®

TOEFL

SAMPLE TEST 1
Section 1: Listening Comprehension

In this section of the test, you will have the opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand
conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section, with special instructions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers.
Do not write in your testbook.

Section 1, Part A

Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions
will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in this booklet and
choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in
the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example:

On the recording, you hear:

(woman) I don’t like oysters. What about you?
(man) I find the texture disgusting.
(narrator) What does the man mean?

Sample Answer
A
A _B _ C _D

In your booklet, you read: (A) He doesn’t like oysters either.

(B) He doesn’t know how to cook.
(C) He doesn’t have any oysters.
(D) He doesn’t know how to eat oysters.

You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes eating oysters. The
best answer to the question “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He doesn’t like oysters either.”
Therefore, the correct choice is (A).

Go on to the next page.

3
1. (A) He didn’t try to convince Tommy to try 8. (A) It’s broken.
the pancakes. (B) It has no bulb.
(B) He tried hard to convince Tommy to try (C) It’s not getting any electricity.
the pancakes. (D) The power is out.
(C) He doesn’t like to make blueberry
pancakes. 9. (A) She shouldn’t let the argument bother
(D) He doesn’t know how to make her.
blueberry pancakes. (B) The argument didn’t affect her.
(C) She shouldn’t have had an argument.
2. (A) They charge for extra cheese. (D) She didn’t like having an argument.
(B) They don’t put extra cheese on their
10. (A) He’s referring to his new car.
pizzas.
(C) Extra cheese doesn’t cost more. (B) He’s referring to the wheels on his car.
(C) He’s referring to the tires on his car.
(D) Their pizzas have no cheese.
(D) He’s referring to his steering wheel.

3. (A) Alex had a productive meeting with an 11. (A) She’s never eaten junk food.
important customer. (B) She doesn’t like French fries.
(B) Alex had an argument with an (C) She wants the man to finish the French
important customer. fries.
(C) Alex didn’t agree with their customer’s (D) She’s trying to eat less junk food.
complaints.
(D) Alex doesn’t want to keep this 12. (A) She was staring at Margie’s blue
customer. dress.
(B) She doesn’t like the blue dress.
4. (A) He’s going to take out the trash (C) She was thinking about buying the blue
immediately. dress.
(B) He’s forgotten to take out the trash. (D) She wanted to buy a different color
(C) He’s going to wait to take out the trash. dress.
(D) He’s refusing to take out the trash.
13. (A) The man should call the restaurant and
make reservations.
5. (A) Because she’s still waiting for a bus.
(B) The man doesn’t need to make dinner
(B) Because she’s in a terrible traffic jam.
reservations.
(C) Because her car has a problem.
(C) The restaurant doesn’t accept
(D) Because she has to work late.
reservations.
(D) They’re going to a different restaurant
6. (A) She knows where the train station is. for dinner.
(B) She doesn’t know where she is.
(C) She knows where she is. 14. (A) He wants to know why the woman is on
(D) She’s going to give the man directions TV.
to the train station. (B) He wants to know what’s on TV.
(C) He wants to check out what’s on TV.
7. (A) Seven items are missing from the (D) He wants to know why it’s so noisy.
inventory.
(B) There are seven extra items in the 15. (A) They could change the way their
inventory. package is being delivered.
(C) He hasn’t been able to sell seven items (B) They could deliver their package in a
today. smaller box.
(D) He’s only found seven items in the (C) They could send the package out
inventory. earlier.
(D) They could send a different package.

4
16. (A) She won’t use the plastic pitcher. 24. (A) The man will need to take a course to learn
(B) The plastic pitcher will have to suffice. how to use the program.
(C) The plastic pitcher is the wrong pitcher. (B) The man will have to uninstall the program.
(D) They’ll have to buy a new pitcher. (C) The man will be able to use the program
without much difficulty.
17. (A) It was very soft. (D) The man will never have to use the
(B) It was pretty loud. program.
(C) It was inaudible.
(D) It was definitely the loudest thing 25. (A) She feels a little sick.
they’ve ever heard. (B) She feels cold.
(C) She feels lonely.
18. (A) Fred will see the stain on his tie fairly soon. (D) She feels hungry.
(B) Fred needs to change his tie.
(C) Fred needs to wash his tie.
26. (A) He doesn’t like shopping.
(D) Fred may never notice the stain on his tie.
(B) He doesn’t like crowded places.
(C) He would rather watch sports on TV.
19. (A) The party has gone exactly as planned.
(D) He’d like to browse the stores at the mall.
(B) The party was supposed to be on a
different day.
27. (A) That the meals are very expensive.
(C) The party was supposed to happen at
(B) The man will never have to pay for his
a different time.
(D) The woman had planned something meals at this restaurant.
different for the party. (C) The man won’t have to pay for his meal
tonight.
20. (A) He can’t visualize the woman spinning. (D) Her father owns the restaurant.
(B) He can’t believe what he is seeing.
(C) The spinning woman can’t be seen. 28. (A) The woman should have finished setting
(D) He can’t believe he’s at the circus. up the presentation by now.
(B) The woman will probably need to skip
21. (A) Yolanda doesn’t like Hank. lunch to get her presentation ready.
(B) Hank isn’t impressed with Yolanda’s outfit. (C) The woman doesn’t need to set up the
(C) Yolanda thinks that Hank is insincere. projector.
(D) Hank is teasing Yolanda. (D) The woman will need to find a clock to use
for the presentation.
22. (A) She should calm down.
(B) She should talk to the airline 29. (A) She thinks the man is being facetious.
representative. (B) She thinks the man is lying.
(C) She should get all worked up over the (C) She agrees with the man.
flight delay. (D) She believes the president is ridiculous.
(D) She should complain about the delay.
30. (A) The man should stop playing video games.
23. (A) That any form of identification is (B) The man is immature.
acceptable. (C) The man should congratulate himself.
(B) That no I.D. is needed to enter the (D) The man is wasting his time.
seminar.
(C) The woman needs identification with
her picture on it.
(D) That only a driver’s license is an
acceptable form of identification.

5
Section 1, Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in this booklet and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen. Do not write in your testbook.

Go on to the next page.

6
31. (A) She didn’t like jazz. 36. (A) They only ate fruits, vegetables, and
(B) She didn’t have a saxophone. grains.
(C) She wanted to play the trumpet. (B) They only ate meat.
(D) She wasn’t keen on practicing. (C) They ate just about anything that was
edible.
(D) They preferred woolly rhinoceros and
32. (A) Music and English.
wild sheep meat.
(B) English and communications.
(C) Music and communications.
(D) English and broadcasting. 37. (A) They knew that some meat had useful
medicinal value.
(B) They knew that some plants had useful
33. (A) He’s every bit as good now.
medicinal value.
(B) He doesn’t have the same endurance.
(C) They didn’t understand anything about
(C) He hasn’t played his horn in years.
medicinal remedies for common
(D) In fact, he’s even better now.
ailments.
(D) They had a basic understanding of
34. (A) They’re going to give an excellent plant components.
presentation.
(B) He’s going to play his trumpet during
38. (A) They were only a few years old.
the presentation.
(B) They were exactly sixty thousand
(C) The man and woman will play a duet.
years old.
(D) He forgot to bring his trumpet.
(C) They were around forty thousand
years old.
35. (A) They used the skull bones. (D) He didn’t say exactly how old the
(B) They used dental plaque they found samples were.
in the teeth.
(C) They used the DNA of woolly
rhinoceros.
(D) They extracted vegetable DNA from
the teeth.

7
Section 1, Part C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you will hear some
questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your booklet and choose the best answer.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example:

On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer

_
A _B A C _D

Now listen to a sample question:

In your booklet, you read: (A) To demonstrate how birds attract mates.
(B) To show how some birds species became extinct.
(C) To explain the evolution of birds.
(D) To dramatize a famous bird song.
The best answer to the question “What is the main purpose of the program?” is (C), “To explain the
evolution of birds.” Therefore, the correct choice is answer (C).

Now listen to another sample question: Sample Answer

_
A _B _ C AD

In your booklet, you read: (A) It is required of all science majors.

(B) It will feature the professor's research.
(C) It can help viewers improve their birdwatching skills.
(D) It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question “Why does the professor recommend watching the program?” is (D),
“It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is answer (D).
Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in the testbook.

Go on to the next page.

8
39. (A) To provide insight into the creator of
the museum.
(B) To provide insight into why art is
sometimes stolen.
(C) To provide insight into why the
museum is so famous.
(D) To provide insight into why the guide
became an employee of the museum.
45. (A) They had just arrived from Germany
after their European tour.
(B) They were all going to vacation
together in Europe.
(C) They were about to fly to Germany to
kick off their European tour.
(D) They were all going to visit the
conductor’s family in Germany.

40. (A) Because of its very visible location in 46. (A) People loved it.
the museum. (B) People demanded an encore.
(B) It’s the most valuable thing ever stolen (C) People were indifferent to it.
on the planet. (D) People sang alone with the orchestra.
(C) Because it’s the only piece of art
produced by the Dutch painter Jan 47. (A) The theoretical treatment of emotional
Vermeer. disorders.
(D) It’s three thousand years old. (B) Ethics.
(C) Psychological treatment for human
41. (A) These are the places where the behavior.
missing art belongs. (D) Human emotion.
(B) This is where the museum intends to
put newly acquired art. 48. (A) Moral situations, moral emotions, and
(C) The museum forgot to put some of moral choices.
their paintings in these places. (B) Moral judgements, moral occasions,
(D) The museum ran out of artwork to and moral choices.
display. (C) Moral judgements, moral emotions,
and moral consequences.
42. (A) Two thieves have been caught. (D) Moral judgements, moral emotions,
(B) Nobody has ever been arrested. and moral choices.
(C) One thief has been caught.
(D) All of the thieves have been arrested. 49. (A) Remorse.
(B) Despondence.
43. (A) To report on a disturbance at the (C) Revenge.
airport. (D) Avulsion.
(B) To report on flight delays at the airport.
(C) To report on a surprise concert at the 50. (A) Moral circumstance.
airport. (B) Moral emotion.
(D) To report on the endless lines at (C) Moral choice.
airports. (D) Moral judgement.

44. (A) People had to have an airline ticket to

see it.
(B) Only the receptionists at the ticket
counters saw it.
(C) The time and location of this free
concert was a complete surprise.
(D) It was in the airport administration
conference room.

This is the end of Section 1.

Read the instructions for Section 2 and begin work.

9
Section 2: Structure and Written Expressions

Time: 25 minutes, including the reading of directions

Now set your clock for 25 minutes.

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard
written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.

Structure

Directions: Questions 1–15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes
the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Do not write in the testbook.

Example I Sample Answer

_A _
B A C _D

___________ being a famous philosopher, Aristotle is also recognized as a renowned scientist.

(A) Moreover
(B) Because
(C) Besides
(D) As well

The sentence should read, “Besides being a famous philosopher, Aristotle is also recognized as a
renowned scientist.” Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Example II Sample Answer

_A _
B _ C AD

No one expected Winston Churchill ___________ after he was defeated in the 1945 election.
(A) resign
(B) resigning
(C) resign to
(D) to resign

The sentence should read, “No one expected Winston Churchill to resign after he was defeated in
the 1945 election.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

10
1. After ___________ the fossil of a giant 7. Relaxing, sleeping, and ___________ one’s
penguin, scientists believe that the evolution breath are ways to avoid stress.
of penguins may have started during the age (A) that controlling
of the dinosaurs. (B) control
(A) discovering of (C) controlling
(B) the discovery of (D) as well as control
(C) an important discovery
(D) that discovery 8. After ___________ the recent decisions made
by the chairman of the committee, the president
2. Dolphins generally move to shallow and warm of the company decided to resign.
bays ___________ breed and give birth. (A) considering
(B) consider
(A) where can they
(C) his considering
(B) where can
(D) consider him
(C) can where they
(D) where they can
9. The production of corn this year will be equal to
or ___________ last year’s production.
3. In 1973, ___________ the first handheld
cellular mobile phone. (A) greater to
(B) greater than
(A) then Martin Cooper invented
(C) great of
(B) Martin Cooper invented
(D) be great about
(C) Martin Cooper has invented
(D) Martin Cooper who invented
10. We should consider ___________ our
market. The bigger the market, the more
4. Because of the low prices of our products, a
money we make.
shortage of workers in our company
___________ this year. (A) expanding
(B) be expanding
(A) is expected
(C) expand from
(B) expected
(D) to expand
(C) which expects
(D) that is expected
11. The student council voted ___________ the
annulment of some of the measures adopted
5. Food ___________ organically is healthy, yet
by the principal.
expensive.
(A) in
(A) grown which
(B) with
(B) that is grown
(C) for
(C) which grown
(D) to
(D) it is grown

12. The Louvre museum in Paris is

6. ___________ his press conference, but he
___________ visited museums in the
also barred several news organizations from
world.
a press briefing later that day.
(A) one of the most
(A) Not only did the president cancel
(B) most
(B) Only did the president cancel
(C) one most
(C) The president only canceled
(D) the most one
(D) Not did only the president cancel

11
13. Unfortunately ___________ of the 15. Flying fish have long, wing-like fins that
witnesses could recognize the rapist. enable ___________ to escape from
(A) nor predators.
(B) no (A) they
(C) none (B) its
(D) not (C) their
(D) them
14. ___________ it had not been for the coast
guard, we would have drowned after the
boat sank.
(A) Unless
(B) If
(C) So
(D) For

Go on to the next page.

12
 Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16 – 40, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined
parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that
must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Do
not write in the testbook.

Example I Sample Answer

AA _
B _ C _D

There are a lot of advantage of working from home; one of them is the economy of the indirect costs of going
A B
to work, such as fuel, road tolls, parking tickets, and many others.
C D

The sentence should read, “There are a lot of advantages of working from home; one of them is the economy
of the indirect costs of going to work, such as fuel, road tolls, parking tickets, and many others.” Therefore,
the correct choice is (A).

Example II Sample Answer

_A _
B _ C AD

Cold damp soil is a serious problem when harvesting corn on winter.

A B C D

The sentence should read, “Cold damp soil is a serious problem when harvesting corn in winter.” Therefore,
the correct choice is (D).

Now begin your work on the questions.

13
16. It’s amazing the easy with which Jean can adapt to changes in life.
A B C D

17. The cause of the sudden changes of temperature in Minor Lake are the quantity of algae in the water.
A B C D

18. How I wish I could spend more time with you when we were married.
A B C D

19. Despite the board of directors found solutions to the latest problems, I don’t think it means the end of
A B C
all our troubles.
D

20. Brad blames he for the accident. He says he should never have driven over the speed limit.
A B C D

21. The Mona Lisa, that is a portrait of Lisa Gherardini, has been described as the most important and
A B C
and famous piece of art in the world.
D

22. Victims of child abuse generally suffer from depression, anxiety, and insecure.
A B C D

23. Professor Edward gave us some important advices on how to calculate pricing in his lecture on online
A B C D
advertising.

24. The government admitted the really number of victims of the terror attack in Berlin.
A B C D

25. Charles Dickens’s novel Oliver Twist is noteworthy remarkable for its direct portrayal of criminals and the
A B C
way orphans were treated in London in the 19th century.
D

14
26. The court has no doubt that your client is guilt. He’ll be sentenced to four years for armed robbery.
A B C D

27. According to the site idea.time.com, Jesus is to have considered the most important figure in history.
A B C D

28. If scientists knew the disastrous effects of their experiments, they wouldn’t have performed them.
A B C D

29. The league of football teams participating in the American Championship will have to part hotel and
A B C
food expenses.
D

30. I was afraid that the lawyer wouldn’t remember sending the documents in time for the hearing.
A B C D

31. Don’t forget! The more hard you work, the better it will be for your company.
A B C D

32. Bluesea rig, in North Carolina, is the first one to have a drilling pipe that shows much gas has been
A B C
pumped out.
D

33. During the Cold War between the Soviet Union and the West, several captured Russian spies gave out
A B C
vital military secrets.
D

34. It’s important that you compare fees for snacks, baggages and meals before choosing an airline.
A B C D

35. The 2014 Nobel the most important Prize in Medicine was shared by John O'Keefe, May-Britt Moser,
A B C D
and Edvard I.

36. However knowing that it was nearly impossible to bribe the inspector, Thomas tried.
A B C D

15
37. The crisis in the economy of underdeveloped countries is due to political divergence and rival.
A B C D

38. My staff and I are looking forward to help you with anything you might need, sir.
A B C D

39. Many Americans have the cereal for breakfast because it produces energy, aids in digestion, and prevents
A B C
many diseases.
D

40. Harvard University was founded in 1636 and is oldest and most prosperous school in the United States.
A B C D

This is the end of Section 2.

Read the instructions for Section 3 and begin work.

16
 Section 3: Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 minutes, including the reading of the directions.

Now set your clock for 55 minutes.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each is followed by several questions about
it. For questions 1 – 50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Read the following sample passage:

1 Even though the term “urban sprawl” was first used to describe the expansion of metropolitan
London after World War II, it is actually a uniquely American invention. It is used most often to describe
lower-density and largely unplanned suburban development covering areas surrounding dense urban
cores. It requires a few things: a relatively unlimited supply of land and resources which extend out from
5 a very dense city center, a population which desires to live in a less-densely populated area, and a
population which loves their automobiles. Living in sprawl means one drives to work, drives to do the
shopping, and drives to meet one’s friends. It also means, usually, living in a free-standing home on a
plot of land, both of which require personal maintenance, instead of a low-maintenance apartment in a
high-rise building. And finally, it means that the area one lives in generally has no public transportation
10 system.

Example I
Sample Answer
AA _
B _ C _
D

The word “cores” in line 4 is closest in meaning to:

(A) centers
(B) areas
(C) standards
(D) districts

The word that is closest in meaning to “cores” is “centers”. Therefore, the correct choice is (A).

17
Example II Sample Answer
_
A _B _ C AD

Which of the disadvantages of living in sprawl is mentioned in the text?

(A) House maintenance costs.
(B) Lack of public transportation.
(C) The distance from other populated areas.
(D) All of the above.

The disadvantages (house maintenance costs, lack of public transportation and the distance from other
populated areas) are mentioned in this part of the paragraph. Living in sprawl means one drives to work,
drives to do the shopping, and drives to meet one’s friends. It also means, usually, living in a free-standing home
on a plot of land, both of which require personal maintenance, instead of a low-maintenance apartment in a high-
rise building. And finally, it means that the area one lives in generally has no public transportation system.
Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

18
 Questions 1 - 10

1 [ 1 ] There have been many famous people throughout history who have likely benefitted from their
daily napping habit: Aristotle, Leonardo da Vinci, Napoleon Bonaparte, Albert Einstein, Salvador Dali,
and even Sylvester Stallone, just to name a handful. What did they know that we do not? Well, we
actually do know the benefits of taking an afternoon nap, thanks to a great deal of research done during
5 the last half-century.

[ 2 ] We need it to help us retain memories and allow our muscles and organs to rest and recover.
Most of us have a monophasic sleep pattern, which means we sleep once a day, for six to eight hours,
from evening until morning. Humans are one of the only animals on the planet that follow this pattern.
But studies have shown that, for humans, the most beneficial sleep pattern is biphasic—a longer five-
10 or six-hour period during the night combined with a nap in the early afternoon. In fact, ancient Romans,
as well as modern countries like Greece, Italy, Spain, and Mexico, follow this pattern and include a daily
afternoon siesta even in their business scheduling.
The first thorough sleep studies were conducted by NASA in the early 1960s during preparations
for the Apollo missions. When astronauts are going to be floating around weightless for weeks at a
15 time—conducting vital, extensive, and very detailed scientific missions—NASA felt it best to plan
absolutely everything, including when and how long the astronauts will sleep, in advance. [ 3 ] Their
studies found that there are four different types of naps, each with its own benefits and drawbacks.
The ten-to-twenty-minute power nap is ideal for a boost of alertness and energy. A thirty-minute
nap also has a similar restorative effect, but can be followed by fifteen to twenty minutes of strong sleep
20 inertia—that groggy feeling we get after waking up. For a memory boost, the sixty-minute nap is best,
though it is also followed by some sleep inertia. And, finally, the ninety-minute nap (everyone’s grandad’s
favorite) leads to improved emotional and procedural memory and creativity. And it is rarely followed by
sleep inertia, so it is easier to wake up.
Which type of nap is most beneficial to the average person? Everyone is different, so a little
25 personal experimentation is needed if one loves to nap, is seeking a more invigorating afternoon at work
or school, or wishes to use the nap habit to improve one’s overall lifestyle. [ 4 ] For most younger people
who have yet to retire and do not have a free ninety-minute block of time, the shorter power nap has
proved to be the most viable because there is usually not much grogginess afterwards and one still gets
that nice boost of alertness and energy to push one through the rest of the day.

1. What’s the main idea of the text?
(A) The importance of sleeping well.
(B) The importance of sleep studies
conducted by NASA.
(C) The benefits and drawbacks of sleeping.
(D) The usefulness of taking a nap.
4. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
sleeping?
(A) Muscles are strengthened.
(B) Memories are preserved.
(C) Muscles are relaxed.
(D) Muscles and organs are rested.

2. The word “a handful” in line 3 is closest in 5. The word “but” in line 9 can be substituted by:
meaning to: (A) since
(A) a few (B) yet
(B) a figure (C) therefore
(C) an amount (D) in spite
(D) a number
6. The highlighted part of the sentence in line
3. Where can the sentence “Sleep is 13 can be paraphrased by:
necessary.” be added to the passage? (A) The first broad sleep studies
(A) [ 1 ] in line 1. (B) The first adequate sleep studies
(B) [ 2 ] in line 6. (C) The first useful sleep studies
(C) [ 3 ] in line 16. (D) The first meticulous sleep studies
(D) [ 4 ] in line 26.

19
7. According to NASA’s purpose when 9. Which of the following statements is true in
planning how much sleep astronauts should relation to the different types of naps?
have while in space, we can infer that: (A) The ten-to-twenty-minute nap is the
(A) Sleeping is an important element in the best nap for a memory boost.
planning of a mission. (B) All four types are ideal to boost
(B) Good hours of sleep improve floating alertness and energy.
capability. (C) The ninety-minute nap is the only one
(C) Sleeping is essential to the that improves memory.
development of resistance to gravity. (D) The ninety-minute nap isn’t usually
(D) All the above. followed by a groggy sensation.

8. The word “its” in line 17 refers to: 10. Which statement is FALSE according to the
(A) study last paragraph?
(B) planning (A) The ideal nap for each person may
(C) mission vary.
(D) type of nap (B) For most younger people, the power
nap is the most viable.
(C) There’s an ideal nap for each age
group.
(D) None of the above.

Go on to the next page.

20
 Questions 11 - 20

1 Most of us, if not all of us, agree that one of the most powerful experiences we can have is simply
listening to a piece of music with our eyes closed. Music has the ability to transport us to places and
times we may or may not have lived in. We can often recall exactly when we heard a song or a piece of
music for the first time—down to when we heard it, where we were, and who we were with at the time.
5 But even more importantly, we remember how the music made us feel. Its emotional power can be
overwhelming. But how does it do this to us, and why?
Is it possible that human beings are actually hard-wired to love music? Some researchers think we
are. It basically comes down to how we develop as fetuses inside the womb. The first of the five senses
to develop is the sense of touch and movement, at about six to seven weeks. And which sense is the
10 second to develop? The sense of hearing.
By week nine, little nubs that later become the ears and the inner ear are already developing. At
this point, fetuses can actually react to very loud noises. At about week sixteen, the inner ear has
developed, and the nerves which connect to neurons in the brain have been formed. At this point, a
fetus is able to hear the mother’s heartbeat and breathing, as well as her voice. At nineteen weeks, a
15 fetus can hear sounds from outside the womb, such as other voices and even music. By week twenty-
four, some fetuses turn their head in response to hearing familiar sounds, like the voices of their mother
and father, as well as other unfamiliar sounds, both pleasant and unpleasant.
There is no proof that playing classical music while a baby is still in the womb has any effect on the
baby’s eventual IQ. However, the fetus can hear it, and its heartbeat and movements can be observed
20 responding to what it hears. And it can be observed reacting positively or negatively based on the types
of movements it makes while still inside the womb, and by monitoring its heartrate.

11. The text is about: 15. Which statement is true in relation to the sense
(A) The five human senses. of hearing of fetuses?
(B) Classical music. (A) Loud noises can be detected by week
(C) Humans’ response to music. nine.
(D) The sense of hearing. (B) Fetuses are extremely sensitive to
music.
12. Mark the option that is closest in meaning to (C) A fetus can hear external sounds from
the word “overwhelming” in line 6. the moment it begins to develop.
(A) unforgettable (D) None of the above.
(B) stunning
(C) eternal 16. Which word best replaces the word “nubs” in
(D) obsessive line 11?
(A) dots
13. The word “actually” in line 7 can be substituted (B) jolts
by: (C) small lumps
(A) recently (D) tiny slopes
(B) extremely
(C) accurately 17. What’s the idea conveyed in the last
(D) really paragraph?
(A) Fetuses respond positively and
14. The highlighted part of the sentence in line 7 negatively to sounds.
can be paraphrased by: (B) Fetuses can recognize different sounds
(A) have an innate love for music still in the womb.
(B) have an irresistible love for music (C) Classical music has an important role in
(C) have an unconditional love for music the fetus’s sense of hearing.
(D) have a pure love for music (D) All the above.

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18. The word “however” in line 19 can be 20. Which information is NOT mentioned in the
substituted by: text?
(A) nevertheless (A) Fetuses’ reaction to sounds.
(B) thus (B) Statistics showing that classical music
(C) whereas doesn’t influence the level of IQ of
(D) since babies.
(C) The first senses developed in a fetus
while in its mother’s womb.
19. The word “it” highlighted in line 19 refers to: (D) Experiences felt when listening to
(A) sound music.
(B) movement
(C) classical music
(D) heartbeat

Go on to the next page.

22
 Questions 21 - 30

1 In 2015, two Harvard University researchers, Emily Sneff and Danielle Allen, spotted an unusual
listing in a catalogue of the West Sussex Record Office in Chichester, England, a city on the country’s
southern coast. The listing read, “Manuscript copy, on parchment, of the Declaration in Congress of the
thirteen United States of America.”
5 Sneff and Allen were actually in England for unrelated reasons. And at the time of their accidental
discovery, it was thought that there was only one parchment copy of the Declaration of Independence:
the original official copy known as the Matlack Declaration, signed in 1776, and kept on display in a
secure, climate-controlled glass case in the National Archives in the Library of Congress in Washington,
D.C.
10 Surprisingly, they found this document in England to be in relatively good condition. Because it was
always kept in storage, it is much more legible than the official copy on display in Washington, which
has severely faded over the years, to the point of it now being nearly illegible. The researchers analyzed
the document, now known as the Sussex Declaration, and were able to authenticate it, dating it to the
1780s.
15 But this copy was somewhat different. For one thing, though it was handwritten on large-format 24-
by 30-inch parchment, like the original, it was oriented horizontally instead of vertically, like the original.
In addition, the handwriting was different and not recognizable—it was definitely not Thomas Jefferson’s.
The biggest difference is the fact that the signatures on the Sussex Declaration are not grouped together
according to state representation. And unlike the original, on which John Hancock’s signature is more
20 prominent, all the signatures on the Sussex copy are the same size and some of the names are even
misspelled. This could only happen if the person transcribing the document was looking at the original
while preparing his copy.
It is not certain exactly how the Sussex Declaration ended up in England, but it was likely a gift to
a man named Charles Lennox, the English Duke of Richmond at the time (then known as the “Radical
25 Duke”), who had strongly supported the colonists’ side during the American Revolutionary War. It was
given to the West Sussex Records Office in 1956, along with hundreds of other documents, by a law
firm that has historically handled the affairs of the Dukes of Richmond throughout the centuries.

21. What’s the main topic discussed in the text? 24. How can the condition of the document
(A) The archives in the Library of Congress found in England be best described?
in Washington, D.C. (A) Fairly good.
(B) The Sussex Declaration. (B) Excellent
(C) Harvard University research. (C) Very good.
(D) The Matlack Declaration. (D) Adequate.

22. The word “spotted” in line 1 can be 25. The highlighted part of the sentence in line
substituted by: 12 can be paraphrased by:
(A) discerned (A) disappeared over the years
(B) recognized (B) lost color over the years
(C) saw (C) became stained over the years
(D) recalled (D) was torn over the years

23. What can be inferred by the sentence

26. Which comparison between the two
highlighted in line 5?
documents is NOT mentioned in the text?
(A) Sneff and Allen were doing some
(A) The format.
research in England.
(B) The handwriting.
(B) Sneff and Allen met in England by accident.
(C) The date.
(C) Sneff and Allen were working together
(D) The font.
in England.
(D) Sneff and Allen were in England for
different reasons.

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27. The word “though” in line 15 is closest in 29. The word “affairs” in line 27 can be replaced:
meaning to: (A) activities
(A) besides (B) romances
(B) since (C) labors
(C) because (D) problems
(D) despite

30. According to the last paragraph, ________.

28. Which information about the Sussex (A) the Duke of Richmond probably
Declaration is true? received the Sussex Declaration as a
(A) It’s a perfect replica of the Declaration present.
of Independence. (B) Charles Lennox was given the Sussex
(B) It’s an authentic copy of the Declaration Declaration due to his great wealth.
of Independence. (C) the Duke of Richmond was the leader of
(C) It’s a fake copy of the Declaration of the colonists in the American
Independence. Revolutionary War.
(D) It’s an identical copy of the Declaration (D) None of the above.
of Independence.

Go on to the next page.

24
 Questions 31 - 40
1 The term “six degrees of separation” refers to the idea that all human beings are, at most, six steps
away from each other, so that a chain of a “friend of a friend” can connect any two people to one another
with a maximum of six steps. It was a little-known concept until 1990, when the playwright John Guare
wrote a Broadway play titled, oddly enough, Six Degrees of Separation. The play was then made into a
5 movie in 1993, with the actor Will Smith. [ 1 ]
John Guare did not invent the idea, of course. He first envisioned this “six degrees” concept in 1967
after reading an article in the magazine Psychology Today. In this article, the psychologist Stanley
Milgram details his study he had termed the “small world problem.” In this experiment, Milgram gave a
letter to random people living in Omaha, Nebraska, and Wichita, Kansas, with instructions to give their
10 copy of the letter to someone who could help them have the letter reach its final destination, a designated
individual living in Boston, Massachusetts. Milgram never used the term “six degrees of separation” in
his study. And the results tended to vary from two to ten intermediaries between the original sender and
the final destination. [ 2 ] But Milgram eventually states that, “only five intermediaries will, on the average,
suffice to link any two randomly chosen individuals, no matter where they happen to live in the United
15 States.”

And Guare’s play considers this idea: that any two individuals are connected by at most five others.
One of the characters even states, “I read somewhere that everybody on this planet is separated by
only six other people.” Obviously, Guare’s character read Milgram’s article.
In 1929, the Hungarian author Frigyes Karinthy published a story entitled “Chain-Links.” In it, he
20 investigates this same idea. [ 3 ] In the early twentieth century, technological advances were rapidly
taking place in communications and travel. Karinthy believed the world was shrinking due to increasing
connectedness between people. He hypothesizes in his story that any two people could be connected
through at most five acquaintances. So, in the realm of sociology, he has been regarded as the originator
of the “six degrees of separation” concept.
25 So is the “six degrees” figure actually correct? Well, today, with the advent of social media, the
world we now live in is even smaller than it was in the 1990s. Just recently, Facebook researchers
reported that there were 1.59 billion people on its network. They found that each person on the network
is now separated by only 3.5 people. [ 4 ]

31. What is the main idea discussed in this text?
(A) The main character in John Guare’s
play.
(B) An article published in the magazine
Psychology Today in 1967.
(C) Technological advances in communications
and travel.
(D) The number of friends or acquaintances
it takes to connect two random people
to one another.
33. When did the term “six degrees of
separation” become well-known?
(A) In 1967, after the publication of Stanley
Milgram’s article.
(B) In 1929, after the publication of Frigyes
Karinthy’s story.
(C) In 1993, after the release of John
Guare’s film.
(D) In 1990, after John Guare’s play was
performed on Broadway.

32. Which of the following words could replace 34. In line 8, the word “termed” could be best
the word “degrees” as used throughout this replaced by which of the following?
text? (A) called
(A) temperatures (B) linked
(B) levels (C) created
(C) heights (D) hypothesized
(D) lengths

25
35. Which of the following subjects is NOT 38. In the context of this text, the word “realm” in
mentioned in the text? line 23 is closest in meaning to:
(A) a shrinking world (A) kingdom
(B) six intermediaries (B) area
(C) population growth (C) website
(D) social media (D) state

36. Where can the sentence, “John Guare’s play 39. Who is considered the originator of the
may need to be retitled” be placed in the concept this text is about?
text? (A) Stanley Milgram.
(A) [ 1 ] in line 5 (B) John Guare.
(B) [ 2 ] in line 13 (C) Will Smith.
(C) [ 3 ] in line 20 (D) Frigyes Karinthy.
(D) [ 4 ] in line 28
40. Which statement is TRUE according to the
37. The author of the text mentions all of the last paragraph?
following as important resources on his topic (A) Facebook research has proven that the
EXCEPT: world has gotten smaller over the years.
(A) a theatrical play (B) Facebook research has proven that the
(B) a television show size of the Earth has actually gotten
(C) a feature film smaller over the years.
(D) a short story (C) Facebook research has proven that
there are less than two billion people
living on the planet.
(D) Facebook research has proven that
every person living on the planet is on
their network.

Go on to the next page.

26
 Questions 41 - 50
1 The general consensus regarding how we perceive the abstract concept of the passage of time
was, until very recently, that all humans perceive it in a universal fashion. A new study has presented
evidence that we in fact do not perceive the passage of time universally. This study, through its
experiments, shows that language can have a unique effect on how one perceives durations of time.
5 The linguists Panos Athanasopoulos, from Lancaster University, and Emanual Bylcund, from
Stellenbosch University and Stockholm University, have published a paper in the Journal of
Experimental Psychology showing that people who speak two languages fluently think about time
differently, depending on the context of the language which they are using to estimate the duration of
events. Bilingual individuals possess a cognitive flexibility when going back and forth rapidly between
10 their languages. [ 1 ] This unconscious phenomenon is known as “code-switching.”
Different languages often embody differing methods of organizing the world around us. [ 2 ]
Swedish and English speakers will mark the duration of events using physical distance terms, such as
a short break or a long speech. So the passage of time is then perceived as a sort of distance traveled.
However, Greek and Spanish speakers mark time using physical quantity terms, such as a small break
15 or a big speech. So the passage of time is perceived as a growing volume.
[ 3 ] The fascinating thing about this study is that the actual perception of time duration is different
in the same bilingual individual depending on which language context he or she was operating in.
Spanish-Swedish bilinguals were asked to estimate how much time had passed while watching a line
getting longer across the screen and a container being filled. While watching a computer screen, the
20 participants were prompted with either the word duración (the Spanish word for duration) or tid (the
Swedish word for duration). When they were prompted by duración, the subjects based their time
estimates on how full the containers were, thus perceiving passage of time as volume, and they were
not affected by the lines getting longer on the screen. In contrast, when subjects were given the prompt
word tid, they switched their behavior, and their time estimates became influenced by the distance of
25 the lines traveling across the screen, but not by the amount the containers had filled up.

This shows that when learning a new language, one can become more attuned to perceptual
differences one was not aware of before. [ 4 ] It also shows that language can creep into basic senses
such as visual perception and the sense of the passage of time. And finally, it suggests that the ability
to go back and forth unconsciously between different languages on a constant basis can bestow
30 advantages on learning and multitasking abilities.

41. Which of the following options describes the 43. The word “paper” in line 6 is closest in
main idea of the text? meaning to:
(A) The study of bilingual speakers’ ability (A) document
to understand language codes. (B) article
(B) Language has an important role in the (C) research
perception of the duration of time. (D) composition
(C) The importance of the sense of the
passage of time. 44. The word “however” in line 14, can be best
(D) The advantages of speaking two replaced by:
languages fluently. (A) therefore
(B) so
42. Where can the sentence “The description of (C) nonetheless
time duration is an example of this.” be (D) although
added to the passage?
(A) [ 1 ] in line 10.
(B) [ 2 ] in line 11.
(C) [ 3 ] in line 16.
(D) [ 4 ] in line 27.

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45. Which of the following was NOT a result of
the study made with the Spanish-Swedish
bilinguals?
(A) The reaction of both groups was the
same in each test.
(B) The two groups had different reactions
when prompted with the word tid.
(C) The test proved that the bilingual
speakers shared the same sense of
distance.
(D) All of the above.
48. What can be inferred by the part of the
sentence highlighted in lines 26 and 27?
(A) A person can become more used to
perceptual differences.
(B) A person can become more aware of
perceptual differences.
(C) A person can become more interested
in perceptual differences.
(D) A person can become more dependent
on perceptual differences.

46. What does the author mean when he says 49. The word “bestow” in line 29 can be
“they were not affected by the lines getting paraphrased by:
longer on the screen” in lines 22 and 23? (A) grant
(A) They didn’t notice the lines getting (B) take
longer on the screen. (C) show
(B) They didn’t see the lines getting longer (D) trade
on the screen.
(C) They weren’t stimulated by the lines
getting longer on the screen. 50. What is one of the advantages of “code-
(D) They weren’t influenced by the lines switching”?
getting longer on the screen. (A) The capacity to handle different tasks.
(B) Enhanced visual perception.
47. The word “this” highlighted in line 26 refers (C) Increase of sense of direction.
to: (D) All the above.
(A) language
(B) duration
(C) the study
(D) the passage

This is the end of Section 3.

If you finish in less than 55 minutes, check your work on Section 3 only. Do NOT read or work on
any other section of this test.

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