3 n2
32. A parallel plate capacitor contains a mica sheet
(th ickn ess 2 10–3 m) an d a shee t of fibre 37. How much work is required to raise a stone of
(thickness 1 10–3 m). the dielectric constant of mass 6 kg and relative density 5, lyging at the
mica is 8 and that of the fibre is 2. Assuming bed of a lake, through height of 10 m ?
that the fibre breaks down when subjected to an (g = 10 m/s2 )
e le ctric fie ld of 4.8 10 6 V/ m. Find th e
(1) 366 J (2) 400 J (3) 340 J (4) 480 J
maximum safe voltage that can be applied to the
capacitor. 38. A small mass attached to a string rotates on
frictionless table top as shown. If the tension of
(1) 6.4 kV (2) 5.6 kV (3) 7.2 kV (4) 9 kV
the string is increased by pulling th e string
33. At time t = 0, two bodies A and B are at the same causing the radius of the circula r motio n to
point. A moves with constant velocity v and B decrease by a factor of 4, the kinetic energy of
sta rts from rest wit h co nsta nt accele ration. the mass will be :
Relative velocity of B w.r.t. A when the bodies
m
meet each other is : r
v 3v
(1) v (2) 2 v (3) (4)
2 2
(1) increase by a factor of 16
^ ^
34. A projectile is given an initial velocity of 2i 3 j (2) remains constant
^
^
where i is along the ground and j is along the (3) decrease by a factor of 4
vertica l. If g = 10 m/s2 , t he e quat ion of its
(4) increase by a factor of 4
trajectory is :
39. Two uniform solid spheres of equal radii ‘R’ but
(1) 2x 2 + 3x + 4y = 0 (2) 5x 2 – 3x + 2y = 0
masse s ‘M’ an d ‘9M’ ha ve a cen tre to centre
(3) 4x 2 – 6x – y = 0 (4) 5x 2 + 6x + 4y = 0 separation of 8R. The two spheres are held fixed.
35. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r with a A projectile of mass ‘m’ is projected from the
constant speed v. The change in velocity after surface of the sphere of mass ‘M’ directly towards
1 the centre of second sphere, as shown in figure.
the particle has travelled a distance equal to Wha t must be the minimum speed v of the
8
of the circumference of the circle is : projectile so that it reaches the surface of the
second sphere :
v M
(1) (2) 2 2 v m v 9M
2
R R
2v
(3) 2 1v (4)
3
8R
36. A smooth block is rele ased a t rest on a 30°
incline and then slides a distance ‘d’. The time 2GM 3GM 5GM 4GM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
taken to slide is ‘n’ (n > 1) times as much to 7R 14R 14R 7R
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40. Water is filled in a container upto height of 4 m. Reason : The amplitu de of an oscillat ing
A small hole of area ‘A0 ’ is punched in the wall pendulum goes on increasing.
of the container at a heigh t 75 cm from the 46. Assertion : Wh en an o bse rve r moves aw ay
bo tt o m. T h e cross se ct ion a l a re a o f t h e from t he sou n d so u rce , t h e
container of A. If A0 /A = 0.2 then v2 is (where v freq uen cy of so un d a ppears to
is the velocity of water coming out of the hole) : decrease.
(g = 10 m/s2 )
Reason : The appa rent frequency of sound
(1) 65 m2 /s2 (2) 71 m2 /s2 depends on whether the observer
(3) 68 m2 /s2 (4) 62 m2 /s2 is moving towards sound source or
Dire ction for Q. 4 1 to Q. 60 In each of the away from t he source.
following questions a statement of Assertion is 47. Assertion : The change in air pressure affects
given followed by a corresponding statement of the speed of sound.
Reason just below it. O f the statements mark
Reason : The spee d of soun d in gases is
the correct answer as
pro portio na l t o t h e sq u are o f
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and pressure.
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion 48. Assertion : Ne t e lectric flux ove r a cu bical
surfa ce en closing n iden t ica l
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not the correct explanation of dipoles is zero.
the Assertion Reason : Th e ne t e le ct ric cha rge o n an
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false electrical dipole is zero.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 49. Assertion : If a pro ton a nd an electron are
41. Assertion : For higher temperature, the peak placed in the same uniform electric
emissio n wa vele ngth of a black field, t hey ex perience differe nt
body shifts to lower wavelengths. accelerations.
Reason : Pe ak emission w ave len gth of a Reason : Elect ric fo rce o n a te st cha rge
black body is proportiona l to the place d in a n e le ct ric fie ld is
fourth power o f temperature. independent of its mass.
42. Assertion : The melting point of ice decreases 50. Assertion : T he t ot a l ch a rge st o red in a
with increase of pressure. capacitor is zero.
Reason : It is becau se ice con tracts o n Reason : The elect ric field just ou tside the
melt ing. capacit or is /0 , where is the
surface charge density.
43. Assertion : T h ermo dyn a mic pro cesse s in
nature are irreversible. 51. Assertion : If a compa ss needle be kept at
magnetic north pole of the Earth,
Reason : D issipa t ive effect s ca nn o t be the compass nee dle may stay in
eliminat ed. any direction.
44. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect Reason : Dip needle will stay vertical at the
each other at a certain point. north pole of the Earth.
Reason : T he iso th e rmal ch a nge t a ke s 52. Assertion : In a fe rroma gne t ic ma te rial,
place rapidly. So, the isothermal magnetic domains are regions of
curves have very little slope. the crystal throughout which the
45. Assertion : Water in a U-tube executes SHM, alignment of the atomic dipoles is
the time period for mercury filled perfect.
upto the same height in the U-tube Reason : Ma gne tisation of fe rro magnet ic
be grea ter than that in case of material can be explaine d on the
water. basis of domain concept.
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53. Assertion : A convex lens behaves as diverging Ring
F
lens when placed in a medium of
M
refractive index greater than the
refractive index of lens material.
Reason : A light ra y in such a situ ation R
travelling in a den se r me dium
Rough
enters into the lens, which acts as
a rarer medium. So, the light ray Reason : In pu re rolling w ork do n e by
bends away from the normal and friction is always zero.
as a result, the lens now begins to 60. Assertion : Wate r wets glass capillary w hile
behave as a diverging lens. mercury does not wet.
54. Assertion : A setting Sun appears to be red. Reason : The density of mercury is higher
Reason : S cat t e rin g o f ligh t is dire ct ly than glass while that of water is
proportional to the wavelength. lower tha n glass.
55. Assertion : Th ere is n o dispersio n o f light 61. The enthalpy changes at 298 K in successive
refracte d through a rectangu lar breaking of O —H bonds of water are :
glass slab.
H2 O (g) H(g) + O H(g); H = 498 kJ mol–1
Reason : D ispe rsio n o f light is t h e
phenomenon of splitting of a beam and O H(g) H(g) + O (g); H = 428 kJ mol–1
of white light into its co nstituent
colours. The bond enthalpy of O —H bond is :
56. Assertion : In Young’s double-slit experiment, (1) 498 kJ mol–1 (2) 428 kJ mol–1
the fringe width for dark fringes is (3) 70 kJ mol–1 (4) 463 kJ mol–1
diffe ren t fro m t h a t fo r brigh t 62. Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas, the
fringe s. internal energy change (U) when 1 mol of water
Reason : If Young’s experiment is performed is vaporised at 1 bar pressure and 100°C, (given:
with a so urce of white light, then molar enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 1 bar
only black and bright fringes are and 373K = 41 kJ mol–1 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1 )
observed. will be :
57. Assertion : The acceleration of a body down a (1) 41.00 kJ mol–1 (2) 4.100 kJ mol–1
ro ugh inclin ed plan e is great er (3) 3.7904 kJ mol –1 (4) 37.904 kJ mol–1
t ha n t h e a cce le rat ion du e t o 63. When 5 litres of a gas mixture of methane and
gravit y. propane is perfectly combusted at 0°C and 1 atm
Reason : Th e body is able t o slide on a pre ssu re , 16 litre o f o xygen at th e same
incline d pla n e o n ly w he n it s tempera ture and pressure is consumed. The
a cce le ra t io n is gre a te r th a n amount of heat released from this combustion
acceleration due to gravity. in kJ [Hcomb (CH4 )=890 kJ mol–1 , Hcomb (C3 H8)
58. Assertion : Power delivered by all forces acting = 2220 kJ mol–1 ] is :
on a particle moving in a uniform (1) 32 (2) 38 (3) 317 (4) 477
circular motion is always zero. 64. The enthalpy change for the reaction :
Reason : Work done by all forces acting on a
1 3
pa rt icle mo vin g in a u n ifo rm X2 (g) Y2 (g ) XY3 (g) , is –50 kJ mol–1
circular mot ion is zero. 2 2
59. Assertion : In sh o wn sit u a tio n rin g is If the bond enthalpie s of X—X and X—Y are
performing pure rolling motion on respectively 380 and 150 kJ mol–1 the bond
rough horizontal ground. The value enthalpy of Y—Y in kJ mol–1 is :
of friction force in this case is zero. (1) 35 (2) 210 (3) 280 (4) 140
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1 1 70. In the hydrolytic equilibrium A H2O
HA OH
65.
AO A2 O2; K = 5 105
2
2 Ka = 1.0 10–5 . t he de gree of h ydrolysis of
0.001 M solution of the salt is :
1 1 (1) 10–3 (2) 10–4 (3) 10–5 (4) 10–6
BO B2 O2 ; K = 1.10 1012
2 2 71. –1
The molar solubility in (mol litre ) of a sparingly
soluble salt MX 4 is S . T he corre spo ndin g
1 1 solubility product Ksp is given by the relation :
CO C2 O2; K = 2.3 1018
2 2 (1) S = (Ksp /128)1/4 (2) S = (218 Ksp )1/4
(3) S = (256 Ksp )1/5 (4) S = (Ksp /256)1/5
1 1
DO
D2 O2 ; K = 1.4 1021 72. Which one of the following solutions will have
2
2
pH close to unity ?
Which oxide is the most stable ? (1) 100 mL of M/10 HCl + 100 mL of M/10 NaO H
(1) AO (2) BO (3) CO (4) DO (2) 55 mL of M/10 HCl + 45 mL of M/10 NaO H
66. In which of the following equilibrium, change in (3) 10 mL of M/10 HCl + 90 mL of M/10 NaO H
the volu me of the syst em does not alter the
number of moles : (4) 75 mL of M/5 HCl + 25 mL of M/5 NaO H
73. A monobasic weak acid solution has molarity of
(1) N2(g) O2(g)
2NO(g) 0.005 and pH of 5. Wh at is t he percenta ge
ionization of acid in the solution ?
(2) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) Cl2(g) (1) 2 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.25
(3) N2(g) 3H2 (g) 2NH3(g) 74. In a set of re act ion s, eth ylbenz ene yield a
product(D).
(4) SO2Cl2 (g)
SO2(g) Cl2(g ) KM nO Br C H OH
CH2CH3 KOH 4 (B) FeCl2 (C) 2 H5+ (D)
3
67. In a chemical eq uilibrium, rat e co nst ant of
forward reaction is 7.5 10–4 and the equilibrium
constant is 1.5. The rate constant of backward (D) would be :
reaction is :
(1) 2.5 104 (2) 5 10–4 CH2 –CH–COOC 2H5
(1)
(3) 2.5 10–4 (4) 5 104 Br
68. For the reaction : Br
2NOCl(g)
2NO(g) Cl2 (g) , KC
at 427°C is 3 10–6 L mol–1 . The value of Kp is (2)
nearly : Br
(1) 7.5 10–5 (2) 2.5 10–5 CH2COOC2H5
(3) 2.5 10–4 (4) 1.72 10–4
COOH
69. Solubility product of salt AB is 1 10–8 M2 in a
solution, in which the concentration of A+ ion is
10–3 M ? The salt will precipitat e when the (3)
concentration of B– ions is kept :
OCH2CH3
(1) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M
(2) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M COOC2H5
(3) > 10–5 M
(4) < 10–8 M (4)
Br
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75. Ide n tify th e co rre ct o rde r o f re activit y in 78. An equimolar mixture of alkyl briomide (A) and
electrophilic su bstitut io n re action s of t he ammonia gives (B) which on treat ment w ith
following compounds : NaNO 2 an d HCl give s (C). Co mpoun d (C) on
CH3 Cl NO2 ox idat ion follow ed by decarbox ylat ion gives
ethane. What is (A) ?
(1) CH3 CH2 Br (2) CH3 CH2 CH2 Br
(3) CH 3–CH–CH2Br (4) CH3CH2CH–CH3
I II III IV
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I CH3 Br
(3) II > I > III > IV (4) II > III > I > IV 79. Structure of C8 H8 Cl2 , which on aqueous alkali
76. Isomers of hexane, based on their branching, hydrolysis gives a product which does not give
can be divided into three distinct classes as positive iodoform test, but gives silver mirror test
shown in the figure, is :
Cl
Cl
and and C—C 2H5
(1) (2) C6H5–C–CH3
Cl
Cl
I II
CH2Cl
(3) (4) C6 H5 CH2 CHCl2
Cl
III
CH3
The correct order of their boiling point is :
80. Compound (A), C8 H9 Br gives a yellow precipitate
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
when warmed with alcoholic AgNO 3 . O xidation
(3) II > III > I (4) III > I > II of (A) gives an acid (B), C8 H6 O 4 . (B) easily forms
77. In th e fo llo win g seque ntial tra nsforma tio n, anhydride on heating. Identify the compound (A)?
considering only the major products formed in
each step, what is the product ‘X’ ? CH2Br CH2Br
(1) (2)
NaNH 2 CH 3CH2 I CH3 I
H (excess) (1 equivalen t) (1 equivalent)
CH3
HO CH3
H2 , Lindlar's
cataly st
'X' CH2Br
C2H5
H3CO H
(3) (4)
(1) (2) H
H H H3CO Br
CH3
CH 3CH2O
H 81. Which one of the following is not the correct order
(3) of boiling points of alkyl/aryl halides ?
H H
(1) CHCl3 > CH2 Cl2
H (2) CH3 (CH2 )3 Cl > CH3 (CH2 )2 Cl
(4) H (3) (CH3 )3 CCl > (CH3 )2 CHCH2 Cl
CH 3CH2O
(4) CH3 (CH2 )3 Cl > CH3 CH2 CHClCH3
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86. Ethylene glycol is heated strongly with anhydrous
conc. HNO3 Br2, Fe
(X) ZnCl2 . The product formed is :
+conc. H2SO4
82. Br2 , Fe conc. HNO3 (1) CH2 ClCH2 Cl (2) CH 2—CH2
(Y) (major)
+conc. H2SO4 O
then, the product (X) and (Y) will be : (3) CHO—CHO (4) CH3CHO
NO2 NO2 87. Identify the major product formed in the following
Br NO2
reaction.
Br
, ,
(1) (2) CH2OH
C2 H5I
Br Na 2CO 3
Br NO2 OH
NO2 Br NO2 NO2 CH2OC 2H5 CH2OH
Br Br (1) (2)
(3) , (4) , OH OC2H5
Br
NO2 Br CH2OC 2H5
(3) (4)
83. Iden t ify t he rea ge nt s in t he follo win g OC2H5 O
transformations :
88. The following reactions are carried out.
Br O
C CH CH3 COOH 1. LiAlH4
(A) (B) CH3CH CH2 (A)
2. H3 O
(B)(major)
Br The major product (B) is :
(1) NaNH2 and KMnO 4 /H+ (1) CH3CH2 CH2 OH (2) CH3CHO HCH3
(2) NaNH2 and H2O ; HgSO 4 , H2 SO 4
(3) CH3CHOHCH2 OH (4) CH3CH–CH2
(3) Alc. KOH and H2O ; HgSO 4 , H2 SO 4 O
(4) Alc. KO H and KMnO 4 /H+ 89. D acron is obt ain ed by t he co n de n sa t io n
polymerization of :
H
H3 O
84. Et her
CH3 MgBr ' A ' 'B ' (1) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
O
(2) terephthalic acid and formaldehyde
The IUPAC name of ‘B’ is :
(3) phenol and phthalic acid
(1) 3-methylbutan-2-ol (2) 2-methylbutan-3-ol
(4) phenol and formaldehyde
(3) 2-methylbutan-2-ol (4) pentan-2-ol
85. The following conversion 90. In SiF62 and SiCl 26 , which one is known and
CH3 CH CHCOOH CH3 CH CHCH2 OH why ?
(1) SiF62 because of large size of F
can be accomplished by :
(1) NaBH4 (2) SiF62 because of small size of F
(2) (Me 2CHO )3 Al, Me 2CHO H (3) SiCl 26 because of small size of Cl
(3) H2 , Ni (4) SiCl 26 because of large size of Cl
(4) LiAlH4
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91. PbF4 , PbCl4 exist but PbBr4 and PbI4 do not exist (i) [Fe(H2O )6]2+ (ii) [Fe(CN)6 ]3–
because of : (iii) [Fe(CN)6 ]2– (iv) [Fe(H2O )6]3+
(1) large size of Br – and I– (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
(2) strong oxidising nature of Pb4+ and strong (3) (ii), (iii), (i) and (iv) (4) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
reducing nature of Br– and I–
97. Amongst Ni(CO )4 , [Ni(CN)4 ]2– and [NiCl4 ]2– :
(3) strong reducing nature of Pb4+
(1) Ni(CO )4 and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are diamagnetic and
(4) low electronegativity of Br and I [NiCl4 ]2– is paramagnetic
92. CCl4 is inert to wards h ydrolysis but S iCl4 is (2) Ni(CO )4 and [NiCl4 ]2– are diamagnetic and
readily hydrolysed because : [Ni(CN)4 ]2– is paramagnetic
(1) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can (3) [Ni(CN)4]2– and [NiCl4]2– are diamagnetic and
(2) ionisation energy of carbon is higher than Ni(CO )4 is paramagnetic
silicon (4) Ni(CO )4 is diamagnet ic and [NiCl4 ]2– a nd
(3) carbon forms double and triple bonds [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are paramagnetic
(4) electronegativit y of carbo n is highe r than 98. Which of the following statements are correct ?
silicon
(i) In octahedral complexes, dz 2 , dx 2 y 2 orbitals
93. Graphite is soft while diamond is hard because :
have higher e nergy than dxy , dyz and dzx
(1) diamond has sp2 -hybridisation but graphite
orbitals.
has sp3 -hybridisation
(ii) In tetrahedral complexs, dxy, dyz, dzx orbitals
(2) graphite is in powder form
(3) graphite is in planar form while diamond is have highe r energy tha n d 2 an d dx 2 y 2
z
in tetrahedral form orbitals.
(4) graphite is covalent and diamond is ionic (iii) The colour of complexes are due to electronic
94. Ga is below Al in the periodic table, but atomic t ran sitio n s fro m one se t of
radius of Ga is less than Al. It is because : d-orbitals to another set of orbitals.
(1) lanthanoid contraction 9
(iv) t etra he dral
(2) greater shielding effect 4 octahedral
(3) inert pair effect (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(4) none of these (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
95. Which among the following statements are true 99. The IUPAC name of ferric ferrocyanide is :
for the complex,
(1) hexacyanoferrate (II)
[Co (NH3 )6 ][Cr(CN)6 ] ?
(2) iron (II) hexacyanoferrate (III)
(a).It is non-electrolyte. (3) iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (II)
(b). The magnitude of the charge on each complex
(4) iron (II) hexacyanoferrate (II)
ion is 3.
100. Which of the following complexes exhibits the
(c). The complex will not conduct current.
highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(d). T he co mple x w ill e x hibit coo rdin at io n
(1) [Co (ox)2 (OH)2 ]–
isome rism.
(2) [Ti (NH3 )6 ]3+
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) [V (gly)2 (O H)2 (NH3 )2 ]+
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
(4) [Fe(en) (bpy) (NH3 )2 ]2+
96. Arra nge th e following in order of decrea sing
number of unpaired electrons : wh ere gly = glycine , en = ethylen ediamin e,
bpy = bipyridyl.
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Direction for Q. 101 to Q. 120 In each of the 107. Assertion : For spontaneous process, S Total is
following questions a statement of Assertion is positive.
given followed by a corresponding statement of
Reason just below it. O f the statements mark S Total = S Sysem + S Surroundings
the correct answer as Reason : For spontaneous process,
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and G = –ve
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion 108. Assertion : Te rt -Bu tyl met hyl e th er is n ot
prepa red by t h e re a ct io n o f
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
te rt-butyl bromide w ith sodium
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion methoxide.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false Reason : So dium met ho xide is a st ro ng
nucleophile.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
101. Assertion : Borax forms a lkalin e aq ue ou s 109. Assertion : RCO Cl, (RCO )2O and RCO O R all
solution. re act w ith G rignard rea gen t to
form 3° alcohols.
Reason : Borax is the salt of a w eak acid
(H3BO 3) and a strong base (NaO H). Reason : RCO Cl re acts w it h R2Cd to form
ketones but (RCO )2O and RCO O R
102. Assertion : Wh en the aq ueo us solution of
do not react at all.
CH3CO O NH4 is diluted, then its
degree o f h ydro lysis do es no t 110. Assertion : Ethyl chloride is more reactive than
change. vinyl chloride towards nucleophilic
substitution reactions.
Reason : It is the salt of a weak a cid and a
we ak base hen ce its de gree of Reason : In vin yl ch lo ride, t he — Cl is
hydrolysis does not depend on the bounded to sp-hybridized carbon of
concentration. an alkene.
103. Assertion : The value of equilibrium constant 111. Assertion : Ben zyl bromide w he n ke pt in
depends on the stoichiometry of acetone water, it produces benzyl
the equation. alcohol.
Reason : The value of equilibrium constant Reason : The re a ct io n fo llo ws S
N2
do es n ot ch an ge wh e n t h e
equation is multiplied or divided by mechanism.
a number. 112. Assertion : Phe n ol is mo re rea ctive t ha n
104. Assertion : Free energy of both reactants and ben ze ne t ow ards electrophilic
produ cts a re minimu m a t substitution.
equ ilibrium. Reason : In the case of alkyl ben zene the
Reason : The free energy of reactants and intermediate carbocation is more
products decreases with passage of resonance stabilized.
t ime an d be co me e qu a l a t 113. Assertion : Frie del-Cra ft re act io n bet we en
equ ilibrium. benzene and acetic anhydride in
105. Assertion : Most of the combustion reactions presence of anhydrous AlCl3 yields
are exothermic. acetophenone and notpolysubstitution
Reason : Product s are mo re st able th an product.
reactant s in exothermic process. Reason : Be nz e n e o n tre a t me n t wit h
106. Assertion : There is no exchange in internal n-propyl chloride in presence of
energy in a cyclic process. anh ydrou s AlCl3 yields n-propyl
benzene.
Reason : In a cyclic process, the syst em
returns t o the original state in a
number o f steps.
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AITS - 2016 - 17 - Flash Back - 2 - TEST - 06 - 11
114. Assertion : Purine base present in DNA are (3) All are correct
adenine and guanine. (4) O nly c is correct
Reason : The base th ymine is presen t in 122. What happens in the root
RNA whereas base uracil is present
(1) Sugars enter sieve tubes
in DNA.
(2) Increased turgor pressure
115. Assertion : Stanno us chloride is a pow erful
ox idising agent wh ich o xidises (3) water enter into sieve tube by endosmosis
me rcuro us ch loride t o meta llic (4) Water leave sieve tube by exosmosis.
me rcury. 123. In 1860, Ju lius vo n Sach s, a prominent A a
Reason : S ta n n ou s ch lo ride gives gre y technique of growing plants in A, B, C is known
precipita te with mercuric chloride as D. What are ABCD.
116. Assertion : The ionisation e nergy decreases A B C D
from B to Al, increases in Ga and (1) Chemist Soil Solution Hydroponics
again decreases in In. The value
(2) Botanist Nutrie nt Solution Hydroponics
of Tl is higher than In.
(3) Chemist Nutrie nt Solution Hydroponics
Reason : The screening effe ct is not regular
in gro u p 13 e le men t s. T h e (4) Botanist Chemial Medium Hydroponics
scre e n ing e ffe ct of d- a n d 124. Match the following and select the right option.
f-ele ctro n s in G a a n d T l
(a) Mg2+ (i) Nitrogen me ta bo lism du ring
respectively is poor. nitrogen fixation
117. Assertion : A lCl 3 remo ve s it s e le ctro n (b) Zn 2+ (ii) Alter osmotic potential of the
deficiency by dimerisation. cell
Reason : BF 3 re mo ve s it s e le ct ro n (c) Mo (iii) Activate phosphoenolpyruvate
deficiency by back bonding. carboxylase
118. Assertion : T h e va le n ce bo n d t h eo ry (d) K (iv) Activate alcohol dehydrogenase
represen ts ligand-metal bond as
convalent with a n electron pair (1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
shared between the metal and the (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
ligand.
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
Reason : Co mple xe s are alwa ys n eu tral
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d- (ii)
molecule s and do not ionise in
solution. 125. During development of root nodules in soyabean,
th e ba ct eria get modified int o ro d-sh aped
119. Assertion : Th e ge omet rical isomers of t he
bacteroids and cause.
complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] are optically
ina ctive. (a) O uter cortical cells to divide
Reason : Both geometrical isomers of the (b) Pericycle cells to divide.
complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] posse ss axis Which one of the following options is true
of symmetry.
(1) a is true but b is false
120. Assertion : The octahedral complex Mabcdef
only shows geometrical isomerism. (2) b is true but a is false
Reason : Ma3b3 shows geometrical isomerism. (3) Both a and b are true
(4) Both a and b are ture.
121. The chief sinks for the mineral e lements is/
are 126. Cytochromes b and f in the thylakoid membrane
(a) The growing regions of the plant (1) Pass on electron to the electron carrier on
the inner side of the membrane
(b) Developing flowers
(2) Release pro ton into the inner side of the
(c) Apical meristem
membrane
(d) Lateral meristems
(3) Pass on electron to the electron carrier and
Which one of the following options is correct re le a se prot o n t o th e inn e r side o f t h e
(1) All are correct except d membrane
(2) All are correct except b (4) Re lea se prot on to the ou ter side o f t he
membrane
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127. Carboxylation is the fixation of CO 2 into a stable (4) Gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin
organic intermediate, where. 135. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused the
(a) CO 2 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP human blood even after its uptake by the body
(b) Reaction is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP tissues. This O 2
carboxylase which results in the formation of (1) Helps in releasing more O 2 to the epithelium
one molecule of 3-PGA tissues
Which of the following options is true.
(2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(1) a is true but b is false
(3) Raises the PCO 2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(2) b is true but a is false
(4) Is e n ou gh t o ke e p o x yha e moglo bin
(3) Both a and b are true
saturation at 96%
(4) Both a and b are false
136. When you hold your breath which of the following
128. Which of the follow ing statements a re right gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge
regadring photosynthesis in sorghum.
to breathe.
(a) The primary CO 2 accepter is a 3 - carbon
molecule. (1) Falling O 2 concentration
(b) The primary CO 2 acceptor is present in the (2) Rising CO 2 concentration
bundle sheath cells (3) Falling CO 2 concentration
(c) The enzyme pepcase is responsible for CO 2 (4) Risin g CO 2 co ncent ration an d falling O 2
fixation concentration
(d) Enzyme RuBisco found in mesophyll cells.
137. Compared to blood our lymph has.
(1) a & d (2) b & c (3) a & b (4) a & c
(1) More RBCs and less WBCs
129. W ha t is rele a se d in t he con ve rsio n o f
phosph oenol pyru vate to pyruvic acid during (2) No plasma
glycolysis. (3) Plasma without proteins
(1) H2O (2) ATP (3) NADH (4) ADP (4) More WBCs and no RBCs
130. If two mole cules of glucose are broken down
138. Cardiac output is blood
through respiration while you are doing exercise,
how many ATP are produced in your muscle cells. (1) Received by heart per minute
(1) 2 (2) 72 (3) 76 (4) 4 (2) Pumped by ventricles per second
131. Which one of t he fo llowin g is not correctly (3) Pumped by each ventricle per minute
matched.
(4) Pumped by left ventricle per hour.
(1) P. Skoog – Foolish seeding
139. Number of nephrons of a kidney is equal to
(2) IBA- Have seen isolated from plants
(3) Bolting – Elongation of internode (1) Sum of Bowman’s Capsules and glomeruli
(4) Kinetin – Does not occur naturally in plants (2) Sum of Bowman’s capsules and Malpighian
corpuscles
132. Which of the following events in the life of a plant
where more than one PGR interact to affect that (3) Double the number of Bowman’s Capsules
events (4) Equal to number of Bowman’s Capsules.
(a) Dormancy in buds (b) Apical dominance
140. Under low glomerular blood flow, juxtaglomerular
(c) Senescence (d) Abscission. cells release.
(1) a, c & d (2) a, b & d (1) Angiotensin I (2) Angiotensin II
(3) a & d (4) a, b, c, & d
(3) Aldosterone (4) Renin
133. Human beings have long intestine in order to
provide, more space for 141. Which of the following items gives its correct total
number
(1) Food storage (2) Absorption of food
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans – 8
(3) Killing of bacteria (4) Lipid digestion
134. O xyntic cells are located in (2) Floating ribs in humans – 4
(1) Islets of langerhans and secrete insulin (3) Amino acids found in Proteins – 16
(2) Kidney and secrete renin (4) Types of diabetes – 3
(3) Gastric epithelium and secrete HCl
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142. In the resting muscle fibre, tropomyosin partially (3) consisted of a few layers of collenchymatous
cove rs. cells
(1) Calcium binding sites on troponin (4) In t h e fo rm o f se mi-lun a r pa t ch e s o f
sclerench yma
(2) Actin binding sites on myosin
149. H ow man y of t he follo wing a re veget at ive
(3) Myosin binding sites on action
propagules.
(4) Calcium binding sites on actin. Run ner, Rhizome , bu lb, gemmules, co nidia,
143. Somatic neural system relays impulses. zoospores, sucker, tuber, zygospores, offset.
(1) From the CNS to skeletal muscles (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3
(2) From the CNS to the involuntary organs 150. In which of the following groups, the reduction
(3) From CNS to the smooth muscles division has to occur if a body has to produce
haploid gametes.
(4) From skeletal muscles to the CNS
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Bryophytes
144. Which one of the following is not the part of
synapse. (3) Monera (4) Fun gi
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane 151. The portion of the embryonal axis above the level
of a tta ch men t of scute llum ha s a few le af
(2) Synaptic cleft
premordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
(3) Post-synaptic membrane called
(4) Synaptic vesicles (1) Coleorrhiza (2) Hypocotyl
145. Wh ich one of the follow ing is not correct ly (3) Coleoptile (4) Plumule
matched.
152. Apomixis have evolved in some species of
(1) Hyperthyroidism – Adversely affects the body
(1) Asteraceae (2) Solanaceae
physiology.
(3) Fabaceae (4) Bra ssicaceae
(2) T -L ymph ocyt es – Pro vide ce ll-media te d
immu nity 153. What is common in indica, tuberosum and leo.
(3) Aldosterone – Stimulates reabsorption of K+ (1) They belong to same species
(4) Erythropoietin – Formation of RBC. (2) They belong to same genera
146. Hormones which interact with membrane bound (3) They have more characteristics in common
receptors (4) They represent species.
(a) Normally do not enter the target cells 154. Wh at w ou ld yo u th ink be righ t a bo ut t he
(b) generate second messengers organism that have a protein rich layer, which
makes their body flexible.
(c) Regulate cellular metabolism
(1) Undergo rapid multiplication and make the
(4) Fun ction by th e inte raction of hormo ne-
sea appear red
receptor complex with the genome.
(2) When deprived of sunlight they behave like
Which of the following options Contains right
heterotrophs
statements.
(3) Un de r suit able con ditio ns th ey form an
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (3) a, b & c (4) a & c
aggregation called plasmodium
147. Sap wood is constituted of
(4) They left behind large amount of cell wall
(1) Primary xylem deposits in their habitats.
(2) Secondary xylem 155. Match the following and select the right option.
(3) Secondary phloem (a) Mannitol – (i) Red algae
(4) Secondary phloem and phellogen (b) Carrage en – (ii) Brown algae
148. Pericycle of dicot stem present on the inner side (c) Gemmae – (iii) Liverworts
of the endodermis and above the phloem, that
(d) Protonema – (iv) mosses
is/a re
(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(1) Rich in starch grains referred to as starch
sheath (2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) A fe w la ye rs o f ra dia lly place d (3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
parenchymatous cells (4) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
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156. Which of the two phylum co ntain orga nisms 161. Assertion : Imbibit io n is a specia l type o f
those have true coelom. diffusion.
(1) Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes Reason : In imbibition water is absorbed by
(2) Platyhelminthes and Annelida solids -collo ids ca using them to
enormously increase in volume.
(3) Aschelminthes and Arthropoda
162. Assertion : In the absence o f any particular
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda e leme n t plan t s sh o w ce rta in
157. In how many of the following plants corolla having morphological changes.
vexillary aestivation. Reason : Ea ch e leme nt h as o ne o r mo re
Lu pin, Sw ee t pea , Alo e, A spa ra gu s, Tu lip, spe cific structural o r fun ctio nal
Gloriosa petunia, Potato, Ashwagandha, Sem, role in palnts.
Trifolium. 163. Assertion : Chlorophyll a is the major pigment
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 responsible for trapping light.
158. If a parent cell has 30 chromosomes then after Reason : Pigme n ts like chlo ro ph yll b,
mitosis, the each daughter cell will have....... xanthophylls and carotenoids also
chromosomes. absorb light
(1) 30 (2) 15 (3) 10 (4) 25 164. Assertion : Carboxylation is the fixation of CO 2
159. The given graph shows the effect of substrate into a stable organic intermediate.
concen tration on the rate o f reaction of the Reason : The most crucial step of the Calvin
enzyme green gram phosphatase. What does the Cycle wh ere CO 2 is utilised for the
graph indicate. carboxylation of RuBP.
165. Assertion : T h e re spirat o ry pro ce ss h a s
tradit iona lly bee n co nsidered a
catabolic process
Velocity
Reason : Respiration involves breakdown of
substrates.
166. Assertion : The plant cells grow in size by cell
e n la rgeme n t w h ich re q u ire s
Substrate water.
concentration Reason : Wa ter pro vide s t he medium for
en zyma tic activitie s n eede d for
(1) Th e ra te of e nz yme rea ct io n is dire ct ly growth
proportional to the substrate concentration
167. Assertion : Submucosal epithelium has goblet
(2) Presence o f an enz yme inhibitor in t he cells.
reaction mixture
Reason : Goblet cells secrete HCL.
(3) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex
168. Assertion : Tidal volume is 6000-8000 ml of air
(4) At higher substrate concentrat ion the pH per minute.
increases
Reason : Additiona l volume of air, a person
160. In a 50g living tissue, what would be the amount ca n in spire by a fo rcible
of water. inspiration.
(1) 15-25g (2) 25-30g (3)35-45g (4)70-90g 169. Assertion : Proteins produced in response to
Direction for Q. 161 to Q. 180 In each of the antigens is antibody.
following questions a statement of Assertion is Reason : The plasma of different individuals
given followed by a corresponding statement of contain two natural antibodies.
Reason just below it. O f the statements mark
the correct answer as 170. Assertion : Th e e pit helial cells of Bow man ’s
capsule called podocytes.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason : Podo cyte s a re arran ged in a n
Assertion intricate manner so as to le ave
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but so me min ute spaces called slit
the Reason is not the correct explanation of pores.
the Assertion 171. Assertion : Ba ll a nd socke t jo int fou n d
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false between atlas and axis.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false Reason : Joints do not allow any movent.
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172. Assertion : The axon terminals contain vesicles 183. The birth place of Ma harani Laxmi Bai, the
filled with neurotransmitters. heroine of the 1857 Freedom stuggle is
Reason : Ch emicals are in vo lved in th e (1) Agra (2) Jha nsi
tran smission of impulses at the
(3) Vara nasi (4) Vrindaban
synapses.
184. Indian National Congress was founded by
173. Assertion : T he immun e re spo nses o f old
persons become weak. (1) Womesh Chandra Banergee
Reason : Thymus is degenerated resulting (2) Michal Hume
in a de crea se d produ ctio n o f (3) Allon O ctavian hume
thymosins. (4) Mahatma Gandhi
174. Assertion : Tricho mes ma y be branched or 185. Who gave the ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ slogan?
unbranched.
(1) Iqbal (2) M.K Gandhi
Reason : T rich o mes a re u n ice llula r
elongatio n of the epidermal cells. (3) Bhagat Singh (4) S.C. Bose
175. Assertion : Several o rganisms have haploid 186. Who had founded the independent league?
plant body (1) Moti Lal Nehru (2) Mahatma Gandhi
Reason : Specialised cells, gamet e mother (3) Raj Behari bose (4) Lala Lajpat Rai
cells un dergo meiosis to produce 187. Who wrote the ‘Discovery of India’ ?
game te.
(1) Jawahar Lal Neharu (2) Lala Lajpat rai
176. Assertion : The cell of the sporogenous tissue
(3) Dadabhia Naoroji (4) Moti Lal Nehru
undergo meiotic division to form
microspore tetrads. 188. The axecutive power of the state are vested in
Reason : A grou p o f co mpa ct ly arra nged t he G ove rno r un de r a rticle .......o f th e
homogeneous cells occupies the constitution
centre o f each microspo rangium. (1) 14 (2) 154 (3) 156 (4) 356
177. Assertion : In pte ridophytes the main plant 189. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
body is sporophyte. (1) The President
Reason : Pla nt body of pte rido ph yt es is (2) The Vice-President
diploid and differentiated into true
(3) The Prime Minister
root, stem and leaves.
(4) The Speaker
178. Assertion : Bioluminescence, the property of
a living organism to emit light. 190. The Speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called
Reason : Biolu mine sce nce is fo u n d in (1) Casting vote (2) Sound vote
Cnidarian. (3) Direct vote (4) Indirect vote
179. Assertion : Lichens are symbiotic association 191. Atmosphere gets heated up
Reason : Mu tu a lly u se fu l a sso cia tio n (1) In the early morning
between alga e and fungi (2) At mid day
180. Assertion : Biological names are generally in (3) After mid day
Latin and written in italics.
(4) In the late evening
Reason : Biologica l names are Latinised or
192. Which country produced 127 lakh metric tones
derived from Latin irrespective of
fish in 2010
their o rigin.
(1) Russia (2) Japan
181. Wh o deciphe red t he Brahmi inscriptio n of
Ashoka first time? (3) U.S.A (4) Canada
(1) James Princep (2) H.D. Sankaliya 193. Turkey is are of the major world producers of
(3) S.R. Goyal (4) V.N. Mishra (1) Iron ore (2) Coal
182. The art style which combines Indian and Greek (3) Ch romium (4) Petroleum
feature is called 194. Among the following countries, which one is most
(1) Sikh ar (2) Vesar densely populated?
(3) Gandhar (4) Nagar (1) Belgium (2) Fra nce
(3) Germany (4) The Netherland
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195. Which state has the largest coastline in India? 198. September 11 is abserved as
(1) Gujarat (2) Tamil Nadu (1) World vegetarian day
(3) Karna taka (4) Andhra Pradesh (2) Un it e d Na t io n s D a y fo r S o u th -S ou t h
196. Wh ich o f t he fo llo win g doe s n ot be lon g to cooperation
biosphere reserves set up so far? (3) World First Aid Day
(1) Nilgiris (2) Sundarbans (4) World Television day
(3) Nanda devi (4) Reuna 199. The term ‘Butterfly stroke is associated with
197. A menu contains a list of........... (1) Kabaddi (2) Wrestling
(1) Commands (2) Data (3) Sw imming (4)Rowing
(3) O bjects (4) Reports 200. Which of the following award is asociated with
Agricultu re?
(1) Baurlog Award
(2) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar
(3) Arjun award
(4) Vyas Samnan
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