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T04 - Risks & Cost of Capital
T04 - Risks & Cost of Capital
B. Lower price than an asset with low risk. D. High standard deviation of returns. Gleim b. Sales price variability.
c. The extent to which operating costs are fixed.
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. Risk to a company is affected by both project variability and how project returns correlate with d. Changes in required returns due to financing decisions.
those of the company’s prevailing business. Overall company risk will be lowest when a e. The ability to change prices as costs change. Brigham
project’s returns exhibit CIA 1186 IV-39
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a. Low variability and negative correlation. c. High variability and positive correlation. . Which of the following affects a firm’s business risk? (E)
b. Low variability and positive correlation. d. High variability and no correlation. a. The level of uncertainty about future sales.
b. The degree of operating leverage.
Liquidity Risk c. The degree of financial leverage.
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. The risk that securities cannot be sold at a reasonable price on short notice is called d. Statements a and b are correct.
A. Default risk. C. Purchasing-power risk. e. All of the statements above are correct. Brigham
B. Interest-rate risk. D. Liquidity risk. CIA 1190 IV-51
Financial Risk
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. When purchasing temporary investments, which one of the following best describes the risk *. Which of the following would increase risk? (M)
associated with the ability to sell the investment in a short period of time without significant a. Increase the level of working capital.
price concessions? (E) b. Change the composition of working capital to include more liquid assets.
A. Interest rate risk. C. Financial risk. c. Increase the amount of short-term borrowing.
B. Purchasing power risk. D. Liquidity risk. CMA 0697 1-11 d. Increase the amount of equity financing. RPCPA 1091
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Business Risk . A firm’s financial risk is a function of how it manages and maintains its debt. Which one of the
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. Business risk is the risk inherent in a firm's operations that excludes financial risk. It depends following sets of ratios characterizes the firm with the greatest amount of financial risk?
on all of the following factors except (E) A. High debt-to-equity ratio, high interest coverage ratio, stable return on equity.
A. Amount of financial leverage. C. Demand variability. B. Low debt-to-equity ratio, low interest coverage ratio, volatile return on equity.
B. Sales price variability. D. Input price variability. Gleim C. High debt-to-equity ratio, low interest coverage ratio, volatile return on equity.
D. Low debt-to-equity ratio, high interest coverage ratio, stable return on equity. CMA 1291 1-
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. Business risk excludes such factors as 4
A. Financial risk. C. Demand variability.
B. Amount of operating leverage. D. Fluctuations in suppliers' prices. Gleim Business and financial risk
3. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E)
1. A decrease in the debt ratio will generally have no effect on __________ ______. (E) a. A firm’s business risk is solely determined by the financial characteristics of its industry.
a. Financial risk. b. The factors that affect a firm’s business risk are determined partly by industry
b. Total risk. characteristics and partly by economic conditions. Unfortunately, these and other factors
c. Business risk. that affect a firm’s business risk are not subject to any degree of managerial control.
d. Market risk. Brigham c. One of the benefits to a firm of being at or near its target capital structure is that financial
flexibility becomes much less important.
2. Business risk is concerned with the operations of the firm. Which of the following is not d. The firm’s financial risk may have both market risk and diversifiable risk components.
associated with (or not a part of) business risk? (E) Brigham
a. Demand variability.
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Exchange-rate Risk . O & B Company, a U.S. corporation, is in possession of accounts receivable denominated in
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. The risk of loss because of fluctuations in the relative value of foreign currencies is called German deutsche marks. To what type of risk are they exposed? (E)
A. Expropriation risk. C. Multinational beta. A. Liquidity risk. C. Exchange-rate risk.
B. Sovereign risk. D. Exchange rate risk. CIA 1191 IV-60 B. Business risk. D. Price risk. Gleim
19
. Bonner Electronics has subsidiaries in several international locations and is concerned about
its exposure to foreign exchange risk. In countries where currency values are likely to fall,
Bonner should encourage all of the following policies except
A. Granting trade credit whenever possible.
B. Investing excess cash in inventory or other real assets.
C. Purchasing materials and supplies on a trade credit basis. CFM Sample Q. 5
D. Borrowing local currency funds if an appropriate interest rate can be obtained.
20
. A firm may seek to avoid exchange-rate risk by
A. Maintaining a net monetary debtor position in countries with strengthening currencies.
B. Maintaining a net monetary creditor position in countries with weakening currencies.
C. Avoiding diversification of foreign-currency transactions. Gleim
D. Buying forward exchange contracts to cover liabilities denominated in a foreign currency.
Cultural Risk
56. A U.S. manufacturer of which of the following goods would be likely to face the most cultural
risks in operating globally?
a. Furniture c. Clothing
b. Automobiles d. Food Barfields
57. A U.S. manufacturer of which of the following goods would be likely to face the fewest cultural
risks in operating globally?
a. Toys c. Clothing
b. Food d. Furniture Barfields
Political Risk
58. Which of the following would be considered a political risk in doing business globally?
a. Asset expropriation c. Workplace diversity
b. Inflation d. All of the above Barfields
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. Political risk may be reduced by
A. Entering into a joint venture with another foreign company.
B. Making foreign operations dependent on the domestic parent for technology, markets, and
supplies. RISK MANAGEMENT METHODS
C. Refusing to pay higher wages and higher taxes. Portfolio Theory
D. Financing with capital from a foreign country. Gleim 1. Portfolio Theory was first developed by:
A. Merton Miller C. Harry Markowitz
Comprehensive B. Franco Modigliani D. Richard Breadey B&M
*. All of the following statements are correct except:
a. The matching of asset and liability maturities is considered desirable because this strategy 12. A portfolio will a usually contain:
minimizes interest rate risk. A. One riskless asset C. One risky asset
b. Default risk refers to the inability of the firm to pay off its maturing obligations. B. Two or more assets D. None of the above B&M
c. The matching of assets and liability maturities lowers default risk.
d. An increase in the payables deferral period will lead to a reduction in the need to non- Portfolio Management
spontaneous funding. RPCPA 1095 Efficient Portfolio
25. Efficient portfolios are those which offer:
A. Highest expected return for a given level of risk
B. Highest risk for a given level of expected return
C. The maximum risk and expected return
D. All of the above B&M
Feasible Portfolio
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. A feasible portfolio that offers the highest expected return for a given risk or the least risk for a
given expected return is a(n)
A. Optimal portfolio. C. Efficient portfolio.
B. Desirable portfolio. D. Effective portfolio. Gleim
Optimal Portfolio
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. An optimal portfolio of investments is (E)
A. Efficient because it offers the highest expected return.
B. Any portfolio chosen from the efficient set of portfolios.
C. Any portfolio chosen from the feasible set of portfolios.
D. Tangent to the investor's highest indifference curve. Gleim
26. Is the minimum variance portfolio an efficient portfolio? Market Price of Risk
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A. Yes C. Not necessarily . The market price of risk (M)
B. No B&M a. is the risk premium divided by the standard deviation of the market returns.
b. has a reward-to-risk ratio of [E(rM ) - rf]/2M.
Well-Diversified Portfolio c. is the price of a U. S. T-bill.
30. In a well diversified portfolio, the type of risk remaining is: d. a and b.
A. Individual security risk C. Total risk e. a and c. Bodie
B. Zero risk D. Market risk B&M
Risk Level of Securities
31. A well-diversified portfolio has negligible: 29
. Which of the following classes of securities are listed in order from lowest risk/opportunity for
A. Systematic risk C. Market risk return to highest risk/opportunity for return? (E)
B. Unique risk D. None of the above B&M A. U.S. Treasury bonds; corporate first mortgage bonds; corporate income bonds; preferred
stock.
Portfolio Matrix Analysis B. Corporate income bonds; corporate mortgage bonds; convertible preferred stock;
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. Which one of the following planning techniques is most likely to be used to determine which subordinated debentures.
business units will receive additional capital and which will be divested? (D) C. Common stock; corporate first mortgage bonds; corporate second mortgage bonds;
A. Competitive strategies model. C. Scenario development. corporate income bonds. CIA 0589 IV-49
B. Portfolio matrix analysis. D. Situational analysis. CMA Samp Q3-9 D. Preferred stock; common stock; corporate mortgage bonds; corporate debentures.
Unsystematic Risk 1. Which of the following portfolios have the least risk?
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In a well diversified portfolio (M) Bodie A. A portfolio of treasury bills
a. market risk is negligible. c. unsystematic risk is negligible. B. A portfolio of long term United States Government bonds
b. systematic risk is negligible. d. nondiversifiable risk is negligible. C. Standard and Poor's composite index
D. Portfolio of common stocks of small firms B&M
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Two-Stocks Portfolio
Correlation Coefficient Hedging
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36. For a two-stock portfolio, the maximum reduction in risk occurs when the correlation coefficient . When a firm finances each asset with a financial instrument of the same approximate maturity
between the two stocks is: as the life of the asset, it is applying
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A. Working capital management. C. Financial leverage. C. A commitment today to purchase a product on a specific future date at a price determined
B. Return maximization. D. A hedging approach. CMA 1291 1-13 today.
D. A commitment today to purchase a product only when its price increases above its current
. Contracts to hedge risk by exchanging cash flows include (E)
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exercise price. Gleim
Gleim A. B. C. D.
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Interest-Rate Swaps Yes Yes No No . If a corporation holds a forward contract for the delivery of U.S. Treasury bonds in 6 months
Currency Swaps Yes No Yes No and, during those 6 months, interest rates decline, at the end of the 6 months the value of the
forward contract will have
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. The use of derivatives to either hedge or speculate results in A. Decreased.
A. Increased risk regardless of motive. B. Increased.
B. Decreased risk regardless of motive. C. Remained constant.
C. Offset risk when hedging and increased risk when speculating. D. Any of the answers may be correct, depending on the extent of the decline in interest
D. Offset risk when speculating and increased risk when hedging. Gleim rates. Gleim
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. A company has recently purchased some stock of a competitor as part of a long-term plan to Futures Contract
50
acquire the competitor. However, it is somewhat concerned that the market price of this stock . A distinguishing feature of a futures contract is that
could decrease over the short run. The company could hedge against the possible decline in A. Performance is delayed. C. Delivery is to be on a specific day. Gleim
the stock's market price by CIA 0590 IV-57 B. It is a hedge, not a speculation. D. The price is marked to market each day.
A. Purchasing a call option on that stock. C. Selling a put option on that stock. 51
B. Purchasing a put option on that stock. D. Obtaining a warrant option on that stock. . An automobile company that uses the futures market to set the price of steel to protect a profit
against price increases is an example of
Duration Hedging A. A short hedge.
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. Duration hedging involves hedging interest-rate risk by matching the duration of assets with B. A long hedge.
the duration of liabilities. Which of the following is a true statement about duration hedging? C. Selling futures to protect the company from loss.
(M) D. Selling futures to protect against price declines. Gleim
A. If duration increases, the volatility of the price of a debt instrument decreases.
B. The goal of duration hedging is to equate the duration of assets with the duration of Interest rate futures contract
liabilities. Interest rate Swap
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C. The firm is immunized against interest-rate risk when the total price change for assets . In an interest rate swap, the first company
equals the total price change for liabilities. A. Sells its right to low interest rate financing at a financial institution to the second company
D. Duration is higher if the nominal rate on a debt instrument is higher. Gleim that is seeking to borrow funds.
B. Agrees to service the debt of the second company by making interest payments directly to
Forward Contract the bank of the second company, while the second company agrees in exchange to make
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. A forward contract involves (E) interest payments to the bank of the first company.
A. A commitment today to purchase a product on a specific future date at a price to be C. Buys the outstanding public debt of the second company and swaps the interest
determined some time in the future. payments it receives on that debt for the interest payments it must make on its own debt.
B. A commitment today to purchase a product some time during the current day at its present
price.
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D. Agrees to exchange with the second company the difference between the interest charges
on its own borrowings and the interest charges on the borrowings of the second company. RISK-ADJUSTED DISCOUNT RATE
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CIA 0596 IV-29 . Mega Inc., a large conglomerate with operating divisions in many industries, uses risk-adjusted
discount rates in evaluating capital investment decisions. Consider the following statements
Interest Rate & Currency Swap concerning Mega's use of risk-adjusted discount rates.
. Contracts to hedge risk by exchanging cash flows include
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I. Mega may accept some investments with internal rates of return less than Mega's overall
Gleim A. B. C. D. average cost of capital.
Interest-Rate Swaps Yes Yes No No II. Discount rates vary depending on the type of investment.
Currency Swaps Yes No Yes No III. Mega may reject some investments with internal rates of return greater than the cost of
capital.
METHODS OF ANALYZING RISK IV. Discount rates may vary depending on the division.
Sensitivity Analysis Which of the above statements are correct? (D)
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. Which of the following approaches would best analyze the risk of increasing the price of a A. I and III only. C. II, III, and IV only.
table by $50? (E) B. II and IV only. D. I, II, III, and IV.
A. Sensitivity analysis. C. Informal method. CMA Samp Q4-5
B. Simulation analysis. D. Certainty equivalent adjustments. Gleim 57
. Dick Boe Enterprises, an all-equity firm, has a corporate beta coefficient of 1.5. The financial
Simulation Analysis manager is evaluating a project with an expected return of 21 percent, before any risk
55
. Which method for measuring risk considers both the sensitivity of changing NPVs and the adjustment. The risk-free rate is 10 percent, and the required rate of return on the market is 16
range of values of the variables that are changed? percent. The project being evaluated is riskier than Boe’s average project, in terms of both
A. Simulation analysis. C. Sensitivity analysis. beta risk and total risk. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E)
B. The Capital Asset Pricing Model. D. Certainty equivalent adjustments. Gleim a. The project should be accepted since its expected return (before risk adjustment) is
greater than its required return.
Analysis of Pricing Technique b. The project should be rejected since its expected return (before risk adjustment) is less
50. The acronym APT stands for: than its required return.
A. Arbitrage Pricing Model C. Analysis of Pricing Technique c. The accept/reject decision depends on the risk-adjustment policy of the firm. If the firm’s
B. Asset Pricing Tool D. Analysis Pricing Theory B&M policy were to reduce a riskier-than-average project’s expected return by 1 percentage
point, then the project should be accepted.
51. A "factor" in APT is a variable that: d. Riskier-than-average projects should have their expected returns increased to
A. Affects the return of risky assets in a systematic manner reflect their added riskiness. Clearly, this would make the project acceptable regardless of
B. Correlates with risky asset returns in an unsystematic manner the amount of the adjustment.
C. Is purely "noise" e. Projects should be evaluated on the basis of their total risk alone. Thus, there is insuffi-
D. Affects the return of a risky asset in a random manner B&M cient information in the problem to make an accept/reject decision. Brigham
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Three-factor Model . Assume you are the director of capital budgeting for an all-equity firm. The firm’s current cost
55. The three factors in the Three-Factor Model are: of equity is 16 percent; the risk-free rate is 10 percent; and the market risk premium is 5
A. Market factor C. Book-to-market factor percent. You are considering a new project that has 50 percent more beta risk than your firm’s
B. Size factor D. All of the above B&M assets currently have, that is, its beta is 50 percent larger than the firm’s existing beta. The
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expected return on the new project is 18 percent. Should the project be accepted if beta risk is 26. A dollar now is worth more than a dollar to be received in the future because of
the appropriate risk measure? Choose the correct statement. (M) a. Inflation. c. The opportunity cost of waiting.
a. Yes; its expected return is greater than the firm’s cost of capital. b. Uncertainty. d. None of the above. L&H
b. Yes; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is less than its expected return.
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c. No; a 50 percent increase in beta risk gives a risk-adjusted required return of 24 percent. . The theory underlying the cost of capital is primarily concerned with the cost of
d. No; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is 2 percentage points above its expected A. Long-term funds and old funds.
return. B. Short-term funds and new funds.
e. No; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is 1 percentage point above its expected C. Long-term funds and new funds.
return. Brigham D. Any combination of old or new, short-term or long-term funds. CMA 0692 1-13
59 61
. Assume you are the director of capital budgeting for an all-equity firm. The firm’s current cost . Management knowledge of the cost of capital is useful for each of the following except (D)
of equity is 16 percent; the risk-free rate is 10 percent; and the market risk premium is 5 a. Making capital investment decisions.
percent. You are considering a new project that has 50 percent more beta risk than your firm’s b. Managing working capital.
assets currently have, that is, its beta is 50 percent larger than the firm’s existing beta. The c. Setting the maximum rate of return on new investments.
expected return on the new project is 18 percent. Should the project be accepted if beta risk is d. Evaluating performance. Gleim
the appropriate risk measure? Choose the correct statement. (M)
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a. Yes; its expected return is greater than the firm’s cost of capital. . In referring to the graph of a firm's cost of capital, if e is the current position, which one of the
b. Yes; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is less than its expected return. following statements best explains the saucer or U-shaped curve?
c. No; a 50 percent increase in beta risk gives a risk-adjusted required return of 24 percent.
d. No; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is 2 percentage points above its expected
return.
e. No; the project’s risk-adjusted required return is 1 percentage point above its expected Cost of
return. Brigham Capital
(percent)
COST OF CAPITAL e
42. Cost of capital is (E)
a. The interest rate an entity must pay to borrow money.
b. The return an entity’s stockholders expect on their investment . Debt-to-Equity Ratio
c. The rate of return the entity can earn from investing available cash. A. The composition of debt and equity does not affect the firm's cost of capital.
d. A concept of managerial finance incorporating all of the above. L&H B. The cost of capital is almost always favorably influenced by increases in financial
leverage.
13. Cost of capital is C. The financial markets will penalize firms that borrow even in moderate amounts.
a. The amount the company must pay for its plant assets. D. Use of at least some debt financing will enhance the value of the firm. CMA 1288 1-5
b. The dividends a company must pay on its equity securities.
c. The cost the company must incur to obtain its capital resources. 26. The pre-tax cost of capital is higher than the after-tax cost of capital because (E)
d. The cost the company is charged by investment bankers who handle the issuance of a. interest expense is deductible for tax purposes.
equity or long-term debt securities. L&H b. principal payments on debt are deductible for tax purposes.
c. the cost of capital is a deductible expense for tax purposes.
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d. dividend payments to stockholders are deductible for tax purposes. Barfield a. The stated interest paid on a bank loan.
b. Assets that are considered obsolete that maintain a net book value.
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. The overall cost of capital is the c. Decelerated depreciation.
A. Rate of return on assets that covers the costs associated with the funds employed. d. Lending funds to a supplier at a lower-than-market rate in exchange for receiving the
B. Average rate of return a firm earns on its assets. supplier’s products at a discount. CMA 0689 1-25
C. Minimum rate a firm must earn on high-risk projects.
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D. Cost of the firm's equity capital at which the market value of the firm will remain . The explicit cost of debt financing is the interest expense. The implicit cost(s) of debt financing
unchanged. CMA 0692 1-11 is (are) the (D)
a. Increase in the cost of debt as the debt-to-equity ratio increases.
*. Which of these statements are pertinent to cost of capital? (D) b. Increases in the cost of debt and equity as the debt-to-equity ratio increases.
1. It is the expected return that investors demand for a given level of risk. c. Increase in the cost of equity as the debt-to-equity ratio decreases. CMA 1291 1-2
2. It may be employed as a benchmark for the evaluation of performance. d. Decrease in the weighted-average cost of capital as the debt-to-equity ratio increases.
3. For investment decisions, it must be based on the current or prospective cost of the
various capital components rather than on their historical costs.
4. It may also be used in acquisition analysis, liquidation studies and source of financing
decisions.
5. It may differ from the hurdle rate used to reflect relative risk attributed to a specific project,
division, or business unit. RPCPA 1094
a. All five statements. c. Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 only.
b. Statements 1, 2 and 3 only. d. Statements 1, 2, 4 and 5 only.
Cost of Debt Capital II. The coupon rate on the bond is greater than the market rate of interest.
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. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E) III. The coupon rate and the market rate are equal.
a. Since the money is readily available, the cost of retained earnings is usually a lot cheaper IV. The bond sells at a premium.
than the cost of debt financing. V. The bond sells at a discount.
b. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, a company needs to adjust for taxes, a. I and IV. c. II and IV.
because preferred stock dividends are tax deductible. b. I and V. d. II and V. CMA 0695 1-6
c. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest
payments are tax deductible. *. If the return on total assets is 10% and if the return on common stockholders’ equity is 12%
d. Statements a and b are correct. then (D)
e. Statements b and c are correct. Brigham a. The after-tax cost of long-term debt is probably greater than 10%.
b. The after-tax cost of long-term debt is 12%.
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. In computing the cost of capital, the cost of debt capital is determined by (E) c. Leverage is negative.
a. Annual interest payment divided by the proceeds from debt issuance. d. The after-tax cost of long-term debt is probably less than 10%. RPCPA 1095
b. Interest rate times (1 – the firm’s tax rate)
c. Annual interest payment divided by the book value of the debt. . Which of the following statements is most correct? (M)
d. The capital asset pricing model. Gleim a. Suppose a firm is losing money and thus, is not paying taxes, and that this situation is
expected to persist for a few years whether or not the firm uses debt financing. Then the
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. If k is the cost of debt and t is the marginal tax rate, the after-tax cost of debt k, is best firm’s after-tax cost of debt will equal its before-tax cost of debt.
represented by the formula b. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as k p(1 - T), because preferred stock
a. ki = k/t c. ki = k(t) dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of debt interest.
b. ki =k/(1 – t) d. ki = k (1 – t) CMA 1288 1-3 c. The reason that a cost is assigned to retained earnings is because these funds are
already earning a return in the business; the reason does not involve the opportunity cost
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. If Brewer Corporation's bonds are currently yielding 8% in the marketplace, why is the firm's principle. Brigham
cost of debt lower? (E) d. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating a firm’s cost of common equity
A. Market interest rates have increased. involves adding a subjectively determined risk-premium to the market risk-free bond rate.
B. Additional debt can be issued more cheaply than the original debt.
C. There should be no difference; cost of debt is the same as the bonds' market yield. Marginal Cost of Debt
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D. Interest is deductible for tax purposes. CMA 0692 1-12 . The marginal cost of debt for a firm is defined as the interest rate on <List A> debt minus the
<List B>. (M)
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The interest rate on the bonds is greater for the second alternative consisting of pure debt than CIA 0594 IV-48 List A List B
it is for the first alternative consisting of both debt and equity because A. New Firm's marginal tax rate
A. The diversity of the combination alternative creates greater risk for the investor. B. Outstanding Firm's marginal tax rate
B. The pure debt alternative would flood the market and be more difficult to sell. C. New Interest rate times the firm's marginal tax rate
C. The pure debt alternative carries the risk of increasing the probability of default. D. Outstanding Interest rate times the firm's marginal tax rate
D. The combination alternative carries the risk of increasing dividend payments.
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71
. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E)
If a $1,000 bond sells for $1,125, which of the following statements are correct?
I. The market rate of interest is greater than the coupon rate on the bond.
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a. If a company’s tax rate increases but the yield to maturity of its noncallable bonds remains Cost of Common Equity
the same, the company’s marginal cost of debt capital used to calculate its weighted . Which of the following factors in the discounted cash flow (DCF) approach to estimating the
average cost of capital will fall. cost of common equity is the least difficult to estimate? (E)
b. All else equal, an increase in a company’s stock price will increase the marginal cost of a. Expected growth rate, g. c. Required return, ks.
retained earnings, ks. b. Dividend yield, D1/P0. d. Expected rate of return, k̂s . Brigham
c. All else equal, an increase in a company’s stock price will increase the marginal cost of
issuing new common equity, ke. 76
. Assume that nominal interest rates just increased substantially but that the expected future
d. Statements a and b are correct. dividends for a company over the long run were not affected. As a result of the increase in
e. Statements b and c are correct. Brigham nominal interest rates, the company's stock price should
A. Increase. C. Stay constant. CIA 0593 IV-49
Cost of Debt & Cost of Preferred Stock B. Decrease. D. Change, but in no obvious direction.
17. The basis for measuring the cost of capital derived from bonds and preferred stock,
respectively, is the (M) 77
. The market value of a firm’s outstanding common shares will be higher, everything else equal,
A. after-tax rate of interest for bonds and stated annual dividend rate for preferred stock if (M)
B. pretax rate of interest for bonds and stated annual dividend rate less the expected a. Investors have a lower required return on equity.
earnings per share for preferred stock b. Investors expect lower dividend growth.
C. pretax rate of interest for bonds and stated annual dividend rate for preferred stock c. Investors have longer expected holding periods.
D. after-tax rate of interest for bonds and stated annual dividend rate less the expected d. Investors have shorter expected holding periods. CIA 1196 IV-25
earnings per share for preferred stock AICPA adapted
Cost of Retained Earnings
Cost of Debt vs. Cost of Equity Capital 78
. When calculating the cost of capital, the cost assigned to retained earnings should be (E)
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. In general, it is more expensive for a company to finance with equity capital than with debt A. Zero.
capital because (E) B. Lower than the cost of external common equity.
A. Long-term bonds have a maturity date and must therefore be repaid in the future. C. Equal to the cost of external common equity.
B. Investors are exposed to greater risk with equity capital. D. Higher than the cost of external common equity. CIA 1195 IV-43
C. Equity capital is in greater demand than debt capital.
D. Dividends fluctuate to a greater extent than interest rates. CMA 0690 1-15 79
. Which of the following statements is most correct? (M)
a. The cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firm’s common
Cost of Equity Capital stock.
Cost of Preferred Stock b. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as k p(1 - T), because preferred stock
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. Which of the following statements is most correct? (M) dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of debt interest.
a. The before-tax cost of preferred stock may be lower than the before-tax cost of debt, even c. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating a firm’s cost of common equity
though preferred stock is riskier than debt. involves adding a subjectively determined risk-premium to the market risk-free bond rate.
b. If a company’s stock price increases, this increases its cost of common equity. d. The higher the firm’s flotation cost for new common stock, the more likely the firm is to use
c. If the cost of equity capital is low enough, it may be cheaper to issue common stock than it preferred stock, which has no flotation cost. Brigham
is to finance projects with retained earnings.
d. Statements a and b are correct. Brigham Marginal Cost of Capital
80
. If a company has a higher dividend-payout ratio, then, if all else if equal, it will have
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MANAGEMENT ADVISORY SERVICES RISKS
a. A higher marginal cost of capital. C. Increases as the required rate of return increases
b. A lower marginal cost of capital. D. Both A and B B&M
c. A higher investment opportunity schedule.
d. A lower investment opportunity schedule. CIA 0597 IV-53 Dividend Growth Rate
14. Dividend growth rate for a stable firm can be estimated as:
81
. The firm’s marginal cost of capital (E) A. Plow back rate * the return on equity (ROE)
a. Should be the same as the firm’s rate of return on equity. B. Plow back rate / the return on equity (ROE)
b. Is unaffected by the firm’s capital structure. CMA 1291 1-8 C. Plow back rate +the return on equity (ROE)
c. In inversely related to the firm’s required rate of return used in capital budgeting. D. Plow back rate - the return on equity (ROE) B&M
d. Is a weighted-average of the investors’ required returns on debt and equity.
24. The growth rate in dividends can be thought of as a sum of two parts. They are:
Dividend Growth Model A. ROE and the Retention Ratio.
82
. Which of the following criteria theoretically should be used to determine the valuation of B. Dividend yield and growth rate in dividends
common stock? (E) C. ROA and ROE
A. Book value. C. Beta coefficient. D. Book value per share and EPS B&M
B. Dividends. D. Standard deviation of returns. Gleim
Dividend Growth Model Formula
83
. Which of the following is directly applied in determining the value of a stock when using the 12. The required rate of return on the market capitalization rate is estimated as follows:
dividend growth model? A. Dividend yield + expected rate of growth in dividends
A. The firm's capital structure. B. Dividend yield - expected rate of growth in dividends
B. The firm's cash flows. C. Dividend yield / expected rate of growth in dividends
C. The firm's liquidity. D. (Dividend yielD. * (expected rate of growth in dividends) B&M
D. The investor's required rate of return on the firm's stock. CIA 1190 IV-53
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
84
. The three elements needed to estimate the cost of equity capital for use in determining a firm's 49. The acronym CAPM stands for:
weighted-average cost of capital are (E) A. Capital Asset Pricing Model C. Current Arbitrage Pricing Method B & M
A. Current dividends per share, expected growth rate in dividends per share, and current B. Certainty Asset Pricing Method D. Cumulative Arbitrage Pricing Model
book value per share of common stock.
85
B. Current earnings per share, expected growth rate in dividends per share, and current . The capital asset pricing model assumes (E)
market price per share of common stock. a. all investors are price takers.
C. Current earnings pers share, expected growth rate in earnings per share, and current b. all investors have the same holding period.
book value per share of common stock. c. investors pay taxes on capital gains.
D. Current dividends per share, expected growth rate in dividends per share, and current d. both a and b are true.
market price per share of common stock. CMA 1291 1-3 e. a, b and c are all true. Bodie
25. The value of the stock: 33. If investors do not know their investment horizons for certain (M)
A. Increases as the dividend growth rate increases a. the CAPM is no longer valid.
B. Increases as the required rate of return decreases b. the CAPM underlying assumptions are not violated.
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87
c. the implications of the CAPM are not violated as long as investors’ liquidity needs re not . The security market line (SML) (M)
priced. a. can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-beta relationship.
d. the implications of the CAPM are no longer useful. Bodie b. can be portrayed graphically as the expected return-standard deviation of market returns
relationship.
37. The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) states that: c. provides a benchmark for evaluation of investment performance.
A. The expected risk premium on an investment is proportional to its beta d. a and c.
B. The expected rate of return on an investment is proportional to its beta e. b and c. Bodie
C. The expected rate of return on an investment depends on the risk-free rate and the
88
market rate of return B&M Which statement is not true regarding the Capital Market Line (CML)? (M)
D. The expected rate of return on an investment is dependent on the risk-free rate a. The CML is the line from the risk-free rate through the market portfolio.
b. The CML is the best attainable capital allocation line.
56. The drawback of the CAPM is that it: c. The CML is also called the security market line.
A. Ignores the return on the market portfolio d. The CML always has a positive slope. Bodie
B. Required a single measure of systematic risk
89
C. Ignores risk-free return . In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must be (M)
D. Utilizes too many factors B&M a. equal to the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.
b. greater than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.
Security Market Line c. less than the marginal price of risk for the market portfolio.
46. The security market line (SML) shows the relationship between. d. adjusted by its degree of nonsystematic risk. Bodie
A. Expected return and standard deviation
90
B. Expected return and beta . An underpriced security will plot (E)
C. Standard deviation and risk a. on the Security Market Line.
D. Variance and beta b. below the Security Market Line.
c. above the Security Market Line. Bodie
38. The security market line (SML) is the graph of: d. either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its covariance with the arket.
A. Expected rate on investment (Y-axis) vs. variance of return e. either above or below the Security Market Line depending on its standard deviation.
B. Expected return on investment vs. standard deviation of return
C. Expected rate of return on investment vs. beta 47. If a stock is overpriced it would plot:
D. A and B B&M A. Above the security market line C. Below the security market line
B. On the security market line D. On the Y-axis B&M
86
The Security Market Line (SML) is (M)
a. the line that describes the expected return-beta relationship for well-diversified portfolios only. Variables
91
b. also called the Capital Allocation Line. . An analysis of a company’s planned equity financing using the capital asset pricing model (or
c. the line that is tangent to the efficient frontier of all risky assets. security market line) would incorporate only the
d. the line that represents the expected return-beta relationship. a. Expected market earnings, the current U.S. Treasury bond yield, and the beta coefficient.
e. the line that represents the relationship between an individual security’s return and the b. Expected market earnings and the price-earnings ratio.
market’s return. Bodie c. Current U.S. Treasury bond yield, the price-earnings ratio, and the beta coefficient.
d. Current U.S. Treasury bond yield and the dividend payout ratio. CMA 1291 1-16
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D. Variance of the return on the market x Variance of the return on the security ÷ Covariance
Formula of the returns on the market and on the security. Gleim
92
According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the expected rate of return on any security
98
is equal to (M) . According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), the relevant risk of a security is its
a. Rf + [E(RM)]. c. Rf + [E(RM - Rf]. A. Company-specific risk. C. Systematic risk.
b. Rf + [E(RM) - Rf]. d. E(RM) + Rf. Bodie B. Diversifiable risk. D. Total risk. CIA 1194 IV-53
b. If the beta of the asset is smaller than the firm’s beta, then the required return on the asset A. Increase 20% faster than the market in up markets
is greater than the required return on the firm. B. Increase 20% faster than the market in down markets
c. If the beta of the asset is greater than the firm’s beta prior to the addition of that asset, C. Increase 120% faster than the market in up markets
then the firm’s beta after the purchase of the asset will be smaller than the original firm’s D. Increase 120% faster than the market in down markets B&M
beta.
d. If the beta of an asset is larger than the firm’s beta prior to the addition of that asset, then Risk-free Rate
102
the required return on the firm will be greater after the purchase of that asset than prior to . What is the expected return of a zero-beta security? (M)
its purchase. Brigham a. The market rate of return. c. A negative rate of return.
b. Zero rate of return. d. The risk-free rate. Bodie
. Which of the following statements is most correct? (M)
a. Beta measures market risk, but if a firm’s stockholders are not well diversified, beta may Risk Premium
103
not accurately measure stand-alone risk. . According to the CAPM, the risk premium an investor expects to receive on any stock or portfolio
b. If the calculated beta underestimates the firm’s true investment risk, then the CAPM increases: (E)
method will overestimate ks. a. directly with alpha. d. inversely with beta.
c. The discounted cash flow method of estimating the cost of equity can’t be used unless the b. inversely with alpha. e. in proportion to its standard deviation.
growth component, g, is constant during the analysis period. Brigham c. directly with beta. Bodie
d. An advantage shared by both the DCF and CAPM methods of estimating the cost of
104
equity capital, is that they yield precise estimates and require little or no judgement. . The risk premium on the market portfolio will be proportional to (M)
a. the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population.
. Which of the following statements is correct? (M) b. the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its variance.
a. The cost of capital used to evaluate a project should be the cost of the specific type of c. the risk of the market portfolio as measured by its beta.
financing used to fund that project. d. both a and b are true.
b. The cost of debt used to calculate the weighted average cost of capital is based on an e. both a and c are true. Bodie
average of the cost of debt already issued by the firm and the cost of new debt.
c. One problem with the CAPM approach to estimating the cost of equity capital is that if a 36. The market risk premium is:
firm’s stockholders are, in fact, not well diversified, beta may be a poor measure of the A. The difference between the rate of return on an asset and the risk-free rate
firm’s true investment risk. B. The difference between the rate of return on the market portfolio and the risk-free rate
d. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective C. The risk-free rate
method of estimating a firm’s cost of equity capital. D. The market rate of return B&M
e. The cost of equity capital is generally easier to measure than the cost of debt, which
varies daily with interest rates, or the cost of preferred stock since preferred stock is Pure Play Method
issued infrequently. Brigham . Which of the following methods involves calculating an average beta for firms in a similar
business and then applying that beta to determine a project’s beta? (M)
101
. In the context of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) the relevant measure of risk is (E) a. Risk premium method. c. Accounting beta method.
a. unique risk. c. standard deviation of returns. b. Pure play method. d. CAPM method. Brigham
b. beta. d. variance of returns. Bodie
105
. Interstate Transport has a target capital structure of 50 percent debt and 50 percent common
45. A stock with a beta of 1.2 would be expected to: equity. The firm is considering a new independent project that has an expected return of 13
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percent and is not related to transportation. However, a pure play proxy firm has been . Given the following two stocks A and B
identified that is exclusively engaged in the new line of business. The proxy firm has a beta of Expected rate of return Beta
1.38. Both firms have a marginal tax rate of 40 percent, and Interstate’s before-tax cost of debt A 0.12 1.2
is 12 percent. The risk-free rate is 10 percent and the market risk premium is 5 percent. The B 0.14 1.8
firm should(M) If the expected market rate of return is 0.09 and the risk-free rate is 0.05, which security would
a. Reject the project; its expected return is less than the firm’s required rate of return on the be considered the better buy and why? (M)
project of 16.9 percent. a. A because it offers an expected excess return of 1.2%.
b. Accept the project; its expected return is greater than the firm’s required rate of return on b. B because it offers an expected excess return of 1.8%.
the project of 12.05 percent. c. A because it offers an expected excess return of 2.2%.
c. Reject the project; its expected return is only 13 percent. d. B because it offers an expected return of 14%.
d. Accept the project; its expected return exceeds the risk-free rate and the before-tax cost e. B because it has a higher beta. Bodie
of debt.
e. Be indifferent between accepting or rejecting; the firm’s required rate of return on the Weighted-Average Cost of Capital (WACC)
project equals its expected return. Brigham 1. The cost of capital is defined as (E)
a. the simple average of the interest rates of all debt outstanding.
Required Rate of Return b. the simple average of the cost of debt and equity.
106
. If the return on the market portfolio is 10% and the risk-free rate is 5%, what is the effect on a c. the weighted average of the interest rates of all debt outstanding.
company's required rate of return on its stock of an increase in the beta coefficient from 1.2 to d. the weighted average of the cost of debt and equity. S, S & S
1.5?
A. 3% increase C. No change . Which of the following is not considered a capital component for the purpose of calculating the
B. 1.5% increase D. 1.5% decrease Gleim weighted average cost of capital as it applies to capital budgeting? (E)
a. Long-term debt. c. Short-term debt.
Expected Rate of Return vs. Required Rate of Return b. Common stock. d. Preferred stock. Brigham
107
. Security X has an expected rate of return of 0.11 and a beta of 1.5. The risk-free rate is 0.05 and
the market expected rate of return is 0.09. According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, this 28. The combined weighted average interest rate that a firm incurs on its long-term debt, preferred
security is (M) stock, and common stock is the
a. underpriced. a. cost of capital. c. cutoff rate.
b. overpriced. b. discount rate. d. internal rate of return. Barfield
c. fairly priced.
d. cannot be determined from data provided. Bodie 108.The weighted average cost of capital represents the
108
a. cost of bonds, preferred stock, and common stock divided by the three sources.
. The risk-free rate is 7 percent. The expected market rate of return is 15 percent. If you expect b. equivalent units of capital used by the organization.
stock X with a beta of 1.3 to offer a rate of return of 12 percent, you should (M) c. overall cost of capital from all organization financing sources.
a. buy stock X because it is overpriced. d. overall cost of dividends plus interest paid by the organization. Barfield
b. sell short stock X because it is overpriced.
c. sell stock short X because it is underpriced. 29. The weighted average cost of capital that is used to evaluate a specific project should be
d. buy stock X because it is underpriced. Bodie based on the
a. mix of capital components that was used to finance a project from last year.
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a. The weighted average cost of capital for a given capital budget level is a weighted c. The cost of retained earnings is generally more expensive than the cost of issuing new
average of the marginal cost of each relevant capital component that makes up the firm’s common stock, because it includes an opportunity cost.
target capital structure. d. Statements a and b are correct.
b. The weighted average cost of capital is calculated on a before-tax basis. e. All of the statements above are correct. Brigham
c. An increase in the risk-free rate is likely to increase the marginal costs of both debt and
120
equity financing. . Which of the following statements about the cost of capital is incorrect? (E)
d. Statements a and c are correct. Brigham a. A company’s target capital structure affects its weighted average cost of capital.
b. Weighted average cost of capital calculations should be based on the after-tax costs of all
116
. A company has a capital structure that consists of 50 percent debt and 50 percent equity. the individual capital components.
Which of the following statements is most correct? (E) c. If a company’s tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital
a. The cost of equity financing is greater than or equal to the cost of debt financing. will increase.
b. The WACC exceeds the cost of equity financing. d. Flotation costs can increase the weighted average cost of capital.
c. The WACC is calculated on a before-tax basis. e. An increase in the risk-free rate is likely to increase the marginal costs of both debt and
d. The WACC represents the cost of capital based on historical averages. In that sense, it equity financing. Brigham
does not represent the marginal cost of capital.
e. The cost of retained earnings exceeds the cost of issuing new common stock. Brigham . A company estimates that an average-risk project has a WACC of 10 percent, a below-
average risk project has a WACC of 8 percent, and an above-average risk project has a
117
. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E) WACC of 12 percent. Which of the following independent projects should the company
a. The WACC is a measure of the before-tax cost of capital. accept? (E)
b. Typically the after-tax cost of debt financing exceeds the after-tax cost of equity financing. a. Project A has average risk and a return of 9 percent.
c. The WACC measures the marginal after-tax cost of capital. b. Project B has below-average risk and a return of 8.5 percent.
d. Statements a and b are correct. c. Project C has above-average risk and a return of 11 percent.
e. Statements b and c are correct. Brigham d. All of the projects above should be accepted.
e. None of the projects above should be accepted. Brigham
118
. Campbell Co. is trying to estimate its weighted average cost of capital (WACC). Which of the
following statements is most correct? (E) 22. Which of the following regarding the weighted-average cost of capital is true?
a. The after-tax cost of debt is generally cheaper than the after-tax cost of preferred stock. a. The tax effect of preferred stock dividends should be included in the calculation of
b. Since retained earnings are readily available, the cost of retained earnings is generally weighted-average cost of capital.
lower than the cost of debt. b. The tax effect of common stock dividends should be included in the calculation of
c. If the company’s beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity financing, even if the weighted-average cost of capital.
company is able to rely on only retained earnings for its equity financing. c. The tax effect of debt should be included in the calculation of the weighted-average cost
d. Statements a and b are correct. of capital.
e. Statements a and c are correct. Brigham d. Taxes do not affect the weighted-average cost of capital. S, S & S
119
. Which of the following statements is most correct? (E) 23. Which of the following is true regarding the weighted-average cost of capital?
a. The WACC represents the after-tax cost of capital. a. A company may have two weighted-average costs of capital if the firm's capital structure is
b. The WACC represents the marginal cost of capital. so large that new common stock must be sold.
b. The book value of the components of capital should always be used to calculate the is not related to transportation. However, a pure play proxy firm has been identified that is
weighted-average cost of capital. exclusively engaged in the new line of business. The proxy firm has a beta of 1.38. Both firms
c. The cost of common equity is lower than the cost of retained earnings. have a marginal tax rate of 40 percent, and Interstate’s before-tax cost of debt is 12 percent.
d. The cost of preferred stock is adjusted for the tax deduction associated with preferred The risk-free rate is 10 percent and the market risk premium is 5 percent. The firm should(M)
dividends. S, S & S a. Reject the project; its return is less than the firm’s required rate of return on the project of
16.9 percent.
WACC in a Tax-Free Environment b. Accept the project; its return is greater than the firm’s required rate of return on the project
21. The cost of capital for a firm, rWACC, in a tax free environment is: of 12.05 percent.
A. Equal to the expected EBIT divided by market value of the unlevered firm c. Reject the project; its return is only 13 percent.
B. Equal to rA, the rate of return for that business risk class d. Accept the project; its return exceeds the risk-free rate and the before-tax cost of debt.
e. Be indifferent between accepting or rejecting; the firm’s required rate of return on the
C. Equal to the overall rate of return required on the levered firm
project equals its expected return. Brigham
D. All of the above B&M
Optimal Project Selection
Capital Asset Pricing Model
121
. Wyden Brothers has no retained earnings. The company uses the CAPM to calculate the cost . Jackson Corporation is evaluating the following four independent, investment
124
of equity capital. The company’s capital structure consists of common stock, preferred stock, opportunities:
and debt. Which of the following events will reduce the company’s WACC? (M) Project Cost Expected Rate of Return
a. A reduction in the market risk premium. A $300,000 14%
b. An increase in the flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock. B 150,000 10
c. An increase in the company’s beta. C 200,000 13
d. An increase in expected inflation. D 400,000 11
e. An increase in the flotation costs associated with issuing preferred stock. Brigham Jackson’s target capital structure is 60 percent debt and 40 percent equity. The yield to
maturity on the company’s debt is 10 percent. Jackson will incur flotation costs for a new
Required Rate of Return equity issuance of 12 percent. The growth rate is a constant 6 percent. The stock price is
122
. Louisiana Enterprises, an all-equity firm, is considering a new capital investment. Analysis has currently $35 per share for each of the 10,000 shares outstanding. Assume that the firm has
indicated that the proposed investment has a beta of 0.5 and will generate an expected return no retained earnings. If the company’s tax rate is 30 percent, then which of the projects will be
of 7 percent. The firm currently has a required return of 10.75 percent and a beta of 1.25. The accepted? (M)
investment, if undertaken, will double the firm’s total assets. If k RF is 7 percent and the market a. Project A. c. Projects A, C, and D. Brigham
return is 10 percent, should the firm undertake the investment? (Choose the best answer.) (D) b. Projects A and C. d. All of the investment projects will be taken.
a. Yes; the expected return of the asset (7%) exceeds the required return (6.5%).
b. Yes; the beta of the asset will reduce the risk of the firm. Sensitivity Analysis
c. No; the expected return of the asset (7%) is less than the required return (8.5%). Risk, Required Return and project betas
d. No; the risk of the asset (beta) will increase the firm’s beta. . If the firm is being operated so as to maximize shareholder wealth, and if our basic
e. No; the expected return of the asset is less than the firm’s required return, which is assumptions concerning the relationship between risk and return are true, then which of the
10.75%. Brigham following should be true? (M)
a. If the beta of the asset is larger than the firm’s beta, then the required return on the asset
123
. Interstate Transport has a target capital structure of 50 percent debt and 50 percent common is less than the required return on the firm.
equity. The firm is considering a new independent project that has a return of 13 percent and
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b. If the beta of the asset is smaller than the firm’s beta, then the required return on the asset b. Managers’ attitudes toward risk differ and some managers may set a target capital
is greater than the required return on the firm. structure other than the one that would maximize stock price.
c. If the beta of the asset is greater than the corporate beta prior to the addition of that asset, c. Managers often have a responsibility to provide continuous service; they must preserve
then the corporate beta after the purchase of the asset will be smaller than the original the long-run viability of the enterprise. Thus, the goal of employing leverage to maximize
corporate beta. short-run stock price and minimize capital cost may conflict with long-run viability.
d. If the beta of an asset is larger than the corporate beta prior to the addition of that asset, d. All of the statements above are correct.
then the required return on the firm will be greater after the purchase of that asset than e. None of the statements above represents a serious impediment to the practical
prior to its purchase. Brigham application of leverage analysis in capital structure determination. Brigham
Comprehensive
. Which of the following statements is correct? (M)
a. Although some methods of estimating the cost of equity capital encounter severe
difficulties, the CAPM is a simple and reliable model that provides great accuracy and
consistency in estimating the cost of equity capital.
b. The DCF model is preferred over other models to estimate the cost of equity because of
the ease with which a firm’s growth rate is obtained.
c. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of equity is not always
accurate but its advantages are that it is a standardized and objective model.
d. Depreciation-generated funds are an additional source of capital and, in fact, represent
the largest single source of funds for some firms. Brigham
LEVERAGE
Limits of leverage
21. Which of the following are practical difficulties associated with capital structure and degree of
leverage analyses? (M)
a. It is nearly impossible to determine exactly how P/E ratios or equity capitalization rates (k s
values) are affected by different degrees of financial leverage.
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Financial Leverage
*. Securing the funds for investment at a fixed rate of return to fund suppliers, to enhance the
well-being of the common stockholders is known as
a. Financial leverage. c. Prudent borrowing.
b. Fund management. d. Financial arbitrage. RPCPA 1097
*. It refers to the practice of financing assets with borrowed capital. Its extensive use may impact
on the return on common stockholders’ equity to be above or below the rate of return on total
assets.
a. Discounting. c. Leverage.
b. Mortgage. d. Arbitrage. RPCPA 0597
*. This accounting terminology has reference to long-term debt and means that you borrow *. The use of borrowed capital by business firms is referred to as leverage or trading on equity.
somebody’s money at an interest rate which is lower than the rate which you can earn on that This leverage is likely to be a sound financial strategy for stockholders of companies having
money. a. Cyclical high and low amounts of reported earnings.
a. Pooling of interest. c. Kiting. b. Steady amounts of reported earnings.
b. Leverage or trading on equity. d. None of the above. RPCPA 1084 c. Volatile fluctuation in reported earnings over short periods of time.
d. Steadily declining amounts of reported earnings. RPCPA 1079
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. The purchase of treasury stock with a firm's surplus cash CMA 1291 1-5
A. Increases a firm's assets. C. Increases a firm's interest coverage ratio.
B. Increases a firm's financial leverage. D. Dilutes a firm's earnings per share.
131
. When a company increases its degree of financial leverage (DFL)
a. The equity beta of the company falls.
b. The systematic risk of the company falls.
c. The systematic risk of the company rises.
d. The standard deviation of returns on the equity of the company rises. CIA 0597 IV-50
132
. Sylvan Corporation has the following capital structure.
Debenture bonds $10,000,000
Preferred equity 1,000,000
Common equity 39,000,000
The financial leverage of Sylvan Corporation would increase as a result of (M)
A. Issuing common stock and using the proceeds to retire preferred stock.
B. Maintaining the same dollar level of cash dividends as the prior year, even though
earnings have increased by 7%.
C. Financing its future investments with a higher percentage of bonds.
D. Financing its future investments with a higher percentage of equity funds. CMA 0690 1-9
133
. Everything else being equal, a <List A> highly leveraged firm will have <List
B> earnings per share. (D)
CIA 0595 IV-51 A. B. C. D.
List A More More Less Less
List B Lower Less volatile Less volatile Higher
134
. A company is considering the early retirement of its 10%, 10-year bonds payable. Before
retiring the bonds, the company's capital structure was
Current liabilities $125,000
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
Investment Risk
Financial Risk
Optimal Capital Structure
Cost of Capital
Debt Capital vs. Equity Capital
Imputed Costs vs. Explicit Costs
Cost of Debt Capital
Marginal Cost of Debt
Cost of Equity Capital
Marginal Cost of Capital
Optimal Cost of Capital
Dividend Growth Model
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
Leverage
Probability & Statistics
. Calculate the beta of the firm, and use to calculate project beta:
ks = 0.16 = 0.10 + (0.05)bFirm. bFirm = 1.2.
bProject = (bFirm)1.5. (bProject is 50% greater than current bFirm)
bProject = (1.2)1.5 = 1.8.
. Calculate the beta of the firm, and use to calculate project beta:
ks = 0.16 = 0.10 + (0.05)bFirm. bFirm = 1.2.
bProject = (bFirm)1.5 (bProject is 50% greater than current bFirm)
bProject = (1.2)1.5 = 1.8.
Calculate required return on project, kProject, and compare to IRR.
Project: kProject = 0.10 + (0.05)1.8 = 0.19 = 19%. IRR = 0.18 = 18%.
Since the required return is one percentage point greater than the expected IRR, the firm should not accept the new
project.
60
. Answer (C) is correct. The theory underlying the cost of capital is based primarily on the cost of long-term funds and
the acquisition of new funds. The reason is that long-term funds are used to finance long-term investments. For an
investment alternative to be viable, the return on the investment must be greater than the cost of the funds used. The
objective in short-term borrowing is different. Short-term loans are used for working capital, not to finance long-term
investments.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the concern is with the cost of new funds; the cost of old funds is a sunk cost and of no
relevance for decision-making purposes. Answer (B) is incorrect because the cost of short-term funds is not usually a
concern for investment purposes. Answer (D) is incorrect because there is less concern with the cost of old funds or
short-term funds.
61
. Answer (C) is correct. The cost of capital is the minimum, not maximum, rate of return that must be earned on new
investments so as not to dilute shareholder interest. If new investments have a rate of return less than the cost of
capital, a loss will be incurred on those investments. Thus, the cost of capital must be the minimum rate of return. See
SMA 4A, Cost of Capital.
Answer (A) is incorrect because cost of capital is used to make capital investment decisions so that each investment
returns more than the cost of capital. Answer (B) is incorrect because the cost of maintaining working capital is based on
the cost of capital. Answer (D) is incorrect because the performance of individual investments, investment managers,
and others can be related to the cost of capital.
62
. Answer (D) is correct. The U-shaped curve indicates that the cost of capital is quite high when the debt-to-equity
ratio is quite low. As debt increases, the cost of capital declines as long as the cost of debt is less than that of equity.
Eventually, the decline in the cost of capital levels off because the cost of debt ultimately rises as more debt is used.
Additional increases in debt (relative to equity) will then increase the cost of capital. The implication is that some debt is
present in the optimal capital structure because the cost of capital initially declines when debt is added. However, a point
is reached at which debt becomes excessive and the cost of capital begins to rise.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the composition of the capital structure affects the cost of capital since the components
have different costs. Answer (B) is incorrect because the cost of debt does not remain constant as financial leverage
increases. Eventually, that cost also increases. Answer (C) is incorrect because the initial decline in the U-shaped graph
indicates that the financial markets reward moderate levels of debt.
63
. Answer (A) is correct. The overall cost of capital is the rate of return on a firm's assets that exactly covers the costs
associated with the funds employed. It is the weighted average of the various debt and equity components.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the cost of capital is based on what a company pays for its capital, not the return
earned on the capital employed. Answer (C) is incorrect because the overall cost of capital is the minimum rate a firm
must earn on all investments to cover capital costs. Answer (D) is incorrect because the overall cost of capital is based
on both debt and equity components.
64
. Answer (A) is correct. An imputed cost is one that has to be estimated. It is a cost that exists but is not specifically
stated and is the result of a process designed to recognize economic reality. An imputed cost may not require a dollar
outlay formally recognized by the accounting system, but it is relevant to the decision-making process. For example, the
stated interest on a bank loan is not an imputed cost because it is specifically stated and requires a dollar outlay. But the
cost of using retained earnings as a source of capital is unstated and has to be imputed.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the cost of obsolete assets should be written off. Answer (C) is incorrect because
understated depreciation results in unstated costs. Answer (D) is incorrect because the lower-than-market return on a
loan is an imputed cost of the products.
65
. REQUIRED: The implicit cost of financing.
DISCUSSION: (B) Debt capital often appears to have a lower cost than equity because the implicit costs are not
obvious. The implicit costs are attributable to the increased risk created by the additional debt burden. Thus, as the
debt-to-equity ratio increases, the cost of both debt and equity will increase given the increased risk to both
shareholders and creditors from a higher degree of leverage. An explanation based on the marginal cost of capital and
the marginal efficiency of investment leads to the same conclusion. Lower cost capital sources are used first. Additional
projects must then be undertaken with funds from higher cost sources. Similarly, risk is increased because the most
profitable investments are made initially, leaving the less profitable investments for the future.
Answer (A) is incorrect because both debt and equity sources increase in cost as leverage increases. Answer (C) is
incorrect because equity costs decline as leverage decreases. Answer (D) is incorrect because the weighted-average
cost of capital will increase with increased leverage.
66
. Retained earnings are just another form of equity. When the company has retained earnings, they can do one of
two things--reinvest them or pay them out as dividends. If they reinvest the earnings, they need to earn a return that is at
least as high as the ks of the stock. Otherwise, investors would be happier getting the dividends and investing them in
something that will get them ks. Therefore, statement a is false. Some of the preferred stock dividends are excluded from
taxation when another company owns them. It makes no tax difference to the company that pays the dividends, since
dividends come out of after-tax dollars. Therefore, statement b is false. Interest payments are tax deductible. Therefore,
statement c is true.
67
. Answer (B) is correct. The cost of debt capital is simply the debt interest rate times (1 - the firm's tax rate). Thus, if
the tax rate is 40%, the effective cost of debt capital is 60% times the interest rate because the interest is tax deductible.
See SMA 4A, Cost of Capital.
Answer (A) is incorrect because it ignores the tax deductibility of interest payments. Answer (C) is incorrect because it
ignores the tax deductibility of interest payments. Answer (D) is incorrect because the capital asset pricing model is one
means of determining the cost of common equity.
68
. Answer (D) is correct. The after-tax cost of debt is the cost of debt times the quantity one minus the tax rate. For
example, the after-tax cost of a 10% bond is 7% [10% x (1 - 30%)] if the tax rate is 30%.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the after-tax cost of debt is the cost of debt times the quantity one minus the tax rate.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the after-tax cost of debt is the cost of debt times the quantity one minus the tax rate.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the cost of debt times the marginal tax rate equals the tax savings from issuing debt.
69
. Answer (D) is correct. Because interest is deductible for tax purposes, the actual cost of debt capital is the net effect
of the interest payment and the offsetting tax deduction. The actual cost of debt equals the interest rate times one minus
the marginal tax rate. Thus, if a firm with an 8% market rate is in a 40% tax bracket, the net cost of the debt capital is
4.8% [8% x (1 - .4)].
Answer (A) is incorrect because the tax deduction always causes the market yield rate to be higher than the cost of debt
capital. Answer (B) is incorrect because additional debt may or may not be issued more cheaply than earlier debt,
depending upon the interest rates in the market place. Answer (C) is incorrect because the cost of debt is less than the
yield rate given that bond interest is tax deductible.
70
. Answer (C) is correct. As a larger proportion of an entity's capital is provided by debt, the debt becomes riskier and
more expensive, i.e., requires a higher interest rate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the diversity decreases, not increases, risk. Answer (B) is incorrect because $50 million
is minuscule in the debt markets. Answer (D) is incorrect because the combination alternative maintains the same
debt/equity mixture, which would not warrant a rate increase in the cost of debt or equity.
71
. Answer (C) is correct. The excess of the price over the face value is a premium. A premium is paid because the
coupon rate on the bond is greater than the market rate of interest. In other words, because the bond is paying a higher
rate than other similar bonds, its price is bid up by investors.
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if a bond sells at a premium, the market rate of interest is less than the coupon rate.
Answer (B) is incorrect because a bond sells at a discount when the price is less than the face amount. Answer (D) is
incorrect because a bond sells at a discount when the price is less than the face amount.
72
. REQUIRED: The definition of the marginal cost of debt.
DISCUSSION: (C) The marginal cost of debt is calculated as the cost of new debt times one minus the marginal tax
rate, or Kd (1 - T). This d expression equals Kd - KdT .
Answer (A) is incorrect because the marginal cost of debt financing is the interest rate on new debt minus the firm's
marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate. Answer (B) is incorrect because the marginal cost of debt financing is
the interest rate on new debt minus the firm's marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate. Moreover, the marginal or
incremental cost of debt to the firm is based on the cost of newly issued debt, not on the cost of outstanding debt.
Answer (D) is incorrect because the marginal cost of debt financing is the interest rate on new debt minus the firm's
marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate. Moreover, the marginal or incremental cost of debt to the firm is based
on the cost of newly issued debt, not on the cost of outstanding debt.
73
. The debt cost used to calculate a firm’s WACC is k d(1 - T). If k d remains constant but T increases, then
the term (1 - T) decreases and the value of the entire equation, k d(1 - T), decreases. Statement b is false; if
a company’s stock price increases, and all else remains constant, then the dividend yield decreases and k s
decreases. This can be seen from the equation k s = D 1/P 0 + g. Statement c is false for the same reason. The
cost of issuing new common stock is k e = D 1/[P 0(1 - F)] + g. If P 0 increases but there’s no change in the
flotation cost, k e will decrease.
74
. Answer (B) is correct. Providers of equity capital are exposed to more risk than are lenders because the firm is not
obligated to pay them a return. Also, in case of liquidation, creditors are paid before equity investors. Thus, equity
financing is more expensive than debt because equity investors require a higher return to compensate for the greater
risk assumed.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the obligation to repay at a specific maturity date reduces the risk to investors and thus
the required return. Answer (C) is incorrect because the demand for equity capital is directly related to its greater cost to
the issuer. Answer (D) is incorrect because dividends are based on managerial discretion and may rarely change;
interest rates, however, fluctuate daily based upon market conditions.
75
. Statement a is correct. Most preferred stock is owned by corporations which receive a 70 percent
exclusion of dividends. Consequently, the before-tax coupons on preferred stock are often lower than the
before-tax coupons on debt, despite the fact that preferred stock is riskier than debt. All the other
statements are false.
76
. Answer (B) is correct. The dividend growth model is used to calculate the price of stock.
D1
Po =
R-G
If: PO = current price
D1 = next dividend
R = required rate of return
G = EPS growth rate
Assuming that D1 and G remain constant, an increase in R resulting from an increase in the nominal interest rate will
cause PO to decrease.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a higher interest rate raises the required return of investors, which results in a lower
stock price. Answer (C) is incorrect because a higher interest rate raises the required return of investors, which results
in a lower stock price. Answer (D) is incorrect because a higher interest rate raises the required return of investors,
which results in a lower stock price.
77
. REQUIRED: The item resulting in a higher market value for common shares.
DISCUSSION: (A) The dividend growth model is used to calculate the cost of equity. The simplified formula is
D
R= +G
P
R is the required rate of return, D is the next dividend, P is the stock’s price, and G is the growth rate in earnings per
share. The equation is also used to determine the stock price.
D
P=
R-G
Thus, when investors have a lower required return on equity, the denominator is smaller, which translates in to a higher
market value.
Answer (B) is incorrect because, if investors expect lower dividend growth, the market value of common shares will
decrease. Answers (C) and (D) are incorrect because the expected holding periods of investors are not related to the
market value of the common shares.
78
. Answer (B) is correct. Newly issued or external common equity is more costly than retained earnings. The company
incurs issuance costs when raising new, outside funds.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on equity capital
the firm obtains by retaining earnings. The opportunity cost of retained funds will be positive. Answer (C) is incorrect
because retained earnings will always be less costly than external equity financing. Earnings retention does not require
the payment of issuance costs. Answer (D) is incorrect because retained earnings will always be less costly than
external equity financing. Earnings retention does not require the payment of issuance costs.
79
. Statement a is correct; the other statements are false. Preferred stock dividends are not tax deductible;
therefore, the cost of preferred stock is only k p. The risk premium in the bond-yield-plus-risk premium
approach would be added to the firm’s cost of debt, not the risk-free rate. Preferred stock also has flotation
costs.
80
. REQUIRED: The effect of a higher dividend-payout ratio.
DISCUSSION: (A) the higher the dividend-payout ratio, the sooner retained earnings are exhausted and the company
must seek external financing. Assuming the same investments are undertaken, the result is a higher marginal cost of
capital because lower-cost capital sources will be used up earlier.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the marginal cost of capital is higher. Answers (C) and (D) are incorrect because the
existence of investment opportunities is unrelated to the dividend payout.
81
. Answer (D) is correct. The marginal cost of capital is the cost of the next dollar of capital. The marginal cost
continually increases because the lower cost sources of funds are used first. The marginal cost represents a weighted
average of both debt and equity capital.
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if the cost of capital were the same as the rate of return on equity (which is usually
higher than that of debt capital), there would be no incentive to invest. Answer (B) is incorrect because the marginal cost
of capital is affected by the degree of debt in the firm's capital structure. Financial risk plays a role in the returns desired
by investors. Answer (C) is incorrect because the rate of return used for capital budgeting purposes should be at least as
high as the marginal cost of capital.
82
. Answer (B) is correct. The measure of the value of an individual stock is dependent entirely upon the stream of
future cash flows that it will produce. To determine the stock's current value, these cash flows should be discounted to
time zero (now) to obtain the stream's present value. Stocks primarily provide cash flows to investors via dividends
(including share repurchases and liquidating dividends) and capital gain (loss) at the time of sale. Once the stream of
cash flows has been discounted over a significant number of periods, it is easy to see that the dividend stream, not the
capital gain (loss) in the final period, drives the value of the stock in question. Of course, all firms do not pay a dividend.
Common financial theory, however, states that it is the intention of every firm to pay a dividend to shareholders at some
time in the future, once the firm feels it is strong enough to do so and still support future operations. After all, it is the
primary goal of a firm's management to maximize shareholder wealth. Although many factors should be considered
when purchasing a security, the primary consideration for a value-seeking investor is the future cash flow stream.
Answer (A) is incorrect because book value is a measure of the stock's worth on a company's accounting records.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the beta coefficient is a measure of how volatile the price movements of a stock are
relative to the market as a benchmark. Answer (D) is incorrect because standard deviation is a measure of risk. While
risk is a consideration for the investor, one of the fundamental concepts in finance is that there is (should be) a trade-off
between risk and return, and as long as risk is compensated for, it is not a primary consideration.
83
. Answer (D) is correct. The dividend growth model is used to calculate the cost of equity. The simplified formula is
D1
R= +G
PO
R is the required rate of return, D1 is the next dividend, PO is the stock's price, and G is the growth rate in earnings per
share. The equation is also used to determine the stock price.
D1
Po =
R-G
Answer (A) is incorrect because the model uses the growth rate in dividends and the investor's required rate of return.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the model uses the growth rate in dividends and the investor's required rate of return.
Answer (C) is incorrect because the model uses the growth rate in dividends and the investor's required rate of return.
84
. Answer (D) is correct. The Gordon (dividend) growth model requires three elements to estimate the cost of equity
capital. These are the dividends per share, the expected growth rate in dividends per share, and the market price of the
stock. Basically, the cost of equity capital can be computed as the dividend yield (dividends ÷ price) plus the growth rate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because book value per share is not a consideration in computing the cost of equity capital.
Answer (B) is incorrect because current dividends, not current earnings, per share are a requirement for the formula.
Answer (C) is incorrect because book value per share is not a consideration in computing the cost of equity capital. Also,
current dividends, not current earnings, per share are a requirement for the formula.
85
. The CAPM assumes that investors are price-takers with the same single holding period and that there
are no taxes or transaction costs.
86
. The SML is a measure of expected return per unit of risk, where risk is defined as beta (systematic risk).
87
. The SML is a measure of expected return-beta (the CML is a measure of expected return-standard deviation of
market returns). The SML provides the expected return-beta relationship for "fairly priced" securities; thus if a portfolio
manager selects securities that are underpriced and produces a portfolio with a positive alpha, this portfolio manager
would receive a positive evaluation.
88
. Both the Capital Market Line and the Security Market Line depict risk/return relationships. However, the risk measure
for the CML is standard deviation and the risk measure for the SML is beta (thus c is not true; the other statements are true).
89
. In equilibrium, the marginal price of risk for a risky security must be equal to the marginal price of risk for the market. If
not, investors will buy or sell the security until they are equal.
90
. An underpriced security will have a higher expected return than the SML would predict; therefore it will plot above
the SML.
91
. Answer (A) is correct. The capital asset pricing model adds the risk-free rate to the product of the market risk
premium and the beta coefficient. The market risk premium is the amount above the risk-free rate (approximated by the
U.S. treasury bond yield) that must be paid to induce investment in the market. The beta coefficient of an individual stock
is the correlation between the price volatility of the stock market as a whole and the price volatility of the individual stock.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the price-earnings ratio is not a component of the model. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the price-earnings ratio is not a component of the model. Answer (D) is incorrect because the dividend payout
ratio is not a component of the model.
92
. The expected rate of return on any security is equal to the risk free rate plus the systematic risk of the security (beta)
times the market risk premium, E(rM - Rf).
93
. The tangency point between the capital market line and the indifference curve is the optimal portfolio for a particular
investor.
94
. A zero alpha results when the security is in equilibrium (fairly priced for the level of risk).
95
. A security with a positive alpha is one that is expected to yield an abnormal rate of return, based on the perceived risk of
the security, and thus is underpriced.
96
. Answer (B) is correct. The required rate of return on equity capital in the Capital Asset Pricing Model is the risk-free
rate (determined by government securities), plus the product of the market risk premium times the beta coefficient (beta
measures the firm's risk). The market risk premium is the amount above the risk-free rate that will induce investment in
the market. The beta coefficient of an individual stock is the correlation between the volatility (price variation) of the stock
market and that of the price of the individual stock. For example, if an individual stock goes up 15% and the market only
10%, beta is 1.5.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the coefficient of variation compares risk with expected return (standard deviation ÷
expected return). Answer (C) is incorrect because standard deviation measures dispersion (risk) of project returns.
Answer (D) is incorrect because expected return does not describe risk.
97
. Answer (A) is correct. The word beta is derived from the regression equation for regressing the return of an
individual security (the dependent variable) to the overall market return. The beta coefficient is the slope of the
regression line. The beta for a security may also be calculated by dividing the covariance of the return on the market and
the return on the security by the variance of the return on the market.
Answer (B) is incorrect because beta equals the covariance of the returns on the market and on the security divided by
the variance of the return on the market. Answer (C) is incorrect because beta equals the covariance of the returns on
the market and on the security divided by the variance of the return on the market. Answer (D) is incorrect because beta
equals the covariance of the returns on the market and on the security divided by the variance of the return on the
market.
98
. Answer (C) is correct. The relevant risk of a security is its contribution to the portfolio's risk. It is the risk that cannot
be eliminated through diversification and is synonymous with market risk and systematic risk. The relevant risk results
from factors, such as inflation, recession, and high interest rates, that affect all stocks.
Answer (A) is incorrect because company-specific risk can be eliminated through portfolio diversification. Answer (B) is
incorrect because diversifiable risk can be eliminated through portfolio diversification. Answer (D) is incorrect because
only the systematic component of total risk is relevant to security valuation.
99
. Beta is a measure of how a security's return covaries with the market returns, normalized by the market variance.
100
. By definition, the beta of the market portfolio is 1.
101
. Once, a portfolio is diversified, the only risk remaining is systematic risk, which is measured by beta.
102
. E(RS) = rf + 0(RM - rf) = rf.
103
. The market rewards systematic risk, which is measured by beta, and thus, the risk premium on a stock or portfolio varies
directly with beta.
104
. The risk premium on the market portfolio is proportional to the average degree of risk aversion of the investor population
and the risk of the market portfolio measured by its variance.
105
. Calculate the required return, k s, and use to calculate the WACC:
ks = 10% + 1.38(5%) = 16.9%.
WACC = 0.5(12.0%)(0.6) + 0.5(16.9%) = 12.05%.
Compare expected project return, k̂Project , to WACC:
But k̂ Project = IRR = 13.0%.
Accept the project since IRRProject > WACC: 13.0% > 12.05%.
106
. Answer (B) is correct. To estimate the required rate of return on equity, the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) adds
the risk-free rate (determined by government securities) to the product of the beta coefficient (a measure of the firm's
risk) and the difference between the market return and the risk-free rate. Below is the basic equilibrium equation for the
CAPM.
R = RF + ß (RM - RF )
Thus, given a beta of 1.2, R is 11% [5% + 1.2 (10% - 5%)]. At a beta of 1.5, R is 12.5% [5% + 1.5 (10% - 5%)].
Answer (A) is incorrect because 3% equals the market return times the increase in the beta. Answer (C) is incorrect
because the company's required rate of return is affected by a change in the company's beta coefficient. Answer (D) is
incorrect because the change results in an increase of the company's required rate of return, not a decrease.
107
. 11% = 5% + 1.5(9% - 5%) = 11.0%; therefore, the security is fairly priced.
108
. 12% < 7% + 1.3(15% - 7%) = 17.40%; therefore, stock is overpriced and should be shorted.
109
. A:12% - [5% + 1.2(9% - 5%)] = 2.2%.
.
110
Because corporations can exclude dividends for tax purposes, preferred stock often has a before-tax
market return that is less than the issuing company’s before-tax cost of debt. Then, if the issuer’s tax rate is
zero, its component cost of preferred would be less than its after-tax cost of debt.
111
. Answer (B) is correct. The cost of capital of a firm is the current, weighted average, after-tax cost of the firm's
various financing components. Historical costs are irrelevant.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the cost of capital is a weighted average for all sources of capital. Answer (C) is
incorrect because costs are considered after taxes. For example, the deductibility of interest must be considered.
Answer (D) is incorrect because the time value of money should be incorporated into the calculations.
112
. Answer (D) is correct. A weighted average of the costs of all financing sources should be used, with the weights
determined by the usual financing proportions. The terms of any financing raised at the time of initiating a particular
project do not represent the cost of capital for the firm. When a firm achieves its optimal capital structure, the weighted-
average cost of capital is minimized.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the cost of capital is a composite, or weighted average, of all financing sources in their
usual proportions. The cost of capital should also be calculated on an after-tax basis. Answer (B) is incorrect because
the cost of capital is a composite, or weighted average, of all financing sources in their usual proportions. The cost of
capital should also be calculated on an after-tax basis. Answer (C) is incorrect because the cost of capital is a
composite, or weighted average, of all financing sources in their usual proportions. The cost of capital should also be
calculated on an after-tax basis.
113
. Answer (A) is correct. The cost of capital of a firm is the current, weighted-average, after-tax cost of the firm's
various financing components. Historical costs are irrelevant.
Answer (B) is incorrect because costs are considered after taxes. For example, the deductibility of interest must be
considered. Answer (C) is incorrect because the time value of money should be incorporated into the calculations.
Answer (D) is incorrect because the cost of capital is a weighted average for all sources of capital.
114
. If a firm paid no income taxes, its cost of debt would not be adjusted downward, hence the component
cost of debt would be higher than if T were greater than 0. With a higher component cost of debt, the WACC
would be increased. Of course, the company would have higher earnings, and its cash flows from a given
project would be high, so the higher WACC would not impede its investments, that is, its capital budget
would be larger than if it were taxed.
115
. Statements a and c are both correct; therefore, statement d is the correct choice. Statement a recites
the definition of the weighted average cost of capital. Statement c is correct because k d = k RF + LP + MRP +
DRP while k s = k RF + (k M - k RF)b. If k RF increases then the values for k d and k s will increase.
116
. Statement a is correct; the other statements are false. Statement b is incorrect; WACC is an average of debt and
equity financing. Since debt financing is cheaper and is adjusted downward for taxes, it should, when averaged with
equity, cause the WACC to be less than the cost of equity financing. Statement c is incorrect; WACC is calculated on an
after-tax basis. Statement d is incorrect; the WACC is based on marginal, not embedded, costs. Statement e is incorrect;
the cost of issuing new common stock is greater than the cost of retained earnings.
117
. WACC measures the marginal after-tax cost of capital; therefore, statement a is false. The after-tax cost of debt
financing is less than the after-tax cost of equity financing; therefore, statement b is false. The correct choice is
statement c.
118
. The preferred stock dividend is not tax deductible like the interest payment on debt. Therefore, there is no tax
benefit from preferred stock. Statement a is true. Retained earnings are equity, and equity will have a higher cost than
debt. Therefore, statement b is false. If the beta increases, investors will require a higher rate of return to hold or buy the
stock. Therefore, the cost of equity will go up, and statement c is true. Because statements a and c are true, the correct
choice is statement e.
119
. Statements a and b are true. Statement c is false. The cost of new stock is higher than the cost of
retained earnings because there are flotation costs associated with issuing new stock. Since statements a
and b are true the correct choice is statement d.
120
. Statement c is the correct choice. A tax rate increase would lead to a decrease in the after-tax cost of
debt and, consequently, the firm’s WACC would decrease.
121
. Statement a is correct; the other statements are false. If RP M decreases, the cost of equity will be
reduced. Answers b through e will all increase the company’s WACC.
122
. Calculate the after-tax component cost of debt as 10%(1 - 0.3) = 7%. If the company has earnings of
$100,000 and pays out 50% or $50,000 in dividends, then it will retain earnings of $50,000. The retained
earnings breakpoint is $50,000/0.4 = $125,000. Since it will require financing in excess of $125,000 to
undertake any of the alternatives, we can conclude the firm must issue new equity. Therefore, the pertinent
component cost of equity is the cost of new equity. Calculate the expected dividend per share (note this is
D 1) as $50,000/10,000 = $5. Thus, the cost of new equity is $5/[($35(1 - 0.12)] + 6% = 22.23%. Jackson’s
WACC is 7%(0.6) + 22.23%(0.4) = 13.09%. Only the return on Project A exceeds the WACC, so only Project
A will be undertaken.
125
. Answer (C) is correct. The degree of operating leverage is the percentage change in EBIT resulting from a given
percentage change in sales. Thus, it causes EBIT to be more sensitive to changes in sales.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the term credit is not applicable to leverage. Answer (B) is incorrect because financial
leverage refers to the sensitivity of EPS to EBIT. Answer (D) is incorrect because the term intrinsic is not applicable to
leverage.
126
. Answer (A) is correct. Operating leverage is based on the degree to which fixed costs are used in production. Firms
may increase fixed costs, such as by automation, to reduce variable costs. The result is a greater degree of operating
leverage (DOL), which is the percentage change in earnings before interest and taxes (net operating profit) divided by
the percentage change in unit sales. It can also be determined from the following formula, given that Q is quantity of
units sold, P is unit price, V is unit variable cost, and F is fixed cost:
Q(P - V)
Q(P - V) - F
Answer (B) is incorrect because the degree of financial leverage equals the percentage change in EPS divided by the
percentage change in net operating profit. Answer (C) is incorrect because the breakeven point is the sales volume at
which total revenue equals total costs. Answer (D) is incorrect because the degree of total (combined) leverage equals
the percentage change in EPS divided by the percentage change in sales.
127
. Answer (C) is correct. The degree of operating leverage (DOL) is a measure of the change in earnings available to
common stockholders associated with a given change in operating earnings. It is calculated, for a particular level of
sales, as:
sales revenue - variable costs
sales revenue - variable costs - fixed operating costs
Answer (A) is incorrect because DOL varies with the sales level. Answer (B) is incorrect because the degree of financial
leverage is a measure of the change in earnings available to common stockholders associated with a given change in
operating earnings. Answer (D) is incorrect because the degree of total leverage is the multiple of the degree of
operating leverage and the degree of financial leverage. Other things being equal, DOL is higher if the degree of total
leverage is higher.
128
. Answer (A) is correct. The degree of operating leverage (DOL) is equal to the percentage change in net operating
income, that is, earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) divided by the percentage change in sales. Because interest
expenses are not included in EBIT, the DOL is not affected by a change in interest expense.
Answer (B) is incorrect because variable cost per unit affects EBIT and therefore the DOL. Answer (C) is incorrect
because quantity of units sold affects EBIT and therefore the DOL. Answer (D) is incorrect because fixed costs affect
EBIT and therefore the DOL.
129
. Answer (B) is correct. Operating leverage is a measure of the degree to which fixed costs are used in the
production process. A company with a higher percentage of fixed costs (higher operating leverage) has greater risk than
one in the same industry that relies more heavily on variable costs. The DOL equals the percentage change in net
operating income divided by the percentage change in sales. Thus, profits became more sensitive to changes in sales
volume as the DOL increases.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a firm with higher operating leverage has higher fixed costs and lower variable costs.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a firm with higher leverage will be relatively more profitable than a firm with lower
leverage when sales are high. The opposite is true when sales are low. Answer (D) is incorrect because a firm with
higher leverage is more risky. Its reliance on fixed costs is greater.
130
. Answer (B) is correct. A purchase of treasury stock involves a decrease in assets (usually cash) and a
corresponding decrease in shareholders' equity. Thus, equity is reduced and the debt-to-equity ratio and financial
leverage increase.
Answer (A) is incorrect because assets decrease when treasury stock is purchased. Answer (C) is incorrect because a
firm's interest coverage ratio is unaffected. Earnings, interest expense, and taxes will all be the same regardless of the
transaction. Answer (D) is incorrect because the purchase of treasury stock is antidilutive; the same earnings will be
spread over fewer shares. Some firms purchase treasury stock for this reason.
131
. REQUIRED: The effect of increasing the DFL.
DISCUSSION: (D) The DFL equals the percentage change in earnings available to common shareholders divided by
the percentage change in net operating income. When the DFL rises, fixed interest charges and the riskiness of the firm
rise. As a result, the variability of the returns to equity holders will increase. In other words, the standard deviation of
returns on the equity of the company rises.
Answer (A) is incorrect because an increase in the DFL increases the riskiness of the firm’s stock. Thus, beta rises.
Beta is a measure of the volatility of a firm’s stock price relative to the average stock. Answers (B) and (C) are incorrect
because systematic risk, also known as market risk, is unrelated to the DFL. Systematic risk is not specific to a
company. It is the risk associated with a company’s stock that cannot be diversified because it arises from factors that
affect all stocks.
132
. Answer (C) is correct. Financial leverage is the use of borrowed money to earn money for the benefit of
shareholders. The expectation is that investment earnings will be greater than the interest paid on the borrowed funds.
Increasing debt (such as bonds) increases financial leverage.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the issuance of common stock does not increase financial leverage. No increase in
borrowed capital and fixed interest charges occurs when equity is issued. Answer (B) is incorrect because a decrease in
the dividend payout ratio would result in increased owners' equity (retained earnings), and would not increase debt
capital and financial leverage. Answer (D) is incorrect because using debt, not equity, funds to finance new investments
increases financial leverage.
133
. Answer (C) is correct. Earnings per share is less volatile in less highly leveraged firms. Lower fixed costs result in
less variable earnings when sales fluctuate.
Answer (A) is incorrect because higher leverage is associated with higher, not lower, EPS when sales exceed the
breakeven point. Answer (B) is incorrect because earnings per share is more volatile in more highly leveraged firms.
Answer (D) is incorrect because less leverage is associated with lower, not higher, EPS when sales exceed the
breakeven point.
134
. Answer (B) is correct. Financial leverage is the amount of the fixed cost of capital, principally debt, in a firm's capital
structure relative to its operating profit. Leverage creates financial risk and is directly related to the cost of capital.
Because the company is retiring bonds, the total debt is decreased. Given that the amount of debt and leverage are
directly related, a decrease in the amount of debt results in a decrease in financial leverage.
Answer (A) is incorrect because the bond retirement decreases the debt-equity ratio. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the total assets will decrease (assets will be used to retire the debt, resulting in an increased asset turnover ratio (net
sales ÷ average total assets). Answer (D) is incorrect because the interest expense avoided will increase net profit and
the return on shareholders' equity.
135
. Statement a is true; a higher EPS does not always mean that the stock price will increase. Statement b is false; a
lower WACC will mean a higher stock price. Statement c is false; EPS can increase just because shares outstanding
decline.
136
. Statement a is incorrect because BEP = EBIT/Total assets. The extent to which the firm uses debt financing does
not effect EBIT or total assets. Statement b is incorrect because firms with a high percentage of fixed costs have a high
degree of operating leverage by definition.
137
. BEP = EBIT/TA. Since they both have the same total assets and the same BEP, then EBIT must be the same for
both companies. If A has a higher debt ratio and higher interest expense than B, and they both have the same EBIT and
tax rate, then A must have a lower NI than B. Therefore, statement a is true. If A has a lower NI than B but both have the
same total assets, then A’s ROA (NI/TA) must be lower than B’s ROA. Therefore, statement b is true. If both companies
have the same total assets but A’s debt ratio is higher than B’s, then A’s equity must be lower (since Total assets = Total
debt + Total equity). If A has less equity, and a lower NI than B, it is not possible to judge which company’s ROE (NI/EQ)
is higher.
138
. BEP = EBIT/TA. If both firms have the same BEP ratio and same total assets, then they must have the same EBIT.
Since Firm U has no debt in its capital structure, Firm U will have higher net income than Firm L because U has no
interest expense and L does. The TIE ratio is EBIT/Int. If the two companies have the same EBIT, the one with the lower
interest expense (Firm U), will have a higher TIE. Therefore, statement a is false. Firms L and U have the same EBIT,
but Firm L has a higher interest expense, so its net income will be lower than Firm U. Since ROA is equal to NI/TA, and
the two firms have the same total assets, Firm L will have a lower ROA than Firm U. Therefore, statement b is true.
Leverage will increase ROE if BEP > kd. Since BEP is 20 percent and kd is 8 percent, leverage will increase Firm L’s
ROE. Therefore, statement c is false.
139
. Statement a is false; A’s net income is lower than B’s due to higher interest expense, but its assets are equal to B’s,
so A’s ROA must be lower than B’s ROA. Statement b is false; A has the same EBIT as B, but higher interest payments
than B; therefore, A’s TIE is lower than B’s. Statement c is correct.
140
. Answer (B) is correct. Leverage is the amount of the fixed cost of capital, principally debt, in a firm's capital structure
relative to its operating income. It is also defined as the ratio of debt to total assets or debt to capital. Leverage, by
definition, creates financial risk, which relates directly to the question of the cost of capital. The more leverage, the
higher the financial risk, and the higher the cost of debt capital. The degree of financial leverage (DFL) is the percentage
change in earnings available to common stockholders that is associated with a given percentage change in net
operating income (earnings before interest and taxes). The more financial leverage employed, the greater the DFL, and
the riskier the firm. Whenever the return on assets is greater than the cost of debt, additional leverage is favorable. An
increase in the equity component of the capital structure, however, decreases financial leverage. Operating leverage is a
related concept based on the degree that fixed costs are used in the production process. A company with a high
percentage of fixed costs is riskier than a firm in the same industry that relies more on variable costs to produce. The
degree of operating leverage (DOL) is the percentage change in net operating income that is associated with a given
percentage change in sales. When fixed assets increase, operating leverage also increases.
Answer (A) is incorrect because financial leverage would decrease and operating leverage would increase. Answer (C)
is incorrect because financial leverage would decrease and operating leverage would increase. Answer (D) is incorrect
because financial leverage would decrease and operating leverage would increase.
141
. Answer (D) is correct. Insurance is a method of spreading losses that arise from risks to which many persons are
subject. Loss is an unanticipated diminution in economic value as opposed to normal depreciation. Risk is uncertainty
about the occurrence or the amount of loss. For example, buildings are subject to the risk of loss by fire. If the owners all
pay small fees (premiums) for insurance coverage, every participant bears part of the loss instead of a few bearing all
the loss.
Answer (A) is incorrect because risk avoidance and loss control do not transfer risk of loss. Answer (B) is incorrect
because an insurable interest is merely a potential for economic loss if an event occurs. Answer (C) is incorrect because
there must be an insurable interest, which is basically potential for loss if an event occurs. Gambling occurs when only a
bet is at risk.
142
. Answer (A) is correct. An insurance contract (a policy) must satisfy the usual requirements: offer and acceptance,
consideration, legality, and capacity of the parties. The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of
the contract. Also, the subject matter generally must exist at the time of contracting. In the contract, the insurer makes a
promise to pay a stated amount for loss or injury incurred as a result of a contingent event.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the payee may be a stranger to the contract. A person who insures his/her own life
names a third party as a beneficiary. Moreover, not every insurer is an insurance company, and the contingent event
insured against must involve a risk. Answer (C) is incorrect because there is no general requirement that an insurance
contract be written. Answer (D) is incorrect because the contract may often be oral, and, if the risk is not already in
existence, the transaction is in essence a wager, not insurance.
143
. Answer (A) is correct. An insurance contract is very similar to any other contract. However, an additional
requirement is that the insured must have an insurable interest.
Answer (B) is incorrect because there is no general requirement that an insurance contract be written. Oral binders are
given every day in the insurance business. Answer (C) is incorrect because consideration is needed for the initial
formation of an insurance contract. The premium may be paid immediately, or a promise to pay is required. Answer (D)
is incorrect because the insurance company can also commit a breach by refusing to pay the proceeds of the policy
upon the occurrence of the event.
144
. Answer (A) is correct. Life insurance is usually purchased to protect against the cessation of income needed for
support of the family and to shield them from the decedent's debts.
Answer (B) is incorrect because life insurance is customarily long-term, if not for life. Answer (C) is incorrect because,
unlike other forms of insurance, life insurance does not attempt to reimburse for the actual amount of a loss since loss of
life is not measurable. Life insurance is intended to replace economic benefits lost by a person's death. Answer (D) is
incorrect because, except for term policies, life insurance differs from other kinds of coverage in providing cash value.
145
. Answer (D) is correct. Term life insurance provides protection for a specified period. Premiums are level throughout
the period. When the term ends, the insured receives no payment. Term insurance may be renewable (possibly at higher
premiums) or convertible to another form. It is the cheapest kind of life insurance.
Answer (A) is incorrect because whole life furnishes lifetime insurance protection with a cash surrender value. Answer
(B) is incorrect because an endowment policy provides life insurance protection for its duration. A cash payment is made
(the policy endows) at the end of the term. Premiums for endowment policies are higher than for whole life insurance.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a straight life or ordinary policy is whole life insurance with level premiums payable for
life.
146
. Answer (B) is correct. When one person insures the life of another, the policyholder must have an insurable interest
in the insured. That interest is found among persons who have a close family relationship or expect to suffer substantial
economic loss from the death. Business entities are thus permitted to insure key people in their organizations whose
death might have an adverse effect on profits.
Answer (A) is incorrect because a corporation has an insurable interest only in its key employees, i.e., those whose
death would cause loss to the firm. Answer (C) is incorrect because the required loss need not be so great as to cause
cessation of business. Answer (D) because one need not be an owner or an officer to be insurable as a key person.
147
. Answer (A) is correct. Fire insurance is the most standardized kind of insurance. Following the lead of New York,
almost all states have enacted a standard policy either by legislative or administrative action.
Answer (B) is incorrect because, given that fire insurance is usually written for a 1- to 3-year period, an incontestability
clause is not necessary. Such a clause bars insurer defenses after a period specified by law or the policy. Answer (C) is
incorrect because a policy may state a definite value of the insured property or simply a maximum amount of coverage
that is not conclusive as to valuation when loss occurs. A policy may thus be valued or open (unvalued). A pro rata
clause is often included (but not required) which requires the loss to be shared pro rata when there is more than one
insurer. Answer (D) is incorrect because the insurable interest merely requires the person, e.g., mortgagee, bailee, etc.,
to suffer a loss if the event insured against occurs.
148
. Answer (D) is correct. If a premium is not received by the due date, the policyholder has a grace period under state
law, usually a month or 31 days, in which to pay. After the grace period, the cash surrender value is not forfeited but can
be withdrawn or used to buy a paid-up policy.
Answer (A) is incorrect because life insurance policies often do not cover death while the insured is in the military.
Answer (B) is incorrect because life insurance policies often do not cover death as a result of a noncommercial air flight.
Answer (C) is incorrect because a lapsed policy may often be reinstated by payment of overdue premiums plus interest.
149
. Answer (B) is correct. Ordinarily, smoke, water, or other damage caused by hostile, but not friendly, fires will be
indemnified under a fire insurance policy. Hostile fires are those ignited in places where they are not meant to be. A
friendly fire is one that burns where it is intended to burn, such as a fireplace or furnace. For example, if a friendly fire is
kept within its usual container, damage caused by smoke from it will not be reimbursed.
Answer (A) is incorrect because fire insurance usually indemnifies for loss caused by hostile, but not friendly, fires.
Answer (C) is incorrect because fire insurance usually indemnifies for loss caused by hostile, but not friendly, fires.
Answer (D) is incorrect because fire insurance usually indemnifies for loss caused by hostile, but not friendly, fires.
150
. Answer (C) is correct. Arson, fraud, or another intentional act of the insured calculated to cause the damage insured
against will preclude recovery. The parties to an insurance contract have an implied duty not to bring about the very
event that is the subject matter of the policy.
Answer (A) is incorrect because agency rules do not apply; i.e., the intentional act of an agent will not be imputed to the
insured under the doctrine of respondeat superior. Arson by an agent without the actual knowledge or conspiracy of the
insured will not preclude recovery. Answer (B) is incorrect because arson is compensable unless intended by the
insured. Answer (D) is incorrect because negligence without fraud will not prevent recovery by an insured who has acted
in good faith.
151
. Answer (D) is correct. Fire insurance generally protects the insured from damage to the insured property as a result
of fire. It does not cover the insured for causing a fire on someone else's property.
Answer (A) is incorrect because malpractice insurance is a special form of liability insurance protecting professionals
from lawsuits by third parties for negligence. Answer (B) is incorrect because homeowners insurance generally contains
a liability section in the event guests are injured on the premises. Answer (C) is incorrect because a primary purpose of
automobile insurance is to protect the owner or driver from liability in the event (s)he is responsible for damage to
another person or property.
152
. Answer (C) is correct. Co-insurance is a method of sharing risk between the insurer and the insured. A co-insurance
clause typically provides that, if the policyholder insures his/her property for at least a stated percentage (usually 80%)
of its actual cash value, any loss will be paid in full up to the face amount of the policy. Thus, a co-insurance clause is
used by many property and casualty insurers to encourage policyholders to insure commercial property for an amount
that is near to its full replacement cost.
Answer (A) is incorrect because, if a policyholder does not insure the property for an amount close enough to its full
replacement cost, the policyholder must bear a proportionate part of any partial loss. Answer (B) is incorrect because the
co-insurance requirement applies only to partial losses. Total losses result in recovery of the face amount of the policy.
Answer (D) is incorrect because a co-insurance clause encourages policyholders to insure commercial property for an
amount that is near to its full replacement cost.
153
. Answer (A) is correct. Conditions precedent, called warranties, are part of the property insurance policy. Breach of a
warranty precludes recovery and results in a forfeiture. Since the law disfavors forfeitures, courts construe questions of
interpretation favorably to the insured and against the insurer that drafted the policy. However, if the parties expressly
agree that certain statements are warranties, then a court would recognize them as warranties. Since Jewelry warranted
never to display more than $10,000 of jewelry, the breach of warranty prevents recovery.
Answer (B) is incorrect because Jewelry will recover nothing; it is not entitled to $2,000. Answer (C) is incorrect because
the warranty will not be construed as a mere representation; the intention of the parties clearly was to make it a
warranty. Answer (D) is incorrect because attachment of the application to the policy is usually sufficient to make it a
part thereof. It may also be incorporated into the policy by reference to it.