Mock Test 1: Total Marks: 200 Mark Scored: 8

Total Marks : 200
Mock Test 1 Mark Scored : 8
1 "Arctic greening" is attributed to which of the following reasons?
A. More regular commercial ship sailing

B. Global Warming
C. Ozone Hole formation
D. Erratic ocean current flow
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Justification and Learning: "Arctic greening" is a term related with the CO2 fertilization effect.
8
The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
5species,
increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect varies depending on the plant
9 3 the
temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients. 8 7
2 8
83
From a quarter to half of Earth's vegetated lands has shown significant-greening over the last 35
years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide. om
a il.c
Scientists have been finding, that as northern portions ofm
atmospheric carbon dioxide increases, there’s been @
g the planet (Arctic) warm up even as total
an increase in plant growth in these regions.
a l90
b ag
Studies led by Trevor Keenan from the Department of Energy's Lawrence Berkeley National
p
Laboratory (Berkeley Lab) show that,lifrom 2002 to 2014, plants appear to have gone into overdrive,
- di out of the air than they have done before.
starting to pull more carbon dioxide
A L
G at which carbon dioxide accumulates in the atmosphere did not
The result was that theArate
B
R time period, although previously, it had grown considerably in concert with
increase during this
A
U M
growing greenhouse gas emissions.
I P K Based on the theme of carbon fertilization asked in UPSC CSP 2017

Q Source:
L
DI
2 Consider the following statements.
1. Pitts Act of 1784 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the
affairs of the East India Company in India.
2. In 1858, in the wake of the ‘sepoy mutiny’, the British Crown assumed direct responsibility for the
governance of India.
3. Various features of the Indian Constitution and polity have their roots in the British rule.
4. A Supreme Court at Calcutta was setup following the Charter Act of 1833.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
www.insightsias.com 1
© Insights Active Learning | All rights reserved - 110819. You may not reproduce, distribute or exploit the contents in any form without
written permission by copyright owner. Copyright infringers may face civil and criminal liability
Total Marks : 200
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It was the regulating Act of 1773.
In 1765, the Company, which till now had purely trading functions obtained the ‘diwani’ (i.e., rights
over revenue and civil justice) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
The regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as (a) it was the first step taken by
the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India; (b) it
recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and (c) it
laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Statement 2: This was due to the GoI Act of 1858, the details of which are well covered in8
5
Laxmikanth and need not be repeated here. 93
887
The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India, abolished the 3 2
East India Company, and
- 8
transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
.c om
Statement 3: Federal Service Commission, division of powers, l
ai Parliamentary form of government
m
g We will cover this in greater depth as we
etc. have all their roots in the acts enacted prior to 1947.
@
l90
proceed with the syllabus.
a
Statement 4: This was the regulating Actbof ag1773. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme
Court at Calcutta (1774) comprisingilone
p
i chief justice and three other judges.
- d
L
Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian
A GA Polity: M Laxmikanth
B
A R
U M
3 How the China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) will be useful for China?
K will allow Chinese energy imports to circumvent the Straits of Malacca and South
1. CPEC project
P
LI Sea routes thus avoiding potential confrontation with the USA.
China
I
2.DCPEC will provide China an alternative and shorter route for energy imports from the Middle East,
thereby reducing shipping costs and transit times.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: The Straits of Malacca provide China with its shortest maritime access
Total Marks : 200
to Europe, Africa, and the Middle East.
Approximately 80% of its Middle Eastern energy imports also pass through the Straits of
Malacca. As the world's biggest oil importer, energy security is a key concern for China while
current sea routes used to import Middle Eastern oil are frequently patrolled by the United
States' Navy.
In the event that China were to face hostile actions from a state or non-state actor, energy
imports through the Straits of Malacca could be halted, which in turn would paralyse the
Chinese economy in a scenario that is frequently referred to as the "Malacca Dilemma".
In addition to vulnerabilities faced in the Straits of Malacca region, China is heavily

dependent upon sea-routes that pass through the South China Sea, near the disputed
5 8 Spratly
Islands and Paracel Islands, which are currently a source of tension between China,
9 3 Taiwan,
Vietnam, the Philippines, and the United States. 8 7
2 8
- 83
m these contentious areas
The CPEC project will allow Chinese energy imports to circumvent
o
c
. possibility of confrontation
and find a new artery in the west, and thereby decreaseilthe
between the United States and China. m a
@ g
l90
Statement 2: In addition to its significanceato gareduce Chinese dependence on the Sea of Malacca
and South China Sea routes, CPEC will i b
pprovide China an alternative and shorter route for energy
i l
d reducing shipping costs and transit times.
imports from the Middle East, thereby
L -
GA to China is roughly 12,000 kilometres long, while the distance
The currently available sea-route
A
from Gwadar Port toB Xinjiang province is approximately 3,000 kilometres, with another 3,500
A R
kilometres from Xinjiang to China's eastern coast.
U M
I P K CPEC is a collection of infrastructure projects that are currently under construction
Learning:
IL
Dthroughout Pakistan.
The CPEC is a landmark project in the annals of history of Pakistan. It is the largest investment
Pakistan has attracted since independence and largest by China in any foreign country.
The CPEC Alignments will improve connectivity to restive Xinjiang, thereby increasing the region's
potential to attract public and private investment.
CPEC is considered central to China–Pakistan relations; its central importance is reflected by

China's inclusion of the project as part of its 13th five-year development plan.
The CPEC projects will also complement China's Western Development plan, which includes not
only Xinjiang, but also the neighbouring regions of Tibet and Qinghai.
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
d i
L-
A GA
B
R
AThe international borders depicted in the image above are by no means
DISCLAIMER: M
KU and only serve illustrative and pedagogic purposes.
authoritative
LIP
I
DQ Source: Additional Research:
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/06/27/insights-daily-current-affairs-27-june-2018/
4 With reference to Zoonosis, consider the following statements.

1. A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to
humans.
2. Zoonosis can be caused only by either virus or protozoa.
3. Zoonotic diseases create obstacles to international trade in animal products.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Total Marks : 200
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 2: Look at the word “only” in S2. Statements containing ‘only, ‘must’,
‘always’ and other such extreme words are usually wrong.
A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to
humans. Animals thus play an essential role in maintaining zoonotic infections in nature.
Zoonoses may be bacterial, viral, or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents.
As well as being a public health problem, many of the major zoonotic diseases prevent the efficient
production of food of animal origin and create obstacles to international trade in animal products.
58
93and
According to WHO, the Nipah virus infection is a newly emerging zoonosis. Kozhikode
7
88 government.
Malappuram districts have been declared free of Nipah virus recently by the Kerala
2
3
Q Source: Additional Research: -8
om .c
http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/07/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-03-july-2018/
a il
gm
@ of ‘Pacifism’?
5 Which of the following are in line with the larger ideology
a l90
A. Opposition to war or violence as a b ag of settling disputes
means
p
ili pragmatism
B. Sticking to principle rather than
d
L -
C. Aversion to modern nation-states’ military institutions and their intrusion in other nations
D. Both (a) and (c)
A GA
B
Your Answer : DAR
U M :D
Correct Answer
I PK
L Justification :
DI
Answer
Learning: Pacifism preaches opposition to war or violence as a means of settling disputes.
It covers a spectrum of views ranging from a preference for diplomacy in resolving international
disputes to absolute opposition to the use of violence, or even force, in any circumstance. Pacifism
may be based on principle or pragmatism.
Principled pacifism springs from the belief that war, deliberate lethal force, violence or any form of
coercion is morally wrong. Pragmatic pacifism does not adhere to such an absolute principle but
holds that there are better ways of resolving a dispute than war, or considers the benefits of a war
to be outweighed by the costs.
‘Dove’ or ‘dovish’ are informal terms used to describe people who seek to avoid war. The terms
allude to the placid nature of the dove. Some people termed dovish would not view their position as
pacifist, for they would consider war to be justifiable in some circumstances. The opposite of a dove
is a ‘hawk’ or a warmonger.
Total Marks : 200
Some pacifists, while opposing war, are not opposed to all use of coercion, physical force against
people or destruction of property. Anti-militarists, for example, are specifically opposed to the
modern nation-states’ military institutions rather than to ‘violence’ in general. Other pacifists follow
principles of non-violence, believing that only non-violent action is acceptable
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT Political Theory
6 Avadi session of Indian National Congress was famously known for

1. Adopting a resolution to establish a ‘socialistic pattern of society’
2. Publishing the ‘Magna carta’ of a libertarian democratic framework for India

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 5 8
93
D. None
887
3 2
Your Answer : A
-8
Correct Answer : A
om
a il.c
gm
0 @
Justification: The famous session of the Indianl9
National Congress was held at Avadi in January
a
1955. ag
l i pb
This historical meet emphasised the
- di importance of socialism and its impact on social development.
A L
G Desai and other Congress leaders at the AICC session declared that
Jawaharlal Nehru with Morarji
A
B
a socialistic pattern of
A R society was the goal of the Congress.
U
This was the M basic philosophy of the INC- “It is not possible to pursue a policy of laissez-faire in
K
LIP
industry.... It is incompatible with any planning. It has long been Congress policy that basic
I
Dindustries should be owned or controlled by the state.”
“This policy holds and must be progressively given effect to. State trading should be undertaken
wherever the balance of advantage lies in favour of such a course. A large field for private
enterprise is, however, left over. Thus our economy will have a public sector as well as a private
sector. But the private sector must accept the objective of the National Plan and fit into it.”
Q Source: Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
7 ‘Swaraj’ is an analogous concept to Freedom in Indian political thought is. Which of the following are
the ideas related to Swaraj, as outlined by Gandhiji?
1. It is swaraj when we learn to rule ourselves.
2. Swaraj is not just freedom but liberation in redeeming one’s self-respect and capacities for self-
realisation from institutions of dehumanisation.
3. Understanding the real ‘Self ’, and its relation to communities and society, is critical to the project
of attaining Swaraj.
Total Marks : 200
4. Sacrificing oneself for a larger cause is Swaraj.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The term Swaraj incorporates within it two words — Swa (Self) and Raj (Rule). It can
be understood to mean both the rule of the self and rule over self. Swaraj, in the context of the
8 as a
5and
freedom struggle in India referred to freedom as a constitutional and political demand,
9 3
value at the social-collective level. 87
3 28
-8
That is why Swaraj was such an important rallying cry in the freedom movement inspiring Tilak’s
famous statement — “Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it.”om
a il.c
It is the understanding of Swaraj as Rule over the Self that
g m was highlighted by Mahatma Gandhi in
his work Hind Swaraj where he states, “It is swaraj when
0 @ we learn to rule ourselves”.
l 9
ga
Swaraj is not just freedom but liberation inaredeeming one’s self-respect, self-responsibility, and
pb
ili
capacities for self-realisation from institutions of dehumanisation.
- d
Understanding the real ‘Self L ’, and its relation to communities and society, is critical to the project
G A
of attaining swaraj. This
B A is because only then can we learn about ourselves and how best to govern
ourselves.
A R
M
Q Source:UPage 20: Chapter 2: 11 NCERT Political Theory
th
I PK
D IL
8 The Karakoram pass, a mountain pass between India and China, is closest to
A. Tawang
B. Kargil
C. Srinagar
D. Kathgodam
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The Karakoram pass falls on the boundary of Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir and
China (Xinjiang Autonomous Region).
Total Marks : 200
It also plays a major geographic role in the dispute between Pakistan and India over control of the
Siachen Glacier area immediately to the west of the pass.
This situation arose from the Simla Agreement, signed in 1972 between India and Pakistan, when
the treaty failed to specify the last 100 km (60 mi) or so of the cease-fire line from the end of the
Line of Control to the border with China.
A potential China-India-Pakistan tripoint at Karakoram Pass is referenced in a 1963 boundary treaty

between China and Pakistan concerning the Trans-Karakoram Tract, but India was not party to that
treaty nor any tripoint agreement.
The current de facto tripoint is about 100 km west of the pass near Indira Col in the Siachen
Muztagh, where the Actual Ground Position Line between Indian and Pakistani forces meets the
border with China.
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
d i
L-
A GA
B
MAR
U
I PK
L
DQI Source: Chapter 4 Pg. 7o: 12
th
NCERT India Since Independence
9 Consider the following statements about the role of various members in the Constituent Assembly and
the interim government of India.
1. On the advice of Mahatma Gandhi, Ambedkar was asked at Independence by Congress to join the
Union Cabinet as law minister.
2. As the President of the Constituent Assembly, Rajendra Prasad moved the objectives resolution in
the Assembly.
3. Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, who served as the then Attorney General of India, was also a member of
the Constituent Assembly.
4. B. N. Rau, a civil servant, served as the Constitutional Advisor to the Government of India.

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 4 only
Total Marks : 200
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Rajendra Prasad, Nehru (who moved the objectives resolution)
and Vallabhbhai Patel, who largely worked behind the scenes, were the three major figures from
congress behind the constitution.
Besides this Congress trio, Ambedkar was a very important member of the Assembly , who had
actually been a political opponent of the Congress; but, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi, he was
asked at Independence to join the Union Cabinet as law minister.
3 58
Statement 3 and 4: In this capacity, he served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee
8 79 of the
Constitution. Serving with him were two other lawyers, K.M. Munshi from Gujarat
3 28 and Alladi
Krishnaswamy Aiyar from Madras, both of whom gave crucial inputs in the
- 8 drafting of the
om
Constitution. Aiyar was the Advocate general of Madras.
i l .c
These six members were given vital assistance by two civil a servants. One was B. N. Rau,
m
Constitutional Advisor to the Government of India, whogprepared a series of background papers
l 9 0@ in other countries.
based on a close study of the political systems obtaining
a ga
Q Source: Chapter 15: Themes in Indian
l i pbHistory: Part III
- di
10 Which of the following factorsA L
make Helium – 3 a fuel for the future?
G
BAwaste-free nuclear energy can be generated using Helium.
1. It is not radioactive and
ARfusion reactions without obtaining dangerous nuclear by-products.
2. It can be used for
M
3. Helium – 3Uis abundant on earth, similar to other emerging fuels like Thorium.
I PK
IL the correct answer using the codes below.
DSelect
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 3: There is very little helium-3 available on the Earth. However, there are
thought to be significant supplies on the Moon.
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)’s second moon mission — the Rs 800 crore
‘Chandrayaan-2’ —will hunt for deposits of Helium-3 — a waste-free nuclear energy that could
Total Marks : 200
answer many of Earth’s energy problems.
There are approximately 1 million metric tons of Helium-3 embedded in the moon, although only
about a quarter of that can realistically could brought to Earth.
Statement 1 and 2: The isotope of Helium could theoretically meet global energy demands for three
to five centuries.
This kind of energy is also expected to be worth trillions of dollars (one expert estimated Helium-3’s
value at about five billion US dollars a ton).
Since the isotope is not radioactive, it could be used in fusion reactors for nuclear energy without
dangerous nuclear by-products.
Mechanism: In current nuclear fusion reactors, the hydrogen isotopes tritium and deuterium are
used as the fuel, with atomic energy released when their nuclei fuse to create helium and8a neutron.
9 35
Nuclear fusion effectively makes use of the same energy source that fuels the Sun
887and other stars,
32 of current nuclear
and does not produce the radioactivity and nuclear waste that is the by-product
8
fission power generation. However, the so-termed "fast" neutrons released - by nuclear fusion
m
.co
reactors fuelled by tritium and deuterium lead to significant energy loss and are extremely difficult
to contain. a i l
m
@g
One potential solution may be to use helium-3 and0deuterium as the fuels in "aneutronic" (power
l 9
a nuclear reaction here when helium-3 and deuterium
without neutrons) fusion reactors. The involved
ag wastes less energy and is easier to contain. Nuclear
fuse creates normal helium and a proton,bwhich
ip
fusion reactors using helium-3 couldiltherefore provide a highly efficient form of nuclear power with
- d
virtually no waste and no radiation.
A L
Q Source: Additional AG
BResearch:
AR
M
K U
11 As perIPthe Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) and the rules issues therein, consider the following
I L
D
statements.
1. Under LRS, all resident individuals can freely remit a certain amount of money overseas every
financial year for a permissible set of current or capital account transactions.
2. Individuals cannot open, maintain or hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for
carrying out transactions.
3. Remittances cannot be sent for trading on the foreign exchange markets.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Justification: Under LRS, all resident individuals can freely remit $250,000 overseas every
financial year for a permissible set of current or capital account transactions.
Remittances are permitted for overseas education, travel, medical treatment and purchase of shares
and property, apart from maintenance of relatives living abroad, gifting and donations. Individuals
can also open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for carrying out
transactions.
Not permitted: However, the rules do not allow remittances for trading on the foreign exchange
markets, margin or margin calls to overseas exchanges and counterparties and the purchase of
Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds issued by Indian companies abroad. Sending money to certain
countries and entities is also barred.
Learning: Under LRS, people can’t send money to countries identified as ‘non cooperative’ 8 by the
35
Financial Action Task Force. Remittances are also prohibited to entities identified as9posing
7
terrorist risks. 88 2
3
-8
Concerned over funds sent abroad under the ‘maintenance o ofm
i l .c close relative’ category of the
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), the Reserve Bank
ma of India (RBI) has narrowed the
definition of relatives to check the flow of funds. g
l 9 0@
a ga with the definition given in Companies Act, 2013
i b
RBI has aligned the definition of ‘relative’
pHence,
instead of Companies Act, 1956.
d i l funds under the ‘maintenance of close relative’
category can be sent only -to immediate relatives such as parents, spouses, children and their
spouses. A L
G
BA
A R
M
Outward remittances under maintenance of close relatives shot up to almost $3 billion in
U from a mere $174 million in 2013-14. In fact, funds sent under this category have
K
2017-18
IP
D IL more than doubled since 2015-16. Overall outward remittances under LRS went up to $11
billion from $1 billion in the same period.
Q Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/06/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-19-june-2018/
12 With reference to the Portfolio system in Colonial India consider the following statements.
1. It was introduced by the Act of 1833 transforming the Viceroy of India's executive council into a
cabinet run on the portfolio system.
2. Lord Canning was the figure associated with the establishment of this system.
3. The Act took away ordinance making powers of the Viceroy.
4. The portfolio system was repealed by the Government of India Act, 1935.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
Total Marks : 200
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: The Indian Councils Act 1861 was an Act of the Parliament of the
United Kingdom that transformed the Viceroy of India's executive council into a cabinet run on the
portfolio system. This cabinet had six "ordinary members", who each took charge of a separate
department in Calcutta's government: home, revenue, military, law, finance, and (after 1874) public
works.
Statement 2: Lord canning’s tenure is responsible for this introduction.

3 58
9
Statement 3: The Viceroy was allowed to issue ordinances lasting six months if the7Legislative
8
Council is not in session in an emergency.
3 28
- 8 convenient trans-action
omsystem, introduced by Lord
The act thus empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more
l .c
of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’
Canning in 1859.
m ai
@ g
Statement 4: The Act of 1861 was repealed by the 0
l9 Government of India Act, 1915.
a
b agstarting with an act of 1770, and replaced them with a
p
The act repealed 47 prior acts of Parliament,
single act containing 135 sectionsdandili five schedules.
L -
It was introduced first toG A House of Lords, where it was referred to a joint committee of
the
Parliament chaired by A
B Lord Loreburn. The committee removed several provisions which went
R
A consolidation of existing law.
beyond the simple
U M
K
LIP After
Learning: the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the
I
cooperation
Dassociation,
of the Indians in the administration of their country. In pursuance of this policy of
three acts were enacted by the British Parliament in 1861, 1892 and 1909.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political
history of India.
It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making

process.
Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more
departments of the government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the
council on matters of his department(s).
Total Marks : 200
It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay
and Madras Presidencies.
It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and
reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833.
This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal
autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
Q Source: Additional Research on Charter Act of 1861: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
13 Consider this statement.

“The Policy of His Majesty's Government, with which the Government of India are in complete
3 58
7 9
accord, is that of increasing association of Indians in every branch of the administration and the
8
gradual development of self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive8realisation of
32statement coming
responsible government in India as an integral part of the British Empire". This
8
from the then Secretary of State is closely associated with which of these- events
om
A. Sepoy Mutiny, 1857 a il.c
B. First World War (1914-18) gm
C. Second World War (1939-45) l 9 0@
D. ga
Incoming of the Simon Commission, 1929
i pba
Your Answer : d il
Correct Answer : B L -
A
B AG
R :
Answer Justification
A
M
UFirst Great War (1914-18) accelerated the national movement, especially under the
K
Learning:
P
LI of Gandhiji.
direction
I
D
The British Government was thus finding itself under a growing compulsion to define its towards
India.
On 20 August 1917, the Secretary of State for Lord Edwin S. Montagu, the historic statement in the
British Parliament: what is mentioned in the question statement.
Thus, for the first time in the history of its rule in India, the British Government made explicit its
Policy towards India and announced the goal of government for the colony. Thus, the act of 1919
was enacted.
Q Source: Additional Research on Act of 1919: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
14 The Tashkent Agreement contained the provisions of:

1. A no-war pact between India and Pakistan
2. Non-interference in each other's internal affairs
Total Marks : 200

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 2: The Tashkent Declaration was a peace agreement between India and
Pakistan signed on 10 January 1966 that resolved the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965.
The declaration stated that Indian and Pakistani forces would pull back to their pre-conflict
3 58 in each
positions, pre-August lines, no later than 25 February 1966, the nations would not interfere
79would be an
other's internal affairs, economic and diplomatic relations would be restored, there
8
8
orderly transfer of prisoners of war, and the two leaders would work towards2improving bilateral
3
relations. -8
om
.c not contain a no-war pact or any
Statement 1: The agreement was criticized in India because itldid
a i
mthe agreement, Indian Prime Minister
renunciation of guerrilla warfare in Kashmir. After signing
g
Lal Bahadur Shastri died mysteriously in Tashkent. @
a l90
g 74: 12 NCERT India Since Independence
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 4aPg. th
pb
d ili
-
15 Ukraine, Georgia, Romania andLTurkey enclose which of the following seas?
A
A. Caspian Sea B
AG
B. Black SeaA
R
U M
P K
C. Red Sea
I LD.I Mediterranean Sea

D
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The question was asked because Ukraine was in news for some time due to Crimean
annexation and we are covering a chapter related to Russian revolution.
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
gm
l 9 0@
a ga
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 42:
l i pbChapter 2: IXth NCERT: History
- di
A
16 India was declared a sovereign Lstate from
G
BA
AR1950 with the coming of the Constitution in force
A. January 26,
M
U 26, 1949 with the completion of the Constitution
B. November
K
C. PAugust 15, 1947 with India’s Independence
L I
D I D. September 2, 1946 with the formation of the first interim Cabinet from the newly elected
Constituent Assembly
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The Indian Independence Act 1947 ended the British rule in India and declared India
as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947.
It finally provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and
Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations
with tribal areas from August 15, 1947.
Total Marks : 200
Even though India was declared as a sovereign and independent state, it was still called as a
dominion because the constitution was not finalized.

1. The system of Budget was introduced in British India in 1833 by the then Finance Minister of India,
James Wilson.
2. The first Union budget of independent India was presented by Liaquat Ali Khan, the first Finance
Minister in the Interim Government, on 26 November, 1949.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 5 8
93
87
D. None
2 8
3
Your Answer :
-8
Correct Answer : D
om
a il.c
gm
@
l90 was presented by James Wilson on February 18,
Justification: Statement 1: The first Indian Budget
a
1869. Wilson, whose designation was Finance
bag Member of the India Council that advised the Indian
i p
Viceroy, was also the founder of The Economist
l and described by Karl Marx as an “economical
i
mandarin of high standing.” -d
L
A
G Budget of Independent India was presented by the first Finance
BA India, Sir R.K. Shanmugham Chetty, on November 26, 1947. Liaquat Ali
Statement 2: The first Union
R
Minister of Independent
Khan servedM asAa Finance Minister only in the interim government.
K U
P
It isInoteworthy that the first Union Budget was presented amidst widespread riots due to the
I L
Dpartition of India. This budget was meant for seven and a half months, following which the next
budget was to be implemented from April 1, 1948. It was the first Union Budget wherein it was
decided that both India and Pakistan would share the same currency till September 1948.
Q Source: Additional Research: Notes and References: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
18 For a Fundamental right to be amended in the Lok Sabha, how many members, at least, should be
present; assuming that all of them vote in favour of the bill?
A. 100
B. 273
C. 364
D. The bill cannot be passed in any of the above quoroms.
Your Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special majorities: in
the first place, those voting in favour of the amendment bill should constitute at least half of the
total strength of that House. Secondly, the supporters of the amendment bill must also constitute
two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting.
In the Lok Sabha there are 545 members. Therefore, any amendment must be supported by a
minimum of 273 members. Even if only 300 members are present at the time of voting, the
amendment bill must get the support of 273 out of them.
Q Source: Chapter 9: 11th NCERT: Constitution at Work
58
19 How are ideas of private property treated in capitalist and socialist economies?
7 93
88 economy.
1. Private property is more tightly regulated in a socialist economy than in a capitalist
2
2. The state owns major means of production in a socialist economy, unlike 8 a3capitalist economy.
-
Which of the above is/are correct? .c om
A. 1 only a il
B. 2 only
@ gm
C. Both 1 and 2
a l90
D. None
bag
li p
Your Answer : d i
Correct Answer : C L-
A GA
B
R :
A
M
U In a capitalist economy, property and businesses are owned and controlled by
K
Justification:
P
I LI
individuals. In a socialist economy, the state owns and controls the major means of production.
D
In some socialist economic models, worker cooperatives have primacy over production. Other
socialist economic models allow individual ownership of enterprise and property, albeit with high
taxes and stringent government controls.
Learning: The distinctions between both models are several, but perhaps the fundamental
difference lies in the scope of government intervention in the economy.
The capitalist economic model allows free market conditions to drive innovation and wealth
creation; this liberalization of market forces allows for the freedom of choice, resulting in either
success or failure.
The socialist-based economy incorporates elements of centralized economic planning, utilized to

ensure conformity and to encourage equality of opportunity and economic outcome.
Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a
Total Marks : 200
radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled. This would be a communist
society.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 28: Chapter 2: IXth NCERT: History
20 A Constitution usually does NOT serve this function:
A. Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation

B. Specifies allocation of power in the nation in a skeletal form
C. Brings in Rule of Law in a society
D. Distributes economic resources within the population
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D
5 8
93
87
2 8
3
Justification: Option A: You can think of this in terms of the formation of8government, parliament,
-
establishment of bureaucracy etc. m
i l .co
Option B: A function of a constitution is to specify who has a the power to make decisions in a society.
m
It decides how the government will be constituted.
0 @g
Option C: Another function of a constitutiong
l9
isato set some limits on what a government can impose
pba in the sense that government may never trespass them.
on its citizens. These limits are fundamental
i
d il
L -
Constitutions limit the power of government in many ways. The most common way of limiting the
power of government is to G A
specify certain fundamental rights that all of us possess as citizens and
which no government B A
can ever be allowed to violate. This ensures Rule of law in a certain way.
R
Option D: U MAconstitutions refrain from doing so, and only provide a larger set of principles on
Most
whichPofKthe state should endeavour ensuring economic welfare. In India, we follow principles of
I LI and fairness, as a part of DPSP, in the desirable distribution of economic resources in the
equity
Dsociety.
21 With reference to Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India (ALIMCO) consider the
following statements.
1. ALIMCO is a “Not For Profit” organization working under the administrative control of Ministry of
Social Justice & Empowerment.
2. It is 100% owned Govt. of India Miniratna Central Public Sector Enterprise.
3. The Corporation is the only manufacturing company producing various types of assistive devices
under one roof to serve all types of disabilities across the country.

A. 1 only
Total Marks : 200
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : D
Justification: It is a Schedule ‘C’ Miniratna Category II Central Public Sector Enterprises,

registered under Section 8 (Not for Profit motive) of the Companies Act 2013, (corresponding to
Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956) is functioning under the Administrative Control of Ministry
of Social Justice & Empowerment, Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities.
It is 100% owned Govt. of India Central Public Sector Enterprises with an objective of benefiting the
8 for
5Aids
persons with disability to the maximum extent possible by manufacturing Rehabilitation 3
79 use, supply
persons with disabilities and by promoting, encouraging and developing the availability,
8
28 persons of the
and distribution of Artificial Limbs and other Rehabilitation Aids to the disabled
3
country. -8
om
Learning: The main objectives of the Corporation are
a il.c
(1) To promote, encourage and develop the availability, gm
@ use, supply and distribution at reasonable
l 9 0
cost in the country of Artificial Limbs and accessories and constituents thereof to needy persons
a
ag and such other welfare institutions.
particulary disabled Defence personnel, hospitals
l i pb
- di
(2) To establish facilities for the manufacture of Artificial Limbs and accessories and constituents
L
thereof and all other things which can be or may conveniently be used for the manufacture of or in
A GA things as aforesaid.
connection with such articles,
B
A R
(3) To carry on the business of manufacturers, buyers, sellers, importers, exporters, dealers in and
U
of Artificial
M
Limbs and accessories and constituents thereof and all other things which can be or
PK
mayIconveniently be used for the manufacture of or in connection with such articles, things as
I L
Daforesaid.
Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD-Divyangjan Shashaktikaran
Vibhag), Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) with Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India (ALIMCO) for the Financial Year
2018-19. It covers major developments to be achieved in this year for the Empowerment of
Divyangjan of the country.
Q Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/05/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-24-may-2018/
http://www.alimco.in/content/11_1_CompanyProfile.aspx
22 The World Health Organization (WHO) has recently validated which of these South Asian countries
for having eliminated trachoma as a public health problem?
A. India
Total Marks : 200
B. Nepal
C. Bangladesh
D. Bhutan
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : B
Learning: Nepal for having eliminated trachoma as a public health problem – a milestone, as the
country becomes the first in WHO’s South-East Asia Region to defeat the world’s leading infectious
cause of blindness.
Trachoma is a chronic infective disease of the eye and is the leading cause of infective blindness
globally. Trachoma is a disease of poor environmental and personal hygiene and inadequate access
8
to water and sanitation. 35
8 79
It affects the conjunctiva under the eyelids. Repeated infections cause scarring
3 28leading to in-turning
of the eyelashes and eyelids. This further causes damage to the cornea and
-8 blindness.
.c oinmNepal in the 1980s. In 2002,

Trachoma was the second leading cause of preventable blindness l
aidisease with the establishment of a
the Government of Nepal stepped up efforts to eliminate the
national trachoma programme. From 2002 to 2005, @ g m
following the implementation of sustained
l 9 0
control activities, the prevalence of active (inflammatory) trachoma fell by 40%.
a
b ag
p
ili
- d
L
A GA
23 The major features of parliamentary government in India is/are?
B of the executive to the legislature
1. Collective responsibility
2. Leadership of theA Rprime minister
3. Complete U
M
separation of the legislature and the executive organs
I PK
IL the correct answer using the codes below.
DSelect
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 3: The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and
co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on
the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. So, 3 is incorrect.
Learning: Other major features are: (a) Presence of nominal and real executives; (b) Majority party
Total Marks : 200
rule, (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, (d) Membership of the ministers
in the legislature, (e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister, (f) Dissolution of the
lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
24 With reference to MSMEs in India, consider the following statements.

1. They contribute nearly one third of Gross Value Added (GVA) in the economy.
2. They receive over fifty per cent of the total credit flow from scheduled banks.
3. Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is aimed at generating self-
employment opportunities by establishing micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector.
4. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises covers collateral free credit facility for
MSMEs.
Select the correct answer using the codes below. 5 8

93
87
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only 2 8
3
C. 2 and 3 only
-8
D. 3 and 4 only
om
a il.c
gm
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B @
a l90
bag
li p
i
L -d
Justification: Statement 1: Contributing 32% to the country's Gross Value Added (GVA), MSMEs
G A
also pave the way for industrialisation in rural and backward areas. Why the disbursement of credit
B A
is significant is because according to the National Sample Survey (NSS) (2015-16) there are 633.8
lakh unincorporated
A R non-agriculture MSMEs that are also providing employment to 11.10 crore
workers in the
U Mcountry, but the percentage or credit they receive is not in commensurate.
P K
LI
Statement 2: According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, data on credit disbursed by banks shows
I
Dthat out of a total outstanding credit of Rs 26,041 billion as in November 2017, 82.6% of the amount
was lent to large enterprises and MSMEs got only 17.4 % of total credit.
Statement 3 and 4: As the Economic Survey states in detail, the major schemes implemented for the
development of MSME sector are:
Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is aimed at generating self-

employment opportunities by establishing micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector by
encouraging and assisting traditional artisans and unemployed youth.
Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises covers collateral free credit facility
(term loan and/or working capital) extended by eligible lending institutions including Non-
Banking Financial Company (NBFC) to new and existing micro and small enterprises up to Rs
200 lakh per borrowing unit.
Total Marks : 200
Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) aims at facilitating technology upgradation of
the MSME sector.
The Government has also initiated the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana for development and
refinancing activities relating to micro industrial units. The purpose of Micro Units
Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) is to provide funding to the non-corporate
small business sector.
Q Source: Additional Research

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/05/25/insights-daily-current-affairs-25-may-2018/
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/small-biz/sme-sector/economic-survey-large-businesses-corne
r-82-6-of-credit-msmes-get-a-paltry-17-4-/articleshow/62693254.cms
5 8
93
87 State?
25 Which of these provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian
8
1. Preamble
8 32
2. Directive Principles of State Policy -
3. Fundamental Rights o m
il .c
a
Select the correct answer using the codes below. gm
A. 2 only
l 9 0@
B. 1 and 3 only
a ga
C. 2 and 3 only
l i pb
D. 1, 2 and 3 i d
L -
A
AG
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D B
A R
U M
P K
I LI
Justification: Statement 1: The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian
D Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. The Preamble secures to all citizens
of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
Statement 2: The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article
44) is mentioned in DPSP – Part IV.
Statement 3: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of
the laws (Article 14).
The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
Total Marks : 200
All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess,
practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious
affairs (Article 26).
Similarly Articles 27-30 also uphold values of secularism.
26 Based on the NITI Aayog’s Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) for India, consider the
following statements.
1. Around 75% of households do not have drinking water on premise.
3 58
2. Over two-thirds of the water resources in the country are contaminated.
8 79
3. Water-scarce states have performed the worst in Index performance.
3 28
4. Gujarat is the leader in CWMI index performance. -8
om
a il.c
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
g m
B. 3 and 4 only
l 9 0@
ga
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only b a
i p
Your Answer : C - dil
Correct Answer : D A L
B AG
AR :
M
U
P K These are the findings of the report:
Justification:
I
L
DI
600 million people face high-to extreme water stress.
75% of households do not have drinking water on premise. 84% rural households do not have
piped water access.
70% of our water is contaminated; India is currently ranked 120 among 122 countries in the
water quality
Index
The report ranks Gujarat at the top in managing its water resources in the reference year
(2016-17) followed by Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra.
Total Marks : 200
The worst states include Jharkhand, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Among North Eastern and Himalayan states, Tripura has been adjudged number one in
2016-17 followed by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Assam.
In terms of incremental change in the index (over 2015-16 level), Rajasthan holds number one
position in general states and Tripura ranks at first position amongst Northeastern and
Himalayan states.
Further,
Encouragingly, several water-scarce states are the leaders in Index performance. Several high
and medium performers have suffered from severe droughts in recent years, indicating
3 58 that
79
corrective action is starting in at least some of the areas that need it the most.
2 88
8 3
-access to drinking water,
m
Most states report a high percentage of urban population having
i l co less than half of the urban

except for the North-Eastern and Eastern regions, which.report
population having access. a m
@ g
Though, some states with large urbang a l90
areas—Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala—are also
a
only able to provide drinking waterbto 53-72% of urban populations
i p
- dil
A L
B AG
MAR
K U
IP
D IL
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
d i
L-
A GA
B
MAR
K U
IP
D IL
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
i
-d
L
G A
BA
http://niti.gov.in/writereaddata/files/new_initiatives/presentation-on-CWMI.pdf
AR
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=179962
M
K U
IP Walk to Freedom is an autobiography of
LLong
27 The
D I
A. Martin Luther King
B. Mazzini
C. Garibaldi
D. Nelson Mandela
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D
Learning: In this book, Nelson Mandela talks about his personal struggle against the apartheid
regime in South Africa, about the resistance of his people to the segregationist policies of the white
regime, about the humiliations, hardships and police brutalities suffered by the black people of
South Africa.
Total Marks : 200
These ranged from being bundled into townships and being denied easy movement about the
country, to being denied a free choice of whom to marry. Collectively, such measures constituted a
body of constraints imposed by the apartheid regime that discriminated between citizens based on
their race.
For Mandela and his colleagues it was the struggle against such unjust constraints, the struggle to
remove the obstacles to the freedom of all the people of South Africa (not just the black or the
coloured but also the white people), that was the Long Walk to Freedom.
For this freedom, Mandela spent twenty-eight years of his life in jail, often in solitary confinement.
Imagine what it meant to give up one’s youth for an ideal,
Q Source: Page 18: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT Political Theory
58 of a
28 Consider the following with reference to the Indianization of Colonial British administration.
3
1. Following Lord Macaulay’s Report of the Select Committee of British Parliament, the
8 79 concept
28 began to be held
merit based modern Civil Service in India was introduced in 1854.
3
-8
2. It was following the Charter Act of 1891 that the Indian Civil Service Examination
in India apart from being held in London.
ompassing of the Government of
3. Entry into Imperial Police was thrown open to Indians only with.cthe
India Act of 1858. ai l
g m
Select the correct answer using the codes below.90
@
A. 1 only g al
B. 1 and 3 only i pba
C. 1 and 2 only
- dil
D. 2 and 3 only L
A GA
Your Answer : R B
MA: A
Correct Answer
U
P K
I Justification :
Answer
L
DI
Justification: Statement 1: Civil Servants for the East India Company used to be nominated by the
Directors of the Company and thereafter trained at Haileybury College in London and then sent to
India.
Following Lord Macaulay’s Report of the Select Committee of British Parliament, the concept of a
merit based modern Civil Service in India was introduced in 1854.
The Report recommended that patronage based system of East India Company should be replaced
by a permanent Civil Service based on a merit based system with entry through competitive
examinations.
Statement 2: Throughout the next 50 years, Indians petitioned for simultaneous examinations to be
held in India without success because the British Government did not want many Indians to succeed
and enter the ICS. It was only after the First World War and the Montagu Chelmsford reforms that
this was agreed to. From 1922 onwards the Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in
Total Marks : 200
India also, first in Allahabad and later in Delhi with the setting up of the Federal Public Service
Commission. The Examination in London continued to be conducted by the Civil Service
Commission.
Statement 3: Similarly, prior to independence superior police officers belonged to the Indian
(Imperial) Police appointed by the Secretary of State by competitive examination. The first open
competition for the service was held in England in June, 1893.
Entry into Imperial Police was thrown open to Indians only after 1920 and the following year
examinations for the service were conducted both in England and India. Indianisation of the police
service continued to be very slow despite pronouncement and recommendations of the Islington
Commission and the Lee Commission.
Till 1931, Indians were appointed against 20% of the total posts of Superintendents of Police.
However, because of non availability of the suitable European candidates, more Indians were
appointed to the Indian Police from the year 1939 onwards. 58
7 93
Learning: Regarding Central Civil Services, the Civil Services in British India8 8 classified as
were
2
covenanted and uncovenanted services on the basis of the nature of work,
- 83pay-scales and
appointing authority. In 1887, the Aitchinson Commission recommended the reorganization of the
.c om
services on a new pattern and divided the services into three groups-Imperial, Provincial and
a l
i services was the ‘Secretary of
Subordinate. The recruiting and controlling authority of Imperial
State’. g m
l 9 0@
a
With the passing of the Indian Act 1919, thegImperial Services headed by the Secretary of State for
ba
l i p
India, were split into two-All India Services and Central Services.
- di
A L
The central services were concerned with matters under the direct control of the Central
Government. Apart from G the Central Secretariat, the more important of these services were the
A
Railway Services, theBIndian Posts and Telegraph Service, and the Imperial Customs Service.
M AR
Q Source:UAdditional Research on Charter Act of 1853: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
I PK
IL
http://www.upsc.gov.in/sites/default/files/History%20of%20the%20Commission%20final%20%281%
D29_0.pdf
29 As per the views of Subhash Chandra Bose, freedom implies not only emancipation from political
bondage but also
1. Equal distribution of wealth
2. Destruction of communalism and religious intolerance

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : C
Justification: As per his Presidential Address to the Student’s Conference held at Lahore on 19
October 1929
“If we are to bring about a revolution of ideas we have first to hold up before us an ideal which will
galvanise our whole life. That ideal is freedom.
But freedom is a word which has varied connotations and, even in our country, the conception of
freedom has undergone a process of evolution. By freedom I mean all round freedom, i.e., freedom
for the individual as well as for society; freedom for the rich as well as for the poor; freedom for
men as well as for women; freedom for all individuals and for all classes.
58 of
This freedom implies not only emancipation from political bondage but also equal distribution
3
9 and
wealth, abolition of caste barriers and social iniquities and destruction of communalism
7
religious intolerance. 88
8 32
This is an ideal which may appear Utopian to hard-headed men and women,- but this ideal alone can
m
appease the hunger in the soul.”
i l .co
m a
@g
th
Q Source: Page 22: Chapter 2: 11 NCERT: Political Theory
l9 0
a
agwith the greater ideology of liberalism?
30 Which of the following ideas do NOT coincide
b
p
d ili
A. Principle of Competition -
A
B. Equality of Opportunity
L
G
C. Rule of Law BA
R
D. CommandAEconomy
M
Your P KU : C
Answer
I LI Answer : D
Correct
D
Justification: Option A and B: Liberalism includes a broad spectrum of political philosophies that
consider individual liberty to be the most important political goal, and emphasize individual rights
and equality of opportunity. Although most Liberals would claim that a government is necessary to
protect rights, different forms of Liberalism may propose very different policies.
Liberals uphold the principle of competition as the most efficient and fair way of distributing
resources and rewards in society.
They believe that while states may have to intervene to try and ensure a minimum standard of
living and equal opportunities for all, this cannot by itself bring equality and justice to society.
Total Marks : 200
Competition between people in free and fair conditions is the most just and efficient way of
distributing rewards in a society.
Option C: They are, however, generally united by their support for a number of principles, including
extensive freedom of thought and freedom of speech, limitations on the power of governments, the
application of the rule of law, a market economy (or a mixed economy with both private-owned and
state-owned enterprises) and a transparent and democratic system of government.
Option D: Historically, liberalism favoured free market and minimal role to the state. However,
present day liberalism acknowledges a role for welfare state and accepts the need for measures to
reduce both social and economic inequalities. However welfare state should not be reduced to a
command economy. A command economy is a system where the government, rather than the free
market, determines what goods should be produced, how much should be produced and the price at
which the goods are offered for sale
5 8
A mixed economy is thus favoured. 93
887
Q Source: Page 23: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT: Political Theory 3 2
-8
m
.
31 Consider the following statements. For a democracy to functionileffectively
co
a
m given leading to political equality.
1. Equal citizenship to all the members of the state should
@ gbe
2. It is important to minimise the effects of social and0economic inequalities and guarantee certain
l 9
minimum conditions of life to all the membersaof the society.
bag
Which of the above is/are correct? i li p
A. 1 only
L -d
B. 2 only
A GA
C. Both 1 and 2 B
D. None
MAR
K U
Your P
LI Answer :
D I
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Equal citizenship brings with it certain basic rights such as the right to
vote, freedom of expression, movement and association and freedom of belief. These are rights
which are considered necessary to enable citizens to develop themselves and participate in the
affairs of the state. But they are legal rights, guaranteed by the constitution and laws.
Statement 2: But, we know that considerable inequality can exist even in countries which grant
equal rights to all citizens. This necessitates social and economic inequality to ensure that citizens
are able to exercise their rights effectively. In the absence of such facilities it is exceedingly difficult
for all the members of the society to compete on equal terms.
Q Source: Page 39: Chapter 3: 11th NCERT: Political Theory
Total Marks : 200
32 The Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Which of these arguments
or statements support this view?
1. Parliament is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them.
2. The constitution must be amended under Article 368 to accommodate new states, in which states do
not play any decisive role.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
5 8
Answer Justification : 93
8 87
Justification: Statement 1: Article 3 authorises the Parliament to form a new
8 32 state or change area
of an existing state. -
m
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, i l .caobill contemplating the above
changes can be introduced in the Parliament only withg the
a recommendation of the President;
mprior
and two, before recommending the bill, the President
l 9 0@has to refer the same to the state legislature
a ga
concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
ipbbound by the views of the state legislature and may either

But, the President (or Parliament) isilnot
accept or reject them, even if the
L - dviews are received in time.
A
Statement 2: Creation A ofG
new states does not require constitutional amendment as such
amendments are R
B
not to be deemed as “amendments” under A368. So, 2 is wrong.
M A
K
Q Source: UChapter 5: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
P
I LI
D
33 According to Marxian theory, class conflict arises in capitalist societies due to
A. Production for satisfying human needs rather than the creation of private profits
B. Disguised employment and large scale unemployment that perpetuates slavery of the
capitalists
C. Organization of production lines for mass consumption in an industrial setup
D. Contradictions between the material interests of the oppressed proletariat and ruling
capitalist class
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: As per the Marxian view, contradictions between the material interests of the
Total Marks : 200
oppressed proletariat—a class of wage labourers employed by the bourgeoisie to produce goods and
services—and the bourgeoisie—the ruling class that owns the means of production and extract their
wealth through appropriation of the surplus product (profit) produced by the proletariat.
In accounting for the extraordinary fact that everything produced in capitalist society has a price,
Marx emphasizes the separation of the worker from the means of production (whereas slaves and
serfs are tied to their means of production) and the sale of his or her labor power that this
separation makes necessary.
To survive, the workers, who lack all means to produce, must sell their labor power.
In selling their labor power, they give up all claims to the products of their labor. Hence, these
products become available for exchange in the market, indeed are produced with this exchange in
mind, while workers are able to consume only that portion of their products which they can buy
back in the market with the wages they are paid for their labor power.
58
Marxian economics and its proponents view capitalism as economically unsustainable
7 93and incapable
88 for falling rates of
of improving the living standards of the population due to its need to compensate
2
profit by cutting employee's wages, social benefits and pursuing military 8 3
aggression.
-
m
The socialist system would succeed capitalism as humanity's mode
i l .co of production through workers'
revolution. According to Marxian crisis theory, socialism is a
not an inevitability, but an economic
m
@g
necessity.
0
l9 3: 11th NCERT: Political Theory
a
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 43: Chapter
bag
li p
d i
- of Aspirational Districts’ programme, consider the following
34 With reference to the ‘Transformation
L
GA
statements.
1. The program will focusAon the strength of each district and identify low-hanging fruits for
B
R
immediate improvement.
A
2. It aims at theMconvergence of Central and State Schemes.
K U
3. The programme will be implemented entirely by the Gram Panchayat machinery with directions
I P
L the Centre.
DI
from

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : B
Justification: It aims to quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped
districts of the country.
Total Marks : 200
The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration
(of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts
driven by a Mass Movement or a Jan Andolan.
With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify
low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.
To enable optimum utilization of their potential, this program focusses closely on improving
people’s ability to participate fully in the burgeoning economy. Health & Nutrition, Education,
Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure
are this programme’s core areas of focus.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=178133
5 8
http://niti.gov.in/content/about-aspirational-districts-programme 93
887
3 2
-8
35 Which of these constitutional provisions can be amended by a simple majority?
1. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament
.c om
2. Privileges of the Parliament and its members
ai l
3. Directive Principles of State Policy g m
4. Citizenship—acquisition and termination 0@
l9
g a
b
Select the correct answer using the codes abelow.
p
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
d ili
B. 3 and 4 only L -
C. 2 and 3 only
A GA
B
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
A R
Your AnswerU M:B
K
L IP
Correct Answer :A
DI
Justification: A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of

the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
States: Admission or establishment of new states; Formation of new states and alteration of
areas, boundaries or names of existing states; Abolition or creation of legislative councils in
states.
Privileges and Parliament: Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of

the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc; Quorum in Parliament; Salaries and
allowances of the members of Parliament; Rules of procedure in Parliament; Privileges of the
Total Marks : 200
Parliament, its members and its committees; Use of English language in Parliament.
Supreme Court: Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court; Conferment of more
jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
Use of official language.
Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
The provisions which can be amended by special majority includes: (i) Fundamental Rights; (ii)
Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other provisions which are not covered by simple
and special majority with consent of states.
5 8
93
87
2 8
3
36 Bru tribes, recently seen in news, mainly span the states of -8
1. Mizoram .c om
2. Tripura ai l
m
3. Nagaland
0 @g
4. Arunachal Pradesh
al 9
g
i pbabelow.
Select the correct answer using the codes
A. 1 and 2 only
- dil
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
A L
C. 1, 3 and 4 only AG
D. 1 and 3 onlyR B
M A
K
Your Answer U :A
P
LI Answer : A
Correct
I
D
Justification: The Brus, also referred to as the Reangs, are spread across the northeastern states
of Tripura, Assam, Manipur, and Mizoram.
A bout of ethnic violence forced thousands of people from the Bru tribe to leave their homes in
Mizoram. As many as 32,876 people belonging to 5,407 families are living in the refugee camps in
the Jampui Hills of Tripura.
In a major breakthrough on repatriation laced Bru persons from Mizoram since 1997, an agreement
has been signed by Government of India, Governments of Mizoram and Tripura and Mizoram Bru
Displaced People’s Forum (MBDPF).
The central government will provide financial assistance for rehabilitation of Bru community
members in Mizoram and address their issues of security, education, livelihood, etc. in consultation
Total Marks : 200
with the governments of Mizoram and Tripura.
Q Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/07/04/insights-daily-current-affairs-04-july-2018/
37 The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) contains provisions regarding?

1. Destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW.
2. Monitoring chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging.
3. Providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats.
4. Fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote
the peaceful use of chemistry.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only 5 8
93
87
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2 8
3
Your Answer :
-8
Correct Answer : D
om
a il.c
gm
@
l90 OPCW has granted itself new powers to
Justification: The CWC was in news recently because
a
assign blame for attacks, despite protests a bygRussia. Until now, the Organisation for the Prohibition
of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) could only i pbsay whether chemical weapons were used – but not who
i l
had used them.
L -d
A
Gforward for arms control. It strengthens the unravelling consensus against
BA
This is an important step
A R
the use of chemical weapons. It marks a victory for the rules-based international order, which itself
M strain given the rise of populists and nationalism in many countries.
is under increasing
U
I P K http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/06/30/insights-daily-current-affairs-30-june-2018/
Q Source:
IL
Dhttps://www.opcw.org/
38 With reference to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’s recent order regarding the restriction
of manufacture of Oxytocin formulations for domestic use, consider the following.
1. Private sector hospitals are not allowed to use oxytocin.
2. The drug is misused in the dairy industry where livestock is injected with Oxytocin to make them
release milk at a time convenient to farmers.
3. Oxytocin is used to increase the size of vegetables such as pumpkins.
4. Import of Oxytocin and its formulations have been banned.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
Total Marks : 200
D. 1 and 4 only
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 4: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has restricted the
manufacture of Oxytocin formulations for domestic use to public sector only. Coupled with this, it
has also banned the import of Oxytocin and its formulations. The order comes into effect from July
1.
Only Karnataka Antibiotics & Pharmaceuticals Ltd. (KAPL), a public sector company, will
manufacture this drug for domestic use. It will supply the drug to registered hospitals and clinics in
public and private sector directly.
3 58
Statement 2 and 3: The drug is widely misused in the dairy industry. Oxytocin is also
8 79used to
28 and cucumbers.
increase the size of vegetables such as pumpkins, watermelons, eggplants, gourds,
3
Learning: Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddlem
-8
chemical, moral molecule, and
i l co in love and in female

the bliss hormone due to its effects on behaviour, including its .role
reproductive biological functions in reproduction.
m a
Oxytocin is a hormone that is made in the brain, 9
@g
in0the hypothalamus. It is transported to, and
g al at the base of the brain.
secreted by, the pituitary gland, which is located
i pba
il neurotransmitter.
It acts both as a hormone and as adbrain
-
Lpituitary gland acts to regulate two female reproductive functions:
The release of oxytocin byG A
the
BA
Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
M AR
Q Source:Uhttp://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/06/29/insights-daily-current-affairs-29-june-2018/
I PK
L
DI
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil
and military powers.
2. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
3. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs
and successors’.
The Act that provided for the above was?

A. Charter Act of 1853
B. Charter Act of 1833
C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D. Government of India Act of 1858
Your Answer : C
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : B
Learning: This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him
all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India
having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William
Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-
General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws
made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this
5 8 act were
called as Acts. 9 3
887
3 2
8 which became a
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial- body,
purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s o m
territories in India were held by it
‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. i l .c
ma
g
0@
l9 a system of open competition for selection of
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce
a
ag should not be debarred from holding any place,
civil servants, and stated that the Indians
b
p
office and employment under the
ili Company. However, this provision was negated after
opposition from the Court-ofdDirectors.
A L
AG
BIndian Polity: M Laxmikanth
Q Source: Chapter 1:
MAR
U
P K constitution would lose its credibility if
40 A Democratic
I LI
D A. It is heavily based on the Constitution of another nation.
B. The people behind framing the Constitution were unelected.
C. It centralizes power from the federal units into the Union government.
D. It is not based on secular ideas.
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option A: The Indian constitution borrows heavily from the constitution of other
nations.
Option B: Suppose if the constituent assembly of India consisted of British administrators and only
members of princely states, we wouldn’t have acknowledged the framing of the constitution as just
Total Marks : 200
and democratic.
Option C: Democracies can decide to vest greater or lesser power in its federal units; its only a
matter of political structure.
Option D: A democracy need not be secular, for e.g. Pakistan.
41 Which of the following organizations serves as trustee of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
funds?
A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

B. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
C. World Bank
5 8
D. International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) 93
887
3 2
-8
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : C
om
Answer Justification : a il.c
gm
Learning: The Global Environment Facility was 9
l 0@
established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth
a
g environmental problems.
Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing
i pba
d il
L -
It is an international partnership of 183 countries, international institutions, civil society
organizations and theAprivate sector that addresses global environmental issues.
G
BA
AR
M are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to
GEF funds
U
K the objectives of the international environmental conventions and agreements.
meet
P
I LI
D
The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund.
India has announced it will increase for the next four years the money it pays to the Global
Environment Facility (GEF), a mechanism to provide grants for environment projects. India
will increase its commitments from $12 million to $15 million to the GEF’s new four-year
investment cycle, known as GEF-7.
It is a FINANCIAL MECHANISM for five major international environmental conventions: the

Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
(POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Total Marks : 200
42 The major points of the Objectives Resolution introduced in the Constituent Assembly were
1. Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of
the Government except those assigned to the Union
2. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India shall flow from its Constitution
3. All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured equality of status and opportunities alongwith
equality before law

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
5 8
93
Your Answer :
887
Correct Answer : C
3 2
-8
.c om
l
ai from the constitution.
Justification: Statement 1: The states thus derive powermdirectly
0 @g
9 the doctrine of popular sovereignty.
Statement 2: It shall flow from its people basedlon
a
g
Statement 3: As per the resolution, allipba of India shall be guaranteed and secured social,
people
dil of status and opportunities and equality before law; and
economic and political justice; equality
-
L expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and
fundamental freedoms - of speech,
A
Gpublic morality;
BA
action - subject to law and
Learning: Some
M AR other major pointers were:
U
I PK
L The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be
DI provided adequate safeguards;
The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be
maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations;
The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and
welfare of mankind.
43 With reference to the Sramana movements in Ancient Northern India, consider the following
statements.
Total Marks : 200
1. Purana Kassapa taught that there is no virtue or sin, no merit or demerit, whatever one does.
2. Ajita Kesakambali taught a form of materialism, that there is no future life for us let alone repeated
rebirth.
3. Pakudha Kaccayana held the view that earth, water, fire, air, joy, sorrow, and life are stable and
unproductive, independent primordial substances.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
5 8
93
8 87
Justification: Statement 1: Purana Kassapa taught that there is no virtue or2sin, no merit or
3
demerit, whatever one does. There is thus no such thing as moral Makkhali - 8 Gosala taught a sort of
fatalism. Rebirth occurs again and again through 'destiny, chance,
.c om
and nature' and nothing we can
do will make any difference. We have no control over any of it, l
ai and eventually liberation will come
m
@g
when it will come.
0
l9founder of the rival religion of the Ajivikas, which
Statement 2: Makkhali Gosala was an important a
b ag
continued for many centuries in Ajita Kesakambali taught what appears to be a form of materialism,
l i p
that there is no future life for us letialone repeated rebirth. Mankind is formed of earth, water, fire,
- d
and air, which return to their elements after death. There is no merit in good deeds (good karman)
or demerit in wicked ones. A L
B AG
R Kaccayana held the view that earth, water, fire, air, joy, sorrow, and life are
Statement 3: Pakudha
A
U M
stable and unproductive, independent primordial substances. He seems to have drawn the
K from this that killing (presumably in terms of moral responsibility) is impossible, since a
conclusion
Pwould
LI
sword simply pass between these primordial substances.
D I
Q Source: Based on the questions on Sramana tradition asked in UPSC CSP 2017
44 “Women in Prisons” report was recently published by
A. National Association for Women (NAW)

B. United Nations Women Commission (UNWC)
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
D. Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Total Marks : 200
Learning: The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) has come up with its report
titled ‘Women in Prisons’ which aims to build an understanding of the various entitlements of
women in prisons, the various issues faced by them and possible methods for resolution of the same.
A majority of female inmates are in the age group of 30-50 years (50.5%), followed by 18-30 years
(31.3%).
Highlights of the report- important recommendations:
Who is vulnerable? Women- elderly, disabled, pregnant, mothers who have recently given birth but
whose children are not with them in prison, those who have miscarried, or those who have recently
undergone abortion.
Arrangements for women with care-giving responsibilities: Prior to their imprisonment, women with
care-giving responsibilities must be allowed to make arrangements for their children, and a
reasonable suspension of detention may also be provided for this purpose. Provisions for 8
3 5 extended
9 proposed.
and frequent visits, and admission of children into Childcare institutions have also been
887
3
Bail: Bail should be granted to those under-trial women who have spent one-third 2
of their maximum
- 8
possible sentence in detention, by making necessary changes in Section 436A of the CrPC which
m
coserved.
provides for release after half of the maximum sentence has been
il.
a
m accommodation for mothers in post-
g
Special care for pregnant and lactating women: A separate
natal stage to maintain hygiene and protect the infant
l 9 0@from contagion, for at least a year after
childbirth has been proposed.
a ga
i b
pSource.
di
Rest of the details can be read at thel Q
L -
A
G
BA
M AR are some of the important provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919?
45 Which of the following
K
1. The centralUand provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of
P
LI
subjects.
I
2.DIt introduced the dual scheme of governance, ‘dyarchy’, with regard to provincial subjects.
3. It ended the trend of bicameral legislatures.
4. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A
Total Marks : 200
Justification: Features of the Act
1. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central
and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws
on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be
centralised and unitary.
2. It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved. The
transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers
responsible to the legislative Council.
3. The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his
8 of
executive council without being responsible to the legislative Council. This dual scheme
5
governance was known as ‘dyarchy’—a term derived from the Greek word di-arche
9 3 which
means double rule. However, this experiment was largely unsuccessful. 8 7
2 8
- 83
m in the country. Thus, the
4. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections
o
l.c
Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameralilegislature consisting of an Upper
a
m Assembly). The majority of members
House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative
@
of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.
g
a l90
ag
bmembers
l p
5. It required that the three of theisix of the Viceroy’s executive Council (other than
i
the commander-in-chief) were
L - d to be Indian.
A GA
6. It extended theBprinciple of communal representation by providing separate electorates for
AR Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
Sikhs, Indian
M
K U
IP
D IL7. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the
provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
8. It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its
working after ten years of its coming into force.
46 RemoveDebris is research project to develop and fly a low cost in-orbit demonstrator mission that
aims to de-risk and verify technologies needed for future ADR (Active Debris Removal) missions. It
was launched by
A. Space X
B. European Union
Total Marks : 200
C. NASA
D. Russian Space Agency
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : B
Background: Space junk is an ever-growing problem with more than 7,500 tonnes of redundant
hardware now thought to be circling the Earth. Ranging from old rocket bodies and defunct
spacecraft through to screws and even flecks of paint – this material poses a collision hazard to
operational missions.
The rising population of space debris increases the potential danger to all space vehicles, but
especially to the International Space Station (ISS), space shuttles, satellites and other spacecraft.
3 58
Learning: The first spacecraft to demonstrate active space debris-removal technologies
8 79 — such as
28 Space Station
a harpoon, a net and a drag sail — in orbit has been released from the International
3
to commence its mission.
-8
RemoveDebris is aimed at performing key ADR technology demonstrations.c om (e.g., capture,
deorbiting) representative of an operational scenario during a l
ia low-cost mission using novel key
technologies for ADR. The project is based on and aimed g mat contributing to global/European ADR
0 @
roadmaps.
a l9
bag
A microsatellite called here RemoveSAT,
i p will release, capture and deorbit two space debris targets,
d
called DebrisSats, in sequence using ilvarious rendezvous, capture and deorbiting technologies thus
-
ADR technology mission G
AL technologies for future missions in what promises to be the first
demonstrating in orbit, key ADR
internationally.
BA
AR
M
K U
P
I LI the following statements.
47 Consider
1.DUnder the leadership of Pandit Nehru, India convened the Asian Relations Conference right after its
Independence.
2. India was one of the participants in the Bandung Conference that over the years led to the
establishment of the Non-Alignment Movement (NAM).

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Justification: Statement 1: Throughout the 1940s and 1950s, Nehru had been an ardent advocate
of Asian unity. Under his leadership, India convened the Asian Relations Conference in March 1947,
five months ahead of attaining its independence. India made earnest efforts for the early realisation
of freedom of Indonesia from the Dutch colonial regime by convening an international conference in
1949 to support its freedom struggle.
Statement 2: India was a staunch supporter of the decolonisation process and firmly opposed
racism, especially apartheid in South Africa. The Afro-Asian conference held in the Indonesian city
of Bandung in 1955, commonly known as the Bandung Conference, marked the zenith of India’s
engagement with the newly independent Asian and African nations.
The Bandung Conference later led to the establishment of the NAM. The First Summit of the NAM
was held in Belgrade in September 1961.
Q Source: Chapter 4 Pg. 68: 12th NCERT India Since Independence

5 8
93
8 87
1. Vishishtadvaita school of Hindu philosophy believes that Brahman alone 8 32 and is characterized
exists,
by sheer unity. -
o m
2. Turiya in Hindu philosophy is the background that underlies and
i l .ctranscends the common states of
consciousness.
m a
3. Bhedābheda Vedānta teaches that the individual self isgcompletely identical to Brahman.
0@different and not different from the ultimate
4. Advaita Vedānta claims that the individual self is9both
l
reality known as Brahman. ga
i pba
il
d codes below.
Select the correct answer using the
A. 1 and 2 only L -
A
B. 3 and 4 only
B AG
AR
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 4M only
K U
P
YourI Answer :
IL Answer : C
DCorrect
Justification: Statement 1: Viśiṣṭādvaita is one of the most popular schools of the Vedanta school
of Hindu philosophy. Vedanta literally means the end of the Vedas. VishishtAdvaita is a non-dualistic
school of Vedanta philosophy. It is non-dualism of the qualified whole, in which Brahman alone
exists, but is characterized by multiplicity.
It can be described as qualified monism or qualified non-dualism or attributive monism. It is a

school of Vedanta philosophy which believes in all diversity subsuming to an underlying unity.
Statement 2: In Hindu philosophy, turiya or caturiya, chaturtha, is pure consciousness. Scientists

described it as a hypo-metabolic state of "restful alertness." Turiya is the background that underlies
and transcends the three common states of consciousness. The states of consciousness are: waking
consciousness, dreaming, and dreamless sleep.
Total Marks : 200
Statement 3 and 4: The characteristic position of all the different Bhedābheda Vedānta schools is
that the individual self (jīvātman) is both different and not different from the ultimate reality known
as Brahman. Bhedābheda reconciles the positions of two other major schools of Vedānta.
The Advaita (Non-dual) Vedānta that claims that the individual self is completely identical to
Brahman, and the Dvaita (Dualist) Vedānta that teaches complete difference between the individual
self and Brahman. Bādarāyaṇa’s Brahma Sūtra (c. 4th century CE) may also have been written from
a Bhedābheda Vedāntic viewpoint.
Q Source: Additional Research:

49 India has World Heritage Inscriptions in which of the following categories?

1. Cultural sites
2. Mixed sites 5 8
3. Natural sites 93
887
3 2
-8
om
A. 1 and 3 only
il.c
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 a
D. 1 and 2 only @ gm
a l90
Your Answer : D
bag
Correct Answer : C li p
d i
L-
GA
B A
R has overall 37 World Heritage Inscriptions with 29 Cultural, 07 Natural and 01
Justification: India
Mixed sites. MA
K U
P
I India stands second largest in number after China in terms of number of World Heritage
While
I L
Dproperties in ASPAC (Asia and Pacific) region, it is overall sixth in the world.
In a Remarkable Achievement, India gets its 37th WORLD UNESCO World HERITAGE SITE.
This makes Mumbai city the second city in India after Ahmedabad to be inscribed on the World
Heritage List.
In the past 5 years alone, India has managed to get inscribed seven of its properties/sites on the
World Heritage List of UNESCO.
37th site: Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensemble of Mumbai.
Learning: A World Heritage site is classified as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of
international importance, and a space which requires special protection. These sites are officially
recognised by the UN and the United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation, also
known as UNESCO. UNESCO believes that the sites classified as World Heritage are important for
Total Marks : 200
humanity, and they hold cultural and physical significance.

50 The Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution implies that

1. All constitutional amendments that seek to change the basic structure must be initiated and
approved by the Judiciary.
2. An amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution only when it seeks to give effect
to Article 14 or Article 19 of the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 5 8
93
D. None
887
3 2
Your Answer : A -8
Correct Answer : D
om
a il.c
gm
Justification: The Kesavananda Bharati ruling,l9

0@
that gave out the Basic structure doctrine, has
a
ag in the following ways:
contributed to the evolution of the Constitution
l i pb
- di
It has set specific limitsLto the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no
amendment can violateGA the basic structure of the Constitution;
BA
M AR
U the Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution (within this limitation);
It allows
K
Pand
I LI
D
It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic
structure and what constitutes the basic structure.
The Supreme Court gave the Kesavananda ruling in 1973. In the past three decades, this decision
has governed all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted
the theory of basic structure. In fact, the theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living
constitution.
There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation.
Thus, the Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended the Constitution without a
formal amendment.
Total Marks : 200
51 India’s longest-range ballistic missile is
A. Aakash II
B. Agni V
C. Naag Missile that was recently inducted in the Indian Army
D. BrahMos
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : B
Learning: At present, India has in its armoury the Agni series — Agni-1 with 700 km range, Agni-2
with 2,000 km range, Agni-3 and Agni-4 with 2,500 km to more than 3,500 km range.
5 act as a 8
3will
Agni-V will be inducted into the nuclear arsenal very soon. It is a strategic asset which
9
deterrent. 87 8
2
83
- 1.5 tonnes to a distance
It is a surface-to-surface missile which can carry nuclear warhead weighing
.c omof reaching most parts of

of over 5,000 km and is the longest missile in India’s arsenal capable
China. i l a
g m
@ technologies, including the very high
The missile features many new indigenously-developed
0
9
al System (RINS), and the most modern and
accuracy Ring Laser Gyro based Inertial Navigation
g
accurate Micro Navigation System (MINS)bawhich improves the accuracy of the missile.
i p
Q Source: Additional Research:- dil
AL
G
BA
R
52 Globular clusters,Arecently in news, are densely packed collections of ancient stars. What are some of
U M of such clusters?
the major features
P K of stars in a globular cluster is much greater than the density of stars around the sun.
1. TheIdensity
IL clusters are made largely of gas, of which helium is predominant.
2.DThese

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Roughly spherical in shape, they contain hundreds of thousands, and
sometimes millions, of stars. Studying them helps astronomers estimate the age of the universe or
figure out where the center of a galaxy lies.
Total Marks : 200
There are about 150 known globular clusters in the Milky Way galaxy, according to Georgia State
University's HyperPhysics website. Most are estimated to be at least 10 billion years old, and
contain some of the oldest stars in the galaxy. The clusters likely formed very early, before the
galaxy flattened into a spiral disc.
Statement 2: Some globular clusters, such as Messier 13 (M13) in the constellation Hercules, can
be seen with the naked eye.
The density of stars in a globular cluster is much greater than the density of stars around the sun,
and the clusters are not found to contain any gas. The abundance of any elements heavier than
helium is only 1 percent to 10 percent of the abundance of the same elements in the sun.
Globular clusters formed from giant molecular clouds, or huge masses of gas that form stars as they
collapse. Because there is less free gas available now than at the beginning of the universe, globular
clusters generally cannot form today.
58
7 93
88
2
3
https://www.space.com/29717-globular-clusters.html -8
om
a il.c
53 Suhaili, recently seen in news, was a
gm
l 9 0@
ga working for the rights of differently abled that
A. Major non-governmental organization (NGO)
a
ipb
closed down its operations
d l
B. Form of Martial arts recently irecognized as an intangible heritage by the Government
-
C. Tribal group that became extinct following the decline of indigenous culture
L
G
D. Indian built boat usedA for global circumnavigation
B A
Your Answer : CAR
U M :D
Correct Answer
I PK
IL Justification :
DAnswer
Learning: The Golden Globe Race is being conducted by Sir Robin Knox Johnston of UK to
commemorate 50 years since the world’s first solo non-stop circumnavigation undertaken by him in
1968 onboard the Indian built boat, Suhaili.
The uniqueness of the race is that boat designs and technology newer than 1968 is not permitted,
hence use of Global Positioning System (GPS), satellite communication, navigational aids, etc is
forbidden.
Commander Abhilash Tomy of the Indian Navy is the only invitee from Asia.

1. The Scheme of Banking Ombudsman is mandated to look into systemic issues with a view to
Total Marks : 200
enforcing a prescribed quality of service in Indian banks.

2. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) is a wing of the Reserve Bank of India which
ensures that banks treat their consumers fairly.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
8
9 35
Justification: Statement 1: The Scheme of Banking Ombudsman, which has been functioning for
8 87
quite some time, does not look into systemic issues with a view to enforcing a prescribed quality of
service. 2 3
-8
o m
Ideally, such a function should be performed by a Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) but in view of
c
l. that an independent, autonomous
the existing framework of the banking sector in India, it was ifelt
Board will be best suited for the function. m a
0 @g
l9 in his Monetary Policy Statement (April 2005)
Therefore, Dr. Y.V. Reddy, the then Governor, RBI,
a
announced setting up of the Banking Codes
b agand Standards Board of India in order to ensure that a
p
ili treatment of customers was evolved and adhered to.
comprehensive code of conduct for fair
d
L -
GA consumers of banking services in India.
Statement 2: The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) is an independent banking
industry watchdog thatAprotects
B
A R
The board oversee compliance with the “Code of Bank’s Commitment to Customers”.
U M
It isIan
K
P independent and autonomous body, registered as a separate society under the Societies
I L
DRegistration Act, 1860 on 18 February 2006.
The Reserve Bank of India recently extended financial support to the Board, meeting its expenses
for the first five years.
Learning: Membership of BCSBI is voluntary and open to scheduled banks. Initially the
membership of BCSBI was open to scheduled commercial banks and has now been extended to
include Regional Rural Banks and select Urban Co-operative Banks.
The main objectives of the BCSBI are
To plan, evolve, prepare, develop, promote and publish comprehensive Codes and Standards
for banks, for providing for fair treatment to their customers.
To function as an independent and autonomous body to monitor, and to ensure that the Codes
Total Marks : 200
and Standards adopted by banks are adhered to, in letter and spirit, while delivering services
to their customers.
BCSBI monitors the implementation of the Codes through the following methods:
Obtains from member banks an Annual Statement of Compliance (ASC)
Visits branches to find out the status of ground-level implementation of Codes
Studies complaints received from customers and orders / awards issued by Banking
Ombudsmen / Appellate Authority to find out whether there is any system-wide deficiency
58
93Member
Organizes an annual Conference with Principal Code Compliance Officers of the
7
banks to discuss implementation issues. 88 2
3
-8
m
oawareness
BCSBI also undertakes campaigns and initiatives to spread
i l .c of the Codes amongst
customers and banks a m
@ g
0
l9 Association (IBA), evolved two codes – Code of
a
BCSBI has in collaboration with the Indian Banks’
g of Bank’s Commitment to Micro and Small
Bank’s Commitment to Customers and the baCode
p
d ili
Enterprises – which set minimum standards of banking practices for member banks to follow when
they are dealing with individual-customers and micro and small enterprises.
A L
AG
B
AR
M
K U
http://www.bcsbi.org.in/Abt_Background.html
P
I LI
D
55 Three stamps were issued in 1950 to mark the first Republic Day on 26 January 1950. These stamps
contain the images of
1. Ashokan wheel spoke of Dharma
2. Trumpets and Indian flag
3. The Charkha of Gandhi
4. A majestic Elephant

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Justification: These three stamps basically indicate the history of the freedom struggle and the
forthcoming challenges for India. You need to keep an eye on such details in the text that you read.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 5: 12th NCERT India Since Independence

5 8
7 93
56 During the suzerainty of the British crown, princely States covered what portion8of8the land area of
the British Indian Empire? 32
-8
om
il.c
A. one-third
B. one-tenth a
C. one-fifth
@ gm
D. two-third
a l90
bag
Your Answer :
li p
Correct Answer : A d i
A L-
: G
Answer Justification A
B
A R
Justification: British India was divided into what were called the British Indian Provinces and the
PrincelyK UM The British Indian Provinces were directly under the control of the British
States.
LIP
government. On the other hand, several large and small states ruled by princes, called the Princely
I
DStates, enjoyed some form of control over their internal affairs as long as they accepted British
supremacy.
This was called paramountcy or suzerainty of the British crown. Princely States covered one-third of
the land area of the British Indian Empire and one out of four Indians lived under princely rule.
Just before Independence it was announced by the British that with the end of their rule over India,
paramountcy of the British crown over Princely States would also lapse. This meant that all these
states, as many as 565 in all, would become legally independent.
The British government took the view that all these states were free to join either India or Pakistan
or remain independent if they so wished. This decision was left not to the people but to the princely
rulers of these states. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of a
united India.
Q Source: Page 14: 12th NCERT India Since Independence
Total Marks : 200
57 The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 includes
1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only in the Lok Sabha.
2. All constitutional bills are to be deemed as public bills and must be introduced by a minister.
3. Prior Presidential recommendation is not necessary to introduce the bill.
4. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
5 8
887
2
83 only by the
Justification: Statement 1: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated
introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and-not in the state legislatures.
.c om
l
ai or by a private member and does
Statement 2 and 3: The bill can be introduced either by a minister
m
@g
not require prior permission of the president.
0
l9 by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is,
a
Statement 4: The bill must be passed in each House
b ag of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the
more than 50 per cent) of the total membership
li p
members of the House present and ivoting.
- d
Each House must pass the A Lseparately.
bill In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there
G
BA a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and
is no provision for holding
AR
passage of the bill.
M
K
Q Source:
UChapter 10: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
P
I LI
D
1. In the Nagpur session of Congress in 1920, the linguistic principle was recognised as the basis of
the reorganisation of the Indian National Congress party.
2. A few days after Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, signed the Instrument of Accession with
the Indian government on maintaining the internal autonomy of Manipur.
3. The Nizam of Hyderabad did not immediately enter an Instrument of Accession with India right
after independence and instead signed a Standstill Agreement in 1947.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Your Answer :
Total Marks : 200
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: During colonial rule, the state boundaries were drawn either on
administrative convenience or simply coincided with the territories annexed by the British
government or the territories ruled by the princely powers.
Our national movement had rejected these divisions as artificial and had promised the linguistic
principle as the basis of formation of states.
In fact after the Nagpur session of Congress in 1920 the principle was recognised as the basis of the
reorganisation of the Indian National Congress party itself.
Many Provincial Congress Committees were created by linguistic zones, which did not follow the
administrative divisions of British India. 8 5
3
79
2 88
Statement 2: A few days before Independence, the Maharaja of Manipur, Bodhachandra Singh,
8 3
signed the Instrument of Accession with the Indian government on the assurance that the internal
autonomy of Manipur would be maintained. -
.c om
l
ai in Manipur in June 1948 and the
Under the pressure of public opinion, the Maharaja held elections
m
state became a constitutional monarchy. Thus Manipurgwas the first part of India to hold an election
based on universal adult franchise.
l 9 0@
a gawere sharp differences over the question of merger of
pb
In the Legislative Assembly of Manipur there
l i
Manipur with India.
- di
A
Statement 3: The Nizam wantedL an independent status for Hyderabad. He entered into what was
called the Standstill B AG
Agreement with India in November 1947 for a year while negotiations with the
AR were going on.
Indian government
M
K U
In the meantime, a movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam’s rule gathered
I P
L
force.
DI
The peasantry in the Telangana region in particular, was the victim of Nizam’s oppressive rule and
rose against him.
Hyderabad was ultimately integrated in India.
Q Source: Page 17 to 19: 12th NCERT India Since Independence
59 Consider this statement made in August 1947.

“Today you have worn on your heads a crown of thorns. The seat of power is a nasty thing. You have
to remain ever wakeful on that seat….you have to be more humble and forbearing…now there will be
no end to your being tested.”
The statement was made by

A. M.K Gandhi
Total Marks : 200
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru

C. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D. Mohammed Ali Jinnah
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Option A: This was basically a reminder to the nation and its powerholders to
celebrate independence responsibly and not to become corrupted.
Option B: Nehru made this statement instead. “…India will awake to a life of freedom….we step out
from the old to the new…we end today a period of ill fortune and India discovers herself again. The
achievement we celebrate today is but a step, an opening of opportunity…”
5 8
93
87
th
Q Source: Exercises in Chapter 1: 12 NCERT India Since Independence
2 8
8 3
-
60 Which of the following principles related to international peace and security are found in the
Constitution?
.c om
1. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations ai
l
2. Provide required assistance to Least Developed Nations g m
0 @ (LDCs)
3. Encourage settlement of international disputes by
a l9 arbitration
g
abelow.
p
Select the correct answer using the codesb
A. 1 only d ili
B. 2 and 3 only L -
C. 1, 2 and 3
A GA
D. 1 and 3 only B
M AR
K
Your AnswerU:
P
LI Answer : D
Correct
I
D
Justification: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down some Directive Principles of State
Policy on ‘Promotion of international peace and security’.
“The State shall endeavour to –
(a) Promote international peace and security
(b) Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
(c) Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised people
with one another; and
(d) Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.”
Total Marks : 200
61 The Indian National Army (INA) was created by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose near the
A. Swadeshi Movement
B. First World War
C. Second World War
D. Civil Disobedience Movement
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C
58 in 1942
Justification: The Indian National Army was an armed force formed by Indian nationalists
3
in Southeast Asia during World War II. 79
2 88
8 3
-
Its aim was to secure Indian independence from British rule. It formed an alliance with
o m
.c theatre of WWII.
Imperial Japan in the latter's campaign in the Southeast Asian
il
a
gm
l 9 0@ Singh, by Indian PoWs of the British-Indian
The army was first formed in 1942 under Mohan
Army captured by Japan in the Malayanacampaign and at Singapore.
bag
li p
i
- dwas disbanded in December that year after differences between
This first INA collapsed and
L
the INA leadership and
GA the Japanese military over its role in Japan's war in Asia.
BA
R
A under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose after his arrival in Southeast
It was M
revived
P KUin 1943.
Asia
I LI
D
The creation of the INA by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose during the Second World War was
the clearest manifestation of the linkages established between India and overseas Indians
during the freedom struggle.
62 The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary to

1. Protect the integrity and supremacy of the Constitution
2. Settle the disputes between federal organs
3. Check abuse of authority by legislature and executive

A. 1 and 3 only
Total Marks : 200
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The Courts were setup for two purposes:
Statement 1 and 2: One, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of
judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the
states.
58
The Constitution contains various measures like security of tenure to judges, fixed service
3
conditions and so on to make the judiciary independent of the government. 79
2 88
Statement 3: Via provisions like Judicial review, the judiciary checks abuse
- 83of powers by the
m Collector, or
executive and legislative organs, for e.g. exceeding jurisdiction by District
o
il.c
unconstitutional legislation by Parliament.
a
mM Laxmikanth
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 3: Indian Polity: g
l 9 0@
a gaset up a water aerodrome in an Indian lake for
63 The Airports Authority of India has proposed
i b
pThis
to
di
starting amphibious aircraft operations.l is planned to be set up in the state of
L -
A. Maharashtra G A
B. Odisha BA
AR
C. Andhra Pradesh
M
D. Tamil
K UNadu
P
I LI Answer :
Your
DCorrect Answer : B
Learning: It is proposed to be established in Chilika lake. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India
and the second largest lagoon in the world after The New Caledonian barrier reef in New
Caledonia.
It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian sub-
continent.
It is one of the hotspot of biodiversity in the country, and some rare, vulnerable and endangered
species listed in the IUCN Red List of threatened Animals inhabit in the lagoon for atleast part of
their life cycle.
On account of its rich bio-diversity and ecological significance, Chilika was designated as the 1st
Total Marks : 200
“Ramsar Site” of India.
64 The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

1. Absence of external constraints
2. All decisions are made collectively
3. Conditions in which people can develop their abilities

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5 8
93
Your Answer : B
887
Correct Answer : C
3 2
-8
.c om
l
a—i the absence of external constraints as
Justification: Statement 1: Both these aspects of freedom m
@gdevelop their talents — are important. A free
well as the existence of conditions in which people can
0
l9 to develop their potential with the minimum of
society would be one which enables all its members
a
social constraints.
b ag
p
ili to enjoy total absence of any kind of constraints or
No individual living in society candhope
L - then to determine which social constraints are justified and
restrictions. It becomes necessary
A
Gacceptable
which are not, which are
B A and which should be removed.
R
Statement 2: S2Aimplies that freedom can be a component of only democratic societies, but it is not
M
Uautocratic societies have some sense of freedom. Moreover, in order to be free, an
K
true. Even
IP should be able to make decisions individually, with a support of collective decision-
individual
L
I
Dmaking in which no one individual dominates the others. So, it is wrong to say that ALL decisions
should be made collectively to enjoy freedom.
Q Source: Page 20: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT Political Theory
65 The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was negotiated and signed
A. Immediately after India’s independence

B. After the Indo-Pak 1965 War
C. After the 1999 Kargil War
D. In the year 1960
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : D
Total Marks : 200
Justification & Learning: You can eliminate such questions by understanding the geo-political
scenario then.
Had the treaty not been signed, the Indo-Pak 1965 war could have been a disaster because India,
being an upper riparian state, could have choked Pakistan’s water supply.
The India-Pakistan Indus Waters Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.
Despite all ups and downs in the Indo-Pak relations,
A long-term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World
Bank.
We will cover the details of the treaty later. It is an important topic and will keep popping up.
8
35
Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 4 Pg. 74: 12th NCERT India Since Independence
9
887
3 2
66 Government proposes to set up 3000 Van Dhan Kendras involving 30,000- SHGs 8 across the country.
The Van Dhan Vikas Kendras initiative
.c om
a i
1. Aims to promote Minor Forest Produce (MFP) centric livelihood l development of tribal gatherers and
artisans
g m
0 @
2. Guarantees daily wage employment to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
9
al in Backward Region Grant Fund (BRGF) areas
3. Provides for establishment of warehousing facility
b ag
p
li below.
Select the correct answer using theicodes
A. 1 and 2 only - d
L
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only BA
GA
D. 1 only AR
U M
Your P K :A
Answer
I
L Answer : D
DI
Correct
Background: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is a major source of livelihood for tribals living in forest
areas. The importance of MFPs for this section of the society can be gauged from the fact that
around 100 million forest dwellers depend on MFPs for food, shelter, medicines and cash income.
It provides them critical subsistence during the lean seasons, particularly for primitive tribal groups
such as hunter gatherers, and the landless. Tribals derive 20-40% of their annual income from MFP
on which they spend major portion of their time.
This activity has strong linkage to women’s financial empowerment as most of the MFPs are
collected and used/sold by women. MFP sector has the potential to create about 10 million
workdays annually in the country.
Justification: As per the plan, TRIFED will facilitate establishment of MFP-led multi-purpose Van
Total Marks : 200
Dhan Vikas Kendras, a cluster of 10 SHGs comprising of 30 tribal MFP gatherers each, in the tribal
areas.
The initiative aims to promote MFPs-centric livelihood development of tribal gatherers and
artisans. It mainstreams the tribal community by promoting primary level value addition to
MFP at grassroots level. Through this initiative, the share of tribals in the value chain of Non-
Timber Forest Produce is expected to rise from the present 20% to around 60%.
The scheme will be implemented through Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department at
the Central Level and TRIFED as Nodal Agency at the National Level.
At State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to
play a pivot role in scheme implementation at grassroot level. 8 5
3
8 79
28 (an SHG)
Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee
3
consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster. - 8
.c om
ai l
m
0 @g
67 India has opposed the international treaties aimeda l9at non-proliferation because
b ag
p
1. India was kept out of all the negotiations leading to these agreements.
2. Nations that were not part of the d ili were not allowed to enrich Uranium.
treaties
L - were discriminatory in nature and biased towards the major
3. India believed that these treaties
nuclear powers.
A GA
B
A
Select the correct
Ranswer using the codes below.
A. 1 andU M
3 only
I
B. P2 K
and 3 only
I LC. 3 only
D
D. 1 and 2 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Justification: India has opposed these treaties since they were selectively applicable to the non-
nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapons powers. Thus, India
opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and also refused to sign the Comprehensive
Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).
India conducted a series of nuclear tests in May 1998, demonstrating its capacity to use nuclear
energy for military purposes. Pakistan soon followed, thereby increasing the vulnerability of the
region to a nuclear exchange.
Total Marks : 200
The international community was extremely critical of the nuclear tests in the subcontinent and
sanctions were imposed on both India and Pakistan, which were subsequently waived. India’s
nuclear doctrine of credible minimum nuclear deterrence professes “no first use” and reiterates
India’s commitment to global, verifiable and non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament leading to a
nuclear weapons free world.
Q Source: Chapter 4: 12th NCERT India Since Independence
68 Which of the following is/are the major objectives of the Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd.?
1. To plan and execute an integrated programme on development and implementation of renewable
energy projects
2. To carry on business of generation and trading in power products and services in India and abroad

A. 1 only 5 8
93
B. 2 only
887
C. Both 1 and 2
3 2
D. None -8
om
Your Answer : A
a il.c
Correct Answer : C
gm
l 9 0@
ga
a
l
Justification: The Main Objectives of i ptheb Company are:
- di
A L
Gan integrated programme on development and implementation of
To plan and execute
BAprojects
renewable energy
M AR
K U
LIPmaintenance,
To own, manage, investigate, plan, promote, develop, design, construction, operation,
DI geo-thermal, tidal,
renovation, modernization of power projects in solar, on-shore/off-shore wind,
bio-gas, bio-mass, small hydro and other renewable energy sources in India
and abroad
To carry on business of generation, forecasting, purchasing, producing, manufacturing,

importing, exporting, exchanging, selling and trading in power products and services in India
and abroad
To plan, develop, maintain, lease, hire, manage solar parks, infrastructure facilities, and all
related ancillary facilities & services in India and abroad
To carry on the business of planning, investigation, survey, research, design and preparation
of preliminary feasibility and detailed project reports, related to Power Projects in India and
abroad
Total Marks : 200
To co-ordinate the activities of its subsidiaries and Joint Venture Companies, to determine
their economic and financial objectives / targets and to review, control, guide and direct their
performance with a view to secure an optimum utilization of all resources placed at their
disposal
Q Source: Frequently in news due to Solar power tariffs:

http://seci.gov.in/content/innerpage/objectives.php
http://seci.gov.in/content/related_links.php
69 With reference to the Mountbatten Plan, consider the following statements.

1. The plan was announced after the agitation by the Muslim League demanding partition of the
country.
2. The plan was rejected by the Congress and the Muslim League.
3. Immediate effect was given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act. 93
58
887
A. 1 only -8
om
il.c
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only a
D. 2 only
@ gm
a l90
Your Answer :
bag
Correct Answer : C
li p
d i
Answer Justification : L-
A GA
B
Justification: On February 20, 1947, the British Prime Minister Clement Atlee declared that the
A R
British rule in India would end by June 30, 1948; after which the power would be transferred to
responsibleU M
Indian hands.
I PK
IL announcement was followed by the agitation by the Muslim League demanding partition of the
DThis
country. Again on June 3, 1947, the British Government made it clear that any Constitution framed
by the Constituent Assembly of India (formed in 1946) cannot apply to those parts of the country
which were unwilling to accept it.
On the same day (June 3, 1947), Lord Mountbatten, the viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan,
known as the Mountbatten Plan.
Statement 2: The plan was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect was
given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act which ended the British rule in India and
declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. 2. It provided for the
partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to
secede from the British Commonwealth.
Total Marks : 200
70 In the Constituent Assembly, which of the following provisions were passed without any or little
debate?
A. Secularism
B. Universal Suffrage
C. Federalism
D. Emergency provisions
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option A, C and D: These were some of the most debated provisions due to the
various nuances that each related provisions contains, for e.g. the distribution of powers 8between
3 5
centre and state, or the rights of religious minorities etc. 9
8 87
Option B: Only one provision of the Constitution was passed without virtually
8 32any debate: the
introduction of universal suffrage (meaning that all citizens reaching a -certain age, would be
.c om or income).
entitled to be voters irrespective of religion, caste, education, gender
l
aiof who should have the right to vote,
m
So, while the members felt no need at all to discuss the issue
0
every other matter was seriously discussed and debated. @g Nothing can be a better testament to the
democratic commitment of this Assembly. a l9
b ag
p
ili
th
Q Source: Chapter 1: 11 NCERT: Constitution at Work
- d
L
A GA
B
1. The Solar Charkha
A RMission will generate employment in rural areas and contribute to the green
economy. M
K
2. The digitalUplatform `Sampark portal’ will be useful in creating a skill pool of workers and
P trained youth with job opportunities.
LI
connecting
I
D
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Background: According to a survey, there are about 6.5 crore MSMEs in India which have created
over 11 crore job opportunities. Such enterprises have registered over 10 per cent growth in recent
times which is much more compared to large enterprises
Total Marks : 200
Justification: The Solar Charkha Mission will entail a subsidy of Rs 550 crore in the initial two
years for 50 clusters and every cluster will employ 400 to 2000 artisans. The mission will generate
employment in rural areas and contribute to the green economy.
The scheme also aims at linking five crore women across the country to the initiative. The mission is
expected to create one lakh jobs during the first two years.
The sampark portal, was also launched alongside and connects youth with job opportunities.
Both these initiatives are targeted at MSMEs.
Q Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/president-kovind-launches-solar-charkha-mission-re
cruitment-portal-for-msmes/article24270752.ece
8
35 of
72 The idea of Residuary powers in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution
9
887
A. France 3 2
B. Australia -8
om
il.c
C. UK
D. Canada a
@ gm
Your Answer : D
a l90
ag
Correct Answer : D
pb
Answer Justification : d ili
A L-
Learning: This diagram G
contains all major borrowings:
BA
MAR
K U
IP
D IL
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
gm
l 9 0@
a ga
th
l i
Q Source: Chapter 1: 11 NCERT: Constitution pb at Work
d i
L -
73 What does the Export Credit
A GAGuarantee Corporation (ECGC) do?
#72908 B
A R
1. It provides a range of credit risk insurance covers to exporters against loss in export of goods and
services.KU
M
IP Export Credit Insurance covers to banks and financial institutions to enable exporters to
2. It offers
L
I
Dobtain better facilities from them.
3. It provides Overseas Investment Insurance to Indian companies investing in joint ventures abroad in
the form of equity or loan.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Background: Payments for exports are open to risks even at the best of times. The risks have
Total Marks : 200
assumed large proportions today due to the far-reaching political and economic changes that are
sweeping the world. An outbreak of war or civil war may block or delay payment for goods
exported.
A coup or an insurrection may also bring about the same result. Economic difficulties or balance of
payment problems may lead a country to impose restrictions on either import of certain goods or on
transfer of payments for goods imported.
In addition, the exporters have to face commercial risks of insolvency or protracted default of
buyers. The commercial risks of a foreign buyer going bankrupt or losing his capacity to pay are
aggravated due to the political and economic uncertainties.
Export credit insurance is designed to protect exporters from the consequences of the payment
risks, both political and commercial, and to enable them to expand their overseas business without
fear of loss.
58
Justification and Learning: Wholly owned by Government of India, it was set up in
7 93
1957 with the
8
3 2of8 Commerce
objective of promoting exports from the country by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related
- 8
services for exports. It functions under the administrative control of Ministry &
Industry
.c om
l
ai to improve the competitiveness of
ECGC is essentially an export promotion organization, seeking
g m
the Indian exporters by providing them with credit insurance covers.
@
a l90
ag
How does ECGC help exporters?
i pb
ECGC Offers insurance protection to
d ilexporters against payment risks.
L -
G A
BA in export-related activities.
Provides guidance
M AR
K U available information on different countries with it’s own credit ratings.
Makes
P
I LI
D Makes it easy to obtain export finance from banks/financial institutions.
Assists exporters in recovering bad debts.
Provides information on credit-worthiness of overseas buyers.
Cabinet has approved the capital infusion of Rs.2000 crore for strengthening of Export Credit
Guarantee Corporation (ECGC).

https://www.ecgc.in/overview/
Total Marks : 200
74 Which of the following states in India are Left-Wing Extremisms (LWE) affected states?
1. Bihar
2. Karnataka
3. Rajasthan
4. Punjab
5. Uttar Pradesh

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
5 8
93
2
83
- Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Justification: Districts which span 10 States — Bihar, Jharkhand, Andhra
m
Odisha, Telangana, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
i l .coand Chhattisgarh — are described
a the ‘Red Corridor.’
as those affected by Left Wing Extremism (LWE) and constitute
m
@ g
l 9 0 Obligation Fund [USOF]” supported
The Union Cabinet has approved the “Universal Service
a locations identified by MHA in inhabited
scheme to provide mobile services at 4072 tower
g
b a
uncovered areas affected by Left Wing Extremism of 96 districts in 10 States for Phase-ll project.
i p
- dil
A L
B AG
MAR
K U
IP
D IL
This network would be used by the security personnel deployed in LWE affected areas.
Total Marks : 200
Project will also provide the mobile services to help the residents in unconnected inhabited villages
which would improve the economic activities in the region.
It will give impetus to the e-Governance activities in the backward and LWE affected area with the
availability of digital mobile connectivity.
The considerations on which the government has examined the districts with LWE features are:
Their violence profile.
An assessment of the kind of logistical and other support provided to armed Maoist cadres by
their sympathisers and over ground workers.
58 have
The kind of positive changes brought about by development work that these districts
3
seen. 79
2 88
8 3
-
m
i l .co
ma
75 Consider the following statements. g
0@ immediately following the 1909 Morley Minto
1. Women in India were allowed to vote for the first9time
l
Act.
a ga
2. Universal adult suffrage for Indian Women
l i pb was allowed right from the first general elections after
the independence of India in 1947.
- di
A L
Which of the above is/areGcorrect?
A. 1 only B A
B. 2 only A
R
C. BothU
M
1 and 2
K
PNone
D.
L I
DI
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The India suffragist movement in India began in earnest in 1917 with the founding of
the Women’s India Association by Mrs. Dorothy Jinarajadasa, Margaret Cousins, and Annie Besant.
Statement 1: In 1919 in the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, the British set up provincial legislatures
which had the power to grant women's suffrage. Madras in 1921 granted votes to wealthy and
educated women, under the same terms that applied to men. The other provinces followed, but not
the princely states (which did not have votes for men either, being monarchies).
Whereas wealthy and educated women in Madras were granted voting right in 1921, in Punjab the
Sikhs granted women equal voting rights in 1925 irrespective of their educational qualifications or
Total Marks : 200
being wealthy or poor. This happened when the Gurdwara Act of 1925 was approved.
Statement 2: There was universal suffrage, but not universal adult suffrage because the voting age
in India was lowered to 18 (adult) from 21 only in 1988.
Women in India were allowed to vote right from the first general elections after the independence of
India in 1947 unlike during the British rule who resisted allowing women to vote.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 26: Chapter 2: IXth NCERT: History
76 Consider the following statements about some of the major constitutional amendments.
1. The 38th and 39th Amendment Acts were made in the background of the internal emergency in
India.
2. The 42nd Amendment Act restricted the powers of Judicial Review.
3. The 52nd Amendment Act introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Constitution. 8
3 5
79
2 88
A. 1 and 2 only 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 -8
om
il.c
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only a
@ gm
Your Answer :
a l90
Correct Answer : B
bag
li p
Answer Justification : d i
A L-
Justification: StatementG1: The 38th Amendment Act, 1975, made the declaration of "The
Emergency" final and
A
Bconclusive. In particular it codified and enlarged the State's power to remove
A R
fundamental rights from its citizens during states of emergency.
U M
K
Pth Amendment Act, enacted in 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice
TheI39
IL
DPresident, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian
courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975-1977.
Statement 2: The 42nd Amendment is regarded as the most controversial constitutional amendment
in Indian history. It attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to
pronounce upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid down the Fundamental Duties of Indian
citizens to the nation. This amendment brought about the most widespread changes to the
Constitution in its history, and is sometimes called a "mini-Constitution" or the "Constitution of
Indira.
Almost all parts of the Constitution, including the Preamble and amending clause, were changed by
the 42nd Amendment, and some new articles and sections were inserted.
Statement 3: The 52nd amendment to the Constitution added the Tenth Schedule which laid down
the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection. A member of
parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from
Total Marks : 200
his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
77 The boundary commission headed by Radcliff demarcated
A. Provincial areas of Bihar and Assam post Bengal Partition 1905

B. Boundaries between the two Dominions of India and Pakistan
C. Burmese Enclaves in the north-eastern frontier of India
D. North-west frontier of India post-Soviet invasion
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification : 5 8
7 93
8
Learning: The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August 1947 as a boundary8demarcation line
3 2
between India and Pakistan. 8 -
m
Pakistan included the provinces of West Punjab, Sind, Baluchistan,
i l .co East Bengal, North-Western
Frontier Province and the district of Sylhet in Assam.
m a
@ g
The help of a referendum was taken to establish 9 0
the total geographical area of Pakistan. The
g al and Sylhet was in favour of Pakistan.
referendum in the North-Western Frontier Province
i pba
Q Source: Chapter 2: Indian Polity:ilM Laxmikanth
L -d
78 Behdienkhlam is a majorA
GA
festival of the people in the Hills of
B
A R
U
A. JaintiaM
K
B. PMizo
I
LC. Khaso
DI D. Garo
Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Behdienkhlam is one of the most colourful festivals of Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya.
It is celebrated to invoke the gods for a bumper harvest and drive away plague.
It is the ritualistic expression of the relentless struggle of mankind to overcome the destructive
forces of nature, including diseases, since the dawn of civilization.
During the festival, decorated and colourful raths are immersed in ‘Wah Ainar,’ a muddy pool.
Total Marks : 200
The non-Christian ‘Pnar’ people who believe either in the traditional faith of ‘Niamtre’ or Hinduism
observe this festival.

1. There are many articles in the Constitution, which mention that these articles can be amended by a
simple law of the Parliament.
2. The President cannot disagree with a constitution amendment bill as passed by the Parliament; he
can only send it back once for reconsideration.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 5 8
93
87
D. None
2 8
3
Your Answer :
-8
Correct Answer : A
om
a il.c
gm
@
90 below, the wording ‘by law’ indicates that
Justification: Statement 1: In both the articleslgiven
a
ag without recourse to the procedure laid down in
these articles can be modified by the Parliament
b
Article 368. i p
- dil
Article 2: Parliament may by Llaw admit into the union …..new states….
A
Article 3: ParliamentB
AG
may by law… b) increase the area of any state….
M AR
Many other
K Uarticles of the Constitution can be modified by the Parliament in this simple manner.
P
I LI th
Dconsent to 2:
Statement He cannot send the bill back for reconsideration. The 24 CA Act bound him to
any such CA bill.
80 Polavaram Project is a multi-purpose irrigation project which has been accorded national project
status by the central government. It is being built across which of the following rivers?
A. Krishna
B. Godavari
C. Cauvery
D. Mahanadi
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Learning: This dam across the Godavari River is under construction located in West Godavari
District and East Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh state and its reservoir spreads in parts of
Chhattisgarh and Orissa States also.
The project is multipurpose major terminal reservoir project on river Godavari for development of
Irrigation, Hydropower and drinking water facilities to East Godavari, Vishakhapatnam, West
Godavari and Krishna districts of Andhra Pradesh.
The project is likely to displace over 1.88 lakh people across 222 villages and so far, 1,730 persons
in six villages have been rehabilitated by the government.
8
81 Consider the following statement.
9 35
87havens" in the
1. The OECD has maintained a 'blacklist' of countries it considers "uncooperative tax
8
32
drive for transparency of tax affairs and the effective exchange of information.
8
2. The OECD blacklist is issued by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). -
om
Which of the above is/are correct? a il.c
A. 1 only
@ gm
l90
B. 2 only
a
ag
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None pb
d ili
Your Answer : L-
Correct Answer : C
A GA
B
A
R
K UM
LIP
Justification: The FATF blacklist was the common shorthand description for the Financial Action
D I Force list of "Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories" (NCCTs).
Task
The FATF blacklist or OECD blacklist has been issued by the Financial Action Task Force since 2000
and lists countries which it judges to be non-cooperative in the global fight against money
laundering and terrorist financing, calling them "Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories"
(NCCTs).
Although non-appearance on the blacklist was perceived to be a mark of approbation for offshore
financial centres (or "tax havens") who are sufficiently well regulated to meet all of the FATF's
criteria, in practice the list included countries that did not operate as offshore financial centres
Although its main focus is on tax crime, the OECD is also concerned with money laundering and has
complemented the work carried out by the FATF.
Recently, in a blow to Pakistan, the Financial Action Task Force has placed it on the ‘grey list’ for
failing to curb anti-terror financing. The decision was taken at the global financial watchdog
Financial Action Task Force’s (FATF) plenary session held recently in Paris.
Total Marks : 200

82 United Nations Military Observer Group in India and Pakistan (UNMOGIP) mainly
A. Monitors the ceasefire in the disputed Jammu and Kashmir

B. Enforces the Karachi Agreement between India and Pakistan
C. Submits analytical reports on the Aksai Chin region
D. Looks after the refugees and illegal immigrants from both sides of the border
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
3 58
Learning: UNMOGIP, one of the oldest UN mission, was deployed in January 1949
8 79to supervise the
ceasefire between India and Pakistan in the State of Jammu and Kashmir. 28
- 83
omthereon to the Secretary-
The tasks of UNMOGIP have been to observe, to the extent possible, developments pertaining to the
c
strict observance of the ceasefire of 17 December 1971 and tol.report
General.
m ai
@ g
The group, based in Rawalpindi, is composed of 9 0
l43 military observers and 23 international civilian
a
personnel.
b ag
p
i has adopted a non-recognition policy towards third
Since the Simla Agreement of 1972, d ilIndia
L - with Pakistan over the question regarding the state of Jammu
parties in their bilateral exchanges
and Kashmir.
A GA
B
A R of Pakistan have continued to lodge alleged ceasefire violations complaints
The military authorities
U
with UNMOGIP.M
I PK
QL
DI
Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/07/03/insights-daily-current-affairs-03-july-2018/
83 With reference to the Decennial Census exercises in India, consider the following statements.
1. The first Census of India was conducted in 1901.
2. Census exercises are backed by a law of the Parliament.
3. It is conducted under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Justification: The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, As of 2011. While it has
been conducted every 10 years, beginning in 1872, the first complete census was taken in the year
1881.
Post 1949, it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under
the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
All the census since 1951 are conducted under 1948 Census of India Act.
According to an amended rule notified by the Registrar-General of India (RGI), the data collected
during the 2021 Census will be stored electronically, the first time since the decennial exercise was
conducted in 1951 in Independent India.
8
5
3
79
84 The first member of the Buddhist Monastic Sangha to gain Arhatship was 2 88
3
-8
A. Ananda om
B. Sariputta
a il.c
C. Kondanna
@ gm
l90
D. Mahakassapa
a
Your Answer : bag
li p
Correct Answer : C
d i
L-
A GA
B
Learning: The A R ascetics who received the Buddha’s first teaching after his enlightenment, and
five
M
U permission to "go forth" as ordained followers, became the first members of the
who requested
K
P Thus, the nucleus of the Buddhist monastic community was initially comprised of men who
Sangha.
LIalready
D I
had withdrawn from society and had been living for years as wandering mendicants.
After Kondanna was ordained, thus becoming the first member of the monastic Sangha, the Buddha
gave more extensive explanations of his teachings to the Other four ascetics, so that, one by one,
they attained the Dhamma-eye and were then ordained. Kondanna was also the first one to attain
arhatship.
Later the Buddha gave his second sermon, at which his disciples all attained the full experience of
Nirvana — as he himself had done at his awakening — so as to become Arhat.
Other disciples, monastic and lay, followed, so that soon there were sixty-one Arahats, including the
Buddha. Having such a body of awakened monk-disciples, the Buddha sent them out on a mission to
spread the Dhamma.
Q Source: Based on the questions on Sramana tradition asked in UPSC CSP 2017
Total Marks : 200
85 The only operational trade agreement linking China and India is
A. The Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA)

B. Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
C. Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
D. Extended South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA)
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : A
Learning: APTA, previously named the Bangkok Agreement, was signed in 1975 as an initiative of
ESCAP.
5 8
The six member countries are Bangladesh, China, India, Laos, Korea and Sri Lanka.
93
887
Being the oldest preferential trade agreement among developing countries in2Asia-Pacific, APTA
3
aims to promote economic development through the adoption of mutually - 8beneficial trade
m
liberalization measures that will contribute to intra-regional tradeoexpansion and provides for
l .c
economic integration through coverage of merchandise goods,
m ai services, investment and trade
@g
facilitation.
l9 0
Significance of APTA: a
b ag
p
Open to all developing member d ilicountries, APTA is a truly region-wide trade agreement
L -
GA
spanning East and South Asia, with potential to expand to other sub-regions, including
Central Asia andA the Pacific.
B
A R
APTA U M
is the first plurilateral agreement among the developing countries in the region to adopt
K operational procedures for certification and verification of the origin of goods and it
Pcommon
L I
DI has the longest effective implementation period amongst the trade agreements in the entire
Asia-Pacific.
Notably, APTA is the only operational trade agreement linking China and India, two of the
fastest growing markets in the world, and other major markets such as the Republic of Korea.
86 The Constitution of India declares it as “fundamental in the governance of the country”
A. Judicial review
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Universal Adult Franchise
D. Directive Principles of State Policy
Total Marks : 200
Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D
Learning: The directive principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic
democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.
However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they
are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these
principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to
apply these principles in making laws’.
Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real
force (sanction) behind them is political, that is, public opinion.
58
93 is founded
In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution
7
88 Principles’.
on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
2
3
Q Source: Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth -8
.c om
i l
aWarning
g m
87 With reference to the Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early System for Africa and Asia
(RIMES), consider the following statements.
l 9 0@
a of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.
1. The idea of RIMES was conceived in the aftermath
g
2. RIMES helps members in hazard monitoring,
i pba forecasting and application of tailored risk information
in decision-making. il
dearly
L -
3. RIMES operates from its regional warning center located in Mumbai.
A GA
B using the codes below.
Select the correct answer
A
A. 1 and 2 only R
B. 1 and U M
3 only
C. P1,K2 and 3
I LD.I 1 and 3 only
D
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It is an international and intergovernmental institution, owned and managed by its

Member States, for the generation and application of early warning information.
RIMES evolved from the efforts of countries in Africa and Asia, in the aftermath of the 2004 Indian
Ocean tsunami, to establish a regional early warning system within a multi-hazard framework for
the generation and communication of early warning information, and capacity building for
preparedness and response to trans-boundary hazards.
RIMES was established on 30 April 2009, and was registered with the United Nations on 1 July
Total Marks : 200
2009.
RIMES operates from its regional early warning center located at the campus of the Asian Institute
of Technology in Pathumthani, Thailand.
RIMES caters to differential needs and demands of its Member States by enhancing capacities for
end-to-end multi-hazard early warning, in particular:
Hazard monitoring, detection, analysis, prediction, and forecasting
Risk assessment
Potential impact analysis

5 8
93
Generation of tailored risk information at different time scales 887
3 2
-8
om
il.c
Risk communication
a
gm
0@
Application of tailored risk information in decision-making.
l9
a
bag
li p
i
-d
L
A
AG
B accepted which of these important demands of the Indian freedom
88 The ‘August Offer’ of 1940
AR
movement leadership?
M
K U
A. PRejection of the idea of partition of India
I LB.I Establishing a system of provincial elections and giving them greater autonomy
D
C. Constituent Assembly of India elected on the basis of adult franchise
D. Withdrawal of involvement of Indian troops in the Second World War
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the
first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical
democratism.
In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent
Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
Total Marks : 200
In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be
framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult
franchise’.
The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the
‘August Offer’ of 1940.
89 The Cabinet Mission included which of these as members?

1. MK Gandhi
2. Mountbatten
3. Stafford Cripps

A. 2 only 93
B. 1 and 3 only 887
3 2
-8
C. 3 only
om
D. None of the above
Your Answer : a il.c

Correct Answer : C @ gm
a l90
bag
li p
Justification: The Cabinet Mission
- diwas sent to India to negotiate the constitutional position of
India and the future of BritishLempire in India.
A GA
It consisted of three B
members - Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A V Alexander. The
A R
Cabinet Mission published its plan on 1946.
U M
It was
K that there was no Indian member in the Mission.
Pnotable
L I
DIWe will be covering more questions on this as it is an important topic.

1. Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) is a not for profit industry body registered under
the Societies Act.
2. The Payments Council of India was formed under the aegis of IAMAI in 2001.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Total Marks : 200
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The Payments Council of India was formed under the aegis of IAMAI in the year 2013
catering to the needs of the digital payment industry.
The Council was formed inter-alia for the purposes of representing the various regulated non-
banking payment industry players, to address and help resolve various industry level issues and
barriers which require discussion and action.
The council works with all its members to promote payments industry growth and to support our
national goal of ‘Cash to Less Cash Society’ and ‘Growth of Financial Inclusion’ which is also the
Vision Shared by the RBI and Government of India.
58
93 and any
PCI works closely with the regulators i.e. Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Finance Ministry
7
88society’.
similar government, departments, bodies or Institution to make ‘India a less cash
8 32
- but in the last 10 years
Learning: IMMAI was established in 2004 by the leading online publishers,
m
i l . o online industry including
has come to effectively address the challenges facing the digitalcand
ma
mobile content and services, online publishing, mobile advertising, online advertising, ecommerce
@g
and mobile & digital payments among others.
0
l9 the online and mobile VAS industry in India.
a
ag
It is the only professional industry body representing
pb
d ili
91 The Fundamental Rights promote-the idea of political democracy as
A
1. They limit the authority of the
LCentral government.
G
BA rights to the citizens of India.
2. They secure vital political
M AR
Which of theU above is/are correct?
A. P1 K
only
I LB.I 2 only
D C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : C
Justification: They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the
legislature. They are justiciable in nature, that is, they are enforceable by the courts for their
violation.
Statement 2: Rights such as equality to contest for political office, right against discrimination etc
show the political and social equality of citizens.
Total Marks : 200
Learning: The aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court which can issue the writs of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto for the restoration of his rights.
However, the Fundamental Rights are not absolute and subject to reasonable restrictions. Further,
they are not sacrosanct and can be curtailed or repealed by the Parliament through a constitutional
amendment act. They can also be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except
the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
92 Global Findex Report is released by
A. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

B. World Bank
C. International Monetary Fund 5 8
93
87
D. World Economic Forum
2 8
3
Your Answer : C
-8
om
Correct Answer : B
a il.c
gm
@
l90 most comprehensive data set on how adults
Learning: The Global Findex database is the world’s
a
save, borrow, make payments, and manage
b agrisk. Launched with funding from the Bill & Melinda
ip published every three years since 2011.
Gates Foundation, the database has been
- dil
A L
The data are collected in partnership with Gallup, Inc., through nationally representative surveys of
more than 150,000 adults
A Gin over 140 economies. The 2017 edition includes updated indicators on
access to and use of B
formal and informal financial services. And it adds new data on the use of
A R
financial technology (fintech), including the use of mobile phones and the internet to conduct
UM
financialKtransactions.
P
I LI inclusion is on the rise globally. The 2017 Global Findex database shows that 1.2 billion
DFinancial
adults have obtained an account since 2011, including 515 million since 2014. Between 2014 and
2017, the share of adults who have an account with a financial institution or through a mobile
money service rose globally from 62 percent to 69 percent.
In developing economies, the share rose from 54 percent to 63 percent. Yet, women in developing
economies remain 9 percentage points less likely than men to have a bank account. This third
edition of the database points to advances in digital technology that are key to achieving the World
Bank goal of Universal Financial Access by 2020.
Q Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/06/Yojana_June-2018.pdf
93 RIMPAC, or the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, is the world's largest international maritime warfare
exercise. Which of these countries participate in the exercise?
1. India
Total Marks : 200
2. China
3. Russia
4. Australia
5. USA

A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C
5 8
7 from
Justification: RIMPAC is held biennially during June and July of even-numbered8years
93
Honolulu, Hawaii. 2 8
3
-8
m headquartered at Pearl
It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy's Pacific Fleet,
o
c
il. beyond to participate.
Harbor. The US invites military forces from the Pacific Rim and
ma
With RIMPAC the United States Pacific Command seeks g
@ to enhance interoperability between Pacific
9 0
g al
Rim armed forces, ostensibly as a means of promoting stability in the region to the benefit of all
participating nations. a
l i pb
di training opportunity that helps participants foster and
Described by the US Navy as a unique
-
A L
sustain the cooperative relationships that are critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and
security on the world'sA G
oceans.
B
A R
U M
I PK
L
DI
Total Marks : 200
Q Source: Additional Research

http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/05/25/insights-daily-current-affairs-25-may-2018/
94 As you go through the constitution, you are likely to find specific provisions for the following in which
order?
1. Legislative Powers of the President
2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
3. High courts
3 58
4. Citizenship 9
887
3 2
-8
A. 4312
om
il.c
B. 1234
C. 4123 a
D. 1324 @ gm
a l90
Your Answer :
bag
Correct Answer : C
li p
d i
L-
GA
B A
Justification: If you remember some major articles of the Constitution, you can arrive at the
ARknow broadly which parts of the Constitution deal with which subjects, you can
answer. Or if you
M
U correct answer.
arrive atKthe
IP
IL following shows the right order.
DThe
Total Marks : 200
5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
d i
A L-
Q Source: Chapter 3: A G Polity: M Laxmikanth
Indian
B
A R
U
95 Which of theseMare constitutional provisions?
K
IP of prime minister to furnish required information to the president
1. Duties
IL of president to consult Supreme Court
2.DPower
3. Special provisions with respect to Delhi

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It is dealt by A78.
Total Marks : 200
Duties of Prime Minister as respects the furnishing of information to the President, etc It shall be
the duty of the Prime Minister
1. to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the
administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;
2. to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and
proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and
3. if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any
matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered
by the Council
5 8
Statement 2: A143: Power of President to consult Supreme Court: If at any time it7appears to the 93
8
President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which2is8of such a nature and
3
of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the - 8Supreme Court upon it, he
may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court
o mmay, after such hearing as it
thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon il. c
ma
@
Statement 3: Under article 239 AA the legislative assembly g
of National Capital Territory of Delhi
l 9 0
has legislative and executive powers with the exceptions of land, police etc. v
a ga
i
Also, certain categories of Bills require b prior approval of the Central Government for
pthe
l
di Some Bills, passed by the legislative assembly of the Union
introduction in the legislative assembly.
L -
A
Territory of Puducherry and National Capital Territory of Delhi are required to be reserved for
Gof the President.
BA
consideration and assent
Q Source: Chapter
M AR 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth
K U
P
I
96 WhichLIof the following words are attached to the term “Republic” in the Preamble?
D
1. Sovereign
2. Parliamentary
3. Secular
4. Federal

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B
Total Marks : 200
Justification: “We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”
5 8
93
887
3 2
1. Storage Area Network (SAN) is a high-speed special-purpose network that interconnects different
-8
data storage devices with associated servers and other computing devices.
.c om high availability Storage

2. National Informatics Centre (NIC) offers access to a high performance,
l
i public and private sector
Area Network (SAN) to servers located in its Data Centre to both
a
organizations. m g
@
l90
ga
a
pb
A. 1 only
l i
di
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 -
D. None AL G
BA
Your Answer : AR
UM : A
Correct Answer
I PK
L Justification :
DI
Answer
Justification: NIC is providing web hosting services to the various Indian Government Ministries /
Departments / Organisations / Institutions as well as State Government Departments and District
Administrations. This is not extended to private organizations.
It hosts over 4000 Websites / Portals of various Central Government Ministries, departments, State
Governments, UTs as well as Government Organizations & Institutions
A web hosting service is where a server is shared by multiple web hosting customers. Shared
hosting is an inexpensive solution for smaller Web sites, and Web sites that don't require complex
custom applications.
NIC Data Centres offers the Service of Virtual Server / Machine to its user and any Government
Department / Organization. These Virtual Machine can be used for Website, Database and web
application hosting etc.
Total Marks : 200

NIC Website
98 Special provisions (under Part XXI) of the Constitution are applicable to the States of
1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Jharkhand
4. Chattisgarh
5. Andhra Pradesh

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only 5 8
93
87
C. 1, 2 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2 8
3
-8
Your Answer :
om
Correct Answer : C
a il.c
gm
l 9 0@
a ga pertaining to the states are applicable to all the
Justification: The provisions of the Constitution
states (except Jammu and Kashmir) inip b same manner.
the
di l
-
L (under Part XXI) applicable to the States of Maharashtra, Gujarat,
However, the special provisions
A
AG Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunanchal Pradesh and Goa
Nagaland, Assam, Manipur,
override the generalB
AR
provisions relating to the states as a class.
StatementU
M th
K 2 and 3: But, the provisions for Jharkhand and Chattisgarh are found only in the 5
IP (tribal areas). Further, the Sixth Schedules contain separate provisions with respect to the
Schedule
L
I
Dadministration of scheduled areas and tribal areas within the NE states.

1. Feminism is a political doctrine of equal rights for women and men.
2. Feminists believe that inequality between men and women in society is due to their biological
differences.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Total Marks : 200
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: According to feminists, inequality between men and women in society is the result of
patriarchy. This term refers to a social, economic and cultural system that values men more than
women and gives men power over women.
Patriarchy is based on the assumption that men and women are different by nature and that this
difference justifies their unequal positions in society.
Feminists questions this way of thinking by making a distinction between “sex” i.e. biological
difference between men and women, and “gender” which determines the different roles that men
and women play in society.
58
93 men and
Feminism is a political doctrine of equal rights for women and men. Feminists are those
7
women who believe that many of the inequalities we see in society between men
2 88and women are
3 can lead free and
neither natural nor necessary and can be altered so that both women and8men
equal lives. -
.c om
l
ai pregnant and bear children does not
For instance, the biological fact that only women can become
m
g they are born. Feminists show us that
require that only women should look after children after
@
much of the inequality between men and women9is0produced by society and not by nature.
g al
Q Source: Page 42: Chapter 3: 11th NCERT:
i pba Political Theory
- dil
L on Transparency and Exchange of Information for Tax
100 With reference to the GlobalAForum
Purposes, consider the A G
B following statements.
1. The forum works R
M A under the auspices of the OECD and G20.
2. Members must commit to at least implement the Automatic Exchange of Information (AEOI)
U
standardKfor tax purposes.
P
I LI
DWhich of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It was founded in 2000 and restructured in September 2009, consists of OECD
countries and other jurisdictions that agreed to implement tax related transparency and information
exchange.
Total Marks : 200
It addresses tax evasion, tax havens, offshore financial centres, tax information exchange
agreements, double taxation and money laundering. The forum works under the auspices of the
OECD and G20. In 2000 it published a blacklist of 35 tax havens, which by 2009 had shrunk to zero.
It has since focused on increasing the standard for information exchange. As of January 2018, the
Forum had 147 member tax jurisdictions and the European Union.
Statement 2: The Forum promotes the implementation of two internationally agreed standards on
exchange of information for tax purposes. Members must commit to at least implement the
Exchange of Information on Request (EOIR) standard, the lowest common denominator for
information exchange, which is a weaker standard than Automatic Exchange of Information
(AEOI) standard. We will cover these standards in detail later.

5 8
93
887
3 2
-8
om
a il.c
@ gm
a l90
bag
li p
d i
L-
A GA
B
MAR
K U
IP
D IL

Mock Test 1: Total Marks: 200 Mark Scored: 8

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mock Test 1: Total Marks: 200 Mark Scored: 8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Total Marks : 200

Mock Test 1 Mark Scored : 8

1 "Arctic greening" is attributed to which of the following reasons?

A. More regular commercial ship sailing

I P K Based on the theme of carbon fertilization asked in UPSC CSP 2017

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Statement 1: It was the regulating Act of 1773.

Which of the above is/are correct?

to Europe, Africa, and the Middle East.

In addition to vulnerabilities faced in the Straits of Malacca region, China is heavily

CPEC is considered central to China–Pakistan relations; its central importance is reflected by

4 With reference to Zoonosis, consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Zoonoses may be bacterial, viral, or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents.

Learning: Pacifism preaches opposition to war or violence as a means of settling disputes.

Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT Political Theory

6 Avadi session of Indian National Congress was famously known for

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

4. Sacrificing oneself for a larger cause is Swaraj.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A potential China-India-Pakistan tripoint at Karakoram Pass is referenced in a 1963 boundary treaty

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

answer many of Earth’s energy problems.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Statement 2: Lord canning’s tenure is responsible for this introduction.

It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making

13 Consider this statement.

Q Source: Additional Research on Act of 1919: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

14 The Tashkent Agreement contained the provisions of:

Which of the above is/are correct?

I LD.I Mediterranean Sea

Q Source: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

17 Consider the following statements.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Chapter 9: 11th NCERT: Constitution at Work

The socialist-based economy incorporates elements of centralized economic planning, utilized to

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 28: Chapter 2: IXth NCERT: History

20 A Constitution usually does NOT serve this function:

A. Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: It is a Schedule ‘C’ Miniratna Category II Central Public Sector Enterprises,

.c oinmNepal in the 1980s. In 2002,

Q Source: Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

24 With reference to MSMEs in India, consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below. 5 8

Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is aimed at generating self-

Q Source: Additional Research

Similarly Articles 27-30 also uphold values of secularism.

Q Source: Chapter 3: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

i l co less than half of the urban

Q Source: Page 18: Chapter 2: 11th NCERT Political Theory

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q Source: Page 39: Chapter 3: 11th NCERT: Political Theory

Which of the above is/are correct?

ipbbound by the views of the state legislature and may either

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of

These provisions include:

Privileges and Parliament: Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of

Use of official language.

Citizenship—acquisition and termination.