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SỞ GD & ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 11 CẤP THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
Đề chính thức
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 THPT - BẢNG A
(Đề thi gồm 10 trang) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

ĐIỂM HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ GIÁM KHẢO SỐ PHÁCH

Bằng số:………………………………….. Giám khảo 1: ………………………………………

Bằng chữ:………………..………………. Giám khảo 2: ………………………………………

SECTION A – LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear part of a talk about continuing after graduation. For questions 1-15, fill in each
blank with one missing word.
So you have 1…………………from university and decided to continue studying towards a Master’s
or PhD. At some stage during the next few years you will need to consider your thesis. One of the greatest
2……………………….faced by postgraduate students is choosing a topic to base their dissertation on.
Writing a thesis can be very daunting, but the task is much more straightforward if the topic you select
is3……………….. for you. So, what can you do to solve this problem?
Well there are several things to keep in mind. Firstly you need to do your 4………………so that you
are very familiar with all the current literature. On top of this, you also need to be sure that you have a
broad5……………… of your area of specialisation. If you do this, it will help you with the next
6……………..point in choosing a good subject for your research, which is to ascertain what is relevant in
your research area. This will be crucial in helping you to 7………..your choices down. From the very
beginning, it really is vital to set clear 8……………..and to have a very fixed plan in terms of the scope of
your research.
It can be even more helpful to 9………………existing research and ask yourself if there are any
controversies. Perhaps there is a 10…………..that you may want to challenge and this could be the focus of
your study. A further and very important factor to take into account is your own 11………………..resources.
If these are limited then you need to avoid choosing a study that will involve costly equipment or surveys.
However, if this is the case, you needn’t despair or 12………….your ideas altogether, instead make
enquiries into funding from external agencies such as your local government. You may even find that local
industries are willing to support your research by 13………………. a grant. It’s 14…………….worth
looking around to see just what is possible. And finally, be sure to make good use of your15…………….,
especially when it comes to making sure that your findings are accurate.

Your answers:
1. 4. 7. 10. 13.
2. 5. 8. 11. 14.
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.

Part 2: You will hear a talk about The Sea Life Centre. For questions 16-30, complete the following
tasks
For questions 16-25, Write T (True) or F (False)

16. The Sea Life Centre was previously called World of Water.
17. The Sea Life Center has a new restaurant and a swimming pool.
18. The newest attraction called splash ride was finished last month.

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19. The most popular thing that everyone enjoys seeing is feeding time, especially for the
crocodiles and the seals.
20. The VIP ticket costs only £2 per person.
21. For some people feeding the sharks might be frightening.
22. A birthday party is not allowed at The Sea Life Centre.
23. At the Sea Life Centre, asking as many people as possible to sign a petition is a way to
protect endangered species
24 The petition for animal conservation will be sent to the government.
25 Visitors can test what they have learnt by doing a quiz.

For questions 25- 30. Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A- E.

A. Aquarium
B. Crocodile Cave
C. Penguin Park
D. Seal Centre
E. Turtle Town

26. must not miss ………………..

27. opposite Penguin Park ……………….
28. temporarily closed ………………..
29. at the far corner of the Sea Life Centre ……………….
30. a lot of endangered species ……………….

Your answers:
16. 19. 22. 25. 28.
17. 20. 23. 26. 29.
18. 21. 24. 27. 30.

Part 3. You will hear an interview with a TV presenter, Tanya Edwards, who is talking about her
career and her daughter called Maddy. For questions 31-40, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
31. What is Maddy’s job?
A. a presenter and a model B. a pop star and model C. a pop star and a teacher
32. What does Tanya say about her first job in children’s TV?
A She had contacted the TV company earlier.
B It was difficult to get used to the instructions.
C Her previous experience was useful.
33.What does Tanya say about Paul Broadly, her first boss?
A He thought of nothing but his work.
B It was difficult to work with him.
C He was unwilling to share ideas about the work.
34. How did Tanya feel leaping out of aeroplane, with the camera on her?
A. happy B. scary C. crazy
35.What does Tanya say about her parachute jump?
A She wishes she had never done it.
B It resulted in unexpected attention.
C Her boss was furious about what happened.
36. What did lots of children send her?
A. cards and a cake B. cards and hats C. a cake and a teddy bear
37.What does Tanya say about her daughter’s flute playing?
A She knew that Maddy had talent.
B She saw that Maddy really enjoyed an audience

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C She wanted Maddy to practise more.
38. How does Tanya feel when her daughter sings in public?
A responsible for Maddy’s success
B worried that something will go wrong
C aware of how the audience feels
39.Tanya says that Maddy finds modelling difficult because
A she finds it exhausting.
B you have to cope with criticism.
C people don’t respect models.
40. What is Tanya’s attitude to fame in general?
A You should enjoy it while it lasts.
B You should try and ignore it.
C You should accept its disadvantages
Your answers:
31. 33. 35. 37. 39.
32. 34. 36. 38. 40.

SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in Your
answers
1. Some top Vietnam attractions …….. Trang An, Tam Coc – Bich Dong and Van Long wetland in Ninh
Binh will be seen in the new movie of Kong.
A. including B. to include C. included D. to be included
2. President Barack Obama ……… a tendency to claim no knowledge of impending problems.
A. does B. makes C. gets D. has
3. I’m not sure a green skirt ………..combination with a blue top is such a good idea.
A. on B. at C. in D. for
4. Byron De La Beckwith ……… having murdered the civil rights leader Medgar Evers for 30 years, but in
1994, a new trial finally convicted him of the crime.
A. watched out for B. kept out of C. got away with D. lived up to
5. Does Mr.Ba bring his farm ……… to the local market every day?
A. productivity B. product C. production D. produce
6. Being quick on the ………., the student made rapid progress.
A. takeover B. uptake C. take-off D. intake
7. Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most suitable response
to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly”
Bob: “…………”
A. I can’t say that it does B. Actually, she is the second best
C. Really? How could that be? D. I couldn’t agree with you more
8. He likes to tell people of his rise from……… to riches.
A. head B. patches C. calms D. rags
9.“The lake had ice on it this morning.” – “It ................very cold last night.”
A. must have gotten B. could have gotten
C. would have gotten D. should have gotten
10. She is in no mood of eating for the whole day after the ……………breakfast.
A. supplement B. sufficient C. super D. substantial

Your answers:
1. 3. 5. 7. 9.
2. 4. 6. 8. 10.

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Part 2. Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1 Most children with healthy appetites are ready to eat almost anything that is offering them. A child
2 rarely dislikes food unless it is well cooked. The way the meal is cooked and served is very important
3 and an attractive served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a child whether he likes
4 or dislikes a food and never discuss likes and dislikes in front of him or allow nobody else to do so.
5 Unless the father says he hates fat meat or the mother refuses vegetables in the child’s hearing he is
6 likely to copy this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably will. Nothing
7 healthful should be omitted from the meal because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good
8 idea to give a child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give him as
9 much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk too much to the child during the meal time, but let him
10 get over with his food, and do not allow him to leave the table immediately after a meal or he will
11 soon learn to swallow his food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no circumstances must a
12 child be coaxed and forced eating.

Your answers:
Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

SECTION C – READING
Part 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer
Why don’t the British cycle? Only a quarter of the (1) … twenty million bicycles in the country are thought
to be in (2) … use. In Denmark, which is flatter but not darker or rainier than Britain, 20% of all journeys are
made by bicycles, while in Britain the (3) … is only 5%. The government is trying to (4) … this. It is hoped
that a grant of millions of pounds from the National Lottery will (5) … more people to use their bikes. The
money will be used to (6) … for a 6,500 mile national network of cycle tracks. Britain needs to (7) …
environmentally friendly schemes such as this. The southern third of the country is one of the most (8) …
areas of the world. Environmentalists make it (9) … to build new roads, and (10) … roads are very
overcrowded. One official committee described the growth of motor transport as “possibly the (11) …
environmental threat to the UK”. The (12) … of building the cycle tracks is to motivate people to use their
bikes instead of their cars. However, the new tracks are being built (13) … cities and not through them. This
(14) … that only long distance journeys may be easier and safer. Those cyclists who want to (15) … inside
cities will still be in danger of losing their lives on busy roads every time they use their bicycles.
1. A counted B numbered C estimated D guessed
2. A right B regular C normal D proper
3. A size B portion C figure D part
4. A improve B succeed C excel D help
5. A support B suggest C boost D encourage
6. A cost B give C pay D afford
7. A do B introduce C commence D make
8. A full B loaded C occupied D crowded
9. A rough B uneasy C stiff D difficult
10. A existing B controlling C living D left
11. A hardest B greatest C grandest D strongest
12. A aim B function C design D course
13. A from B in C among D between
14. A tells B says C means D defines
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15. A travel B wander C tour D follow

Your answers:
1. 4. 7. 10. 13.
2. 5. 8. 11. 14.
3. 6. 9. 12. 15.

Part 2: Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. Write the words in Your answers.
Travelling is a great thing to do. It (16)……………………us learn about different people and different
places. Some people travel (17)………………they want to see nature. Others travel because they want to
(18) …………friends and try great food. Of course, a lot of tourists are (19)…………in traditional culture.
Tourism can be very good for traditional cultures. This is because when people travel to
(20)……………….country, they often want to learn more about that country’s traditions, such as music,
food, and history. Therefore, the local people in that country will (21)……………….. their traditional
culture alive. They will (22)……………….traditional clothing, and sell traditional food. They will also have
shows for tourists. These shows can (23)……………..dances, concerts, plays, or something else.
Tourism (24)…………….helps people respect each other. (25)…………you understand another culture
well, you will probably respect that culture much more. You will probably want to protect that culture
(26)…..well.
However, tourism is not always good for traditional culture. Many people say that tourism
(27)………..“fake traditional culture”. This means that the local people wear traditional costumes, and
(28)…………..traditional dances only for tourists, but that is not their real lifestyle. Their real lifestyles are
(29)…………to the tourists’ lifestyle. They are just pretending because they want to make money. Another
problem is that tourists can (30)………………..with the local people’s lives. For example, tourists come to
watch local people praying in temples. While the local people pray, tourists take photographs and make
noise.

Your answers:
16. 19. 22. 25. 28.
17. 20. 23. 26. 29.
18. 21. 24. 27. 30.

Part 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions
Rent control is the system whereby the local government tells building owners how much they can
charge their tenants in rent. In the United States, rent controls date back to at least World War II.
In 1943 the federal government imposed rent controls to help solve the problem of housing shortages
during wartime. The federal program ended after the war, but in some locations, including New York City,
controls continued. Under New York's controls, a landlord generally cannot raise rents on apartments as long
as the tenants continue to renew their leases. In places such as Santa Monica, California, rent controls are
more recent. They were spurred by the inflation of the 1970's, which, combined with California's rapid
population growth, pushed housing prices, as well as rents, to record levels. In 1979 Santa Monica's
municipal government ordered landlords to rollback their rents to the levels charged in 1978. Future rents
could only go up by two-thirds as much as any increase in the overall price level.
In any housing market, rental prices perform three functions: (1) promoting the efficient
maintenance of existing housing and stimulating the construction of new housing, (2) allocating existing
scarce housing among competing claimants, and (3) rationing use of existing housing by potential renters.
One result of rent control is a decrease in the construction of new rental units. Rent controls
have artificially depressed the most important long-term determinant of profitability - rents. Consider some
examples. In a recent year in Dallas, Texas, with a 16 percent rental vacancy rate but no rent control laws,
11,000 new housing units were built. In the same year, in San Francisco, California, only 2,000 units were
built. The major difference? San Francisco has only a 1.6 percent vacancy rate but stringent rent control laws.
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In New York City, except for government-subsidized construction, the only rental units being built are luxury
units, which are exempt from controls. In Santa Monica, California, new apartments are not being
constructed. New office rental space and commercial developments are, however. They are exempt from rent
controls.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The construction of apartments in the United States.
B. Causes and effects of rent control
C. The fluctuations of rental prices
D. The shortage of affordable housing in the United States.
32. The word "They" in line 8 refers to
A. rent controls B. their leases C. the tenants D. places
33. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the introduction of rent controls in Santa Monica,
California?
A. Rapid population growth B. Inflation
C. Economic conditions during wartime D. Record-high housing prices
34. The phrase "roll back" in lines 11-12 is closest in meaning to
A. credit B. measure C. vary D.reduce
35. The word "stimulating" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. experimenting withB. identifying C. estimating D.encouraging
36. It can be inferred that the purpose of rent control is to
A. protect tenants B. promote construction.
C increase vacancy rates D. decrease sales of rental units
37. The word "depressed" in line 19 is closest in meaning to
A. saddened B. created C.lowered D. defeated
38. The information in the last paragraph supports which of the following statements?
A. San Francisco has eliminated its rent control laws.
B. Rent control leads to a reduction in the construction of housing units
C. Luxury apartments are rarely built when there is rent control
D. There is a growing need for government-subsidized housing.
39. According to the passage, which of the following cities does NOT currently have rent controls?
A. Santa Monica B. Dallas C. San Francisco D. New York City
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT exempt from rent control?
A. Luxury apartments B. Commercial development
C. Moderately priced apartments D. Office space

Your answers:
31. 33. 35. 37. 39.
32. 34. 36. 38. 40.

Part 4: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 51 to 60

WILD CAMPING
Camping in the wild rather than at organized campsites is a great way of getting away from
it all and getting back to nature. Four experienced wild campers tell us why.

A Luise Gallivan
I’m turning my back on organized sites, particularly the supersized ones. Even at the relatively quiet sites you
can seldom escape the constant chattering of people in neighbouring tents, or worse still, the noise of
satellite-assisted televisions from camper vans. I go wild camping, which means I can set up my tent in a
field or on a mountainside without paying anyone for the privilege. Lots of ‘mild campers’ (that’s what we
call the ones who use campsites) are waking up to the fact that wild camping gives you an eco-friendly break
and offers a great deal more in the way of adventure. Because it’s so different from ‘mild’ camping, though,

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people need to ask themselves: ‘Do I really need this?’ before packing their stuff. Wild camping is the
ultimate budget holiday - once you’ve got to wherever you’re going, the only expense is feeding yourself.

B Thomas Parsons
Perhaps the main reason why many people shy away from wild camping is our modern-day culture of ‘risk
aversion’ – in other words, avoiding all activities that seem in any way dangerous, however unlikely it is that
anything would actually go wrong. In less paranoid times, wild camping was indeed very common, but
people nowadays want safe environments, especially when it comes to feeling at ease with what their kids are
doing, and organized campsites are the obvious answer. I’m not keen to suggest good places to go wild
camping, though because one of the joys of the activity comes from finding places nobody else knows about.
For the beginner, I’d advise places which aren’t too far from civilization in case anything does go wrong. I
learnt the hard way, weighing myself down with unnecessary home comforts and camping gadgets when
apart from the usual backpacker’s tent, warm sleeping-bag, spare clothes and food, all you really need is a
torch, lightweight cooking equipment, a map and a compass.

C Jennie Martinez
Camping was an integral part of my early years, and I’ve managed to pass on some of my enthusiasm to my
own children. In striving for little luxuries like hot showers, ‘mild’ campers miss out on the delights of wild
camping. There are very comfortable state-of-the-art tents available nowadays if you want a bit of comfort,
and they don’t cost that much. Once you’re hooked on wild camping, nothing else will do and you get not to
mind occasional problems with ants or wasps. The lack of fellow travelers makes me feel that the great
views and the starlit skies have been laid on expressly for my own personal equipment. But camping in wild
places also means having to observe a few basic rules. For instance, during a particular dry season, it’s best to
avoid high fire-risk areas. I’ll always remember a time when I was camping with friends and we noticed that
somebody had failed to extinguish a small fire completely. We managed to put it out, but it could have been a
disaster.

For questions 41-50, choose from people (A-C). The people may be chosen more than once.
A. Luis Gallivan B. Thomas Parsons C. Jenny Martinez
Which person
41. compares attitudes to wild camping now and in the past? 41.___________
42-43. mentions the inexpensive nature of wild camping? 42.____ 43_____
44.is unwilling to recommend areas suitable for wild camping? 44.____________
45. is pleased to have shown others how to enjoy camping? 45.____________
46.accepts that parents may be concerned about their children? 46.____________
47. refers to the need to travel light when wild camping? 47.____________
48. says more people are beginning to see the attraction of wild camping? 48.___________
49. describes a dangerous situation which could have been avoided? 49.___________
50.gives reasons for disliking organized campsites? 50.___________

Part 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 51 to 60
Hot Days, Hot Nights
51. Paragraph A
Here is what global warming could do in a few years: in Dallas, a doubled level of carbon dioxide would
increase the number of days a year with temperatures above 100 degrees from nineteen to seventy-eight. On
sixty-eight days, as opposed to the current four, the temperature wouldn’t fall below 80 degrees at night. One
hundred and sixty-two days a year, the temperature would top 90 degrees.

52. Paragraph B
Although most scientists agree that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases will
inevitably lead to global warming, no one is certain how fast and how much temperatures will rise and what

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the effects will be in any geographical areas. This gives policymakers an excuse for delaying action. Some
experts predict that within two centuries glaciers in the North and South Poles will melt, ocean levels will rise,
and much of what is now the coast of the United States will be under water. They also predict great droughts
and hurricanes, as a result of climate changes.

53. Paragraph C
Other scientists think the changes will be much more gradual, even beneficial. After all, Canada would not
complain if the productive corn-growing lands — now located in the U.S. Midwest - were shifted north
across the border.

54. Paragraph D
While many nations could end up with milder climates, the change — perhaps 100 times faster than at any
time in human history - could be so drastic that many of the benefits would be lost. There could be crowds of
environmental refugees, as well, making the tragedy of the Dust Bowl era seem mild in comparison.

55. Paragraph E
What can we do? Humanity’s contribution to the greenhouse effect comes from so many basic activities that
we can’t hope to eliminate it completely. Some steps have already been taken. Since the 1970s, the use of
CFCs as aerosol-can propellants has been banned in the United States.

56. Paragraph F
Another strategy is to burn as much methane as possible. This adds CO2 to the air, but since methane traps
twenty times as much heat as CO2 the net result is worthwhile. The gas in many garbage landfills is already
being used in a number of places around the United States. It is being used to heat thousands of homes.

For questions 51-56, choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph A-F from the list of
headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (I-VIII). Please note that there are more headings
than you can use.

I Possible problems due to global warming

II Warmer summer in Dallas
III Help from methane
IV One important step
V Disagreement about temperatures
VI Warmer and warmer in some places
VII But possible benefits too
VIII Problems bigger than benefits

Your answers:

51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56.

For questions 57-60, Read the passage again and write:

YES if the statement agrees with the writer;
NO if the statement does not agree with the writer;
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage.

0. The number of days in Dallas with temperatures above 100 degrees would ______YES__
increase.
57. Currently in Dallas, there are only four days when the temperature falls below ____________
80 degrees at night
58. Some scientists are sure how fast the temperature will rise due to global ____________
warming.
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59. Policymakers are not at all interested in taking any action to solve the ____________
environmental problem.
60. Some scientists think that the climate changes may even bring benefits. ____________

SECTION D – WRITING

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one.
1. "If Brian doesn't train harder, I won't select him for the team," said the manager.
The manager threatened …………………………………………………..
2.The lesson was so boring that she fell asleep.
It ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. I quite like snails, but they wouldn’t be my first choice.
Although I am not averse…………………………………………………...
4. We wouldn’t have got out alive without the fire fighter’s help.
Had……………………………………………………………………………
5. He was annoyed because his secretary came late to work.
He objected ………………………………………………

Part 2: The parents of a friend of yours lent you their house in the country for a week. Write a thank-you
letter (80-100 words) to express your gratitude. Say how kind they were, and describe what you did during
the week’s holiday. Use your name and address as David Beckham - 37, Parkgate, London, United Kingdom.
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Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topic.

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Many people believe that social networking sites (such as Facebook) have a huge negative impact on both
individuals and society. Do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant
examples from your own knowledge or experience.
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Tiếng Anh THPT – Bảng A 10

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SỞ GD&ĐT NGHỆ AN KỲ THI HSG TỈNH LỚP 11 NĂM HỌC 2016-2017

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Môn Tiếng Anh – Bảng A

SECTION A – LISTENING
Part 1. (1pt x 15 Qs)
1. graduated 4. research 7. narrow 10. theory 13. providing
2. difficulties 5. knowledge 8. limits 11. financial 14. always
3. appropriate 6. important 9. analyse 12. abandon 15. tutor

Part 2. (1pt x 15 Qs)

16. T 19. T 22. F 25. T 28. C
17. F 20. F 23. T 26. E 29. E
18. F 21. T 24. T 27. D 30. E

Part 3. (2pts x 10 Qs)

31. B 33. A 35. B 37. B 39. B
32. C 34. B 36. A 38. C 40. C
Tiếng Anh THPT – Bảng A 11
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SECTION B – VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1. (1pt x 10 Qs)
1. A 3. C 5. D 7. D 9. A
2. D 4. C 6. B 8. D 10. D

Part 2. (1pt x 10 Qs)

Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction

11. 1 offering Offered to 16. 5 Unless If
12. 2 well badly 17. 7 supposing supposed
13. 3 attractive attractively 18. 8 other rather
14. 4 nobody anybody 19. 10 over on
15. 6 grant granted 20. 12 eating to eat

SECTION C – READING
Part1. (1pt x 15 Qs)

1. C 4. A 7. B 10. A 13. D
2. B 5. D 8. D 11. B 14. C
3. C 6.C 9.D 12.A 15.A

Part 2. (1pt x 15 Qs)

16. helps 19. interested 22. wear 25. If 28. do
17. because 20. another 23. be 26. as 29. similar
18. make 21. keep 24. also 27. creates 30. interfere

Part 3. (2pts x 10 Qs)

31. B 33.C 35. D 37. C 39. B

32. A 34. D 36. B 38. B 40. C

Part 4. (1pt x 10 Qs)

41. B 43. C/A 45. C 47.B 49. C

42. A/C 44. B 46. B 48.A 50. A

Part 5. (1pt x 10 Qs)

51. VI 53. VII 55. IV 57. NO 59. NG

52. I 54. VIII 56. III 58. NO 60. YES

SECTION D – WRITING

Part 1(10 pts)

1.not to select Brian for the team if he didn’t train harder
2. was such a boring lesson that she fell asleep.
3. to (eating) snails , they wouldn’t be my choice
4. Had it not been for the fire fighter’s help / fire fighter , we wouldn’t have got out alive
Had the fire fighter not helped, we wouldn’t have got out alive
Tiếng Anh THPT – Bảng A 12
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5. to his secretary’s / his secretary coming late to work

Part 2 (20 pts)

Length (1pt): 80 – 100 words
Ideas (10 pts):
- Opening
- A fuller expression of gratitude.
- Closing
Organization and Style (2pts): formal
Vocabulary and grammar (7pts)

Part 3: (30 pts)

1. Length: (2pts) : about 350 words.
2. Organization & style: (3pts) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity
appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Ideas (15 pts): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (10pts) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Tiếng Anh THPT – Bảng A 13