1001 9 Ftre

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018
for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 1
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 9000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
FTRE-2018-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+S&M-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 1 to 4): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the pattern and replace the question mark in the
given series.
1. 5, 10, 17, 26, ?, 50

(A) 34 (B) 31
(C) 37 (D) 41
2. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?, 112

(A) 56 (B) 46
(C) 58 (D) 48
3. abd, efh, ijl, ?, qrt, uvx

(A) mno (B) mop
(C) mnp (D) lmo
4. K, M, P, T, ?
(A) X (B) V
(C) Y (D) Z
5. In a code language, CHILD is coded as DLIHC. How will PARENT be coded in that language?
(A) TENRAP (B) TNERAP
(C) TNERPA (D) TNEPAR
Space for Rough Work
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
6. The following question consists of five letters each carrying a different numerical value of single digit.
Find the replacement value from the alternatives such that the multiplication equation between them
is satisfied. No alphabet has zero as its value.
SEAM
T
MEATS
(A) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 4, S = 8 (B) M = 3, E = 9, A = 7, T = 8, S = 4
(C) M = 4, E = 3, A = 9, T = 7, S = 8 (D) M = 4, E = 9, A = 3, T = 7, S = 8
7. In a certain code language ‘P E R I L O U S’ is written as ‘R G T K N Q W U’, then how will ‘A
P T I T U D E’ be written as in that language?
(A) C R K V V W G F (B) C R V K V F G W
(C) C R V K V W F G (D) C R V K W V F G
8. What value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given question by applying the
BODMAS rule?
7072  (16% of 884) = ?
(A) 50 (B) 60
(C) 55 (D) 65
9. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting 14th from the left and Q is 7th from the right. If there are 4
boys between P and Q, how many maximum number of boys are there in the row?
(A) 25 (B) 23
(C) 21 (D) 19
10. Malay is 14th from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the left end?
(A) 24th (B) 26th
th
(C) 27 (D) 28th
Directions (Q. 11 to 12): Answer the following questions referring to the symbols letter, number, sequence
given below:
3P5TW%6#H K2&LA4%F0@MN$X98DV7?Q<1
11. How many alphabets are immediately preceded as well as followed by a symbol?
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) None of these
12. How many digits (numbers) are immediately preceded as well as followed by a symbol?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
Directions (Q. 13 to 14): In the given number matrix, find out the number that will come in the place of
question mark(?).
13. 4 1 15
9 2 77
4 3 ?
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 1 (D) 11
14.
13 5 14 9 18 4
66 29 ?
21 3 11 5 21 4
(A) 13 (B) 12
(C) 11 (D) None of these
15. In a group, there are six people A, B, C, D, E and F of different age. Out of them only A is younger to
D. Only three are younger to C. F is younger to E but F is not the youngest. B is younger to F. Who is
the oldest?
(A) B (B) A
(C) E (D) C
16. Which symbol will replace the question mark (?) if the figure given below has to maintain the
balance?
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. Ankita was born on 5 August 1992. If in that year the Independence day was on Thursday then on
which day Ankita was born?
(A) Saturday (B) Monday
(C) Thursday (D) Friday
18. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing the centre. All neighbours are at an equal
distance from their neighbour. Each person is seated exactly opposite to one person. D is neither
next to nor opposite to C. A and F are sitting opposite to each other. B is sitting opposite to C. Who is
sitting opposite to D?
(A) E (B) A
(C) B (D) C
Directions (Q. 19 to 20): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P is father of Q but Q is not the son of P. R is the brother of Q. S is the daughter of R. T is the daughter of Q.
U is the spouse of P. V is the spouse of R. W is the father of V.
19. Who is the grandmother of S?

(A) Q (B) V
(C) U (D) P
20. How is R related to W?

(A) Son (B) Father
(C) Son-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
21. A boy bought oranges at the rate of 11 for Rs. 10 and sold at 10 for Rs. 11. What is his gain or loss
percent?
(A) 20% (B) 21%
(C) 19% (D) 22%
22. Two players X and O play a game of “noughts and crosses” on a 3 × 3 grid. The O
purpose of the game is for a player to get 3 symbols belonging to the player in a
straight line (vertically, horizontally or diagonally). Each player marks one symbol
on his or her turn. After two moves (1 turn each), the grid looks as follows with X
to play next. Where should X put his symbol next so that he will always win this ×
game finally regardless of how well O plays?
(A) Bottom row right corner
(B) Bottom row middle cell
(C) Middle row left most cell
(D) It is not possible to always ensure X wins if O plays carefully
23. What will be the mirror image of the given question figure if ‘MN’ denotes the position of mirror?
M N
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
24. What will be the mirror image of the given question figure if ‘MN’ denotes the position of mirror?
M
(X) N (A) (B) (C) (D)
25. Point T is to the North of B, who is to the West of Q. B is to the North-East of L, who is to the South of
D, who is to the West of B, such that D, B and Q are in a straight line. D is in which direction with
respect to T?
(A) South (B) North-West
(C) South-West (D) South-East
Directions (Q. 26 to 27): In the diagram given below rectangle represents married people, circle represents
people who live in joint family and triangle represents school teacher.
Joint Family U
School Teacher
R
T S Q
P Married People
26. By which letter, the married people, who live in joint family but are not school teachers, are
represented?
(A) R (B) U
(C) S (D) P
27. By which letter, the married teachers who live in joint family are represented?
(A) R (B) Q
(C) S (D) P
Directions (Q. 28 to 30): Answer these questions on the basis of information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around the circular table with equal distance between them, facing the
centre but not necessary in same order. A sits second to the right of G. Only two persons are sitting between
A and H. C sits second to the left of H. Only three persons sit between H and F. B sits to the immediate left of
D. F is sitting between A and G.
28. Who among the following sits second to the right of F?

(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) G
29. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from A, the
position of how many, excluding A would remain unchanged?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
30. Who among the following represent the immediate neighbour of G?

(A) E, D (B) H, C
(C) H, D (D) D, F
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 40 m completes half a revolution in 40 sec. Its average
velocity in this half revolution is
(A) zero (B) 4 m/sec
(C) 2 m/sec (D) 8 m/sec
32. A resultant horizontal force of 50 N acts on a body of mass 5 kg placed on a smooth horizontal
surface. What is the net acceleration of the body due to this force?
(A) 10 m/sec2 (B) 20 m/sec2
2
(C) 30 m/sec (D) 40 m/sec2
33. According to kepler’s law, orbit of a planet around a star is

(A) Circular (B) Elliptical
(C) Parabolic (D) Straight line
34. A body of mass 2 kg moving with the speed of 20 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the body is :–
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J
(C) 400 J (D) 300 J
35. A body starts moving at t = 0 second from rest with an acceleration of 3 m/sec2 on a horizontal
smooth surface. What is the speed of the body at time t = 5 second?
(A) 15 m/sec (B) 20 m/sec
(C) 30 m/sec (D) 40 m/sec
36. A body of mass 2 kg moving with the constant velocity of 12 m/sec. The magnitude of the momentum
of the body associated with its motion is :–
(A) 42 kg.m/sec (B) 24 kg.m/sec
(C) 12 kg.m/sec (D) 10 kg.m/sec
37. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

(A) Winds (B) Gravity of earth
(C) Clouds (D) None of the above
38. The unit of energy is :–

(A) Joule (B) Second
(C) Watt (D) kg.m/sec
39. A certain body is dropped from a height of 20 meter on the ground. What is the distance travelled by
the body in first second of its motion?  Take g  10 m / s2 
(A) 20 meter (B) 10 meter
(C) 2 meter (D) 5 meter
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. Generally, liquids have:

(A) A definite shape and a definite volume
(B) A definite shape but no definite volume
(C) A definite volume but no definite shape
(D) Neither a definite shape nor a definite volume
41. Brass majorly contains ________________ & _________________ .

(A) Fe, Zn (B) Cu, Zn
(C) Cu, Ag (D) Cu, Ni
42. CaCO3  CaO + CO2

‘x’ gm of CaCO3 was heated and the mass of the solid residue obtained was 28 g. What is the
value of ‘x’?
(A) 44 (B) 100
(C) 200 (D) 50
43. The atomic number of an element is equal to:

(A) Number of protons in the nucleus
(B) Number of neutrons in the nucleus
(C) Number of electrons in the nucleus
(D) Sum of the number of protons & neutrons in the nucleus
44. 50 mL of a gas A diffuses through a porous plug in the same time as required for diffusion of 40 mL of
a gas B under identical conditions of temperature & pressure. If the molecular mass of gas A is 64,
the molecular mass of gas B would be:
(A) 10 (B) 250
(C) 80 (D) 100
45. The chemical formula of ferric sulphate is:

(A) Fe(SO4)2 (B) Fe2(SO4)3
(C) Fe(SO4)3 (D) Fe3SO4
46. A compound has the empirical formula C2H4O. If its molecular mass is 132 u, what is its molecular
formula?
(A) C4H8O2 (B) CH2O
(C) C6H12O3 (D) C6H8O2
47. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the nth shell of an atom is
equal to:
(A) 2n2 (B) n2
(C) n/2 (D) n
48. Identify a chemical change out of the following:

(A) Liquefaction of air (B) Condensation of steam
(C) Rusting of iron (D) Sublimation of camphor
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
3 2
49. If 6  2.449 , then value of is close to
2 3
(A) 1.225 (B) 0.204
(C) 0.408 (D) 3.675
1 1 1 1 1
50. The value of     .......  is
1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 n 1  n
n 1
(A) n 1 (B)
n
(C) n 1 (D) 2
a2 1 1 a 3
51. Find the square root of  2   .
4 a a 2 4
a 1 1 a 2
(A)   (B)  1
2 a 2 2 a
a 1 1 a 2 1
(C)   (D)  
2 a 2 2 a 2
52. If the number of diagonals of a regular polygon is 27, then each of the interior angle of polygon is
(A) 165° (B) 140°
(C) 128° (D) 154°
53. In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. A and B are the mid- S B R
points of PQ and SR respectively. If PS = BR, then quadrilateral C D
ADBC is
(A) Rhombus (B) Trapezium P A Q
(C) Square (D) Rectangle
54. The area of square with one of its vertices is (5, –2) and mid-point of diagonal is (3, 2) is____
(sq. units)
(A) 40 (B) 20
(C) 60 (D) 70
55. In the figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. If X and Y are mid-points of S Y R

PQ and SR respectively and diagonal SQ is joined. The ratio of
ar(parallelogram XQRY) to ar(QSR) is Z
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 2 : 1
P X Q
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1
56. If x2 + x + 1 is a factor of polynomial 3x3 + 8x2 + 8x + 3 + 5k, then value of k is

2
(A) 0 (B)
5
5
(C) (D) –1
2
57. If the product of zeros of the polynomial f(x) = (m + 1)x2 + (2m + 3)x + (3m + 4) is 2, then the sum of
its zeros is
(A) –1 (B) 1
(C) –2 (D) None of these
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. Which one of the following species of honey bee is known as ‘Rock bee’?
(A) Apis dorsata (B) Apis florea
(C) Apis indica (D) Apis mellifera
59. Which of the following are Indian cattle?

(i) Bos indicus
(ii) Brown Swiss
(iii) Bos bubalis
(iv) Jersey
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
60. Poultry farming is under taken to raise following

(i) Egg production
(ii) Feather production
(iii) Chicken meat
(iv) Milk production
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)

(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
61. The control unit of cell is

(A) Nucleus (B) Cell wall
(C) Cytoplasm (D) All of these
62. The cell capable of changing shapes are:

(A) Amoeba cell (B) WBC
(C) Both of these (D) None of these
63. The cells of cork are dead and have a chemical in their walls that make them impervious to gases
and water. The chemical is
(A) Keratin (B) Suberin
(C) Cutin (D) Wax
64. Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in

(A) Xylem (B) Phloem
(C) Cork (D) Cambium
65. Which of the following is not congenital disease?

(A) Sickle cell anaemia (B) Albinism
(C) Haemophilia (D) Hepatitis
66. Dengue is transmitted by

(A) Female Aedes (B) Male Aedes
(C) Male Anopheles (D) Female Anopheles
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
67. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity of 20 m/sec from the ground at t = 0 second.
What is the velocity of the ball at t = 2 seconds?  Take g  10 m / s2  (Neglect air friction)
68. A body of mass 5 kg moving with the velocity of 8 m/sec hits another body of mass 15 kg placed at
rest as shown in figure. If after the collision both the bodies stick to each other and moves together.
What is the velocity with which the combined body moves?
8 m/sec
5 kg 15 kg
frictionless
69. The value of universal gravitational constant at a height from the earth surface which is equal to the
radius of the earth is :–  Take g  10 m / s2 
(A) 2.5 N.m2 / kg2 (B) 8 N.m2 / kg2
(C) 5 N.m 2 / kg2 (D) 6.67  1011 N.m2 / kg2
70. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. In scientific terms he does.
(A) Negative work (B) Positive but not maximum work
(C) No work at all (D) Maximum work
71. A body takes 20 seconds to travel a distance of 400 meter of the trip. What is its average speed for
the entire trip?
72. A block of mass 10 kg, hits a vertical wall perpendicularly with

the speed of 2 m/sec as shown in figure. After hitting, the
block rebounds with the same speed. The magnitude of 10 kg
change in momentum of the block due to collision with wall is 2 m/sec
(A) 30 kg m/sec
(B) 0 kg m/sec
(C) 40 kg m/sec
(D) None of these
73. The speed of a satellite orbiting around the earth in an orbital radius of “R” is v. What will be the
speed of another satellite orbiting around earth in a orbital radius of “4 R”.
v
(A) v (B)
2
v
(C) (D) 2 v
3
74. Find the work done in lifting a body slowly of mass 2 kg from the ground up to a height of 4 meter.
 Take g  10 m / s2 
(A) 10 J (B) 40 J
(C) 30 J (D) 80 J
75. Two bodies of equal masses are placed at a separation of 40 meter from each other. They start
moving towards each other with equal speed of 5 m/sec. Find the separation between the bodies at t
= 2 second from the start.
(A) 20 meter (B) 40 meter
(C) 30 meter (D) 5 meter
76. A body is placed at rest on a smooth 20 N v=?

horizontal surface. A force of 20 N starts
acting on it at t = 0 second. Mass of the body
is 10 kg. Find the speed of the body at t = 4
seconds. (Force is continuously acting for 4 t=0 t = 4 second
seconds). Smooth
(A) 6 m/sec Surface
(B) 5 m/sec
(C) 7 m/sec
(D) 8 m/sec
77. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between them
(A) Is doubled (B) Becomes four times
(C) Is reduced to half (D) Is reduced to a quarter
78. A ball of mass 4 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with the initial velocity of 40 m/sec.
Find the change in potential energy of the ball when it reaches maximum height.
(Neglect air friction)
(A) 1200 J (B) 3200 J
(C) 2900 J (D) 2000 J
79. The boiling point of alcohol is 78°C. What is this temperature on Kelvin scale?
(A) 373 K (B) 351 K
(C) 195 K (D) 78 K
80. Which of the following is NOT a compound of carbon?

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Diamond (D) Methane
81. The correct statement among the following is:

(A) A cation has more electrons than its neutral atom
(B) An anion has less electrons than its neutral atom
(C) Cation and anion of the same element contain equal number of electrons
(D) A cation has less electrons while an anion has more electrons than their respective neutral
atoms
82. An element ‘A’ has 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons. Another element ‘B’ has 12 protons, 12
electrons and 12 neutrons. The formula of the compound formed by these two elements shall be:
(A) A2B (B) AB2
(C) A3B2 (D) AB4
83. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to:

(A) 1 atm (B) 76 cm Hg
(C) 760 mm Hg (D) All are correct
84. The ratio of mass of nitrogen and mass of oxygen respectively in a molecule of nitric oxide is:
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 7 : 8 (D) 8 : 7
85. The most ductile metal out of the following is :

(A) Gold (B) Gallium
(C) Iron (D) Aluminium
86. Which of these radiations has the highest frequency?

(A) Radio waves (B) Infrared radiations
(C)  -rays (D) UV rays
87. How many grams of water at 100°C can be converted to steam at the same temperature using
2,26,000 J of energy (Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2260 J/g)?
(A) 10 g (B) 1000 g
(C) 50 g (D) 100 g
88. The dispersed phase in aerosols is :

(A) Solid (B) Liquid
(C) Gas (D) Both (A) and (B)
89. The mass of sulphuric acid present in grams in 100 ml of a 15% w/w solution of sulphuric acid in
water (density of solution = 1.10 g/ml) is :
(A) 15 (B) 16.5
(C) 11.1 (D) 33.3
90. The volume occupied by 4.4 g CO2 at STP is nearly:

(A) 2.24 L (B) 22.4 L
(C) 1.12 L (D) 11.2 L
 a 2a 
91. Distance between (at2, 2at) and  2 ,   is
t t 
2
 1  1
(A) a 2  t   (B) a  t  
 t  t
2
 1  1
(C) a t   (D) a  t  
 t  t
92. ABCD is parallelogram. The angle bisectors of A and D meet at O. What is the measure of
AOD?
(A) 90° (B) sum of A and D
A  D
(C) (D) 45°
2
93. An example of rational number between 5 and 15 is

5  15
(A) 3 (B)
2
5  15
(C) 6 (D)
2
94. Factorization of s(s – 1) – t(t – 1)

(A) (s – t)(s + t) (B) (s – t)(s + t – 1)
(C) (s – t)(s – t – 1) (D) (s – t)(s – t)
95. Find the area of parallelogram ABCD (AB = 4 cm, BC = 13 cm and DE D C

= 12 cm) and length of the altitude corresponding to side BC (approx)
(A) 67.2 cm2, 16.7 cm (B) 24 cm2, 12 cm
2 13 cm
(C) 48 cm , 3.7 cm (D) 48 cm2, 16 cm
A E B
4 cm
 1  1   1  1 
96. The value of  8888   8888     8888   8888   is
 4444  4444   4444  4444 
(A) 8888 (B) 4
(C) 4444 (D) 8
97. What is the mirror image of (9, 14) with respect to x-axis?
(A) (9, –14) (B) (–14, 9)
(C) (14, –9) (D) (–9, 14)
98. From a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle, perpendiculars are drawn on the three sides. If
length of perpendiculars are a, b and c, then area of triangle is
abc abc
(A) (B)
3 3
2
(a  b  c) (abc)2
(C) (D)
3 3
99. If  ADB is right angle, then find the value of angle x? C

(A) 83°
(B) 87° 26°
D
(C) 81°
(D) 74°
35° x°
A B
E
100. Which figure is obtained by plotting points A(2, 0), B(2, 2) and C(0, 2) and origin O(0, 0), then by
joining OA, AB, BC and CO.
(A) Square (B) Kite
(C) Trapezium (D) none of these
101. E is the mid-point of median AD of ABC and BE is produced to meet AC at F. Then

1
(A) AF  AC (B) AF = AC
3
1
(C) AF  AC (D) AC = 2AF
4
102. ABC is right angled at B. BD is a median drawn on side AC. Then which of the following relation is
true
(A) ADB = DCB + DBC (B) DCB = BDC
(C) A = C (D) none of these
103. Which is mismatched?

(A) Vitamin K – Beri-beri (B) Vitamin C – Scurvy
(C) Vitamin A – Xerophthalmia (D) Vitamin D – Rickets
104. HIV is retrovirus as its genetic information is contained in

(A) DNA (B) DNA instead of RNA
(C) RNA instead of DNA (D) Protein
105. ELISA – a diagnostic test, is helpful for the detection of which of the following?
(A) Leprosy (B) Cancer
(C) AIDS (D) Malaria
106. Norman Borlaug, the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ has developed a highly recognised and
appreciated cultivating variety of
(A) Wheat (B) Rice
(C) Onion (D) Sugarcane
107. An organism used as biofertilizer found in leguminous crop is

(A) Pseudomonas (B) Azotobacter
(C) Azospirillum (D) Rhizobium
108. ‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
(A) Bajra (B) Maize
(C) Rice (D) Wheat
109. ‘Omnis cellula e cellula’ is a generalisation given by………………

(A) Lamarck (B) Dutrochet
(C) Leeuwenhoek (D) Virchow
110. Foldings of inner mitochondrial membrane are called

(A) Grana (B) Thylakoids
(C) Cristae (D) Cell membrane
111. Which cell organelle connect nuclear envelope with cell’s membrane?
(A) Lysosome (B) Golgi body
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Mitochondria
112. Lymph differs from blood in possessing

(A) Only WBC (B) Only RBC
(C) More RBC and few WBC (D) More WBC and few RBC
113. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is

(A) Thrombocytes (B) Monocytes
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Lymphocytes
114. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of few
cells of the following. Which of the following cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?
(A) Liver cells (B) Neurons
(C) Osteocytes (D) Layer of skin
(FTRE – 2018)
CLASS - IX
ANSWERS
PAPER-1
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A
9. A 10. C 11. A 12. A
13. A 14. B 15. C 16. C
17. B 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. A 23. B 24. C
25. C 26. C 27. B 28. B
29. A 30. D 31. C 32. A
33. B 34. C 35. A 36. B
37. B 38. A 39. D 40. C
41. B 42. D 43. A 44. D
45. B 46. C 47. A 48. C
49. A 50. C 51. A 52. B
53. D 54. A 55. D 56. B
57. A 58. A 59. A 60. A
61. A 62. C 63. B 64. B
65. D 66. A 67. A 68. B
69. D 70. C 71. A 72. C
73. B 74. D 75. A 76. D
77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C
81. D 82. A 83. D 84. C
85. A 86 C 87. D 88. D
89. B 90. A 91. D 92. A
93. A 94. B 95. C 96. D
97. A 98. C 99. C 100. A
101. A 102. A 103. A 104. C
105. C 106. A 107. D 108. C
109. D 110. C 111. C 112. A
113. D 114. B
FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 2
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 9009
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

Minutes on Section-III and 50 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
1. A certain body has a kinetic energy k, if its momentum becomes five times keeping its mass same
then the new kinetic energy of the body is
(A) 2 k (B) 5 k
(C) 25 k (D) 10 k
2. 108 Newton is equivalent to

(A) 10 dyne (B) 10–1 dyne
(C) 102 dyne (D) 10–3 dyne
3. If a body starts accelerating from rest in a straight line path with an acceleration of 10 m/s2. Then the
velocity acquired by body at the end of 7 second is.
(A) 70 m/s (B) 20 m/s
(C) 7 m/s (D) 100 m/s
4. A block of 15 kg is kept on the frictionless horizontal 80 N

15 kg
surface as shown in figure. What is the value of normal
reaction force applied by the surface on the block, if a
horizontal force of 80 N acts on the block  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 80 N (B) 95 N
(C) 150 N (D) zero
5. Which pair among these will have same SI unit.

(A) Work done and force (B) Force and linear momentum
(C) Work done and heat produced (D) Potential energy and displacement
6. 108 erg is equivalent to

(A) 10 J (B) 10–1 J
(C) 100 J (D) 10–2 J
7. Which of the following substances, in its gaseous state, shall be called as vapour?
(A) Oxygen (B) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Iodine (D) Ammonia
8. Milk is an example of which type of colloidal solution?

(A) Aerosol (B) Emulsion
(C) Gel (D) Foam
9. The number of electrons present in 1.8 mL water (density of water = 1g/mL) is:
(A) 6.02 × 1023 (B) 3.01 × 1023
23
(C) 0.60 × 10 (D) 60.02 × 1023
10. The number of neutrons in a dipositive zinc ion (Zn2+) having mass number 65 is:
(A) 30 (B) 28
(C) 58 (D) 35
11. Under similar conditions, which of the following gases shall have maximum rate of diffusion?
(A) Helium (B) Hydrogen
(C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen
12. A washing machine works on the principle of:

(A) Crystallization (B) Evaporation
(C) Centrifugation (D) Distillation
p
13. Convert 0.225 in the form of
q
3 9
(A) (B)
10 40
9 9
(C) (D)
50 400
n n
14. The value of n
 is equal to
1 x 1  x n
(A) x2n (B) n
(C) xn (D) x-n
A B
15. In the given figure, AB is parallel to DE and ACE is a straight
35°
line. The difference between angle x and y is
(A) 0° (B) 4°
y° C
(C) 10° (D) 12°
x°
53°
D E
16. If x71 + 51 is divided by (x + 1) then remainder is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 49 (D) 50
17. In right angled triangle ABC right angled at B, P is mid point of AC which one is true?
AB AC
(A) PA = (B) PB =
2 4
(C) PA = PB = PC (D) none of these
18. If the points (0, 4), (4, 0) and (6, 2p) are collinear, then the value of p is
(A) – 1 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4
19. Which of the following is true about typhoid disease?

(A) It is caused by Salmonella typhi (B) It is a bacterial disease
(C) It is diagnosed by Widal Test (D) All of the above
20. Which one of the following organelles digests the old organelles that are no longer useful to the cells?
(A) Ribosomes (B) Mitochondria
(C) Lysosomes (D) Chromatin
21. How many cells would be produced by a series of four mitotic divisions that began with a single liver
cell?
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 32
22. Which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue?
(A) Cartilaginous tissue (B) Connective tissue
(C) Epithelial tissue (D) Muscular tissue
23. If a mutation prevented the formation of lignin, what tissue would be most affected?
(A) Parenchyma (B) Collenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) Chlorenchyma
24. Which of the following is the highest milk yielding variety of cow?
(A) Holstein Friesian (B) Sahiwal
(C) Gir (D) Dorset
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
25. If a certain body moving with a speed of 20 m/s has a kinetic energy of 100 J then what will be its
kinetic energy when its speed becomes 40 m/s.
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J
(C) 400 J (D) 900 J
26. A body goes from point A to B with speed 30 m/s and takes 10 second to cover the distance and then
from B moves towards point C with a speed of 10 m/s and takes 90 second to cover the distance.
What is the average speed for the entire journey.
(A) 20 m/s (B) 30 m/s
(C) 12 m/s (D) 32 m/s
27. A 45 kg iron ball is tied to the massless inextensible string, Now this
system is attached to the ceiling of a wall as shown in figure such that
string does not break, so find the tension in the string.  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 45 N (B) 90 N 45 kg
(C) 100 N (D) 450 N
28. What will be the initial speed of a body moving in a straight line if it starts decelerating at the rate of 2
m/s2 and comes to rest after travelling a distance of 100 m.
(A) 20 m/s (B) 10 m/s
(C) 5 m/s (D) 100 m/s
29. Which point on the graph shown represent maximum

velocity? z
(A) x (B) y
Displacement
(C) z (D) w y w
x
Time
30. If a 17 kg block is taken to a height of 20 m with negligible acceleration then the potential energy
stored in it at that height will be  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 3400 J (B) 1000 J
(C) 1800 J (D) 500 J
31. What will be the speed with which a ball hit the ground if it falls from the height of 80 m.
[Neglect air friction]  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 10 m/s (B) 80 m/s
(C) 16 m/s (D) 40 m/s
32. A 5 kg ball moving horizontally with a speed of 40 m/s hits a vertical wall and rebounds back with a
speed of 20 m/s then the impulse imparted to the ball because of collision with the wall will be
(A) 400 Ns (B) 300 Ns
(C) 100 Ns (D) 50 Ns
33. What mass of KCl (in grams) has to be dissolved in 60g H2O to obtain a 20% by mass solution?
(A) 15 (B) 1.5
(C) 150 (D) 11.5
34. The energy associated with a radiation having wavelength 300 nm is nearly [h=6.626  10-34 Js] :
(A) 6.6 × 10–29 J (B) 6.6 × 10–19 J
–19
(C) 3.3 × 10 J (D) 2.2 × 10–19 J
35. At what temperature will the volume of a given amount of a gas at 25°C becomes double if pressure
is kept constant?
(A) 496 K (B) 298 K
(C) 323 K (D) 596 K
36. If 500 ml of a 5 M HCl solution is diluted to 1500 ml, what will be the molarity of the solution obtained?
(A) 1.5 M (B) 1.66 M
(C) 0.017 M (D) 1.59 M
37. A ‘molal’ solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in:
(A) 1000 g solvent (B) 1000 g solution
(C) 100 mL solvent (D) 100 mL solution
38. The four quantum numbers that correctly represent an electron in 3p orbital of Sulphur atom are:
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = +1, s = +1/2 (B) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, s = –1/2
(C) n = 2, l = 2, m = –1, s = –1/2 (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = +2, s = –1/2
39. Which of the following gases will have density of 1.8 gL–1 at 27°C and 760 torr pressure, assuming
ideal behavior?[ R= 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1]
(A) O2 (B) SO2
(C) NH3 (D) CO2
40. Which of these is a ‘solid in liquid’ solution?

(A) Bread (B) Brine
(C) Fog (D) Air
1
41. If x = 5 + 2 6 then the value of x is
x
(A) 3 (B) 2 3
(C) 2 (D) 7
42. AD, BE and CF are medians of ABC. The sum of lengths of segments BE and CF is
3 5
(A)  BC (B) > BC
2 3
2 3
(C) < BC (D) > BC
3 2
43. The point on y axis which is equidistant from A(– 5, – 2) and B(3, 2) is
(A) (– 4, 0) (B) (0, – 2)
(C) (– 2, 0) (D) (0, – 4)
3 1
44. If x = , then the value of 4x 3 + 2x2 – 8x + 7 is
2
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 6 (D) 4
45. In a trapezium with AB || CD, where AB = 52 cm, BC = 12 cm, CD = 39 cm and DA = 5 cm. The area
of the trapezium ABCD is
(A) 182 cm2 (B) 195 cm2
(C) 210 cm2 (D) 260 cm2
46. The sides of a rectangle are produced in order, in such a way that the length of each side is
increased by k times of itself. By joining the end points of extended dimension of rectangle form a
1
new quadrilateral. The area of new quadrilateral formed becomes 2 times the area of the original
2
rectangle. Find the value of k.
5 3
(A) (B)
2 2
1
(C) (D) none of these
2
47. The line segment joining the mid points of the diagonals of a trapezium has length 3 cm. If the longer
base is 97 cm, then the shorter base is (in cm)
(A) 94 (B) 92
(C) 91 (D) 90
48. The degree measure of each of the three angles of a triangle is an integer. Which of the following
could not be the ratio of their measures?
(A) 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 4 : 5
(C) 5 : 6 : 7 (D) 6 : 7 : 8
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
49. If three bodies having masses 10 kg, 5 kg and 2 kg have equal linear momentum then which body will
have maximum kinetic energy.
(A) 10 kg body (B) 5 kg body
(C) 2 kg body (D) All three will have equal kinetic energy
50. Which velocity – time graph shows the negative acceleration of a body.
v v v v
t t t t
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i) (B) (ii)
(C) (iii) (D) (iv)
51. A 50 kg block is kept on the rough horizontal surface and coefficient 15 N

of limiting friction between surface and block is 0.1. Find the frictional 50 kg
force acting on block if a horizontal force of 15 N begins to act on the
block  g  10 m / s2 
0.1
(A) 50 N (B) 20 N
(C) 25 N (D) 15 N
52. From the given velocity–time graph of a certain body,

find the displacement of the body at the end of 16
second. 10 m/s
V
(A) 100 m (m/s) 5 m/s
(B) 95 m
(C) 20 m
2s 8s 16 s
(D) 30 m
t (second)
53. If a 100 N force acts on the two block system as shown in

100 N 40 kg
figure. Then find the contact force acting between the two 10 kg
blocks in contact.
(A) 100 N (B) 110 N
(C) 10 N (D) 80 N frictionless frictionless
54. If a ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 25 m/s then the displacement of the ball
neglecting air friction at the end of 5 seconds is  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 125 m (B) 20 m
(C) zero (D) 150 m
55. 5.6 L of a gas at STP is found to have mass of 22 g. The gram molecular mass of the gas is:
(A) 22 g (B) 44 g
(C) 88 g (D) 33 g
56. The energy required to ionize a Li2+ ion which has its electron in 4th orbit is:
(A) 7.65 eV (B) 13.65 eV
(C) 30.62 eV (D) 54.41 eV
57. The SI unit of pressure is:

(A) dyne (B) newton
(C) hertz (D) pascal
58. The order of boiling points of four miscible liquids P, Q, R and S is found to be P > Q > R > S. Which
among these is most likely to remain in the distillation flask after fractional distillation is carried out?
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
59. Which of the following sets of species are isoelectronic to each other?
(A) Ca2+, S2–, K+, Cl– (B) K+, Na+, Cl–, O2–
2+ + 2– 3–
(C) Mg , Na , S , N (D) Al3+, Na+, Cl–, C4–
60. The normality of a 10% w/v solution of acetic acid is approximately:

(A) 1 N (B) 17 N
(C) 1.7 N (D) 0.83 N
61. When the polynomial f(x) is divided by (x – 2)2, the remainder is (3x – 3). What is the remainder when
(x – 1)f(x) is divided by (x – 1)(x – 2).
(A) 3x – 4 (B) 3x2 – 6x + 5
(C) 3x – 3 (D) x – 1
62. In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD, D = 2B. If DC = 5 cm and AD = 6 cm, then AB is equal to

(A) 9 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm (D) none of these
63. In XYZ, M and N are points on XZ and YZ respectively such that MN is the perpendicular bisector of
YZ, if XM = XY and XYZ = 90°, then the value of XZY
(A) 60° (B) 55°
(C) 45° (D) 30°
64. WXYZ is a square of side length 30unit. V is the point on XY and P is point inside the square with PV
perpendicular to XY, also PW = PZ = PV – 5. Then PV is
(A) 11 unit (B) 22 unit
(C) 33 unit (D) 44 unit
65. Let y = 2 2 , z= 2  2 and x = y + z then the value of x is

(A) 2 y (B) 2y
(C) 2z (D) 4
66. If (a – 5)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – d)2 + (b + c + d – 9)2 = 0 then the value of (a + b + c)(b + c + d) is

(A) 0 (B) 11
(C) 33 (D) 99
67. A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
(A) Blood serum (B) Blood plasma
(C) Whole blood from pulmonary vein (D) Whole blood from pulmonary artery
68. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other type of cell?
(A) Vacuoles and fibres (B) Flagellum and medullary sheath
(C) Nucleus and mitochondria (D) Dendrites and synaptic vesicle
69. Blast of rice, wheat rust, red rot in sugarcane are caused by
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Fungus (D) Protozoa
70. The time period between entering of pathogen into the body and appearance of symptoms of disease
is called:
(A) Adoption period (B) Reserve period
(C) Incubation period (D) Combination period
71. Aim of plant breeding is to

(A) Produce improved varieties (B) Keep soil fertile
(C) Control pollution (D) To maintain wild plants
72. Which of the following statements are true about endoplasmic reticulum?
(i) Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum makes lipids.
(ii) It is also called control centre of the cell.
(iii) It modifies chemicals that are toxic to the cell.
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) All of the above
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
73. What is the work done by gravity if we lift up a 5 kg body from ground to a height of 25 meter?
 g  10 m / s2 
(A) – 1250 J (B) 150 J
(C) – 250 J (D) 100 J
74. If acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a certain spherical planet ‘A’ is g' then what will be the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of another planet ‘B’ whose mass is half the mass of planet
‘A’ and whose radius is 3 times that of radius of planet ‘A’ ?
(A) 2g' (B) 3 g'
g' g'
(C) (D)
2 18
75. A 1 kg bomb explodes into two pieces of masses m gram and 100 gram. If 100 gram mass moves
with the speed of 100 m/s then what will be the speed with which the mass m moves?
100
(A) 90 m/s (B) m/s
9
(C) 200 m/s (D) 300 m/s
76. What will be the acceleration due to gravity at the height equal to 6 R from the surface of a planet,
[Where R is radius of planet] if g' is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of that planet.
g' g'
(A) (B)
10 11
g' g'
(C) (D)
121 49
77. The reading of the weighing machine when a person on ground stands on the weighing machine is
700 N. When he weighs his weight with the same weighing machine on a lift moving upward with an
acceleration of 5 m/s2, then what will be the new reading of weighing machine ?  g  10 m / s2 
(A) 700 N (B) 350 N
(C) 100 N (D) 1050 N
78. “The volume of a given amount of a gas at constant pressure varies directly with its absolute
temperature”. This statement is better known as:
(A) Boyle’s Law (B) Charles’ Law
(C) Gay-Lussac’s Law (D) Dalton’s Law
79. The formula of the phosphate of an element R is RPO4. The formulae of its hydroxide and sulphide
respectively are _________ and __________.
(A) R(OH)3 and R3S2 (B) R(OH)2 and R2S3
(C) R(OH)2 and R3S2 (D) R(OH)3 and R2S3
80. The equivalent mass of a bivalent metal(M) is 32.7g. What will be the molar mass of its chloride?
(A) 71 g (B) 100.9 g
(C) 136.4 g (D) 68.2 g
81. Identify isotopes among the following:

(A) 6C12, 7N14 (B) 6C14, 7N14
(C) 20Ca40, 18Ar40 (D) 82Pb206, 82Pb208
82. 
A
Solid   
B
 Liquid  
 Vapour
D C
The phenomena A, B, C and D respectively are:

(A) Melting, vaporization, condensation, freezing
(B) Fusion, sublimation, freezing, condensation
(C) Fusion, condensation, vaporization, freezing
(D) Melting, vaporization, freezing, condensation
83. The circumcentre of triangle, whose vertices are (3, 0), (– 1, – 6) and (4, – 1) is
(A) (1, 3) (B) (3, 1)
(C) (– 1, 3) (D) (1, – 3)
84. In ABC, A = 100°, B = 50°, AH  BC, BM is median from B on AC and MH is joined. Then MHC
=?
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 70° (D) 80°
85.      
In a triangle ABC the coordinates of vertices A at12 ,2at1 , B at 22 ,2at 2 , C at 23 ,2at 3 are given. If O is
the orthocentre of ABC then the orthocentre of BOC is
 
(A) at 23 ,2at 3 (B) at12 ,2at1  
(C)  at ,2at 
2
2 2 (D) none of these
86. The circumference of the circumcircle of the triangle formed by x-axis, y-axis and line 3x + 4y = 12 is
(A) 3 unit (B) 4 unit
(C) 5 unit (D) 6.25 units
87. The LCM of two numbers is 567 and their HCF is 9. If the difference between the two numbers is 18,
then the numbers are
(A) 36 and 18 (B) 78 and 60
(C) 81 and 63 (D) 52 and 34
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
88. A ball is thrown vertically upward with the speed of 40 m/s. If the distance travelled by the ball in 6
seconds is 50 K meter then what is the value of K?  g  10 m / s2 and neglect air friction 
89. A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a building of height 160 m then the time it takes to reach
ground is found to be k 2 second then find the value of k.  g  10 m / s2 and neglect air friction 
90. A horizontal force of 20 N begins to act on the stationary block of mass 10 kg kept on the frictionless
horizontal surface. The work done by this force in 3 seconds is found to be 60 k joule then what is the
value of k?
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
91. A solution is prepared by dissolving 5 g urea in 95 g water. What is the mass by mass percentage of
urea in the solution?
92. How many electrons are present in the valence shell of an atom of potassium in its ground state?
93. 6 g H2 and 14 g N2 react to form NH3 till the reaction completely consumes the limiting reagent. The
amount of the other reactant (in gms) left is :
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
94. Find the number of zeroes in the product 5  10  25  40  50  55  65  125  80.
AB2  BC2  CA 2
95. If G is the centroid of any ABC then find the value of .
AG2  BG2  CG2
96. ABCD is a rectangle, E is the mid point of AD, F is the mid-point of EC, area of ABCD = 120 cm2
and area of BDF = ab cm2 (where ab is a two digit number) then find the value of a + b.
(FTRE – 2018)
CLASS - IX
ANSWERS
PAPER-2
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C
5. C 6. A 7. C 8. B
9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. B 15. B 16. D
17. C 18. A 19. D 20. C
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. A
25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A
29. C 30. A 31. D 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. B
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A
45. C 46. C 47. C 48. D
49. C 50. D 51. D 52. B
53. D 54. C 55. C 56. A
57. D 58. A 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. C 63. D 64. B
65. A 66. D 67. A 68. D
69. C 70. C 71. A 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. B 76. D
77. D 78. B 79. D 80. C
81. D 82. A 83. D 84. A
85. B 86. C 87. C 88. 2
89. 4 90. 3 91. 5 92. 1
93. 3 94. 9 95. 3 96. 6

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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

1. 5, 10, 17, 26, ?, 50

2. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?, 112

3. abd, efh, ijl, ?, qrt, uvx

19. Who is the grandmother of S?

20. How is R related to W?

(X) N (A) (B) (C) (D)

28. Who among the following sits second to the right of F?

30. Who among the following represent the immediate neighbour of G?

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

33. According to kepler’s law, orbit of a planet around a star is

37. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

38. The unit of energy is :–

40. Generally, liquids have:

41. Brass majorly contains ________________ & _________________ .

42. CaCO3  CaO + CO2

43. The atomic number of an element is equal to:

45. The chemical formula of ferric sulphate is:

48. Identify a chemical change out of the following:

55. In the figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. If X and Y are mid-points of S Y R

56. If x2 + x + 1 is a factor of polynomial 3x3 + 8x2 + 8x + 3 + 5k, then value of k is

59. Which of the following are Indian cattle?

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)

60. Poultry farming is under taken to raise following

(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii)

61. The control unit of cell is

62. The cell capable of changing shapes are:

64. Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in

65. Which of the following is not congenital disease?

66. Dengue is transmitted by

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

72. A block of mass 10 kg, hits a vertical wall perpendicularly with

76. A body is placed at rest on a smooth 20 N v=?

80. Which of the following is NOT a compound of carbon?

81. The correct statement among the following is:

83. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to:

85. The most ductile metal out of the following is :

86. Which of these radiations has the highest frequency?

88. The dispersed phase in aerosols is :

90. The volume occupied by 4.4 g CO2 at STP is nearly:

93. An example of rational number between 5 and 15 is

94. Factorization of s(s – 1) – t(t – 1)

95. Find the area of parallelogram ABCD (AB = 4 cm, BC = 13 cm and DE D C

99. If  ADB is right angle, then find the value of angle x? C

101. E is the mid-point of median AD of ABC and BE is produced to meet AC at F. Then

103. Which is mismatched?

104. HIV is retrovirus as its genetic information is contained in

107. An organism used as biofertilizer found in leguminous crop is

109. ‘Omnis cellula e cellula’ is a generalisation given by………………

110. Foldings of inner mitochondrial membrane are called

112. Lymph differs from blood in possessing

113. Component of blood responsible for producing antibodies is

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam-2018

1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

41. Brass majorly contains & _ .