TRYOUT UJIAN NASIONAL BAHASA INGGRIS SMK

TAHUN PELAJARAN 2014/2015

A. LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand
spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part.

PART I. Directions: There are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on
your test paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will
be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. When you hear the
four statements, look at the picture on your test paper and choose the
statement that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

Look at the sample below. Now listen to the four statements:

Sample Answer:
A   C   D  

Statement (A), “The woman is holding a piece of paper”, best

describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should
choose answer (A).

Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test paper.
1. 2.

3.

PART II. Directions: There are three items in this part of the test. For each item, you will hear a
question or statement spoken in English followed by three responses, also spoken in English.
They will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. You are to choose the best response to each
question or statement and mark it on your answer sheet.

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Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear : Sample Answer
You will also hear :
  B   C  

The best response to the question, “How are you?” is choice (A), “I’m fine. And you?” Therefore
you should choose answer (A).

Now let’s begin with question number four (4) on your test paper.

4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

PART III. Directions: There are four items in this part of the test. For each item you will hear a
short conversation between two people. You will hear the conversations
TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen
carefully to understand what the speakers say. On your test paper, you will
read a question about each conversation. The question will be followed by
four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question and
mark it on your answer sheet.

Now, let’s begin with question number seven (8) on your test paper.

8. What will the woman do? 9. What does the woman want to know?
A. Cleaning the room. A. Places to stay.
B. Rubbing the sweat. B. Price of the room.
C. Opening the window. C. Type of the trees.
D. Going out of the room D. Activities at the night.

10. What do you think about the man?
A. He loves to talk about the program
again.
B. He understands more about the
students.
C. He wants to see a better program.
D. He disagrees with the opinion.
11. What does the man’s sister like to do after
office hours?
A. Designing a computer program.
B. Having funs playing games.
C. Taking a computer course.
D. Playing some pop music.

PART IV. Directions: In this part of the test you will hear two short talks. Each will be spoken
TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen
carefully to understand and remember what is said. On your test paper,
you will read two or more questions about each short talk. Each question
will be followed by four answers. You have to choose the best answer to
each question and mark it on your answer sheet.

Now let’s begin with the following short talk.

12. What is being announced? 13. Where can we find the item mention above?
A. Tent. A. Camping ground.
B. Boots. B. Uinta Mountain.
C. Sport. C. Country wood.
D. Ankle. D. Sports Shop.

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 14. Where can we find this instruction? 15. What is one of the information we should know
A. At home. before we call the emergency operator?
B. At campus. A. Name of chemical.
C. At our building. B. The chemical quality.
D. At fire department. C. All the injured names.
D. The operator’s address.

B. READING & WRITING SECTION

In this part of the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

PART V. Directions: From questions 16 – 20, each sentence has four underlined words or
phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that should be corrected or rewritten. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and mark your answer.

16. Karina     :  I  like  Korean  dramas  film  very  much.  The  story  and  soundtrack  of  Korean  dramas  are  
           A  
     mostly  nice.  We  can  derive  morale  lesson  from  them.  
                                   B  
             Kirana   :  I’m  totally  agree  with  you.  I  hope  our  Indonesian  sinetron  can  be  like  them.  
                             C                            D  

17. Borobudur Temple, where was built more than ten centuries ago by the Sailendras, is made
A B
up of two distinct parts. The square base is highly-ornamented; however, the upper part is
C
very simple.
D

18.  The  marketing  manager  usually  increase  the  selling  of  the  new  products  by  promoting  them  on    
                       A                            B                  C                          D  
             mass  media.  
 
 
19.  Yudha   :  Do  you  see  Mr.  Basyir?  I  have  something  to  talk  to  him.  
     A                  B  
             Sammy   :  He  will  be  in  manager’s  room.  The  manager  called  him  this  morning.  
                           C                          D  
 
20.  Dewi   :  What  do  you  like  to  do  after  arriving  home  from  school?  
                           A      B  
           Rini     :  I  like  browsing  internet  than  watching  TV  
         C            D  

PART VI. Directions: Questions 21 – 31 are based on a selection of reading materials, such as
notices, letters, forms, articles, advertisements, etc. Choose the one best
answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions
following each reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and mark your answer.

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Questions 21 – 23 refer to the following memo.

Subject : Annual Conference Rooming List

Message :

Dear Delegates,
Please find enclosed, your rooming list.
If you have any question, please don’t hesitate to contact me. And, if
you get this e-mail, please reply to confirm that you get it.

Thanks,

Britney White  

21. What is the text about?

A. The list of the delegates.
B. Ms. White’s confirmation.
C. The delegate conference.
D. The rooming list of an event.

22. What should you do if you have question?

A. Call Ms. White.
B. Meet Ms. White.
C. Open the e-mail.
D. Confirm the room.

23. How many people are supposed to receive this e-mail?

A. One.
B. Two.
C. Some.
D. All delegates.

Questions 24 – 26 refer to the following procedure.

How to Transfer Pictures from a Micro SD Card to a PC

1. Remove the Micro SD card from the device by gently pressing it inward.
2. Withdraw the Micro SD card, and insert it into a Micro SD card adapter, and insert the
adapter into the card reader.
3. Make sure the computer is turned on and insert the card reader into the USB port on
your computer. If you have a built-in card reader on your computer, enter it there.
4. You will get a pop-up asking what you want to do with the data on the card, such as
what file you would like the data transferred to, or if you would simply like to view the
data. Make your selection, and click “OK”. The pictures will be transferred to your
desired location.
 

24. What is the text about?

A. Removing the Micro SD card.
B. Transferring picture to a PC.
C. Inserting Micro SD card.
D. Adapting card reader.

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25. When will the pictures be transferred to the desired location?
A. When the computer is turned on.
B. When the Micro SD card is removed.
C. When the selection of the pop-up window is made.
D. When the card reader is inserted into the computer.

26. What is the synonym of the word ‘insert’?

A. Take out.
B. Put on.
C. Lead.
D. Put.

Questions 27 – 28 refer to the following information.

27. What is the news about?

A. Social Networking.
B. Apple’s new products.
C. Twitters success in social media.
D. Apple’s plan to cooperate with Twitter.

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28. According to the news, Apple has not been very successful in ….
A. selling phone
B. selling tablets
C. cooperating with Twitter
D. getting into social media

Questions 29 – 31 refer to the following description.

Born on October 28, 1955 in Seattle, Washington, famed entrepreneur Bill

Gates began to show an interest in computer programming at the age of 13 at the
Lakeside School. He pursued his passion through college. Striking out on his own
with his friend Paul Allen, Gates formed himself at the right place at the right time.
He is now the most famous person in computer product development. He is the
founder and chairman of Microsoft, and the biggest software company in the
world.
Bill Gates has consistently been ranked as the world's wealthiest person
over all from 1995 to 2010, excluding 2007. During the career of Microsoft, Gates
has held the positions of CEO and Chief Software Architect and remained the
largest individual shareholder with more than 8 percent of the common stock.
 
29. Paragraph one tells us about ....
A. Paul Allen’s computer products
B. the history of Microsoft founder
C. the world’s wealthiest person
D. the entrepreneurship

30. When did Gates show his interest in computer?

A. In 1955.
B. In 1995.
C. At 13.
D. At the college.
 
31. Who is Paul Allen?
A. The entrepreneur from Seattle.
B. The world’s wealthiest person.
C. The co-founder of Microsoft.
D. The Gates’ superordinate.

PART VII. Directions: From questions 32 – 41, four clauses/sentences, marked (A), (B), (C), or
(D), are given beneath each incomplete dialog. Choose the one
clause/sentence that best completes the dialog. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.

32. George : Why did the principal invite all the students to gather in the hall?
Kite : … related with the final test preparation.
A. I don’t have any idea
B. He may want to see us
C. He might need time to take a rest
D. Maybe there is some new information

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33. Receptionist : How can I help you, Madam?
Customer :…
Receptionist : Very well. You’ll have to fill out this form and make an initial of 500,000
rupiahs.
A. I‘d like to cash this check.
B. I’d like to open an account here.
C. I need to withdraw some money.
D. I want to meet the bank manager.

34. Roy : I have no idea about the celebration that we have to prepare for the company’s
party. Do you have any suggestion?
Yora : How about having poolside party? We can have it in the five-star hotel.
Roy : Nice. …
A. I’m on the same line with you.
B. Let’s think a better one.
C. I don’t agree with you.
D. No comment for it.

35. Erlina : What does your brother like doing in his spare time?
Shinta : … He is a real philatelist.
A. He enjoys visiting post office.
B. He likes collecting stamps a lot.
C. He delivers everything but stamps.
D. Everybody thinks that he sells stamps.

36. Lisa : I’d like a return ticket to Central Station please.

Ticket seller : Here it is. That’s $7.50.
Lisa : …?
Ticket seller : There’s one every 20 minutes. Don’t forget to wait at platform 2.
A. What time is the train
B. How much is the ticket
C. What is the train’s name
D. How long does it take there

37. Bagus : It’s raining outside. ... You’ll get wet.

Dinda : Thanks. It’s very kind of you.
A. Buy the umbrella.
B. It’s already dark.
C. Please come in.
D. Serve yourself.

38. Bunny : I’m not satisfied with my math test result.

Winnie : Was it really that bad?
Bunny : Not quite. But, if I had had a better preparation, …
A. I wouldn’t have asked the teacher about it.
B. I couldn’t answer all the items correctly.
C. I could have achieved higher score.
D. I would do the test well.

39. Franz : What do you plan to do this weekend?

Harry : Well, …
A. I went to a handicraft exhibition.
B. I didn’t have any plan to go anywhere.
C. I wanted to play tennis at the gymnasium.
D. I’ll stay home and finish the monthly report.

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40. Verona : What did you do after finishing yesterday’s business?
Martina : I went to the mall …
A. I did some shopping with a friend.
B. I cooked some food for dinner.
C. I just want to have lunch first.
D. I have to meet my old client.

41. Bobby : I don’t see the children here. Where are they now?
Mandy : ….
Bobby : I see. When will they be back?
A. They were visiting their uncle.
B. They studied English at a course.
C. They will be at school the whole day.
D. They’re in the park watching an exhibition.

Part VIII. Directions: From questions 42 – 50, four words/phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), or (D),
are given beneath each close-test. Choose the one word/phrase that
best completes the text. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and mark your answer.

Questions 42 – 44 refer to the following letter.

October 10, 2013

Mrs Janine Brown
34 Victoria Street
London WB 1 AB 4
Mrs. H. Stanley
Royal Hospital of Townland
The Square, Townland

Dear Mrs. Stanley

I am writing to (42) … my interest in working for your Royal Hospital as a nurse, as
advertised on the North East NHS Trust recruiting website.
I am currently employed as a nurse in Queen Hospital and I feel that I have all the
credential that make me the perfect candidates for the job.
I have obtained my degree (43) … nursing through the Big University, and have
specialised in diabetic nursing, although I have worked in cardiology, paediatrics and
triage, leading me to believe that I will fit in well. I am also very organised and have a
(44) … manner and confidence when dealing with patients, which I am proud of. My
skills and qualifications are detailed further in the attached copy of my CV for your
perusal at your earliest convinience.
Should you wish to interview me, I can be available within just a few days and I can
provide references at the time of interview should they be required. I look forward to
hearing from you.

Kindest regards,
 

42. A. discontinue 43. A. in 44. A. heavy

B. express B. on B. crucial
C. apply C. for C. fantastic
D. finish D. with D. dominant

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Questions 45 – 47 refer to the following information.

AUCTION
Riviera Golf Club Shares

Date : 26 October 2013, Saturday

Time : 10.00 a.m.
Place : Tee Pavilion
Riviera Golf Club, Inc.
By-Pass Road, Aguinaldo Hi-Way, Silgan, Cavite

All interested parties may (45) … in the bidding. Prospective bidders are
required to register with the Club (membership department) prior to the actual
time of bidding and make a deposit in the amount of thirty thousand pesos
(Php30,000.00), which shall be refunded to non-winning bidders. (46) …
winning bidders, such deposit shall form part of the payment thereof.
For (47) … inquiries, please feel free to call our membership department at
(02) 888-9127/(046) 414-2888 local 203 & 204.
 

45. A. enjoy 46. A. In 47. A. initial

B. perform B. On B. further
C. complete C. For C. previous
D. participate D. From D. general

Questions 48 – 50 refer to the following advertisement.

FREE SUNGLASSES AND CASE

Purchase a 12 month subscription to Vacation the Nation today and receive a free pair of
Sunniest sun-glasses with your very own soft leather case*
To get your free Sunniest (48) … these 3 easy steps:
1. Purchase a copy of Vacation the Nation, New York's #1 Travel magazine.
2. Fill out the application card (found in the center of the magazine)
3. Mail the card and $21.95 US to the address provided directly.

---------------------------------------------
∗ This is a (50) … time offer only. Application and funds must be received no later than
March 1st 2011. Canadian residents should add $3 US for shipping. Offer not available for
residents outside of North America.

48. A. forget 49. A. out 50. A. slight

B. refuse B. with B. limited
C. follow C. up C. narrow
D. create D. of D. slender

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