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Green Olympiad 2017 Sample papers (Classes IV and V)

Green Olympiad Sample Questions


Classes IV and V

1. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth's ozone layer


a) The average temperature of earth's surface will increase gradually
b) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease
c) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth's surface
d.) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
Answer: (c)
2. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of
gases
a). Methane and ozone
b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) methane and sulpher dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide
Answer: (b)
3. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater
UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric
ozone?
a) Damage to digestive system
b) Increased liver cancer
c) Neurological disorder
d) Increased skin cancer
Answer: (d)
4. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes
is
a) air pollution.
b) contamination of groundwater.
c) increased use of land for landfills.
d) destruction of habitat.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (b)
5. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment?
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming?
a) rising sea level
.b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide
c) worsening health effects
d) increased storm frequency and intensity
e) all of the above are likely results of global warming
Answer: (b)
7. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse
effect?
a) carbon dioxide
b) carbon monoxide
c) chlorofluorocarbons
d) methane gas
e) nitrous oxide
Answer: (c)
8. The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last
fifty years; since 1960 is about
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 14%
d) 6%
Answer: (c)
9. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by
a) nitrous oxide.
b) carbon dioxide.
c) chlorofluorocarbons.
d) methane.
e) all of the above.
Answer: (c)
10. A major in-stream use of water is for
a) producing hydroelectric power.
b) dissolving industrial wastes.
c) agricultural irrigation.
d) domestic use.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (a)
11. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial
discharge pipes
a) nonpoint sources of pollution.
b) violations of the Clean Water Act.
c) point sources of pollution.
d) irrigation.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (c)
12. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate
a) contamination by human wastes.
b) phosphorus contamination.
c) decreased biological oxygen demand.
d) hydrocarbon contamination.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (a)
13. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased
presence of organic matter in water?
a) the oxygen demand increases
c) the oxygen demand decreases
c) the oxygen demand remains unchanged
d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
14. Which of the following is not a major source of groundwater
contamination?
a) agricultural products
b) landfills
c) septic tanks
d) underground storage tanks
e) all of the above are major sources of groundwater contamination
Answer: (e)
15. Which of the following is not considered as part of water use
planning?
a) waste water treatment
b) water diversion projects
c) storm sewer drainage
d) salinization
e) Water use planning considers all of the above issues
Answer: (e)
16. The stage in which the biological processes is used to purify water
in a wastewater treatment plants is called
a) secondary sewage treatment
b) primary sewage treatment
c) wastewater reduction
d) biochemical reduction
e) none of the above
Answer: (a)
17. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into
a) increase in the salinity of groundwater.
b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater.
c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater.
d) increase in the water table.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (a)
18. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green
Revolution?
a) mechanized agriculture
b) hybrid seeds
c) slash and burn
d) monoculture
e) all of the above are characteristic of the Green Revolution
Answer: (c)
19. The three primary soil macronutrients are
a) carbon, oxygen, and water.
b) copper, cadmium, and carbon.
c) potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.
d) boron, zinc, and manganese.
e) none of the above.
Answer: (c)
20. Which of the following is negative effects on the soil and water due
to conventional, mechanized farming practices?
a) soil compaction
b) reduction in soil organic matter
c) soil erosion
d) leaching of pesticides and fertilizers into the groundwater
e) all of the above
Answer: (e)

1. Green Revolution in India was initiated by __________


a) M.S. Swaminathan b) Sunderlal Bahuguna c) Kurien d) Medha Patkar

2. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural history is located at ______
a) Pune b) Hyderabad c) Kerala d) Coimbatore

3. Who wrote the book ‘Violence of Green Revolution’


a)Vandana Siva b) Sheela Dikshit c) Menaka Gandhi d) Arundhathi Roy.

4. The biggest award for environmental activities in India is given in the name of an
individual. In whose name is it constituted?
a) Lal Bahadur Shasthri b) Morarji Desai c) Indira Gandhi d) Kamaraj.

5. World wildlife week is observed during


a) First week of October b) Last week of October c) Third week of October d) First week of
September

6. Expand GIS
a)Geographical Information System b) Geographical Information Source, c)Geological
Information System, d) Geological Index System

7. MoEF means
a) Ministry of Forest and Energy b) Ministry of Environment and Forests c)Ministry of
Fuel and Energy, d) Management of Environment and Forestry

8. Zoological Survey of India is at


a) Delhi, b) Mumbai, c) Kolkata d) Chennai

9. World Forest day is celebrated on


a) 21st March b) 5th June c ) 1st Dec d) 7th June

10. The book silent spring was written by


a) Madhav Gadgil, b) Anil Agarwal, c) Rachel Carson, d) E.O.Wilson

11. The Chipko movement is started by


a) Engler, b) Sunderlal Bahuguna, c) Medha Padkar, d) None of these

12. The Salim Ali Bird sanctuary is located at


a) Pondicherry, b) Thattekad, c) Anakkatti d) Kalakkad

13. Who among the following is commonly called ‘Bird Man of India’?
a). Salim Ali, b) M.S. Swaminathan, c) M.C. Mehta, d) Raphel Emerson

14. What is UNCED?


a) United Nations Conference on Education, b) United Nations Conference on
Environmental Day c). United Nations Conference on Environment and Development d).
None of these

15. “Earth provides enough to satisfy every man’s need, but not for every man’s greed”
words by
a) Tagore, b). Gandhiji, c). Nehru, d). None

116. The first protected area in India is ____________


a) Silent valley, b) Corbett National Park c) Bandipur sanctuary d) Nagar-Hole

117. The Indian Parliament passed the Biodiversity Bill in the year________
a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 2002 d) 2007
118. Which chemical was responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy?
a) Methyl iso Cyanate b) Benzene Hexa Chloride c) Tri Nitro Toluene d) B & C

119. The destruction of habitat of plants and animals is called


a) endemism b) endangered species c) habitat loss d) flood

120. Zoos are examples for


a) In-situ conservation b) in-vivo conservation c) ex-situ conservation d) exvivo conservation

121. In which Indian state is Corbet National park located


a) Madya Pradesh b) Uttarakhand c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu

122. The first national park of Kerala


a) a) Aralam, b) Kottayam c) Idukki d) Iravikulam

123. In which year was ‘Project Tiger’ launched?


a) 1973 b) 1964 c) 1998 d) 1970

124. Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992) resulted in


a) Compilation of Red list b) Establishment of biosphere reserves, c) Conservation of
biodiversity d) IUCN

125. India is primary centre of domestication of


a) Sheep b) Goat c) Water Buffalo d) Elephants

126. Lions are found in


a) Western Ghats b) Corbett National Park c) Forests of Madhya Pradesh d) Gir forests

127. National Park associated with rhinoceros is


a) Kaziranga b) Ranthambore c) Corbett d) Valley of flowers

128. Some species of plants and animals are extremely rare and may occur only at a few locations
are called
a) endemic b) endangered c) vulnerable d) threatened

129. The only known breeding colony of the greater and lesser Flamingos in our country is seen in
………………….. desert.
a) The Great Rann of Kutch b) The Thar c) Ladakh d) Atacama

130. The drug morphine is extracted from …………… plant


a) Cocoa b) Belladonna c) Opium Poppy d) Tannin

131. …………….. species is known as Azadirachta Indica


a) Neem b) Mango c) Jackfruit d) Banana

132. ……………….. tree is known as ‘flame of the forest’?


a) Zizyphus b) Butea monosperma c) Jackfruit d) Pongamea
133. Which tree is known as Coral tree?
a) Quercus b) Dipterocarps c) Erythrina d) Zizypus

134. Which plants die after flowering?


a) a) Lotus b) Bamboo c) Chrysanthemum d) Butea

135. The one-horned Rhinoceros is now restricted to which state?


a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat c) Assam d) Uttar Pradesh

136. Asiatic lion is found only in ………………..


a) Gir Forest b) Manas c) Kasiranga d) Sundarbans

137. ……………….. is a marine tortoise which shows the unique phenomenon ‘arribada’
a) Olive Ridley b) Star Tortoise c) Travancore Tortoise d) b & c

138. Largest reptile in the world


a) Dragon b) Anaconda c) Crocodile d) Python

139. Snow leopard is found in which National Park?


a) Kaziranga b) The Great Himalayan c) Bharatpur d) Nagarhole

140. Point Calimere sanctuary is situated in which state?


a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala c) Karnataka d) Gujrath

141. The movement ‘Beej Bachao Andolan’ was aimed for the conservation of ………………..
a) trees b) shrubs c) crops d) coconut

142. In which year Silent Valley was declared as National Park?


a) 1988 b) 1982 c) 1984 d) 1981

143. The Red Data book which lists endangered species is maintained by
a) UNO b) WHO c) IUCN d) WWF

144. Which of the following is a biodiversity hot sport in India?


a) Western Ghats b) Nandadevi c) Eastern Ghats d) Aravalli

145. First Biosphere reserve in India


a) Nilgiri b) Agastyamala c) Eravikulam d) Chinnar

146. Flag ship species of Choolannur sanctuary


a) Tiger b) Peacock c) Elephant d) Rhino

147. Herpetology is a branch of Science which deals with


a) Aves b) Mammals c) Reptiles d) Fishes

148. “ Silent Spring” is a well known book written by


a) John Miller b) Charles Darwin c) Rachel Carson d) Aldoleopold

149. Bears are usually hunted and killed for their


a) Teeth (b) Skin (c) Gall bladder (d) Nails

150. Coral reefs in India can be seen in


a) Himalayan region b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands c) Uttarpradesh d)
Maharashtra

151. Which of the following is an extinct species?


a) Tiger b) Lion c) Dodo d) Ostrich

152. The only ape found in India


a) Gorilla b) Chimpanzee c) Hoolock gibbon d) Oranguttan

153. Black Buck is a


a) Goat b) Deer c) Butterfly d) Bird

154. Gharial is a
a) Crocodile b) Cobra c) Tortoise d) Frog

155. ____________ is one of the most endangered species of Indian birds


a) Bee eater b) Paradise fly catcher c) Owl d) The great Indian bustard

156. Pangolins feed on


a) ants b) fruits c) leaves d) roots

157. Many wild plant and animals are on the verge of extinction due to
a) Habitat destruction b) Climatic changes c) Non availability of food d) None of the above

158. The most endangered ecosystem in India


a) Shola forest ecosystem b) Evergreen forest ecosystem c ) Pond ecosystem d) Tundra
Ecosystem

159. Eravikulam National Park conserves


a) Lion tailed macaque b) Tiger c) Elephant d) Nilgiri Tahr

160. First National Park in India


a) Jim Corbert National Park b) Bandipur National Park c) Gir National Park d) Sunderbans
National Park

161. Agastyamalai Biosphere reserve is in


a) Pathanamthitta b) Thiruvananthapuram c) Idukki d) Wayanad

162. What is meant by ex-situ conservation?


a) Conservation of a species by protecting its habitat along with all other species living there. b)
Conservation of forest eco system c) Conservation of a species outside its natural habitat d)
Conservation of plants.

163. Killing of animals disturbs


a) Good for eco system b) Good for man c) The balance of nature d) None
164. The state which constituted green bench
a) Kerala b) Tamilnadu c) Assam d) Madhya Pradesh

165. The first global environmental protection treaty “The Montreal Protocol” was signed on Sept. 26.
a) 1985 b) 1990 c) 1981 d) 1987

166. Name the endangered animal which is protected in Rajamalai National Park
a) Chital b) Black buck c) Nilgiri Tahr d) None

167. Animals and plants are best protected in


a) Zoos b) Botanical Gardens c) National Parks d) Sanctuaries

168. World’s first Teak Forest was planted in 1842 in Kerala. Identify the place
a) Wayanad b) Nilambur c) Silent Valley d)Nelliyampathy

169. The Native Place of Redwood trees?


a) Australia b) Amazon c) California d) Thailand

Question: A natural phenomenon that becomes harmful due to pollution is _____________.

1. global warming

2. ecological balance

3. greenhouse effect

4. desertification

Answer: 3

Question 2
Question: The pollutant responsible for ozone holes is ____________.

1. CO2

2. SO2

3. CO

4. CFC

Answer: 4

Question 3
Question: One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is _________________.

1. burning

2. dumping

3. burying

4. recycling

Answer: 4

Question 4

Question: Animal dung is _________________ waste.

1. biodegradable

2. non-biodegradable

3. hazardous

4. toxic

Answer: 1

Question 5

Question: Which of the following is biodegradable?

1. iron nails

2. plastic mugs

3. leather belts

4. silver foil

Answer: 3

Question 6

Question: Which of the following is non-biodegradable?

1. animal bones

2. nylon
3. tea leaves

4. wool

Answer: 2

Question 7

Question: Name one non-biodegradable waste which may pollute the earth to dangerous levels of
toxicity, if not handled properly.

1. DDT

2. CFC

3. Radioactive substances

4. PAN

Answer: 3

Question 8

Question: In a lake polluted with pesticides, which one of the following will contain the maximum
amount of pesticides?

1. small fish

2. microscopic animals

3. big fish

4. water birds

Answer: 4

Question 9

Question: Name the substance whose accumulation in pelicans of Lake Michigan led to the formation
of thin shells of their eggs.

1. CFC

2. PAN

3. DDT
4. PAC

Answer: 3

Classes IV and V
1. Biotic environment includes
(a) producers (b) consumers
(c) decomposers (d) all the above
Answer: (d) all the above
2. Decomposers include

(a) bacteria (b) fungi


(c) both (d) animals
Answer: (c) both
3. Abiotic environment does not include
(a) air (b) water
(c) soil (d) plants
Answer: (d) plants
4. Vermicomposting is done by
(a) fungus (b) bacteria
(c) worms (d) animals
Answer: (c) worms
5. The group of organisms which convert light into food are called
(a) autotrophs (b) heterotrophs
(c) decomposers (d) omnivores
Answer: (a) Autotrophs
6. Which one the following is not biodegradable?
(a) vegetables (b) fruits
(c) earthworm (d) aluminium foil
Answer: (d) Aluminium Foil
7. Animal(s) which is/are active at night.
(a) owl (b) rat
(c) cockroach (d) all the above
Answer: (d) All the above
8. An animal that can tolerate the heat of the desert is
(a) rats (b) camel
(c) cow (d) lion
Answer: (b) camel
9. Air pollution is caused by
(a) Insecticides (b) Sewage
(c) Smoke (d) Loud speakers
Answer: (c) smoke
10. If waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water which of
the following diseases will spread?
(a) Scurvy (b) Typhoid
(c) Malaria (d) Anaemia
Answer: (b) Typhoid
11. In our country the Van Mahotsav Day is observed on
(a) Second of October (b) First of December
(c) Tenth of August (d) First of July
Answer: (d) First of July
12. Which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria to
form compost?
(a) Kitchen wastes (b) Plastic and polythene bags
(c) dead plants (d) bodies of insects living in the soil
Answer: (b) Plastic and polythene bags
13. Which of the following problems is not created by noise pollution ?
(a) Diarrhoea (b) Hypertension
(c) Deafness (d) Irritation
Answer: (a) Diarrhoea
14. Plants are green because of the presence of a pigment called:
(a) glucose (b) nitrogen
(c) chlorophyll (d) oxygen
Answer: (a) chlorophyll
15. Air is composed of gases, water vapours and
(a) dust particles (b) rainfall
(c) snowfall (d) light
Answer: (a) dust particles
16. Medicine of quinine is provided by
(a) Eucalyptus plant (b) aconite plant
(c) cinchona plant (d) money plant
Answer: (c) cinchona plant
17. Chief source of energy in environment is
(a) fire (b) moon
(c) sun (d) stars
Answer: (c) sun
18. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) remains same
Answer: (a) decreases
19. Process through which plants reproduce:
(a) Eating (b) Evaporation
(c) Pollination (d) Condensation
Answer: (c) pollination
20. 71% of earth surface is covered with:
(a) land (b) air
(c) water (d) coal
Answer: (c) water

Green Olympiad Sample questions


Theme : Environment

1. Which of the following is an air pollutant?

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Carbon monooxide

(d) Oxygen

2. Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?

(a) Ozone

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Carbon monooxide

(d) Sulphur dioxide

3. The environmental lapse rate is found to be:

(a) – 6.5°C/km

(b) 8.6°C/km

(c) 6.5°C/km

(d) 5.6°C/km

4. During Inversion:
(a) Temperature increases with altitude

(b) Temperature decreases with altitude

(c) Temperature remains constant

(d) None of the above

5. Among the following, the only secondary pollutant is:

(a) Sulphur tetraoxide

(b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Ozone

(d) Sulphur tetraoxide

6. Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO pollution of


air?

(a) Epiphytic lichens

(b) Ferns

(c) Liver worts

(d) Horn worts

7. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly
than oxygen?

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Carbon mono-oxide

(c) Ozone

(d) Nitrous oxide

8. Smog is:

(a) A natural phenomenon

(b) A combination of smoke and fog


(c) Is colourless

(d) All of the above

9. The major photochemical oxidant is:

(a) Ozone

(b) Hydrogen peroxide

(c) Nitrogen oxides

(d) Peroxyl Acetyl Nitrate (PAN)

10. Which of the following are likely to be present in photochemical smog?

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Photochemical oxidants

(c) Chlorofluorocarbon

(d) Smog

11. Which of the following devices is suitable for the removal of gaseous pollutants?

(a) Cyclone separator

(b) Electrostatic precipitator

(c) Fabric filter

(d) Wet scrubber

12. Which of the following air pollution control devices is suitable for the removing the
finest dust from the air?

(a) Cyclone separator

(b) Electrostatic precipitator

(c) Fabric filter

(d) Wet scrubber

13. Air pollution from automobiles can be controlled by fitting:


(a) Cyclone separator

(b) Electrostatic precipitator

(c) Catalytic converter

(d) Wet scrubber

14. Taj Mahal at Agra may be damaged by:

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Chlorine

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Oxygen

15. Gas leaked in Bhopal tragedy:

(a) Methyl isocyanate

(b) Potassium isothoiocynate

(c) Ethyl isocyanate

(d) Sodium isothiocyanate

16. BOD is:

(a) A measure of the organic matter presents in water

(b) Usually less than COD

(c) Biochemical oxygen demand

(d) All of the above

17. BOD/COD ratio will always be:

(a) Equal to 1

(b) Less than 1

(c) More than 1


(d) None of them

18. Biochemical Oxygen Demand measures:

(a) Industrial pollution

(b) Air pollution

(c) Pollution capacity of effects

(d) Dissolved O2 needed by microbes to decompose organic waste.

19. Excess fluoride in drinking water is likely to cause:

(a) Blue baby syndrome

(b) Fluorosis

(c) Change in taste and odour

(d) Intestinal irritation

20. Fluoride pollution mainly affects:

(a) Kidney

(b) Brain

(c) Heart

(d) Teeth

21. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

(a) Factories

(b) Sewage treatment plants

(c) Urban and suburban lands

(d) All of the above

22. Septic tank is:

(a) An aerobic attached growth treatment system


(b) An aerobic suspended growth biological treatment system

(c) An anaerobic attached growth biological treatment system

(d) An anaerobic suspended growth treatment system

23. Disease caused by eating fish inhabiting mercury contaminated water is:

(a) Bright’s disease

(b) Hiroshima episode

(c) Mina-mata disease

(d) Osteosclerosis

24. Which of the following is not a marine pollutant?

(a) Oil

(b) Plastics

(c) Dissolved oxygen

(d) All of the above

25. Noise is:

(a) Loud sound

(b) Sound of high frequency

(c) Unwanted sound

(d) Constant sound

26. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels:

(a) Above 80

(b) Above 30

(c) Above 100

(d) Above 120


27. Which of the following is a major source of thermal pollution in water bodies?

(a) Sewage treatment plant

(b) Solid waste disposal sites

(c) Thermal power plant

(d) All of the above

28. The highest heating valve is of:

(a) Garbage

(b) Rubbish

(c) Hospital waste

(d) Industrial waste

29. The highest moisture content is in:

(a) Garbage

(b) Rubbish

(c) Hospital waste

(d) Agricultural waste

30. Which of the following is a likely characteristic of hazardous waste?

(a) Ignitability

(b) Corrosivity

(c) Reactivity

(d) Any of the above

31. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways?

(a) Open dumping

(b) Composting
(c) Incineration

(d) Dumping in sealed containers

32. Biomedical waste may be disposed of by?

(a) Incineration

(b) Autoclaving

(c) Land filling

(d) Both (b) and (c)

33. Which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical/substance?

(a) Plastics

(b) Oils

(c) Pesticides

(d) Garbage

Answers:

1. (c); 2. (a); 3. (a); 4. (a); 5. (c); 6. (a); 7. (b); 8. (b); 9. (c); 10. (c); 11. (d); 12. (b); 13. (c); 14.
(a); 15. (a); 16. (d); 17. (b); 18. (d); 19. (b); 20. (d); 21. (c); 22. (d); 23. (c); 24. (c); 25. (c); 26.
(a); 27. (c); 28. (b); 29. (d); 30. (d); 31. (d); 32. (d); 33. (d).

1.
What percentage of land area should remain covered by forest to maintain Ecological
balance?

A. 10%.

B. 5%.

C. 33%.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option C

2.
Full form of CTBT is;

A. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.

B. Comprehensive Test Bank Trust.

C. Comprehensive Trust Ban Treaty.

D. Comprehensive Test Ban Trusty.


Answer: Option A

3.
Full form of BOD is;

A. Bactorial Oxygen Demand.

B. Biological Oxygen Demand.

C. Biological Oxide Demand.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B

4.
In Atmosphere nitrogen consists of;

A. 25%.

B. 12%.

C. 92%.

D. 78%.

Answer: Option D

5.
Full form of COD is;

A. Chemical Oxide Demand.

B. Chemical Oxygen Demand.

C. Chemical Ozone Demand.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B
6.

The disease "Itai Itai" is caused by;

A. Manganize.

B. Carbon.

C. Cadmium.

D. None of these

Answer: Option C

7.

Human being can hear range of sound frequency between;

A. 20-20,000 Hertz.

B. 10-1,000 Hertz.

C. 1-100 Hertz.

D. None of these

Answer: Option A

8.

Environmental Protection Act enacted on;

A. 1980.

B. 1978.

C. 1986.

D. 1991.

Answer: Option C

9.

First International Conference on environment held on;

A. March,1968.

B. March,1970.

C. June,1970.

D. June,1972.
Answer: Option D

10.

With respect to environment science, full form of SPM is;

A. Suspended Partial Matter.

B. Suspended Particulate Matter.

C. Suspended Pollutant Matter.

D. None of these.

Answer: Option B

11.

In an ecosystem, bacteria are the

A. Producers.

B. Primary consumers.

C. Secondary consumers.

D. Decomposers.

Answer: Option

12.

Deforestation generally decreases;

A. Rainfall.

B. Global warming.

C. Soil erosion.

D. Drought.

Answer: Option A

13.
Which one of the following are non-renewable resources?

A. Animals.

B. Forests.

C. Fossil fuels.

D. All of these.

Answer: Option C

14.

Biosphere reserve project was initiated in India during;

A. 1986

B. 1984

C. 1989

D. 1985

Answer: Option A

15.

Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels-

A. Above 50.

B. Above 80.

C. Above 100.

D. Above 130.

Answer: Option B

1. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by


a. Carnivores
b. Herbivores
c. Decomposers
d. Producers

Answer: (a) Carnivores


2. An ecosystem includes
a. All living organisms
b. Non-living objects
c. Both living organisms and non-living objects
d. Sometimes living organisms and sometimes non-living objects

Answer: (c) Both living organisms and non-living objects

3. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ,
what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
a. 5 k J
b. 50 k J
c. 500 k J
d. 5000 k J

Answer: (d) 5000 kJ


4. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at
each higher trophic level is known as
a. Eutrophication
b. Pollution
c. Biomagnification
d. Accumulation

Answer: (c) Biomagnification


5. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to
a. Chlorofluorocarbon compounds
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Methane
d. Pesticides

Answer: (a) Chlorofluorocarbon compounds

1. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant


energy are called
a. Decomposers
b. Producers
c. Herbivores
d. Carnivores

Answer: (b) Producers


2. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the
next is in the form of
a. Heat energy
b. Light energy
c. Chemical energy
d. Mechanical energy

Answer: (c) Chemical energy

3. Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging
to a lower trophic level constitute the
a. Food web
b. Ecological pyramid
c. Ecosystem
d. Food chain

Answer: (b) Ecological pyramid


4. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
a. Unidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Multi directional
d. No specific direction

Answer: (a) Unidirectional


e. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
f.
a. Pond
b. Crop field
c. Lake
d. Forest

Answer: (b) Crop field

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