Simulator Test 4 Test-4solutions

Simulator Test 4 Solution
Set Wise Solution Index:
Set A Set B Set C Set D
Q.1 - Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100
Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25
Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50
Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75

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PTS 2019 | Simulator Test 4 (Set A) - Solutions | ForumIAS
Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Scheme was launched last year in August
and the portal for the scheme was launched recently.
Source: https://mhrd.gov.in/sites/upload_files/mhrd/files/PR_SPARC.pdf
Explanation) Option (b) is the correct answer.
The Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration (SPARC) aims at
improving the research ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational Institutions by facilitating
academic and research collaborations between Indian Institutions and the best institutions
in the world from 28 selected nations to jointly solve problems of national and/or
international relevance.
The scheme proposes to enable productive academic cooperation by supporting the

following critical components that can catalyze impact making research, namely:
● Visits and long-term stay of top international faculty / researchers in Indian
institutions to pursue teaching and research
● Visits by Indian students for training and experimentation in premier laboratories
worldwide
● Joint development of niche courses, world-class books and monographs,
translatable patents, demonstrable technologies or action research outcomes and
products
● Consolidation of Bilateral cooperation through academic and research
partnerships through Indo-X Workshops in India
● Publication, Dissemination and Visibility through a high profile annual
international Conference in India
Subject) Social Schemes
Q.2)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Hon’ble retired Supreme Court judge, Pinanki
Chandra Bose has been appointed as the first Lokpal of India.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/salient-features-of-lokpal-lokayuktas-
bill/article5474256.ece
Explanation) Option (c) - Both 1 and 2, is the correct answer
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. This act creates a Lokpal at the center which shall consist
of a chairperson and up to eight members. Half of these members should have higher judicial
experience and the other half should have experience in public administration, finance,
insurance and banking laws, anti-corruption and vigilance. It also provides that half the
members of Lokpal shall be from amongst scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, other
backward castes, minority communities and women.
Subject) Polity
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Q.3)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently India became the third country in
the asia to get STA-1 status
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/india-third-asian-nation-to-get-
sta-1-status-from-us/article24603607.ece
Explanation) Option (d) - United States of America, is the correct answer
India has become the third Asian country after Japan and South Korea to get the Strategic
Trade Authorisation-1 (STA-1) status after the U.S. issued a federal notification to this effect,
paving the way for high-technology product sales to New Delhi, particularly in civil space and
defence sectors.
India's inclusion is beneficial mostly for the purposes of increasing the speed of sale of high-
tech defence and non-defence products that are otherwise subjected to strict controls and
licensing.
Dual Use Technology: The technologies that can be used for both civilian and military
purposes.
Subject) IR
Q.4)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static portion related to inflation.
Source: https://www.nseindia.com/int_invest/content/regulatory_framework.htm
Explanation) Option (b) – 1, 2, 4 and 5, is the correct answer
Indian Capital Markets are regulated and monitored by the Ministry of Finance, The
Securities and Exchange Board of India and The Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Finance regulates through the Department of
Economic Affairs Capital Markets Division. The division is responsible for formulating the
policies related to the orderly growth and development of the securities markets (i.e. share,
debt and derivatives) as well as protecting the interest of the investors. In particular, it is
responsible for
 institutional reforms in the securities markets,
 building regulatory and market institutions,
 strengthening investor protection mechanism, and
 providing efficient legislative framework for securities markets.
Statement 4 is Correct: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory
authority established under the SEBI Act 1992 and is the principal regulator for Stock
Exchanges in India. SEBI’s primary functions include protecting investor interests, promoting
and regulating the Indian securities markets. All financial intermediaries permitted by their
respective regulators to participate in the Indian securities markets are governed by SEBI
regulations, whether domestic or foreign. Foreign Portfolio Investors are required to register
with DDPs in order to participate in the Indian securities markets.
Statement 2 is correct: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is
governed by the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI is responsible for implementing
monetary and credit policies, issuing currency notes, being banker to the government,
regulator of the banking system, manager of foreign exchange, and regulator of payment &
settlement systems while continuously working towards the development of Indian financial
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markets. The RBI regulates financial markets and systems through different legislations. It
regulates the foreign exchange markets through the Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999.
Statement 5 is correct: National Stock Exchange (NSE) – Rules and Regulations In the role
of a securities market participant, NSE is required to set out and implement rules and
regulations to govern the securities market. These rules and regulations extend to member
registration, securities listing, transaction monitoring, compliance by members to SEBI / RBI
regulations, investor protection etc. NSE has a set of Rules and Regulations specifically
applicable to each of its trading segments. NSE as an entity regulated by SEBI undergoes
regular inspections by them to ensure compliance.
Subject) Economics
Q.5)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently lake Urmia was in the news as it
reduced to one tenth of its size
Source: https://www.nationalgeographic.com/photography/proof/2018/04/lake-urmia-
iran-drought/
Explanation) Option (d) - Iran, is the correct answer
Lake Urmia is an endorheic Salt Lake in Iran. The lake is located between the provinces of
East Azerbaijan and West Azerbaijan in Iran, and west of the southern portion of the Caspian
Sea. At its greatest extent, it was the largest lake in the Middle East and the sixth-largest
saltwater lake on Earth, with a surface area of approximately 5,200 km2 (2,000 sq mi), a
length of 140 km (87 mi), a width of 55 km (34 mi), and a maximum depth of 16 m (52 ft).
The lake has shrunk to 10% of its former size due to damming of the rivers that flow into it,
and the pumping of groundwater from the surrounding area.
Subject) World Geography
Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Similar question was asked in the UPSC 2017
pre exam
Source: Indian Map
Explanation) Option (c) - 5, is the correct answer
One has to cross five states (Either Odisha, Chattisgarh, Telangana, Karnataka and Goa
route, or the Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Goa) if going from Cuttack
to Panaji via Hyderabad
Subject) Indian Geography
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Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): static portion. Election of vice president took
place in 2017.
Source: http://164.100.47.5/Chairman-Rajyasabha/VPElection.htm
Explanation) Option (d) - Neither 1 nor 2, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. All doubts and disputes in connection with the election of the vice
president are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Also, the election of person as vice president cannot be challenged
on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete.
Subject) Polity
Q.8)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC regularly asks the question about the
reports published by the major international organizations
Source: https://www.weforum.org/reports/the-future-of-jobs-report-2018
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/machines-will-rule-workplace-by-
2025/article24970906.ece
Explanation) Option (a) - World Economic Forum, is the correct answer
The Fourth Industrial Revolution is interacting with other socio-economic and demographic
factors to create a perfect storm of business model change in all industries, resulting in major
disruptions to labour markets. New categories of jobs will emerge, partly or wholly displacing
others. The skill sets required in both old and new occupations will change in most industries
and transform how and where people work. It may also affect female and male workers
differently and transform the dynamics of the industry gender gap.
The Future of Jobs Report aims to unpack and provide specific information on the relative
magnitude of these trends by industry and geography, and on the expected time horizon for
their impact to be felt on job functions, employment levels and skills.
Excerpts from the Report - In less than seven years, by 2025, machines are projected to
overtake humans in workplace task hours in 12 key industry sectors, according to a ‘Future
of Jobs’ report by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
Globally, almost half of all companies expect automation to cut their full-time workforce in
the next four years; however, new jobs will still lead to a net gain in employment opportunities
if sufficient reskilling is done. In India, 54% of employees in these sectors will need reskilling
by 2022, the WEF said in the report released on Monday.
In 2018, humans performed an average of 71% of total task hours across the 12 industries
spanning manufacturing, services and high tech. By 2025, that will drop to just 48%,
according to the WEF. Machines will perform the remaining 52%.
Subject) Indian Economy
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Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): static portion
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3968148/
Explanation) Option (c) is the correct answer
Alpha diversity: It refers to diversity within particular ecosystem
Beta Diversity: It is comparison of diversity between ecosystem
Gamma Diversity: It is a measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystem within
the region
Species Evenness: It is a measure of the proportion of species at the given site
Subject) Biodiversity
Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Important scheme of the present government
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183624
Explanation) Option (a) – 1 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: Under this 1.5 lakh existing sub centres will bring health care
system closer to the homes of people in the form of Health and wellness centres. These centres
will provide comprehensive health care, including for non-communicable diseases and
maternal and child health services.
List of Services to be provided at Health & Wellness Centre
 Pregnancy care and maternal health services
 Neonatal and infant health services
 Child health
 Chronic communicable diseases
 Non-communicable diseases
 Management of mental illness
 Dental care
 Eye care
 Geriatric care Emergency medicine
Statement 2 is incorrect: Also, a beneficiary covered under Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
Yojana will be allowed to take cashless benefit from any public sector or private sector
hospital
Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static ecology portion.
Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/earth-and-planetary-sciences/ecotone
Explanation) Option (a) - 2 only, is the correct answer
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For example, the
mangrove forest represents an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other
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examples are- grassland, estuary and river bank. Usually, the number and the population
density of the species of an outgoing community decreases as we move away from community
or ecosystem.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Sometimes the number of species and the population density of
some of the species is much greater in this zone than either community. This is called edge
effect.
Statement 2 is correct. The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this
zone are known as edge species. Hence.
Statement 3 is correct: A well-developed ecotones contain some organisms which are
entirely different from that of the adjoining communities.
Subject) Ecology
Q.12)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently the fourth meeting of SAWEN was
held in Kolkata
Source: http://www.sawen.org/pages/details/about
Explanation) Option (c) - both 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) is an inter-
governmental wildlife law enforcement support body of South Asian countries namely -
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAWEN
was officially launched in January 2011 in Paro Bhutan.
Statement 2 is incorrect. SAWEN operates its activities from the Secretariat based in
Kathmandu, Nepal.
Statement 3 is correct. SAWEN is now a legitimate intergovernmental organization with
endorsement of the SAWEN Statute by five countries namely Sri Lanka, India, Nepal, Pakistan
and Bangladesh. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
A major milestone towards the establishment of SAWEN was marked during the 11th
Meeting of the Governing Council of the South Asia Cooperative Environment Programme
(SACEP) held in May 2008 in Jaipur, India. This ministerial meeting announced the
support for the formation of SAWEN through the 'Jaipur Declaration'. The declaration
urged for the establishment of South Asia Expert Group on Illegal Wildlife Trade
consisting of relevant technical representatives from the eight South Asian countries.
Subject) Env - International Organisations
Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): ETF has been always been in news for last
one year.
Source: https://gulfbusiness.com/uae-saudi-reveal-details-common-digital-currency-aber/
Explanation) Option (b) is the correct answer
Option (a) is correct. ETFs are baskets of securities that are traded, like individual stocks, on
an exchange. Unlike regular open-end mutual funds, ETFs can be bought and sold
throughout the trading day like any stock. The ETFs trading value is based on the net asset
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value of the underlying stocks that it represents. An ETF is a marketable security that tracks
a stock index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets.
Option (d) is correct. Although similar in many ways, ETFs differ from mutual funds because
shares trade like common stock on an exchange. The price of an ETF’s shares will change
throughout the day as they are bought and sold.
Option (c) is correct. ETF shareholders are entitled to a proportion of the profits, such as
earned interest or dividends paid, and they may get a residual value in case the fund is
liquidated.
Option (b) is incorrect. Company share ownership usually confers voting rights because
shareholders are part owners of the business. But in case of ETFs, you own shares in the
ETF and the ETF owns the underlying securities, which means it’s the ETF provider that
wields the voting power and not the investor.
Q.14)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static.
Source: http://ncert.nic.in/textbook/textbook.htm?kegy2=12-16 | Page #101
Explanation) Option (d) is the correct answer
Q.15)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked):
Source: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/bharatnatyam.php | http://ccrtindia.gov.in/kathakali.php
http://ccrtindia.gov.in/kuchipudi.php
Explanation) Option (a) – 1 and 2 only, is the correct answer
Pair 1 is incorrect. The Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara is one of the main sources of
textual material, for the study of the technique and grammar of body movement in
Bharatnatyam Dance.
Pair 2 is incorrect. Kathakali derives its textual sanction from Balarama Bharatam and
Hastalakshana Deepika.
Pair 3 is correct. It is said that Siddhendra Yogi had a dream in which Lord Krishna asked
him to compose a dance drama based on the myth of the bringing of paarijaata flower for
Sathyabhaama, the most beloved queen of Krishna. In compliance with this command
Siddhendra Yogi composed the Bhaamaakalaapam which is till now considered the piece-
deresistance of the Kuchipudi repertoire. Siddhendra Yogi initiated young Brahmin boys of
Kuchipudi village to practice and perform his compositions particularly Bhaamaakalaapam.
Subject) Art and Culture
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Q.16)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static portion of history, commission has
been favourite of UPSC
Source: http://www.open.ac.uk/researchprojects/makingbritain/content/simon-report
Explanation) Option (b) - 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Statutory Commission, commonly referred to as the
Simon Commission after its chairman Sir John Allsebrook Simon, was sent to India in 1928
(February - March and October 1928 - April 1929) to study potential constitutional reform.
In 1930, the Commission published its two-volume report, also known as the Simon Report.
Lord Birkenhead was responsible for the appointment of Simon commission
Statement 2 is incorrect. Gandhiji himself did not participate directly in the protest against
Simon Commission but he gave his blessing to all the peaceful protestors. Hence, statement
2 is wrong
Statement 3 is correct. In London, the Workers' Welfare League of India and the London
Branch of the Indian National Congress organized a demonstration against the Commission.
Some 200 demonstrators marched from Trafalgar Square to Victoria Station; many of the
demonstrators were removed by the police. Shapurji Saklatvala, who led the demonstration,
raised the issue in Parliament but was informed that the Home Secretary, Joynson Hicks,
had sanctioned this police operation.
Subject) Modern History
Q.17)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Lagrangian points have been in the news
lately because of Aditya L1 mission
Source: http://astronomy.swin.edu.au/cosmos/T/Trojan+Asteroids
Asteroids sharing an orbit with a planet, but which are located at the leading (L4) and trailing
(L5) Lagrangian points, are known as Trojan asteroids. Although Trojan asteroids have been
discovered for Mars (4 to date, 1 at L4 and 3 at L5) and Neptune (8 Trojans, 6 at L4 and 2 at
L5) and even Earth (1 Trojan at L4), the term ‘Trojan asteroid’ generally refers to the asteroids
accompanying Jupiter.
Subject) Science
Q.18)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): ASAT missile has been launched recently by
India
Source: https://www.businesstoday.in/current/economy-politics/what-is-an-asat-pm-
narendra-modi-space-missile/story/331585.html
Explanation) Option (d) - None of the Above, is the correct answer
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Statement 1 is incorrect. The successful test of ASAT missile showed India's military
prowess and the country had entered an elite ASAT club. Until now, only USA, Russia and
China had operational ASAT systems. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The range of an ASAT is limited and depends on where it is
launched from. Satellites above the range of 20,000 kilometres are out of range.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The US and Russia have the capabilities of launching an ASAT
from the ship, land and space, while India, presently, has used a land installation.
ASATs can be used to intercept and jam communication or military satellites of enemy
countries in the time of war and stop them from communicating with their soldiers. It can
also be used to access critical information about troop movements or incoming missiles.
The anti-satellite weapons can even undertake pellet cloud attacks on enemy's low orbit
satellites. Other ASAT capabilities include cyber-attacks on space systems,
Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) explosion devices, directed energy (laser based) weapons and
targeted missiles for destruction of satellites to sabotage the enemy's military operations.
Although no ASAT system has yet been put to use in the actual war, several nations have
shot down their own (defunct) satellites to exhibit their ASAT prowess in a show of power.
Subject) Technology
Q.19)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The specie thought to be extinct was seen in
the Mumbai fish market in 2018. UPSC asks questions about such species.
Source:
https://www.wwfindia.org/about_wwf/priority_species/lesser_known_species/ganges_shar
k/
Explanation) Option (d) - 2 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is amongst the 20 most threatened shark species and is listed
as a Critically Endangered species in IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is correct. It inhabits the River Hooghly in West Bengal, as well as the rivers
Ganges, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi in the states of Bihar, Assam and Orissa. While some of
the other river sharks are also known to inhabit saltwater, the Ganges shark is only found in
rivers and estuaries, with no confirmed records from oceans or seas
Statement 3 is correct. The Ganges Shark is protected under schedule 1 of the Wildlife
Protection Act.
Sharks are the most important predators found in oceans across the world. But it is a
poorly known fact that sharks are also found in freshwater habitats in some countries.
There are six species of river sharks found in the world, out of which the Ganges shark
(Glyphis gangeticus) is endemic to India.
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Q.20)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC asks such questions, about
development of education, administration etc in the Paper
Source: A brief history of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Explanation) Option (d) - All of the above, is the correct answer
For the first 60 years of its dominion in India, the East India Company, a trading and profit-
making concern, took no concern in the promotion of education. Some minor efforts by the
individuals were:
Statement 1 is correct. The Calcutta Madrasa was established by Warren Hasting
Statement 2 is correct. The Sanskrit college was set up by Jonathan Duncan, the resident,
at Benaras
Statement 3 is correct. Fort William college was set by Richard Wellesley
The Calcutta Madrasa and the Sanskrit college were designed to provide a regular supply of
qualified Indians to help the administration of law in the company’s court, and the knowledge
of classical languages and vernaculars was useful in correspondence with Indian states.
Q.21)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Bond - I is recently released by World Bank
Source: https://www.worldbank.org/en/news/press-release/2018/08/23/world-bank-
prices-first-global-blockchain-bond-raising-a110-million
Explanation) Option (a) - Australian Dollar, is the correct answer
The World Bank launched bond-i (blockchain operated new debt instrument), the world’s first
bond to be created, allocated, transferred and managed through its life cycle using distributed
ledger technology. The two-year bond raised A$110 million, marking the first time that
investors have supported the World Bank’s development activities in a transaction that is
fully managed using the blockchain technology.
The World Bank mandated Commonwealth Bank of Australia (CBA) as arranger for the bond
on August 10. The announcement was followed by a two-week consultation period with the
market, with key investors indicating strong support for the issuance.
Subject) Economics
Q.22)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/expert-committee-
suggests-rs-9-750-a-month-as-national-minimum-wage-119021500036_1.html
Explanation). Option (d) is the correct answer
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Q.23)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently South Korea rolled out 5 G
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/how-5g-will-be-a-game-changer-
at-every-level/article22245504.ece1
https://www.digitaltrends.com/mobile/what-is-5g/
Explanation) Option (d) – 1, 2, 3 and 4, is the correct answer
Remote device control: Since 5G has remarkably low latency, remote control of heavy
machinery will become a reality. While the primary aim is to reduce risk in hazardous
environments, it will also allow technicians with specialized skills to control machinery from
anywhere in the world.
Health care: The ultra-reliable low latency communications (URLLC) component of 5G could
fundamentally change health care. Since URLLC reduces 5G latency even further than what
you’ll see with enhanced mobile broadband. Expect to see improvements in telemedicine,
remote recovery and physical therapy via AR, precision surgery, and even remote surgery in
the coming years.
Massive Machine-Type Communications (mMTC) will also play a key role in health care.
Hospitals can create massive sensor networks to monitor patients, physicians can prescribe
smart pills to track compliance, and insurers can even monitor subscribers to determine
appropriate treatments and processes.
IoT: One of the most exciting and crucial aspects of 5G is its effect on the Internet of Things.
While we currently have sensors that can communicate with each other, they tend to require
a lot of resources and are quickly depleting LTE data capacity.
With 5G speeds and low latencies, the IoT will be powered by communications among sensors
and smart devices (here’s mMTC again). Compared to current smart devices on the market,
mMTC devices will require fewer resources, since huge numbers of these devices can connect
to a single base station, making them much more efficient.
Autonomous vehicles: Expect to see autonomous vehicles rise at the same rate that 5G is
deployed across. In the future, your vehicle will communicate with other vehicles on the road,
provide information to other cars about road conditions, and provide performance
information to drivers and automakers. If a car brakes quickly up ahead, yours may learn
about it immediately and pre-emptively brake as well, preventing a collision. This kind of
vehicle-to-vehicle communication could ultimately save thousands of lives
Subject) Technology
Q.24)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently India invoked the MFN status of
Pakistan
Source: https://www.wto.org/english/thewto_e/whatis_e/TIF_e/fact2_e.htm
Explanation) Option (d) - World Trade Organization, is the correct answer
Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally Under the WTO agreements,
countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. Grant someone a
special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products) and you have to
do the same for all other WTO members.
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Under WTO norms, once a country gets Market Economy status, exports from it are to be
accepted at the production costs and selling price as the benchmark. Prior to this status,
country is considered as a Non Market Economy (NME). Under the WTO norms, the importing
countries are allowed to use alternative methodologies for the determination of normal values
for the exports from NME country. It often leads to imposition of higher anti-dumping duties
by importing countries to protect its domestic market.
Q.25)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Random General knowledge-based question
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Politics/zMhowFzkONQkLllh9ycZtK/PM-Modi-
inaugurates-Bogibeel-Indias-longest-railroad-brid.html
The Bogibeel bridge over the Brahmaputra will boost defence logistics along the China border
and reduce travel time for rail passengers and road users
Subject) General Awareness
Q.26)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static Portion
Source: A Brief History of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Explanation) Option (c) - 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: The Government passed Religious disability act to facilitate religious
conversion into Christianity.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The privileges of free postage so long enjoyed by the sepoys was
withdrawn with the passing of the Post Office Act of 1854 by Dalhousie.
Statement 3 is correct. Lord Canning’s government passed the General Service Enlistment
Act in 1856 which decreed that all the future recruits for the Bengal army would have to give
an understanding to serve anywhere their services might be required by the government.
Q.27)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source: Indian Polity Fifth edition by Lakshmikanth
Explanation) Option (a) – 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Guillotine closure is one, when the undiscussed clauses of a
bill are also put to vote along with discussed ones due to want of time.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kangaroo is the one, where only clauses are taken up before
debate and voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed.
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Statement 3 is correct. In Closure by compartments the clauses of bill or lengthy resolution

are grouped into parts before commencement of debate. The debate covers the part as a
whole, and the entire part is put to vote.
Subject) Polity
Q.28)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static, similar question asked in the past
Source: A brief history of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Explanation) Option (b) - K Kelappan, is the correct answer.
The observance of the Independence Day in 1930 was followed by the launching of the Civil
Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhi. It began with the famous Dandi
March of Gandhi. On 12 March 1930, Gandhi left the Sabarmati Ashram at Ahmadabad on
foot with 78 other members of the Ashram for Dandi, a village on the western sea-coast of
India, at a distance of about 385 km from Ahmadabad. They reached Dandi on 6 April 1930.
There, Gandhi broke the salt law. It was illegal for anyone to make salt as it was a government
monopoly. Gandhi defied the government by picking up a handful of salt which had been
formed by the evaporation of sea. The defiance of the salt law was followed by the spread of
Civil Disobedience Movement all over the country. Making of salt spread throughout the
country in the first phase of the civil disobedience movement, it became a symbol of the
people’s defiance of the government.
In Tamil Nadu, C. Rajgopalachari led a march-similar to Dandi march-from Trichinopoly to
Vedaranyam. In Dharsana, in Gujarat, Sarojini Naidu, the famous poetess who was a
prominent leader of the congress and had been president of the congress, led non-violent
satyagrahis in a march to the salt depots owned by the government. In Malabar, K. Kelappan
led the march from Calicut to Payyanur.
Q.29)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC regularly asks questions about the
departments
Source: Indian Year Book
Explanation) Option (b) - Department of Financial Services, is the correct answer
The mandate of the Department of Financial Services covers the functioning of Banks,
Financial Institutions, Insurance Companies and the National Pension System. The
Department is headed by the Secretary, (Financial Services) who is assisted by three
Additional Secretary (AS), six Joint Secretaries (JS), two Economic Advisers (EA) and a Deputy
Director General (DDG).
The Department of Financial Services (DFS) oversees several key programs/initiatives and
reforms of the Government concerning the Banking Sector, Insurance Sector and the Pension
Sector in India. Initiatives and reforms relating to Financial Inclusion, Social Security, and
Insurance as a Risk Transfer mechanism; Credit Flow to the key sectors of the economy/
farmers/ common man are some of the key focus areas being dealt by the Department.
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The key flagship schemes being currently run/managed by the Department include the
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY),
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY),
Atal Pension Yojana (APY), Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) and the Stand Up
India Scheme
Q.30)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The Indian Space Research Organisation has
selected ten companies for transfer of its Lithium-ion cell technology.
Source: https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/isro-selects-10-firms-for-
transfer-of-lithium-ion-technology-119013001320_1.html
https://www.isro.gov.in/update/06-aug-2018/transfer-of-vssc-developed-lithium-ion-cell-
technology-to-industries
Explanation) Option (d) – 1, 2 and 3, is the correct answer
Lithium-ion (Li-ion) cell technology is one of the most promising electrochemical energy
storage technologies owing to its high voltage, high energy density, long life cycle and high
storage characteristics. It finds wide applications in electronic gadgets, tele-communication
and industrial applications as well as in aerospace. Recent progresses in Li-ion battery
technology have made it the favourite power source for electric and hybrid electric vehicles.
ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) has successfully developed and qualified
lithium ion cells of capacities ranging from 1.5 Ah to 100 Ah for use in satellites and launch
vehicles. With the successful deployment of indigenous lithium ion batteries in various
missions of ISRO, VSSC is planning to transfer this technology to the industries to establish
production facilities for producing lithium ion cells to cover the entire spectrum of power
storage requirements of the country.
Subject) Technology
Q.31)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently India signed currency swap
agreement with Japan
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/forex/whats-in-it-for-india-in-75-
billion-currency-swap-pact-in-japan/articleshow/66443182.cms
Explanation) Option (b), is the correct answer
A currency swap agreement between the two countries is signed between the central banks.
In this case, RBI will get a certain amount of yen and the Bank of Japan will get an equivalent
amount in Indian rupees. The rate will be decided on the basis of prevailing market rates.
Later, both of the countries will repay the amount at the same exchange rate. In return, there
will be a swap rate to be decided by the two countries. Normally, they will be linked to London
inter-bank rate, called Libor. Japan has done this with a number of countries, including
China, Malaysia, Singapore, Indonesia and Thailand, among others. Previously, India had
this kind of an agreement in the past, but never used it.
Subject) Economics
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Q.32)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently first thermal battery plant was
opened
Source: https://www.financialexpress.com/auto/car-news/worlds-first-from-india-how-
thermal-batteries-could-change-the-fate-of-evs/1272232/
Statement 1 is correct. Thermal batteries operate through the transfer of energy to operate,
with energy being created by the temperature difference between the terminals.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The differential gradient causes the transfer of energy. To allow
for this a thermal battery consists of two parts: a cool zone which is known as the sink, and
a hot source called source.
Statement 3 is correct. Both sides have compounds known as phase-changing materials
(PCM), which change their existing state (solid-liquid or gas) based on the reaction. Hence
statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct. Thereby allowing the battery to work of
heat derived from any source making the Thermal battery one of the most versatile battery
technologies at present in the world. The technology itself was patent in India in 2016 by one,
Dr Patrick Glynn.
Subject) Technology
Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently, Mt Merapi is an active volcano which
was involved in the six incandescent Lava avalanches
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indonesias-merapi-volcano-
erupts-forcing-evacuation-of-residents-and-airport-closure/article23847108.ece
Explanation) Option (c) - Indonesia, is the correct answer
The Mount Merapi volcano on the densely-populated Java island is one of the most active
volcanoes in Indonesia and a series of eruptions in 2010 killed more than 350 people.
Subject) Geo - Mapping
Q.34)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently there has lot of news about rising
inequality in the Indian Society
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Opinion/cKANmzpb67z9wlSmmtP54L/The-
measurement-of-economic-inequality-in-India.html
Explanation) Option (a) is the correct answer
The measurement of income inequality generally revolves around the identification of a
summary number which captures the deviations of the incomes of a society’s members from
the mean income, which is, of course, the norm of equality. Or sometimes, the summary
number captures some average of the deviations of each person’s income from each other
person’s income. Some widely used measures of inequality in this tradition are the so-called
Gini coefficient (named after the Italian statistician Corrado Gini), which can be related to the
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area beneath an interesting curve, called the Lorenz curve (named after the American
economist Max O. Lorenz). The curve presents a pictorial representation of inequality by
plotting a society’s cumulative income share against its cumulative population share
(arranged in ascending order of income).
Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static
Source: Medieval India NCERT by Satish Chandra
As an administrator Sher Shah Suri ruled the mightiest empire which had come into the
existence in North India since the rule of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
Statement 1 is correct. In course of time each sarai developed into a market town or
Quasbas to which peasants gathered to sell their goods. These sarais also served as Dak
Chowki stages. By means of Dak Chowkis, Shershah used to gather information about the
developments in the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Sher shah Suri developed a strong army to administer the vast
empire. He dispensed with tribal levies under tribal chief and recruited soldiers directly based
on their character. Each soldier had his description recorded (Chehra) and his horse branded
with the royal sign so that the horse of superior quality cannot be replaced with the inferior
quality horse. Sher shah Suri seems to have borrowed this system from the military reforms
of Alauddin Khilji.
Subject) Medieval History
Q.36)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: http://ncert.nic.in/textbook/textbook.htm?legy2=5-12 | Page # 44
Explanation) Option (d) - 1, 2, 3 and 4, is the correct answer
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Q.37)
Ans) c
Exp)
Source: Lakshmikanth Polity Fifth Edition
Explanation) Option (c) - Australia, is the correct answer
Joint Sitting of the two houses has been taken from the Australian Constitution. Mentioned
in article 108, the Joint sitting provision helps to prevent the deadlock between the two
houses over any bill, other than a money bill.
The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President (Article 108) and is presided over
by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence,
the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Chairman doesn't preside over the joint
session at any means/cost. If any of the above officers are not present, then any other
member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of both the House.
Subject) Polity
Q.38)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static portion
Source: https://www.britannica.com/plant/epiphyte
Epiphytes are the plants that grow on the host plant but are not nourished by the host plant.
They do not draw the food from the host plant. They only take the help of the host plant is
getting access to the light. The roots perform two functions. The changing roots of Epiphytes
establish the plant on the branches of host plant and the aerial roots draw the moisture from
the air.
Q.39)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC asks question about Indus valley
civilization on the regular basis
Source: Theme in Indian History - I, NCERT
Explanation) Option (c) – 2 only, is the correct answer
The Harappans ate a wide range of plant and animal products, including fish. Archaeologists
have been able to reconstruct dietary practices from finds of charred grains and seeds. These
are studied by archaeo-botanists, who are specialists in ancient plant remains.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Grains found at Harappan sites include wheat, barley, lentil,
chickpea and sesame. Millets are found from sites in Gujarat. Finds of rice are relatively rare.
Statement 2 is correct. Animal bones found at Harappan sites include those of cattle, sheep,
goat, buffalo and pig. Studies done by archaeo-zoologists or zooarchaeologists indicate that
these animals were domesticated. Bones of wild species such as boar, deer and gharial are
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also found. We do not know whether the Harappans hunted these animals themselves or
obtained meat from other hunting communities. Bones of fish and fowl are also found.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed field at

Kalibangan (Rajasthan), associated with Early Harappan levels. The field had two sets of
furrows at right angles to each other, suggesting that two different crops were grown together.
Archaeologists have also tried to identify the tools used for harvesting.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Most Harappan sites are located in semi-arid lands, where
irrigation was probably required for agriculture. Traces of canals have been found at the
Harappan site of Shortughai in Afghanistan, but not in Punjab or Sind. It is possible that
ancient canals silted up long ago. It is also likely that water drawn from wells was used for
irrigation. Besides, water reservoirs found in Dholavira (Gujarat) may have been used to store
water for agriculture.
Subject) Ancient History
Q.40)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1KvnL5-x4VXmxXit8vyBjrwybl15aPe5t/view |
Page# 43 - 44
It is released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UN). The United Nations defines
rule of law as having three related components firstly, law should be consistent with
fundamental rights secondly it must be inclusively developed and fairly effectuated and
thirdly the law should bring forth accountability not just on paper, but in practice.
Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: Theme in Indian History - II, NCERT
Statement 1 is correct. He considered that knowledge gained though travelling is more
important than knowledge gained through the books.
Statement 2 is correct. When he came to India, the then ruler Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
made him Qazi of the Delhi. Later he also sends him to China as part of his special envoy.
Statement 3 is correct. After his travels he returned to Morocco and gave his account of the
experience to Ibn Juzay. In his book Rihala, he has mentioned the various social and cultural
aspects of the fourteenth century.
Abu Abdullah Muhammad Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan Muslim scholar and traveler. He
was known for his traveling and undertaking excursions called the Rihla. His journeys
lasted for a period of almost thirty years, covering nearly the whole of the known Islamic
world and beyond. They extended from North Africa, West Africa, Southern Europe and
Eastern Europe in the West, to the Middle East, Indian subcontinent, Central Asia,
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Southeast Asia and China in the East, a distance readily surpassing that of his
predecessors.
Q.42)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently NOTA was in news due to the order
passed by the Maharashtra government ordering reelection if the maximum vote goes for
NOTA and also NOTA was scraped off from the Rajya Sabha Election.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/state-ec-to-order-fresh-
elections-if-nota-polls-maximum-votes-5436615/
Explanation) Option (c) - Maharashtra, is the correct answer
Five years after the Supreme Court ordered the Election Commission (EC) to introduce a
‘None of the Above’ (NOTA) button on all electronic voting machines (EVMs), Maharashtra has
taken the next step. In a landmark order, the Maharashtra State Election Commission
(MSEC) on Tuesday ruled that should NOTA ever get the maximum number of votes in an
election, then none of the contesting candidates will be declared as elected and fresh elections
would be held.
The MSEC, which supervises elections to panchayats and municipalities in the state, has
ruled that the order will be applicable to polls and bypolls to all municipal corporations,
municipal councils and nagar panchayats, with immediate effect.
Subject) Polity
Q.43)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The International Conference on Status and
Protection of Coral Reefs (STAPCOR-2018) took place in Bangaram island of Lakshadweep.
Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZJqBxtvUQ2E8UUHX_pMueDkOuRJ3bkRp/view
| Page # 42 -43
Explanation) Option (b) is the correct answer.
Q.44)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: Lakshmikant Polity
Statement 1 is incorrect. Freedom of information act 2002 was the precursor to Right to
Information Act, 2005 of Parliament of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. CIC/IC are appointed by the President on the recommendation of
the committee that is constituted as below:
Section 12(3) of the RTI Act 2005 provides as follows.
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 The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee;

 The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha ; and
 A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
Subject) Polity
Q.45)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently the new moon of Neptune was
discovered.
Source: https://www.nasa.gov/mission_pages/SOFIA/overview/index.html
SOFIA, the Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy, is a Boeing 747SP aircraft
modified to carry a 2.7-meter (106-inch) reflecting telescope (with an effective diameter of 2.5
meters or 100 inches). Flying into the stratosphere at 38,000-45,000 feet puts SOFIA above
99 percent of Earth’s infrared-blocking atmosphere, allowing astronomers to study the solar
system and beyond in ways that are not possible with ground-based telescopes. SOFIA is
made possible through a partnership between NASA and the German Aerospace Centre
(DLR).
The observatory’s mobility allows researchers to observe from almost anywhere in the world
and enables studies of transient events that often take place over oceans where there are no
telescopes. For example, astronomers on SOFIA studied eclipse-like events of Pluto, Saturn’s
moon Titan, and Kuiper Belt Object MU69, the next flyby target for NASA’s New Horizons
spacecraft, to study the objects’ atmospheres and surroundings.
Subject) Technology
Q.46)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recent fluctuation in the Indian rupee.
Source: The rise and growth of economic nationalism in India by Bipan Chandra
The Indian Currency Committee or Fowler Committee was a government committee appointed
by the British-run Government of India on 29 April 1898 to examine the currency situation
in India.
Until 1892, silver was the metal on which Indian currency and coinage had largely been
based. In 1892, the Government of India announced its intent to "close Indian mints to silver"
and, in 1893, it brought this policy into force.
The committee recommended that the official Indian rupee be based on the gold standard
and the official exchange rate of the rupee be established at 15 rupees per British sovereign,
or 1 shilling and 4 pence per rupee. The British Imperial Government accepted the
recommendations of the commission in July 1899.
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Q.47)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source: Medieval India NCERT, Satish Chandra
Akbar introduced “Men” (mound) which was divided into 40 equal parts called “seer”. Though
the seer and its subdivisions were standard Mughal weights yet weighing in Kashmir was
done in Kharwars and Traks. Even the payment in cash was calculated in kharwars of paddy
and the measurement of land in Traks, which was equal to ¼ of an acre of the present day
30.
Q.48)
Ans) c
Exp)
Source: A Brief history of Modern India by Rajiv Ahir
Statement 1 is correct. At age 25, Deshmukh started writing articles aimed at social reform
in Maharashtra in the weekly Prabhakar under the pen name Lokhitwadi. In the first two
years, he penned 108 articles on social reform. That group of articles has come to be known
in Marathi literature as Lokhitawadinchi Shatapatre.
Statement 2 is correct. He started a weekly Hitechchhu in both Gujarati and English. He
also started " Gujarati Budhhi-Wardhak Sabha". Deshmukh founded a public library in Pune
under the leadership of the then governor of the state of Bombay, Henry Brown. He took a
leadership role in founding Gyan Prakash, Indu Prakash, and Lokhitwadi periodicals in
Maharashtra.
Q.49)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): It was in news recently
Source: https://unfccc.int/topics/adaptation-and-resilience/workstreams/loss-and-
damage-ld/warsaw-international-mechanism-for-loss-and-damage
Statement 1 is correct. This mechanism is related to the United Nation Framework
Convention on Climate Change
Statement 2 is correct. At COP19 (November 2013) in Warsaw, Poland, the COP established
the Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage associated with Climate Change
Impacts (Loss and Damage Mechanism), to address loss and damage associated with impacts
of climate change, including extreme events and slow onset events, in developing countries
that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The implementation
of the functions of the Loss and Damage Mechanism will be guided by the Executive
Committee under the guidance of the COP.
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Q.50)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently Indian navy ran this operation to
evacuate the Indians stranded at Socotra Island
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/operation-nistar-indian-navy-brings-
back-38-indians-from-cyclone-hit-socotra-island-in-yemen-5208132/
Explanation) Option (a) – Yemen, is the correct answer
Indian Navy launched ‘Operation Nistar’ to evacuate 38 stranded Indians around Socotra
island located close to the horn of Africa between the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea.
Socotra Islands are part of Yemen.
Subject) General Awareness
Q.51)
Ans) c
Exp)
Source: India’s struggle for Independence by Bipan Chandra
Explanation) Option (c) - 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. In 1929, in order to court arrest, Shaheed Bhagat Singh and
Batukeshwar Dutt threw political handouts and smoke bombs at the Delhi Central Legislative
Assembly. The aim behind the bombing was not to cause harm but protest against the
passing of two repressive bills, the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill. They were
tried for the same.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Surya Sen had actively participated in the Non-Cooperation
Movement and had become a teacher in a national school in Chittagong, which led to him
being popularly known as Masterda.
Statement 3 is correct. The Philosophy of bomb was written by Bhagwati charan vohra and
Chandrashekhar Azad.
Q.52)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source: http://www.walkthroughindia.com/know-the-difference/comparison-difference-
deer-antelope/
Deer and Antelope are very similar in appearance and both are members of the Artiodactyla.
Both are Even toed ungulate but Antelope belong to Bovidae family and has horns, while
Deer belong to Cervidae family and has branched antlers.
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Q.53)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently Indian army participated in the
military exercise with Japan. Also, Japan is one of the strategic partners of India in world
diplomacy
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-japan-military-exercise-dharma-
guardian-2018-begins-in-mizoram-5429954/
Explanation) Option (c) - Japan, is the correct answer
India and Japan concluded their first land-based joint military exercise. The first iteration of
the Dharma Guardian exercise between the Indian Army and Japan’s Ground Self-Defense
Force (GSDF) concluded in the north-eastern Indian state of Mizoram.
The primary focus of the exercise was to train and equip the contingents to undertake joint
counter-insurgency and counter-terrorist operations in urban and semi urban terrain,
according to a statement released by the Indian Ministry of Defense.
The statement also outlined the exercise’s focus on counterterrorism operations and
increasing the interoperability of the Indian Army and the GSDF. The Indian side was
represented by the 6/1 Gorkha Rifles and the GSDF was represented by the 32 Infantry
Regiment.
Subject) IR
Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC asks question regularly from
Buddhism, Jainism and their sects
Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Jataka
Explanation) Option (c) - Buddhism, is the correct answer
Jataka, (Pali and Sanskrit: “Birth”) any of the extremely popular stories of former lives of the
Buddha, which are preserved in all branches of Buddhism. Some Jataka tales are scattered
in various sections of the Pali canon of Buddhist writings, including a group of 35 that were
collected for didactic purposes. These 35 constitute the last book, the Cariya Pitaka (“Basket
of Conduct”), of the Khuddaka Nikaya (“Short Collection”).
Q.55)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: Ancient India by R S Sharma
Explanation) Option (d) - 1, 2 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. It is suggested that traders too supported the Buddhist monks, for
the earliest caves seem to have been located on the trade routes. The Satavahanas were also
the first rulers to make land grants to brahmanas, although we find more instances of such
grants being made to Buddhist monks.
Statement 2 is correct. The Satavahana kingdom had three grades of feudatories. The
highest grade was formed by the king who was called raja and had the right to strike coins.
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The second grade was formed by the mahabhoja, and the third grade by the senapati. It
sterns that these feudatories and landed beneficiaries enjoyed some authority in their
respective localities.
Statement 3 is correct. Gathasaptasati is the book written in Prakrit, attributed to
satavahana king Hala.
Subject) Ancient History
Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently this movement caught attention of
international media when approximately 75 country’s students participated in it.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-schools-
strike-for-climate/article26534098.ece
The Schools Strike for Climate is a global, growing movement of students demanding more
action from authorities regarding global warming and climate change. The movement began
last year as a solo protest by a 15-year-old Swedish girl Greta Thunberg outside the Swedish
Parliament building. It has since grown, and on March 15, thousands of students from across
continents are expected to skip school and take part in protests. It is said to be the largest
such protest.
Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): the dialogue was concluded recently
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-afghanistan-central-asian-
nations-agree-to-cooperate-in-countering-terror/article25985680.ece
Explanation) Option (d) - 1, 2 and 3, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The first India-Central Asia Dialogue was held in Samarkand,
Uzbekistan on January 12 and 13, and was co-chaired by External Affairs Minister (EAM)
Sushma Swaraj and the Foreign Minister of Uzbekistan, Abdulaziz Kamilov.
Statement 2 is correct. The Foreign Minister of Afghanistan participated in the dialogue as
a special invitee for the session dedicated to connectivity issues in the region, while the
Foreign Ministers of the Kyrgyz Republic, Tajikistan and Turkmenistan and the First Deputy
Foreign Minister of Kazakhstan represented their respective countries at the event.
Statement 3 is correct. The participants welcomed the accession of India into the Ashgabat
agreement on creating an international transport and transit corridor.
Subject) IR
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Q.58)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): ISRO is working toward green technology to
reduce its impact on environment.
ISRO is developing green propellants for use in future rocket & satellite propulsion systems.
All space faring nations have been investigating green propulsion systems to minimise
environmental impact while improving overall efficiency and economy. ISRO has made a
beginning by developing an eco-friendly solid propellant based on Glycidyl Azide Polymer
(GAP) as fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as oxidizer at the laboratory level, which
will eliminate the emission of chlorinated exhaust products from rocket motors. In addition,
ISRO is also carrying out various technology demonstration projects involving green
propellant combinations such as Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2), Kerosene, Liquid Oxygen (LOX),
Liquid Methane, ADN-Methanol-water, ADN-Glycerol-water etc.
ISRO has already begun the move towards environment-friendly and green propellants with
the acceptance of Liquid Oxygen (LOX)/Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) and LOX/Kerosene based
propulsion systems for launch vehicles and use of electric propulsion for spacecraft. The
LOX/LH2 combination is already being used in the cryogenic upper stages of GSLV and GSLV
Mk-III launch vehicles. ISRO has successfully developed ISROSENE, which is a rocket grade
version of kerosene as an alternative to conventional hydrazine rocket fuel. ISRO has
successfully demonstrated electric propulsion system for station keeping operations in the
South Asia Satellite, launched on May 5, 2017.
Subject) Technology
Q.59)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The question is asked in the context of recent
elections
Source: https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/model-code-conduct-and-2019-general-
elections
The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties
and candidates prior to elections, to ensure free and fair elections. This is in keeping with
Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives the Election Commission the power to supervise
elections to the Parliament and state legislatures. The MCC is operational from the date that
the election schedule is announced till the date that results are announced. Thus, for the
general elections this year, the MCC came into force on March 10, 2019, when the election
schedule was announced, and will operate till May 23, 2019, when the final results will be
announced. Hence Statement A is incorrect.
According to a Press Information Bureau release, a form of the MCC was first introduced in
the state assembly elections in Kerala in 1960. It was a set of instructions to political parties
regarding election meetings, speeches, slogans, etc. In the 1962 general elections to the Lok
Sabha, the MCC was circulated to recognised parties, and state governments sought feedback
from the parties. The MCC was largely followed by all parties in the 1962 elections and
continued to be followed in subsequent general elections. In 1979, the Election Commission
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added a section to regulate the ‘party in power’ and prevent it from gaining an unfair
advantage at the time of elections.
In 2013, the Supreme Court directed the Election Commission to include guidelines regarding
election manifestos, which it had included in the MCC for the 2014 general elections.
Subject) Polity
Q.60)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static Portion. UPSC asks questions from the
Preamble, Fundamental right and the Fundamental Duties.
Source: Lakshmikanth, Fifth Edition
Statement 1 is correct. The term Justice in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms:
Social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of the Fundamental and
Directive Principles. Social justice in the Preamble means that the Constitution wants to
create a more equitable society based on equal social status. Economic justice means
equitable distribution of wealth among the individual members of the society so that wealth
is not concentrated in few hands. Political Justice means that all citizens have equal rights
in political participation. Indian Constitution provides for universal adult suffrage and equal
value for each vote.
Statement 2 is correct. A combination of Social and Economic justice is known as
“Distributive Justice”.
Statement 3 is correct. The ideal of justice- Social, Political and Economic has been taken
from Russian Revolution.
Subject) Polity
Q.61)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC since last two years is asking such
question
Source: Political Theory, Class XI NCERT
If in a society deep and persistent divisions exist between those who enjoy the greater wealth
and property, and the power which goes with such ownership, and those who are excluded
and deprived, we would say social justice is lacking there.
Justice does not require absolute equality and the sameness in the way in which people live.
But the society would be considered unjust if the difference between the rich and the poor
are so great that they seem to be living in a different world altogether, and if the relatively
deprived have no chance at all to improve their condition.
Subject) Polity
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Q.62)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source:
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct.
Q.63)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently in news
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/miscellaneous/worlds-largest-
brain-like-supercomputer-switched-on-for-first-time/spinnaker-worlds-largest-brain-like-
supercomputer/slideshow/66586789.cms
Explanation) Option (d), is the correct answer
Spinnaker is the world's largest supercomputer designed to work in the same way as the
human brain has been switched on for the first time.
The newly formed million-processor-core Spiking Neural Network Architecture (SpiNNaker)
machine is capable of completing more than 200 million million actions per second, with each
of its chips having 100 million transistors.
Subject) Technology
Q.64)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): These are cities having conflict in the Middle
East. UPSC asks such questions on the regular basis
Source: World Atlas
Explanation) Option (c) - 2 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correctly matched. Sanaʽa is the largest city in Yemen and the centre of
Sanaʽa Governorate. The city is not part of the Governorate but forms the separate
administrative district of "Amanat Al-Asemah". Under the Yemeni constitution, Sanaʽa is the
capital of the country, although the seat of the internationally recognised government moved
to Aden in the aftermath of the September 21 Revolution. Aden was declared as the temporary
capital by President Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi in March 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrectly matched. Palmyra lies 215 km (134 mi) northeast of the Syrian
capital, Damascus, in an oasis surrounded by palms (of which twenty varieties have been
reported). Two mountain ranges overlook the city; the northern Palmyrene mountain belt
from the north and the southern Palmyrene mountains from the southwest. In the south and
the east Palmyra is exposed to the Syrian Desert. A small wadi (al-Qubur) crosses the area,
flowing from the western hills past the city before disappearing in the eastern gardens of the
oasis. South of the wadi is a spring, Efqa. Pliny the Elder described the town in the 70s AD
as famous for its desert location, the richness of its soil, and the springs surrounding it,
which made agriculture and herding possible. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Statement 3 is correctly matched. Tripoli is the capital city and the largest city of Libya,
with a population of about 1.158 million people in 2018. It is located in the northwest of Libya
on the edge of the desert, on a point of rocky land projecting into the Mediterranean Sea and
forming a bay. It includes the port of Tripoli and the country's largest commercial and
manufacturing centre. It is also the site of the University of Tripoli. The vast Bab al-Azizia
barracks, which includes the former family estate of Muammar Gaddafi, is also located in the
city. Colonel Gaddafi largely ruled the country, from his residence in this barracks.
Statement 4 is correctly matched. The fall of Mazar-i-Sharif (or Mazar-e-Sharif) in
November 2001 resulted from the first major offensive of the Afghanistan War after American
intervention. A push into the city of Mazar-i-Sharif in Balkh Province by the United Islamic
Front for the Salvation of Afghanistan (Northern Alliance), combined with U.S. Army Special
Forces aerial bombardment, resulted in the withdrawal of Taliban forces who had held the
city since 1998. After the fall of outlying villages, and an intensive bombardment, the Taliban
and al-Qaeda forces withdrew from the city. Several hundred pro-Taliban fighters, including
many Pakistani volunteers, were killed. Approximately 500 were captured, and approximately
1,000 reportedly defected. The capture of Mazar-i-Sharif was the first major defeat for the
Taliban.
Subject) IR
Q.65)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): It was recently in news
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/all-you-need-to-know-about-
graded-surveillance-measure/article19747350.ece
SEBI introduced the measure to keep a tab on securities that witness an abnormal price rise
that is not commensurate with financial health and fundamentals of the company such as
earnings, book value, price to earnings ratio among others.
The underlying principle behind the graded surveillance framework is to alert and protect
investors trading in a security, which is seeing abnormal price movements. SEBI may put
shares of companies under the measure for suspected price rigging or under the ambit of
shell companies. The measure would provide a heads up to market participants that they
need to be extra cautious and diligent while dealing in such securities put under surveillance.
Subject) Economics
Q.66)
Ans) b
Exp)
Source: http://ncert.nic.in/textbook/textbook.htm?kegy2=14-16 | Page # 117
Explanation) Option (b) - 2 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. Waves are actually the energy, not the waters such, which moves
across the ocean surface. Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes. Wind
provides energy to the waves. Wind causes waves to travel in the ocean and the energy is
released on shorelines.
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Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between the

gravitational attraction of the moon and the centrifugal force.
Q.67)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): ARIA is in news recently. It reaffirms U.S.
security commitments to our allies in the Indo-Pacific, including Japan, South Korea, and
Australia and builds security partnerships with nations in Southeast Asia.
Source: https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/in-new-us-law-india-s-vital-role-in-
indo-pacific-strategy-reaffirmed/story-a2wAoRpDCtJNBFBpBuhYqJ.html
Explanation) Option (c) – Both 1 and 2, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. Called the “Asia Reassurance Initiative Act, 2018”, it builds on the
Trump Administration’s National Security Strategy announced in 2017 that had defined the
Indo-Pacific as a region that “stretches from the west coast of India to the western shores of
the United States”, which, it had said, was witnessing a “geopolitical competition between
free and repressive visions of world order”. The ARIA Act, specifically, calls for America’s
increased engagement in the Indo-Pacific region and strengthened support, including arms
sales, for U.S. allies in the region.
Statement 2 is correct. The top challenge facing US and the international system backed
by it is China’s illegal construction and militarisation of artificial features in the South China
Sea and coercive economic practices, which is a concern that America shares with India,
Japan, Australia and others. The other threats, in that order, were North Korea’s acceleration
of its nuclear and ballistic missile capabilities; and terrorisms, increased presence
throughout Southeast Asia of the Islamic State and other international terrorist organisations
that threaten the United States.
Subject) IR
Q.68)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static Portion, Wagon tragedy mural was
removed after complaints
Source: https://www.deccanherald.com/national/south/tirur-wagon-tragedy-mural-
702199.html
Explanation) Option (c) - Mappila revolt, is the correct answer
The wagon tragedy was the death of 67 prisoners on 20 November 1921 in the Malabar region
of Kerala state of India. The prisoners had been taken into custody following the Mappila
Rebellion against British Colonial rule and Hindu landlords. Their deaths through apparent
negligence discredited the British Raj and generated sympathy for the Indian independence
movement.
In order to attract more Muslim support to the Indian National Movement, Mahatma Gandhi
and the national leaders of India initially supported the Khilafat movement and merged it to
the famous Non Cooperation Movement. This succeeded in bringing almost all sections of
Indians under one flag for a Pan-Indian movement for the first time. The southern Malabar
district welcomed this movement in a great spirit. However, in Eranad and Walluvanad taluks
it took the form of an armed rebellion by the Muslim Mappila community. After a series of
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events that culminated in violent clashes between police and protesters, martial law was
introduced and the rebellion was mostly crushed.
On 10 November 1921, when the uprising was near its end, almost 90 detained Muslim rebels
were sent by train from Tirur to the Central Prison in Podanur (near Coimbatore district).
They were bundled into a freight wagon and the train set off. Pothanur jail was found to be
full to maximum capacity, so orders were given to take the prisoners back. During the return
journey, 67 of the 90 rebels suffocated to death in the closed iron wagon. Historian Sumit
Sarkar referred to it as the "Black Hole of Podanur". A monument to this notorious tragedy
can be seen at Tirur.
Q.69)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): In biodiversity, UPSC regularly asks about
the biosphere reserves, tiger reserves and national parks
Source: http://megtourism.gov.in/wildlife.html
Explanation) Option (c) - Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is the correct answer
The Nokrek National Park and Biosphere Reserve is about 45 kms from Tura. Nokrek is the
highest peak in Garo Hills and home to different species of wild animals including Elephants
and Hoolock Gibbons. The Nokrek National Park has been established at Nokrek and it
abounds in various wildlife including herds of wild elephants, rare varieties of birds and
pheasants, beside rare orchids. The park is also home to a very rare species of citrus-indica
endemic to this place which the locals call memang narang ('orange of the spirits'). Nokrek is
also believed to be the home of Mande Burung (jungle man or ape man) and reported cases
of sightings abound in and around the villages of Nokrek.
Q.70)
Ans) b
Exp)
Source: Atlas
Explanation) Option (b) - 2 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. Khorat Plateau also spelled Korat Plateau, saucer-shaped
tableland of northeastern Thailand. It occupies 60,000 square miles (155,000 square km), is
situated 300–650 feet (90–200 m) above sea level, and tilts southeastward. The plateau is
drained by the Chi and Mun rivers and is bounded by the Mekong River (north and east on
the Laos border), the Phetchabun and Phang Hoei ranges (west), and the Phanom Dong Rak
Range (south). The interior has low hills and small lakes.
Statement 2 is correct. Strait of Hormuz, also called the Strait of Ormuz, channel linking
the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea (southeast). The strait is
35 to 60 miles (55 to 95 km) wide and separates Iran (north) from the Arabian Peninsula
(south). It contains the islands of Qeshm (Qishm), Hormuz, and Hengām (Henjām) and is of
great strategic and economic importance, especially as oil tankers collecting from various
ports on the Persian Gulf must pass through the strait.
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Statement 3 is correct. Atlas Mountains, series of mountain ranges in northwestern Africa,

running generally southwest to northeast to form the geologic backbone of the countries of
the Maghrib (the western region of the Arab world)—Morocco, Algeria, and Tunisia. They
extend for more than 1,200 miles (2,000 kilometres), from the Moroccan port of Agadir in the
southwest, to the Tunisian capital of Tunis in the northeast. Their thick rim rises to form a
high sill separating the Mediterranean basin to the north from the Sahara to the south, thus
constituting a barrier that hinders, without completely preventing, communication between
the two regions. Across the mountains filter both air masses and human migrations.
Q.71)
Ans) c
Exp)
Source: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1e59i6qPJ4k7PC23q7p5SjbNblcIN0wLy/view |
Page # 44
Explanation) Option (c) – Both 1 and 2, is the correct answer
Subject) Technology
Q.72)
Ans) a
Exp)
Source:
Explanation) Option (a) – 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Q.73)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Bepicolombo was in news recently
Source:
https://www.esa.int/Our_Activities/Space_Science/BepiColombo/BepiColombo_is_ready_f
or_its_long_cruise
Explanation) Option (c), is the correct answer
BepiColombo is Europe's first mission to Mercury. It will set off in 2018 on a journey to the
smallest and least explored terrestrial planet in our Solar System. When it arrives at Mercury
in late 2025, it will endure temperatures in excess of 350 °C and gather data during its 1-
year nominal mission, with a possible 1-year extension. The mission comprises two
spacecraft: The Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) and the Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter
(MMO). BepiColombo is a joint mission between ESA and the Japan Aerospace Exploration
Agency (JAXA), executed under ESA leadership.
The mission comprises two science orbiters: ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) and
JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO). The ESA-built Mercury Transfer Module
(MTM) will carry the orbiters to Mercury using a combination of solar electric propulsion and
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gravity assist flybys – one of Earth, two at Venus, and six at Mercury – prior to MPO and
MMO orbit insertions.
The first electric propulsion ‘arc’ started on 17 December, after verification of the four
individual thrusters as well as the so-called ‘twin firing’ configuration, operating two thrusters
in close proximity for a prolonged period of time, which was monitored closely by the
operations engineers. The solar propulsion arc – the first in a series of 22 – was successfully
completed in early March.
Solar electric propulsion is one of the key flight challenges of this complex mission. Hence,
Statement C is correct.
Subject) Technology
Q.74)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently Japan withdrew from the IWC
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_Whaling_Commission
Explanation) Option (a) - 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The IWC is the global body charged with the conservation of whales
and the management of whaling. The Commission's role has expanded since its
establishment in 1946. In addition to regulation of whaling, today's IWC works to address a
wide range of conservation issues including bycatch and entanglement, ocean noise, pollution
and debris, collision between whales and ships, and sustainable whale watching. IWC is a
voluntary international organization and is not backed up by treaty, therefore, the IWC has
substantial practical limitations on its authority. First, any member countries are free to
simply leave the organization and declare themselves not bound by it if they so wish. Second,
any member state may opt out of any specific IWC regulation by lodging a formal objection to
it within 90 days of the regulation coming into force (such provisions are common in
international agreements, on the logic that it is preferable to have parties remain within the
agreements than opt out altogether). Third, the IWC has no ability to enforce any of its
decisions through penalty imposition.
Statement 2 is incorrect. 2018 Florianopolis Declaration was against Japan’s proposal to
renew commercial whaling. Through the "Florianopolis Declaration", it was concluded that
the purpose of the IWC is the conservation of whales and that they would now safeguard the
marine mammals in perpetuity and would allow the recovery of all whale populations to pre-
industrial whaling levels. It is a non – binding agreement.
Q.75)
Ans) c
Exp)
Source: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/miniaturepainting.php
Explanation) Option (c) - Malwa, is the correct answer
Some of the important paintings executed in the Malwa style are a series of the Rasikapriya
dated 1634 A.D., a series of the Amaru Sataka painted in 1652 A.D. at a place called
Nasratgarh and a series of the Ragamala painted in 1680 A.D. by an artist named Madhau
Das, at Narsyanga Shah, some of them available in the National Museum, New Delhi, another
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Amaru-Sataka of the same period in the Prince of Wales Museum, Bombay and a Ragamala
series of about 1650 A.D. in the Bharat Kala Bhavan, Banaras. The art of painting in Malwa
continued till the end of the 17th century A.D.
Q.76)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): GEFI was in the news recently
Source: https://www.globalfueleconomy.org/about-gfei
https://www.globalfueleconomy.org/about-gfei/faq
Explanation) Option (c) – 1 and 3 only, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Fuel Economy Initiative (GFEI) exists to assist
governments and transport stakeholders promote greater fuel economy and to maximise
deployment of vehicle efficiency technologies across the world.
Statement 2 is incorrect. GFEI is a partnership of the International Energy Agency (IEA),
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), International Transport Forum of the OECD
(ITF), International Council on Clean Transportation (ICCT), Institute for Transportation
Studies at UC Davis, and the FIA Foundation.
Statement 3 is correct. GFEI primary metric is vehicle efficiency – with a target to cut vehicle
fuel use (and CO2) per kilometre by 50% from today’s level, on average for all cars on the
planet – by 2050. Our broader objective is to see total vehicle emissions 50% lower in 2050
than they would otherwise be if we don’t accelerate our efforts to improve vehicle fuel
economy.
Q.77)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static, Map based Question
Source:
http://www.alpconv.org/en/convention/Smallbites/thealps/default.html?AspxAutoDetect
CookieSupport=1
Explanation) Option (c) – Romania, is the correct answer
The Alps are one of the largest continuous natural areas in Europe and the living environment
for 14 million people. According to the delimitation given in the Alpine Convention, the Alps
cover an area of 190,959 sq km, with a length of around 1,200 kilometres and a maximum
width of 300 kilometres. The Alps start at sea level and peak at 4,807 metres, the top of Mont
Blanc. The Alps are present in eight countries: Austria (28.7 % of the overall area), Italy
(27.2%), France (21.4 %), Switzerland (13.2 %), Germany (5.8 %), Slovenia (3.6 %),
Liechtenstein (0.08%) and Monaco (0.001 %).
The Alps are a unique natural area in the middle of continental Europe and are home to
around 30,000 animal species and 13,000 plant species. Many of these plant and animal
species are endangered, among which some of the Alps’ 388 endemic plant species. Humans
have settled in the Alpine area for centuries, which is characterized by the presence of
cultivated and reclaimed landscapes even at high levels. Its 14 million inhabitants live in
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5,867 municipalities and belong to many linguistic groups and, on a relatively small area,
show an unparalleled cultural variety.
Subject) Geo – Mapping
Q.78)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC asks question about drainage of India
Source: Geography of India by Majid Husain
Tapti also spelled Tapi, river in central India, rising in the Gawilgarh Hills of the central
Deccan plateau in south-central Madhya Pradesh state (Multai in the Betul District). It flows
westward between two spurs of the Satpura Range, across the Jalgaon plateau region in
Maharashtra state, and through the plain of Surat in Gujarat state to the Gulf of Khambhat
(an inlet of the Arabian Sea). It has a total length of about 435 miles (700 km) and drains an
area of 25,200 square miles (65,300 square km). For the last 32 miles (51 km) it is tidal but
is navigable by small vessels. The port of Swally Hole, at the river’s mouth, well known in
Anglo-Portuguese colonial history, is now deserted, having become silted up. The Tapti flows
roughly parallel to the longer Narmada River to the north, from which it is separated by the
main part of the Satpura Range. The two river valleys and the intervening range from the
natural barrier between northern and peninsular India. The Tapti River’s major tributaries—
the Purna, Betul, Patki, Girna, and Panjhra
Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): USA waived the sanctions imposed on India
under CAATSA
Source: https://idsa.in/idsacomments/caatsa-sanctions-and-india-gbalachandran-260918
Explanation) Option (c) - United States of America, is the correct answer
CAATSA was passed overwhelmingly by the US Congress and signed reluctantly by President
Donald Trump.2 Enacted on August 2, 2017, it aims to counter the aggression by Iran, Russia
and North Korea through punitive measures.3 Title II of the Act primarily deals with sanctions
on Russian interests such as its oil and gas industry, defence and security sector, and
financial institutions, in the backdrop of its military intervention in Ukraine and its alleged
meddling in the 2016 US Presidential elections.
Subject) IR
Q.80)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: World Atlas
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Tropical wet climate is found near the equator. The major areas are the Amazon Basin in
South America, western equatorial Africa and the islands of East Indies. Significant amount
of rainfall occurs in every month of the year as thunder showers in the afternoon. The
temperature is uniformly high, and the annual range of temperature is negligible. The
maximum temperature on any day is around 30°C while the minimum temperature is around
20°C. Tropical evergreen forests with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in
this climate.
Other three regions mentioned in the question are Tropical Monsoon Climate.
Q.81)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Trend based questions are asked by UPSC.
Also, Government has proposed a creation of Savings Promotion Act during Budget
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Money/EI8xUmTSv9iF1Vtw540W2L/Why-the-Indian-
economy-suffers-when-you-save-less.html
https://www.businesstoday.in/top-story/direct-tax-gdp-ratio-of-fy18-best-in-10-years-
finance-ministry/story/306103.html
Explanation) Option (d) – Neither 1 nor 2, is the correct answer
Statement 1 is incorrect. Tax GDP ratio shows the tax revenue for a country measured in
terms of GDP. For example, if India’s tax GDP ratio is 20 %, it means that the government
gets 20 % of its GDP as tax contribution from the public and entities. Direct Tax-GDP ratio
provides for the same in terms of Direct Tax collection.
The direct tax-to-GDP ratio of 5.98 per cent achieved during 2017-18 fiscal is the best in the
last 10 years. It was 5.57 per cent in 2016-17 and 5.47 per cent in 2015-16.
In its 2018 review said, the ministry said: There is a constant growth in the direct tax-GDP
ratio over last three years and the ratio of 5.98 per cent in Fiscal Year 2017-18 is the best
DT-GDP ratio in last 10 years’;. It further said there is a growth of over 80 per cent in the
number of returns filed in the last four financial years from 3.79 crores in 2013-14 to 6.85
crore in 2017-18. (See the infographic provided below)
Statement 2 is incorrect. Saving rate is the amount of money, expressed as a percentage or
ratio, that a person deducts from his disposable personal income to set aside as a nest egg
or for retirement. Saving is a key to investment. It has three sources, households, private
corporations and the public sector.
The savings rate had declined to 30 per cent at the end of March 2017, a study by India
Ratings released on Monday said. It was 34.6 per cent on March 31, 2012.
Q.82)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC regularly asks about the committee of
parliament and their working
Source: Indian Polity fifth edition by Lakshmikanth
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Statement 1 is incorrect. This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of
the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. At present, it consists
of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members are elected
by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due
representation in it. The term of office of the members is one year.
Statement 2 is correct. The committee examines public expenditure not only from legal and
formal point of view to discover technical irregularities but also from the point of view of
economy, prudence, wisdom and propriety to bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption,
extravagance, inefficiency and nugatory expenses.
Subject) Polity
Q.83)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC regularly asks questions about the
interim government and the constituent assembly
Source: Indian Polity Fifth Edition by the Lakshmikanth
Explanation) Option (b) - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, is the correct answer
The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of
constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor
committees. The names of these committees and their chairmen are given below:
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas –
Sardar Patel. This committee had the following five sub-committees:
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas
Sub-Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee
– A.V. Thakkar
(e) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Subject) Polity
Q.84)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static portion. UPSC regularly asks questions
about the terms and concepts in ecology
Source: NCERT, Physical Geography class XI
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Explanation) Option (c) - Biome, is the correct answer

Ecosystems are of two major types: terrestrial and aquatic. Terrestrial ecosystem can be
further be classified into ‘biomes’. A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a
large geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly
by climate. Therefore, a biome can be defined as the total assemblage of plant and animal
species interacting within specific conditions. These include rainfall, temperature, humidity
and soil conditions. Some of the major biomes of the world are: forest, grassland, desert and
tundra biomes.
Subject) Ecology
Q.85)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): UPSC asks questions from Fundamental
rights, DPSP and Fundamental Duties regularly
Source: Indian Polity fifth edition by Lakshmikanth
Explanation) Option (b) - 1, 2 and 3 only, is the correct answer
The principles included in this category represent the ideology of liberalism. They direct the
state:
● To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44).
● To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the
age of six years (Article 45).
● To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article
48).
● To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article
48 A).
● To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are
declared to be of national importance (Article 49).
● To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article
50).
● To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable
relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty
obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
(Article 51).
Statement 4 is incorrect. It is based on Gandhian principles.
Subject) Polity
Q.86)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently RBI utilized a new instrument for
liquidity management in India i.e. Forex Swaps.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/success-of-rare-5-billion-rbi-forex-
swap-may-spur-an-encore-1553571818811.html
Explanation) Option (c) – 1 and 3 only is the correct answer.
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Page 38 of 44
Option 1 and 3 are self-explanatory. Repo/ Reverse Repo are part of Liquidity Adjustment
Facility of RBI. Open Market Operations means buying and selling of Government bonds in
the open market to manage liquidity in the market/economy.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Currency Swaps are different than FOREX SWAPS which has
been used by RBI to manage liquidity in the economy in the face of impending general
elections and Tax filing in March. RBI successfully infused Rs 34561 Crore in the market
through the first ever FOREX SWAP operations in the country. This success gives RBI a new
and alternative tool for liquidity management in the country. Currency Swaps are agreement
between 2 countries/FIs of 2 countries in which two parties exchange the principal amount
of a loan and the interest in one currency for the principal and interest in another currency.
Statement 4 is incorrect – Prompt Corrective Action or PCA is a framework under which
banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI. The PCA framework
deems banks as risky if they slip below certain norms on three parameters — capital ratios,
asset quality and profitability.
As most bank activities are funded by deposits which need to be repaid, it is imperative that
a bank carries a sufficient amount of capital to continue its activities. PCA is intended to help
alert the regulator as well as investors and depositors if a bank is heading for trouble. The
idea is to head off problems before they attain crisis proportions. Essentially PCA helps RBI
monitor key performance indicators of banks, and taking corrective measures, to restore the
financial health of a bank.
Q.87)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): One of the key features of GST that helps to
check the tax evasion
Source: http://www.cbic.gov.in/resources//htdocs-
cbec/gst/Reverse%20charge%20Mechanism.pdf;jsessionid=2FECC88F90A221AAF369F246
5512F9D4
Generally, the supplier of goods or services is liable to pay GST. However, in specified cases
like imports and other notified supplies, the liability may be cast on the recipient under the
reverse charge mechanism. Reverse Charge means the liability to pay tax is on the recipient
of supply of goods or services instead of the supplier of such goods or services in respect of
notified categories of supply.
There are two type of reverse charge scenarios provided in law. First is dependent on the
nature of supply and/or nature of supplier. This scenario is covered by section 9 (3) of the
CGST/SGST (UTGST) Act and section 5 (3) of the IGST Act. Second scenario is covered by
section 9 (4) of the CGST/SGST (UTGST) Act and section 5 (4) of the IGST Act where taxable
supplies by any unregistered person to a registered person is covered.
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Q.88)
Ans) a
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): recently in news as Mongolia soon will be
seventh member. It is the only trade agreement in which both India and China are both
members.
Source: https://www.unescap.org/apta/participating-states
Explanation) Option (a) - 1, 3 and 4 only, is the correct answer
Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA) is a preferential regional trade agreement formerly
known as the Bangkok Agreement. APTA aims to promote economic development of its
members through the adoption of mutually beneficial trade liberalization measures that
contribute to regional trade expansion and economic cooperation. Over time it refocused from
the initial negotiation of tariff concessions on merchandise trade to at present negotiating
liberalization in investment, services trade and trade facilitation. It is also continuously
working on improving and modernizing its Rules of origin for trade in goods.
Currently, the following ESCAP members are Participating States of APTA: People’s Republic
of Bangladesh, People’s Republic of China, Republic of India, Lao People’s Democratic
Republic, Republic of Korea and Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka. Mongolia is going
to be seventh member soon.
Subject) IR
Q.89)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static.
Source: Indian Polity, Lakshmikanth
Explanation) Option (d) – All of the above, is the correct answer
The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article can issue writs of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto. These writs are
borrowed from English law where they are known as ‘prerogative writs. They are so called in
England as they were issued in the exercise of the prerogative of the King who was, and is
still, described as the ‘fountain of justice’. Later, the high court started issuing these writs as
extraordinary remedies to uphold the rights and liberties of the British people. The writ
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court differs from that of a high court in three respects:
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights whereas
a high court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for
any other purpose. The expression ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an
ordinary legal right. Thus, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this respect, is
narrower than that of high court.
2. The Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the
territory of India whereasa high court can issue writs against a person residing or against a
government or authority located within its territorial jurisdiction only or outside its territorial
jurisdiction
only if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Thus, the territorial
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a high
court.
3. A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court
may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article
226 is discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article
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Page 40 of 44
32 does not merely confer power on the Supreme Court as Article 226 does on a high court
to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights or other rights as part of its general
jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is thus constituted as a defender and guarantor of the
fundamental rights.
Hence, all the statements mentioned in option a, b and c are the difference in the writ powers
of Supreme Court and the High Court
Subject) Polity
Q.90)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently India became a shareholder in the
EBRD
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/india-becomes-
newest-shareholder-of-european-bank--for-reconstruction-and-
development/articleshow/64963010.cms
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is a bank that was
established in 1991 to aid ex-Soviet and Eastern European countries transitioning into
democracies by developing free-market economies. Today, the EBRD continues its work in
27 countries from Central Europe to Central Asia, investing mainly in private banks and
businesses, including both new ventures and existing companies.
The EBRD is publicly owned by shareholders in 61 countries and only supports countries
committed to democratic principles. Furthermore, the EBRD promotes environmentally
sustainable development. It will not finance activities or projects related to the tobacco
industry, defense, certain alcoholic products, stand-alone gambling facilities, or substances
banned by international law. The EBRD also helps facilitate the transition of public
companies to becoming privately held entities as well as restructuring state-owned firms and
helping to improve municipal services
India is now the 69th shareholder of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(EBRD), paving the way for more joint investment with Indian companies across the bank's
regions of operation.
The Indian government had applied for membership in the London-based EBRD in December
2017. The EBRD board of governors, which represents all the existing shareholders, voted
unanimously in favour of the country's application in March 2018.
India takes a shareholding in the EBRD but it will not be a recipient of EBRD financing
Subject) Economics
Q.91)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): static
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikanth
The features of federal form of government are:
 Dual Government (that is, national government and regional government)
 Written Constitution
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 Division of powers between the national and regional government

 Supremacy of the Constitution
 Rigid Constitution
 Independent judiciary
 Bicameral legislature
Subject) Polity
Q.92)
Ans) a
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recent discoveries are sometimes asked by
UPSC
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/interstitium-may-play-role-in-
cancer/article23403047.ece
In a landmark discovery that could go a long way in understanding the spread of cancer in
the human body, scientists have identified a new organ in human beings which the
researchers have dubbed the ‘interstitium’.
This new organ can be found beneath the surface of the skin. It is also present in tissue
layers lining the gut, lungs, blood vessels, and muscles. This organ is a network of
interconnected, fluid-filled compartments that run all over the body. It is made up of both
strong (collagen) and flexible (elastin) connective tissue proteins, with interstitial fluid moving
throughout.
Subject) Science
Q.93)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently the Zombie cells were in news
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/demystifying-science-september-23-
2018/article25017149.ece
Statement 1 is incorrect. Much like the ‘undead’ in apocalyptic movies, zombie cells are the
ones that cannot die but are equally unable to perform the functions of a normal cell.
Formally known as senescent cells, they have been implicated in a number of age-related
diseases.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Recently, scientists probed the mysteries of zombie cells using a
model that imitates aspects of Alzheimer’s disease. When senescent cells were removed, the
scientists found that the diseased animals retained the ability to form memories, eliminated
signs of inflammation, did not develop what are called neurofibrillary tangles, and had
maintained normal brain mass.
Subject) Science
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Q.94)
Ans) b
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The NSSO data regarding unemployment
came into public domain.
Source: Indian economy by Sankar Ganesh
Cyclical unemployment is a factor of overall unemployment that relates to the regular ups
and downs, or cyclical trends in growth and production, that occur within the business cycle.
When business cycles are at their peak, cyclical unemployment will tend to be low because
total economic output is being maximized. When economic output falls, as measured by the
gross domestic product (GDP), the business cycle is low and cyclical unemployment will rise.
Subject) Economics
Q.95)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Static portion of Science.
Source: General science for UPSC by Tata Mc Graw Hill
Statement 1 is correct. Bioactive compounds are phytochemicals found in foods that are
capable of modulating metabolic processes and resulting in the promotion of better health.
They exhibit beneficial effects such as antioxidant activity, inhibition or induction of enzymes,
inhibition of receptor activities, and induction and inhibition of gene expression).
Statement 2 is correct. Flavonoids are found in Olive oil, Cereals, Legumes and Nuts,
Statement 3 is correct. Terpenoids are found in Eucalyptus and Lemongrass) etc.
Subject) Science
Q.96)
Ans) d
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently Thanjavur paintings were in the
news.
Source: http://www.thanjavurpaintings.com/abouttp.html
This school of paintings originated in Thanjavur during the reign of the Marathas in the 16th
century. It existed from 17th to 19th Century and had a limited output. Today, this tradition
is kept alive by a few hundred dedicated artists mostly based in Tamil Nadu, India.
Thanjavur paintings basically signify paintings created using a style and technique, which
originated in Thanjavur during the maratha period in the 16th century.
Thanjavur painting would consist of one main figure, a deity, with a well-rounded body &
almond shaped eyes. This figure would be housed in an enclosure created by means of an
arch, curtains etc. The painting would be made by the gilded and gem-set technique - a
technique where gold leaves & sparkling stones are used to highlight certain aspects of the
painting like ornaments, dresses etc.
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Page 43 of 44
The painting would be bright & colourful and breathtakingly beautiful. The impact in a
darkened room is that of a glowing presence. While most of the paintings would depict the
Child Krishna and his various pranks, paintings of other deities were also created.
Over a period of time changes have occurred in the stylization - for example, the figures are
no longer round. Presiding deities of various famous temples are also being depicted in the
paintings. The technique is now more in use than the style.
For outlines dark brown is usually used. Red is favoured for the background. Scholars say
that a red background is the distinctive mark of Tanjore paintings, but green is also
sometimes used. Lord Vishnu, appropriately enough, is coloured blue, and Lord Nataraja
chalk white. Yellow is used for the Goddesses. The sky, of course, is blue, but black is
employed on occasions. There are conventions in regard to the use of embossing and
bejewelling. But these do not appear to be followed very strictly these days. Often individual
preference settles the matter.
Q.97)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): The government’s focus on education, and it
was released recently
The Union Budget, 2018-19, has proposed to treat school education holistically without
segmentation from pre-nursery to Class 12. Samagra Shiksha - an overarching programme
for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class 12 has been, therefore,
prepared with the broader goal of improving school effectiveness measured in terms of equal
opportunities for schooling and equitable learning outcomes. It subsumes the three Schemes
of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher
Education (TE).
Focus on Regional Balance
● Promote Balanced Educational Development
● Preference to Educationally Backward Blocks (EBBs), LWEs, Special Focus Districts
(SFDs), Border areas and the 115 aspirational districts identified by Niti Aayog
● ‘Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas’ and Sabko Shiksha Achhi Shiksha
Subject) Social Development
Q.98)
Ans) d
Exp)
Source: http://www.mospi.gov.in/1011-foreign-exchange-reserves
Explanation) Option (b) - 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the correct answer
Foreign Exchange Reserves are the foreign currencies held by India's Reserve Bank of India.
They are also called foreign currency reserves or foreign reserves. India's forex reserves
comprise foreign currency assets (FCAs), gold reserves, special drawing rights (SDRs) and
India's position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
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Q.99)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): Recently article came in The Hindu
Source: History, Class XI Tamil Nadu Board
Statement 1 is correct. Silappadikaram (Cilappatikāram]) is one of The Five Great Epics of
Tamil Literature according to later Tamil literary tradition written by poet-prince from Ilango
Adigal He is reputed to have been the brother of Vel Kelu Kuttuvan, the Chera dynasty king.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The epic revolves around Kannagi, who having lost her husband
to a miscarriage of justice at the court of the Pandyan Dynasty, wreaks her revenge on his
kingdom.
Statement 3 is correct. Regarded as one of the great works of Tamil literature, the
Silappatikaram is a poetic rendition with details of Tamil culture; its varied religions; its town
plans and city types; the mingling of different people; and the arts of dance and music. It
contains three chapters and a total of 5270 lines of poetry.
Q.100)
Ans) c
Exp)
Relevance (Why the question has been asked): In the debt-laden Jet Airways’ ongoing battle
for survival, a surprise name doing the rounds for proposed equity infusion into the airline is
that of NIIF.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/industry/infrastructure/niif-roadis-tie-up-for-2-billion-
road-investment-platform-1554288419175.html
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/airlines-/-aviation/gvk-
inks-pact-to-sell-49-stake-in-airports-business-to-adia-niif/articleshow/68948510.cms
Explanation) Option (c) – Both 1 and 2, is the correct answer.
NIIF, short for National Investment and Infrastructure Fund, is an Indian-government backed
entity established to provide long-term capital to the country’s infrastructure sector.
Statement 2 is correct -The Indian government has 49 per cent stake in NIIF with the rest
held by marquee
foreign and domestic investors such as Abu Dhabi Investment Authority, Temasek and HDFC
Group. With the
Centre’s significant stake, NIIF is considered India’s quasi sovereign wealth fund.
Statement 1 is Correct - The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) with
the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Across its three funds — Master Fund, Fund of Funds, and
Strategic Fund — NIIF manages $3 billion of capital. Recent Reports suggest that NIIF is
likely to buy 19 per cent stake in Jet Airways for ₹1,500 crore.
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Simulator Test 4 Solution

Set Wise Solution Index:

Set A Set B Set C Set D

Q.1 - Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100

Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25

Q.51 – Q.75 Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50

Q.76 – Q.100 Q.1 – Q.25 Q.26 – Q.50 Q.51 – Q.75

The scheme proposes to enable productive academic cooperation by supporting the

Subject) Social Schemes

Subject) World Geography

Subject) Indian Geography

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) Social Schemes

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) World Geography

Subject) Art and Culture

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) General Awareness

Subject) Modern History

Statement 3 is correct. In Closure by compartments the clauses of bill or lengthy resolution

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) Geo - Mapping

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) Medieval History

Subject) Indian Geography

Statement 3 is incorrect. Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed field at

Subject) Ancient History

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) Medieval History

Subject) Env - International Organisations

 The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee;

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Medieval History

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) General Awareness

Subject) Modern History

Subject) Art and Culture

Subject) Ancient History

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) Social Schemes

Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘tide-generating’ force is the difference between the

Subject) Modern History

Statement 3 is correct. Atlas Mountains, series of mountain ranges in northwestern Africa,

Subject) World Geography

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) Art and Culture

Subject) Env - International Organisations

Subject) Geo – Mapping

Subject) Indian Geography

Subject) World Geography

Subject) Indian Economy

Explanation) Option (c) - Biome, is the correct answer

Subject) Indian Economy

Subject) Indian Economy

 Division of powers between the national and regional government

Subject) Art and Culture