TOEFL EXERCISE

Complied by Dianita

POLITEKNIK PAJAJARAN | SURAPATI CORE JALAN PH.H MUSTAFA NO.155 BANDUNG

 CONTENT

I Listening Comprehension……………………………………………………… 1
Restatements………………………………………………………....................... 2
Negatives………………………………………………………............................ 2
Suggestions………………………………………………………........................ 2
Passives……………………………………………………….............................. 3
Who & Where……………………………………………………….................... 4
Agreement……………………………………………………….......................... 5
II Structure and Written Expression…………………………………………….. 6
Subjects and Verbs and Objects…………………………………………………. 6
Present and Past Participle………………………………………………………. 8
Coordinate and Adverb Clauses…………………………………………………. 11
Noun Clauses………………………………………………………..................... 14
Adjective Clauses………………………………………………………............... 17
Agreement……………………………………………………….......................... 20
Parallel Structure………………………………………………………................ 21
Verb Forms………………………………………………………........................ 23
Nouns………………………………………………………................................. 24
Pronouns and Possessives………………………………………………………... 26
Adjectives and Adverbs………………………………………………………...... 28
III Reading Comprehension……………………………………………………….. 30
Main Ideas……………………………………………………….......................... 31
Stated Detail Questions………………………………………………………...... 32
Unstated Detail Questions……………………………………………………….. 33
Implied Detail Questions……………………………………………………….... 34
Vocabulary in Context Questions………………………………………………... 35
“Where” Question……………………………………………………….............. 36
IV TOEFL TEST………………………………………………………...................
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

RESTATEMENTS

The Best Strategy: Choose Answers with Restatements

1. As you listen to the second line of the conversation, you should focus on the
key idea(s) in that line.
2. If you see restatement of the key idea(s) in a particular answer, then you have
probably found the correct answer.
3. Do not choose answers with words that sound similar to the words on the
recording.

1. (woman) What do you like about your new (A) The house is closed up now.
house?
(man) It’s very close to a park. (B) He parks his car close to his
house.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) His home is near a park.
(D) He doesn’t really like his
new house.

2. (man) Mark said some really nice (A) He did a great job.
things to me.
(woman) He’s very grateful for what you (B) He bought a crate full of
did. fruit.
(narrator) What does the woman say about (C) He made a great fool of
Mark? himself.
(D) He’s thankful.

3. (woman) Sam, you’ve been working at the (A) The computer’s

computer for hours. broken.
(man) Yes, and I need to take a break. (B) He needs to relax for a
while.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) He should keep working.
(D) He’s broke.

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 NEGATIVES

Negatives Sentences
Example Correct Answer Negative Statement
Tom is not sad about the Tom is happy about the not sad = happy
results. results.
The door isn’t open. The door is closed. not open = closed
Steve did not pass the Steve failed the class. did not pass = failed
class.

1. (woman) You made so many mistakes in (A) He was rather careless.

this homework.
(man) I wasn’t very careful. (B) He does not care about
mistakes.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) He took care of the work at
home.
(D) He did not carry the work
home.

2. (man) Is there a lot of soup? I’m kind
of hungry.
(woman) Sorry, there’s not a lot.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
(A) There’s not very much soup.
(B) She doesn’t like soup.
(C) There’s only a little soup.
(D) The man should not be
hungry.

3. (woman) How was the weather on your (A) It was cloudy.

trip?
(man) There wasn’t a cloud in the sky. (B) He couldn’t see the sky.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) It wasn’t very crowded.
(D) There was a lot of sunshine.

SUGGESTIONS

Expressions of Suggestion
Why … not … ? why not … ? Let’s …

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1. (man) The weather’s so beautiful (A) Taking the car to school.
today.
(woman) Let’s walk to school instead of (B) Taking a walk instead of
driving. going to school.
(narrator) What does the woman suggest? (C) Going for a drive in the
beautiful weather.
(D) Walking to class.

2. (woman) I never have enough spending (A) Spending less money.

money.
(man) Why not get a part-time job? (B) Doing a better job at work.
(narrator) What does the man suggest? (C) Earning some money.
(D) Spending less time at her
job.

3. (man) We don’t have any plans tonight, (A) Having a dinner party.
do we?
(woman) No, so why don’t we invite some (B) Stopping the fight with their
friends over to dinner? friends.
(narrator) What does the woman suggest? (C) Planning a trip.
(D) Making some new friends.

PASSIVES

Passive Statements
1. If the conversation contains a passive statement, the answer to the question is
often an active statement.
2. If the conversation contains an active statement, the answer to the question is
often a passive statement.
NOTE: Check carefully who or what is doing the action in these questions.

1. (man) What happened to your (A) The cafeteria is to the left.

notebook?
(woman) I left it in the cafeteria. (B) The left a note on the
cafeteria door.
(narrator) What does the woman imply? (C) She took some notes in the
cafeteria.
(D) The notebook was left in the
cafeteria.

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2. (man) When are we going to talk about
the problem with the copy
machine?
(woman) It will be discussed at the
meeting tomorrow.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
(A) She needs to make copies
before the meeting.
(B) They will talk about the
problem tomorrow.
(C) It is a problem to have a
meeting.
(D) They must discuss whether
or not to have a meeting

3. (woman) Did you correct the paper? (A) The paper has been
thoroughly corrected.
(man) I checked every single line again (B) He write many of the lines
and again. over and over.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) The checkmarks were on
every line of the paper.
(D) He wrote a check for the
paper.

WHO & WHERE

Conclusions about Who and Where

It is common for you to be asked to draw the following conclusions in Listening part
A:
1. Who is probably talking?
2. Where does the conversation probably take place?

1. (man) I’d like to mail this package (A) A school administrator.

please.
(woman) First or second class? (B) A postal worker.
(narrator) Who is the woman most likely to (C) A banker.
be?
(D) A teacher.

2. (woman) How much are the flowers? (A) In a bakery.

(man) Ten dollars a bouquet. (B) In a grocery store.
(narrator) Where does this conversation (C) In a florist shop.
probably take place?
(D) In a garden

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3. (man) I need to get this prescription (A) A pharmacist.
filled.
(woman) If you’ll take a seat. I’ll have (B) A baby-sitter.
your medicine ready for you in a
moment.
(narrator) Who is the woman most likely to (C) A flight attendant.
be?
(D) A doctor.

AGREEMENT

Expressions of Agreement
So do I. I’ll say. Me, too. You can say that again.

1. (woman) This homework is going to take (A) It’s going to take forever to
forever. get home.
(man) I’ll say! (B) It takes a long time to get
from home to work.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) He and the woman have the
same opinion about the
homework.
(D) He needs to take the
homework to class.

2. (woman) A trip to the park might be nice. (A) The woman should repeat
what she said.
(man) You can say that again! (B) It’s nice in the park at night.
(narrator) What does the man mean? (C) The woman should tell him
about part of the trip.
(D) He agrees about the trip to
the park.

3. (man) I think it’s time to go home. (A) They don’t have time to do
it.
(woman) So do I. (B) She also thinks it’s good
idea to leave.
(narrator) What does the woman mean? (C) She thinks they are at home.
(D) They are unsure about the
time.

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STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

SUBJECTS, VERBS AND OBJECTS

Subjects and Verbs

A sentence in English must have at least one subject and one verb. The first thing
you should do as you read a sentence in the Structure section of the TOEFL test is to
find the subject and the verb.

1. The skim __________ body’s heaviest organ.

(A) of the human
(B) of humanity
(C) on a human’s
(D) is the human
2. ___________ of the space shuttle Columbia began on April 12, 1981.
(A) The flight was first
(B) The first fight
(C) For the first flight
(D) On the first flight to be
3. ___________ has more than 650 muscles.
(A) The human body
(B) The body is human
(C) For the human body
(D) In the body of a human
4. The ancestors of __________ lived on land.
(A) once whales and dolphins were
(B) whales and dolphins once
(C) whales and dolphins were once
(D) from whales and dolphins once
5. _________ life on Earth for three billion years.
(A) Algae dominated
(B) The domination of algae
(C) Dominant algae
(D) Algae dominating
6. _________ for Cola-cola is in a safe deposit vault at the Trust Company of
Georgia.
(A) The recipe was secret
(B) The secret recipe was
(C) In the secret recipe
(D) The secret recipe

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7. The sunflower will __________ from east to west to follow the sun.
(A) its head turns
(B) turn its head
(C) the turn of its head
(D) its head turning
8. The chief ________ atmosphere are nitrogen and oxygen.
(A) gases were in the
(B) gases in the
(C) gases were the
(D) were gases in the
9. _________ from the University of South Alabama in 1994, at the age of 10.
(A) Michael Kearney’s graduation
(B) The graduation Of Michael Kearney
(C) Graduate Michael Kearney
(D) Michael Kearney graduated
10. The largest bone in __________ the thigh bone, or femur.
(A) the human body
(B) it the human body
(C) the human body is
(D) the human body to be
11. Steven Spielberg __________ at the age of 13 for a 40-minute war film.
(A) won a contest
(B) a winning contestant
(C) the contest was won
(D) a winner of the contest
12. _________ out of four million Irish at the time of the 1840s potato famine came
to the United States
(A) One million were
(B) For one million to be
(C) One million
(D) For one million
13. __________ has the lowest freezing point of any metal.
(A) Mercury is the one
(B) On Mercury
(C) It is Mercury
(D) Mercury
14. The length of _________ by the Earth’s rotation on its axis.
(A) is fixed daily
(B) a day to be fixed
(C) a day is fixed
(D) a daily fixation
15. Approximately two and a half million _________ living in colonial America by
the middle of the eighteenth century.
(A) people
(B) people were
(C) people inhabited
(D) in people were

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 16. _________in the world, with over 4.300 hours of sunshine per year, is the
eastern Sahara.
(A) The palace is sunny
(B) Of the sunniest places
(C) The sunniest place
(D) Sunny places are
17. __________ the result of thermonuclear fusion reactions deep within the sun.
(A) Solar energy
(B) The energy of the sun
(C) In solar energy is
(D) Solar energy is
18. The oldest known _________ existence were made on a clay tablet in Babylon
in about 3000 B.C.
(A) maps in
(B) maps
(C) maps were in
(D) in maps were
19. Aerospace telemetry _________ the 1930s with the development of the balloon-
borne radiosonde.
(A) a date in
(B) dating
(C) dates from
(D) the date of
20. _________ of mapped passages in Mammoth Cave in Kentucky make it the
world’s longest known cave network.
(A) The 300-mile length
(B) It is 300-miles long
(C) The 300-miles length is
(D) Because of the 300-mile length

PRESENT DAN PAST PARTICIPLE

Present Participles
A present participle is the –ing form of the verb. The present participle can be (1)
part of the verb or (2) an adjective. It is part of the verb when it is accompanied by
some form of the verb –be. It is an adjective when it is not accompanied by some
form of the verb be.

Past Participles
A past participle often ends in –ed, but there are also many irregular past
participles. For many verbs, including –ed verbs, the simple past and the past
participle are the same and can be easily confused. The –ed form of the verb can be
(1) the simple past, (2) the past participle of a verb, or (3) an adjective.

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1. Air blowing over a fairly warm sea ______ with moisture.
(A) the quick saturation
(B) quickly becomes saturated
(C) it becomes saturated quickly
(D) to saturate it quickly
2. A church built in the Gothic style ______ pointed arches.
(A) often has
(B) often having
(C) to have often
(D) it often has
3. The rings ______ are made of billions of chunks of ice.
(A) they circle Saturn
(B) are circling Saturn
(C) circle Saturn
(D) circling Saturn
4. The largest volcano _______ in the solar system is Olympus Mons, on Mars.
(A) found
(B) it is found
(C) is found
(D) finds
5. _______ is the scientific definition of work.
(A) a force moves an object
(B) for the moving force of an object
(C) A force moving an object
(D) A force is moving an object
6. _________ as money were certain kinds of cowries.
(A) The shell were most widely used
(B) Because of the wide use of shells
(C) The shells most widely used
(D) They used shells widely
7. A primitive, undersea animal resembling a garden cucumber _______.
(A) a sea cucumber is called
(B) is called a sea cucumber
(C) to call a sea cucumber
(D) calling a sea cucumber
8. Sails made of cloth tied onto timber supports _______ power early windmills.
(A) were used to
(B) the use of
(C) using
(D) they used
9. A single _________ through a magnetic field flies in a spiral path.
(A) moves an electron
(B) electron is moving
(C) electron moving
(D) electron moves

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10. Immunity ________ from disease or from vaccination is called active immunity.
(A) is acquired
(B) acquired
(C) it is acquired
(D) acquires
11. The bony sword _______ the upper jaw of a swordfish makes up about one-third
of its length.
(A) extending from
(B) it extends from
(C) extends from
(D) is extending from
12. ________ to the U.S Supreme Court was Sandra Day O’Conner, in 1981.
(A) The woman had been appointed first
(B) For the appointment of the first woman
(C) The first woman appointed
(D) The first woman was appointed
13. Energy coming from the hot, molten rock inside the earth ______.
(A) geothermal energy
(B) the energy is geothermal
(C) to be geothermal energy
(D) is geothermal energy
14. The Mariana Trench, located within the Pacific Ocean, ______ on Earth.
(A) on the lowest point
(B) is the lowest point
(C) to lower the point
(D) the point is lowest
15. _______ from the sleep disorder narcolepsy is seized with sudden and
irresistible attacks of sleep.
(A) for a person to suffer
(B) a person suffers
(C) a person is suffering
(D) a person suffering
16. The white grains ______ tapioca pudding come from the roots of the cassava.
(A) are used in
(B) their use in
(C) used in
(D) they are used in
17. A typical mountain ______ in the tropical regions has four to five different
weather zones.
(A) is rising up
(B) it rises up
(C) rises up
(D) rising up
18. The 880 to 1000 _______ in Africa today can be grouped into four families with
common origins.
(A) languages are spoken
(B) speak the languages

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 (C) they speak the languages
(D) languages spoken
19. Rain, wind, and streams working through old limestone _____ in Utah’s Bryce
Canyon.
(A) produced the rock spines
(B) producing the rock spires
(C) the production of rock spires
(D) rock spires were produced
20. A boy’s suit supplemented with an extra pair of pants and a cap _____ from the
Montgomery Ward catalog for $2.25 in 1895.
(A) the purchase was available
(B) available for purchase
(C) was available for purchase
(D) the available purchase

COORDINATE AND ADVERB CLAUSES

Coordinate Connectors

and but or so
S V coordinate connector S V
It was raining, but Bill went out to play.

Adverb Clause Connectors

Time Cause Condition Contrast
after until because if although
as when since whether even though
before while though
since while
S V coordinate connector S V
Matt felt good because he passed.

coordinate connector S V S V
Because Matt passed, he felt good.

1. _________ not as bright as Venus, but it shines al night long.

(A) Jupiter
(B) Jupiter is
(C) Jupiter being
(D) On Jupiter

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2. __________ when light is blocked.
(A) Shadows form
(B) The form of shadows
(C) Shadows forming
(D) Within the form of shadows
3. Alexander Graham Bell _________ deaf pupils in Boston in 1871, and he started
work on the telephone there years ago.
(A) he began teaching
(B) a beginning teacher
(C) teaching beginning
(D) began teaching
4. _________ have long life spans, many trees do not.
(A) Some trees
(B) Some are trees
(C) Though some trees
(D) Though some are trees
5. Gold can be found loose in nuggets, __________ can be trapped within veins of
rock.
(A) or it
(B) it
(C) its
(D) or its
6. Eaglets are tended ___________ they are 12 weeks old.
(A) by both parents until
(B) by both parents
(C) both parents are
(D) both parents
7. Bamboo is generally a tropical plant, but ___________ in temperate zones.
(A) can also be grown
(B) also able to grow
(C) it can also grown
(D) its ability to grow
8. While birds and mammals are warm-blooded, __________.
(A) cold-blooded reptiles
(B) reptiles are cold0blooded
(C) but reptiles are cold-blooded
(D) and cold-blooded reptiles
9. The retina is curved, so the image formed on the retina _________.
(A) also curving
(B) the additional curve
(C) is also curved
(D) it is also curved
10. Because Mars __________ on its axis, it has seasons like the Earth’s.
(A) also tilting
(B) the tilt of
(C) with its tilt
(D) is also tilted

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11. Arteries carry blood away from the heart, __________ carry blood toward the
heart.
(A) veins
(B) in veins
(C) and veins
(D) through veins
12. Although the silkworm is called a worm, ________ a caterpillar rather than a
worm.
(A) really
(B) it is really
(C) is really
(D) but it really is
13. __________ be composed of stone, or they may consist of an alloy of nickel and
iron.
(A) Meteorites may
(B) Meteorites in
(C) Meteorites
(D) For meteorites to
14. _________ can be exploded by a sound wave if the frequency of the sound wave
matches the natural frequency of the glass.
(A) Because a wineglass
(B) The glass is for wine
(C) In the glass for wine
(D) A wineglass
15. Pasteurization of milk destroys any tuberculosis bacteria, __________ may
remain.
(A) other bacteria
(B) but other bacteria
(C) but in other bacteria
(D) but other bacteria have
16. Jesse James once refused to rob a bank in McKenney, Texas, _________ was
located in that town.
(A) his favorite restaurant
(B) at his favorite restaurant
(C) because the restaurant was his favorite
(D) since his favorite restaurant
17. The cells for other colors have not yet developed, so _________ are blue-eyed.
(A) the babies are new born
(B) most newborn babies
(C) in most newborn babies
(D) have most newborn babies
18. __________ off the ionosphere layer of the atmosphere as some radio signals
are.
(A) No bouncing microwave signals
(B) Not to bounce microwave signals
(C) Microwave signals are not bounced
(D) Microwave signals not bouncing

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 19. A stork _________ developed larynx, or vocal organ, so it has no voice.
(A) lacks a fully
(B) fully lacking
(C) the full lack
(D) a full lack of
20. Siamese cats first appeared in Britain after the King of Siam __________ to the
English consul general to take back to London.
(A) presenting two cats
(B) two cats were presented
(C) the presentation of two cats
(D) presented two cats

NOUN CLAUSES

Noun Clause Connectors

• what, when, where, why, how
• whether, if
• that
S V noun clause connectors S V
Sally explained why she did it

Noun Clause Connectors/Subjects

who what which
S V noun clause connectors/subjects V
Al told what happened

1. Fossils demonstrate ___________ from land-dwelling arthropods.

(A) insects developed
(B) how insects developed
(C) how the development of insects
(D) the development of insects
2. A course syllabus __________ what is expected in a course.
(A) with clear delineation
(B) to delineate clearly
(C) should clearly delineate
(D) clearly delineating
3. In the eighteenth century, __________ that the paths of cannonballs were
parabolas.
(A) the proof of Galileo
(B) proven by Galileo
(C) Galileo who proved
(D) Galileo proved

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4. Artificial diamonds are __________ results from the application of great heat
and pressure to carbon.
(A) what
(B) it
(C) what it
(D) what is
5. Due to a lack of color vision, dogs cannot tell if ___________ vibrantly colored
or gray.
(A) is something
(B) something
(C) is
(D) something is
6. The speedometer of an automobile __________ what the rpm of the driveshaft
is.
(A) measuring
(B) it measures
(C) which measures
(D) measures
7. The prosecutor and defense together ___________ who will serve on a jury.
(A) deciding
(B) the decision
(C) decide
(D) they decide
8. No one knows exactly when the game of backgammon ___________.
(A) the first to play
(B) was first played
(C) it was first played
(D) which was first played
9. Volcanic eruptions vary according to __________ of various types of magma is
produced.
(A) them
(B) it
(C) which
(D) him
10. Bobolink take great care to hide ___________ are built.
(A) where their nests
(B) their nests
(C) where are their nests
(D) in their nests
11. The thick atmosphere of Venus ___________ what holds heat in and creates
such high temperatures.
(A) it is
(B) is
(C) which is
(D) is it

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12. ___________ of sound depends on whether air molecules are vibrating slowly or
quickly.
(A) It has a volume
(B) Above the volume
(C) The volume
(D) The volume is
13. A buildup of certain gases in the atmosphere explains why ___________
increasing.
(A) the Earth’s temperature is
(B) the Earth’s temperature
(C) is the Earth’s temperature
(D) if the Earth’s temperature
14. ___________ a large role in determining which of the space shuttle’s landing
areas will be used for a given flight.
(A) the play of weather
(B) weather playing
(C) weather plays
(D) for weather to play
15. Earthworm determine __________ is dry enough before they venture out of the
soil.
(A) the ground
(B) if the ground
(C) under the ground
(D) if the ground feels
16. Archeological sites in the Kobuk Valley in Alaska indicate that humans
__________ there for over 10.000 years.
(A) have lived
(B) living
(C) the life
(D) they have lived
17. The specific heat of an element ___________ to what is needed to change the
temperature of a unit of the element by one degree.
(A) in reference
(B) refers
(C) referring
(D) it refers
18. Mandrake and poppy extracts ___________ the Romans used to pain relief
following surgery.
(A) were
(B) what
(C) were what
(D) were what did
19. Mercury’s virtual lack of atmosphere explains why such a large variation in
temperature between and night __________.
(A) occurring
(B) it occurs

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 (C) which occurs
(D) occurs
20. Alfred Nobel’s 1896 __________ precisely who would serve as judges for the
awarding of Nobel Prizes.
(A) the outline
(B) outlined
(C) outlining the will
(D) will outlined

ADJECTIVE CLAUSES

Adjective Clause Connectors

whom which that
(for people) (for things) (for people or things)
S V adjective clause connectors S V
I like the dress that you are wearing.
S adjective clause connector S V V
The dress that you are wearing is beautiful.
Note: Adjective connectors can be omitted. This omission is very common in spoken
English or in casual written English. It is not as common in formal English or in the
Structure section of the TOEFL test.

Adjective Clause Connectors/Subjects

who which that
(for people) (for things) (for the people or things)
S V adjective clause connectors/subject V
I bought the dress that was on sale.
S adjective clause connectors/subject V V
The dress that was on sale was beautiful.
Note: Although adjective clause connectors can be omitted in informal English,
adjective clause connectors/subjects can never be omitted.

1. An acre originally represented the area that a yoke of oxen ___________ in a

single day.
(A) a plow
(B) to plow
(C) plowing
(D) could plow
2. __________ the chemicals that make water hard.
(A) For carbonates to be
(B) Carbonates are

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 (C) Carbonates
(D) In carbonates
3. __________ that we see is made up of all the colors of the spectrum.
(A) In the light
(B) The light
(C) It lights
(D) Because the light
4. Only beryl __________ deep green in color can be called emerald.
(A) that is
(B) is
(C) it is
(D)that
5. Unlike paints, __________ into the material that they color.
(A) dyes dispersing
(B) the dispersion of dyes
(C) dyes are dispersed
(D) to disperse dyes
6. A baseball ___________ a cork and rubber core that is tightly wrapped with
yam.
(A) which has
(B) having
(C) it has
(D) has
7. The muscle that fiddler crab uses to pull its pincer shut ___________.
(A) with extreme strength
(B) must be extremely strong
(C) it must be extremely strong
(D) extreme strength
8. The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution, which __________, was
proclaimed on December 18, 1865.
(A) abolishing slavery
(B) slavery to abolish
(C) the abolition of slavery
(D) abolished slavery
9. President Herbert Hoover, for whom ____________, was educated as an
engineer.
(A) Hoover Dam’s name
(B) the name of Hoover Dam
(C) Hoover Dam was named
(D) naming Hoover Dam
10. __________, which formed in the crater of an extinct volcano, is the deepest
lake in the United States.
(A) In Crater Lake
(B) Crater Lake is a lake
(C) Crater Lake
(D) The Lake has a crater

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11. ___________ in which most carnivorous plants live do not provide the plants
with enough nourishment.
(A) The poor soils
(B) Within the poor soils
(C) The soils are poor
(D) The poor soils are
12. Most tundra plants are mosses and lichens _________ the ground for warmth.
(A) that hug
(B) hug
(C) they hug
(D) that a hug
13. In 1705, Edmond Halley, for whom Halley’s Comet is named, __________ the
1758 return of the comet.
(A) accurate prediction
(B) prediction with accuracy
(C) he predicted accurately
(D) accurately predicted
14. George Washington’s __________ on the balcony of the Federal Hall in New
York City, which was then the national capital.
(A) the palace of the inauguration
(B) inauguration took place
(C) was inaugurated in a place
(D) took the place of an inauguration
15. ___________ of serving lemon with fish derived from the belief that the acid in
lemon juice would dissolve fish bones.
(A) the custom
(B) because it is customary
(C) it is customary
(D) the custom is
16. Pandas have a thumb-like sixth finger ___________ really an extension of the
wrist bone.
(A) is
(B) it is
(C) which
(D) which is
17. Hawks have excellent eyesight that they __________ even tiny prey on the
ground from high in the air.
(A) using to spot
(B) to spot a use
(C) use to spot
(D) a use on spots
18. Keno, an early form of bingo, _____________ of chance which dates from the
early nineteenth century.
(A) it is a game
(B) which is a game
(C) is a game
(D) a game

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 19. The first reigning king for whom the U.S. ___________ an official reception
was David Kalakaua, king of Sandwich Islands.
(A) government’s hold
(B) government held
(C) the hold of the government
(D) holding the government
20. The people who ___________ in North America during colonial times
commonly ate cornmeal mush or boiled rice for breakfast.
(A) settled
(B) settling
(C) to settle
(D) the settlement

AGREEMENT

Subject/Verb Agreement with Prepositional Phrases

S (prepositional phrase) V

When a prepositional phrase comes between the subject and the verb, be sure that
the verb agrees with subject.

Subject/Verb Agreement after Expressions of Quantity

all
most
some of the (object) V
half
part
When an expression of quantity using of is the subject, the verb agrees with object.

Subject/Verb Agreement after Certain Words

These words or expressions are grammatically singular, so they take singular verbs:

anybody everybody nobody somebody each (+ noun)

anyone everyone no one someone every (+ noun)
anything everything nothing something

1. The largest of all the herd animals are the musk ox.
2. All of the hoofed mammals walks on the tips of their toes.

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3. No one are quite sure how the electricity that causes lighting builds up.
4. Like desert plants, the plants of the tundra has to be equipped for life in a harsh
climate.
5. None of the other continents touches Antartica.
6. Anybody suffering from a slipped disk have weakened cartilage in the spine.
7. The smaller wheel in pair of gear wheels turn more quickly than the larger one.
8. Most of the members of the cat family is not good swimmers, but tigers are.
9. Nothing living on the earth are capable of outrunning a cheetah.
10. Some older expressions in English is wink-a peeps for eyes and flesh-spades for
fingernails.
11. More than half of the potatoes grown in United States comes from Idaho.
12. Every joint in the human body are surrounded by a fibrous capsule lined with
membrane.
13. The dense structure of diamonds are a result of its crystallization under great
pressure.
14. Part of the Sahara desert are a series of plateaus averaging 1.000 feet in altitude.
15. Most pulsars are so faint that nobody are able to see them without a very powerful
telescope.
16. Nerves in the spinal cord carries signals back and forth between the brain and the
rest of the body.
17. Most of the world’s great mountain ranges has been created by the folding of the
earth’s crust.
18. Someone standing on the peak of Mount Washington, in New Hampshire, are on
one of the windiest spots on Earth.
19. A storm with circulating wind speeds of 73 mph or more are called a hurricane in
the Atlantic, a typhoon in the western Pacific, and a cyclone in the Indian Ocean.
20. Some of president Gerald Ford’s earlier jobs was as a park ranger at Yellowstone
and as a model for sports clothes in Life magazine.

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 PARALLEL STRUCTURE

Parallel Structure with Coordinate Conjunctions

(same structure) and (same structure)
but
or
(same structure) (same structure) and (same structure)
but
or

Parallel Structure with Paired Conjunctions

both both
either (same structure) either (same structure)
neither neither
not only not only

1. Cats hunt not only by night but also daily.

2. Adobe is used throughout the Southwest to make ovens and bricked.
3. Both circular or longitudinal muscles occur in the walls of the throat.
4. A sixteenth-century navigator used an astrolabe to calculate a ship’s distance to
the north or southern of the equator.
5. A fir requires neither warm weather or lengthy hours of sunlight to survive.
6. The skin protects the human body from infectious, injury, and harmful sunlight.
7. A light-year is a measurement of both time and distant.
8. The first tanks were powered by largely but inefficient internal combustion
engines.
9. Watercress is a water plant whose shoots either take root in mud or to trail in
water.
10. St. Bernards are prized for their keen noses, sure-footed, and unerring sense of
smell.
11. Many of the great mountain ranges of the world are neither dead nor die.
12. The aardvark has a peculiar appearance because of its large bodily, pointy snout,
large ears, and strong legs.

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13. Tigers differ from lions neither in the color of their coats but also in their lack of
manes.
14. In ancient times, the Milky Way was seen a road, river, or bridged along which
the spirits of the dead departed the Earth.
15. Seaweed not only helps to oxygenate water and keep it pure but also providing
food for small fish.
16. Bronzes with ten percent or more tin are harder, more strongly, and more resistant
to corrosion than brass.
17. The grizzly bear is set apart from other bears not only by its light-colored, shaggy
coat but also it has a high shoulder hump.
18. A plant that stops growing and looks dead in the fall but to come back year after
year is a perennial.
19. Many parts of Alaska are neither completely barren nor perpetual cold.
20. At one time, the Sahara Desert had the climate of a moist temperature or
subtropical region.

VERBS FORM

Verb Forms after Have

have + past participle

Verb Forms after Be

be + (1) present participle
(2) past participle

Verb Forms after Modals

modals + base form of the verb

1. The remains of meat-eating dinosaurs have be found in Antartica.

2. Bees are find all over the world, except in Antarctica.
3. The fruit of the avocado tree can grew up to nine inches in diameter.
4. The U.S Government has not prints bill larger than $100 since 1969.

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 5. In early basketball games, peach baskets were use as hoops.
6. The boiling point will changes with changes in air pressure.
7. By the end of the Cretaceous Period, all dinosaurs had dying out.
8. A young cow, elephant, giraffe, hippopotamus, or whale is calls a calf.
9. A bat must hung upside down in order to rest or sleep.
10. The popular board games chess, checkers, and backgammon have all exist for
many years.
11. Like the Earth, the moon was bombard with meteorites during its first billion
years.
12. A newborn baby might sleeping as much as 16 hours a day in intermittent periods.
13. Topaz has being identified in yellow, blue, green, violet, pink, and colorless
varieties.
14. The Red Spot on Jupiter is a giant spiral storm that has been rage for more than
300 years.
15. In medieval times, the superior officer of a soldier who had been cowardly or
disloyal would broke the sword of the soldier.
16. The house sparrow was introduced into North America in the early 1850s, and
within a century it had spreads across the continent.
17. In Texas in the 1830s, thousands of Longhorn cattle were ran wild on the plains
18. A wave may struck the shore with a force equal to the pressure of 6000 pounds
per square foot.
19. Silk fibers produced by spiders are very fine and have proves impractical for use
in textiles.
20. Our solar system is actually moves through space toward the constellation of
Hercules at about 12 miles per second.

NOUNS

Key Words for Singular and Plural Nouns

For singular noun each every single one a
For plural noun both two many several various

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 Key Words for Countable and Uncountable Noun
For countable noun many number few fewer
For uncountable noun much amount little less

1. The human jawbone hinges on each sides of the skull at ear level.
2. In the Bighorn Mountains, a range in the rocky Mountains, there are much
mountain lakes and waterfalls.
3. Like other rodents, squirrels have four large incisor tooth for gnawing.
4. The hot air inside a balloon has fewer density than the colder air that surrounds it.
5. A single mature tobacco plants can potentially yield a million seeds.
6. The U.S. Coast Guard began in 1790, when Congress authorized a group of a little
boats, only about ten, to guard the nation’s coast.
7. Refrigerators and boilers are both machine that work by transferring heat from
one place to another.
8. A large amount of people, more than 12 million, came into the United Sates
through Ellis Island between 1892 and 1924.
9. As a wheel rolls along, every parts along the wheel’s rim will touch the ground
and then rise up.
10. In 1888, Benjamin Harrison received less popular votes than Grover Cleveland
but was elected president anyway.
11. In the fifteenth century, Leonardo da Vinci drew several rough sketch of a
contraption that looked like a bicycle.
12. Many bronze alloys contain a small number of material other than copper and tin.
13. North America has an areas of 9.400.000 square miles, approximately 3.000.000
square miles more than South America.
14. When the melting point for a substance has been reached, its molecules gain too
many energy to stay in one place.
15. In 1930, the International Astronomical Union establishes a standard set of 888
constellation.
16. Sounds travels well through the desert because there is few vegetation to absorb
sound waves.
17. At various time during the Pleistocene age, broad belts of land connected Eurasia
and North America.

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18. Until only a few hundred year ago, much people still believed that the earth was
flat.
19. A muscle fiber, which is thinner than a hair, can be up to one feet long in a large
human muscle.
20. Great amounts of cells of many kinds form the bodies of such creatures as insects
and mammals.

PRONOUNS AND POSSESSIVES

Subject Object
I me
you you
he him
she her
it it
we us
they them

Possessive Adjectives Possessive Pronouns

my mine
you yours
his his
her hers
its -
our ours
their theirs

must be accompanied by a noun cannot be accompanied by a noun

Pronoun Agreement
1. Be sure that every pronoun and possessive agrees with the noun it refers to.
2. You generally check earlier in the sentence for agreement.

1. Penguins cannot fly, but it can swim very well.

2. When light rays pass through a lens, them are bent, or refracted.
3. Carpenter bees tunnel into wood in order to build theirs nests.
4. A plant creates his own food from air, sunlight, and water.

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5. When a bighorn sheep ewe is about to give birth, her leaves the band for a secluded
ledge.
6. Albert Einstein did not begin speaking until it was six years old.
7. The total number of protons in an element is called it’s atomic number.
8. When explorer John Cabot returned to England with the news that he had reached
the New World, the king rewarded he with an extra ten pounds.
9. Cartilage has no blood supply and, unlike bone, does repair themselves when
damaged.
10. Each of yours fingers has its own tendons attached to the finger-pulling muscles
in your forearm.
11. A number of pre-Columbian skulls with holes bored in they have been found by
archeologists.
12. In 1500, the potato grew in the Andes Mountains of South America, and the only
people who ate them were the Incas.
13. Some antibodies can cause harm if their taken over a long period of time.
14. Abraham Lincoln did not grow his familiar beard until after him was elected
president.
15. When you look into a mirror, it seems as if one is standing behind the glass looking
out.
16. Typhoid Mary was a carrier of typhoid, and 52 cases of this disease were directly
attributable to she.
17. Countess Ada Lovelace, the daughter of Lord Byron, has been recognized for hers
work assisting Babbage in the development of his analytical engine.
18. The queen termite spends his entire life in a chamber in the most secure part of
the nest.
19. If the alveoli in human lungs were spread out flat, them would cover a surface as
large as a tennis court.
20. The names of many of the immigrants who came through Ellis Island are inscribed
on one of their walls.

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 ADJECTIVES AND ADVERBS

Use of Adjectives and Adverbs

Adjectives Adjectives describe nouns or pronouns.
Adverbs Adverbs describe verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs.

Adjectives and Adverbs after Verbs

(subject) + (regular verb) + (adverb)

A regular verb is followed by an adverb. The adverb describes the verb.

(subject) + (linking verb) + (adverb)

A linking verb is followed by an adjective. The adjective describes the subject.

(subject) + (linking verb) + (adverb) + (adjective)

It is possible for a linking verb to be followed by an adverb and an adjective. The

adverb describes the adjectives, and the adjective describes the subject.
Linking verbs: appear feel seem
be look smell
become prove taste

1. Pure talc breaks easy into thin, transparent flakes.

2. There are more distinctly species of bats than of any other mammal.
3. It used to be illegally in parts of the state of Michigan to hitch a crocodile to fire
hydrant.
4. Under the thin, relative cool crust of the Earth lies the mantle.
5. When objects vibrate quick back and forth, they create sounds.
6. The grizzly bear’s nose, muzzle, and teeth look similarly to a dog’s.
7. The Sun contains more than 99 percent of the mass of the entirely solar system.
8. Auroras appear when high charged particles from sunspots excite the thin gases
of the upper atmosphere.
9. Though a moose may appear awkwardly, it is actually an extremely nimble and
efficient animal.

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10. Heat energy flows spontaneous from a body at high temperature to one at cold
temperature.
11. The Galapagos Islands are remotely islands in the Pacific Ocean, about 600 miles
off the coast of South America.
12. Perfumes are generally alcoholic solutions of substances that smell pleasantly
when combined.
13. Unlike soaps, detergents are synthetics that do not form easy biodegradable waste
products.
14. The stem of the kohlrabi thickens noticeable to form an edible tuber one three
inches above the ground.
15. John Jacob Astor (1763-1848) became quite weathily by dominating the
American fur trade and investing his profits in New York real estate.
16. The modern city Phoenix, Arizona sits on the site of an anciently settlement of the
Hohokam tribe.
17. A newborn baby’s head is comparative large in relation to the rest of the body.
18. The chance that two fingerprints will prove identically is about 1 in 64 billion.
19. Absolute zero is the temperature at which molecular movement virtual ceases.
20. If a virus enters the throat and infects it, the throat will feel inflamed and
uncomfortably.

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READING COMPREHENSION

MAIN IDEAS

Main Idea Questions

How to identify the question What is the topic of this passage?
What is the subject of this passage?
What is the main idea of the passage?
What is the author’s main point in the passage?
With what is the author primarily concerned?
Which of the following would be the best title?
Where to find the answer The answer to this type of question can generally be
determined by looking at the first sentence of each
paragraph.
How to answer the question 1. Read the first line of each paragraph.
2. Look for a common theme or idea in the first
lines.
3. Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the
passage to check that you really have found the
topic sentence(s).
4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and
choose the best answer from the remaining
choices.

Most of the ice on the Earth, close to 90 percent of it, is covering the surface of
the content Antartica. It does not snow very much in Antartica, but whatever snow does
fall remains and grows deeper and deeper. In some areas of Antartica, the ice has perhaps
been around for as much as a million years and now is more than two miles deep.

1. The main idea of the passage is that

(A) The Earth is a cold planet
(B) Most of the Earth’s ice is found in Antartica
(C) it snows more in Antartica than in any other place on Earth
(D) antartica is only two miles wide but is 90 percent ice
2. The best title for the passage is
(A) Snowfall in Antartica
(B) The Icy Earth
(C) The Cold, cold Snow
(D) The Causes of Antartica’s Ice Pack

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 STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Stated Detail Questions

How to identify the question According to the passage, …
It is stated in the passage that …
The passage indicates that …
The author mentions that …
Which of the following is true …?
Where to find the answer The answers to these questions are found in order in
the passage.
How to answer the question 1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Skim the appropriate part of the passage for the
key word (or deleted idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word
or ideas carefully.
4. Look for the answer that restates an idea in the
passage.
5. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and
choose the best answer from the remaining
choices.

Many parts of the Southwestern United States would become deserts again
without the waters of the Colorado River. A system of thousands of miles of canals,
hundreds of miles of tunnels and aqueducts, and numerous dams and reservoirs bring
Colorado River water to the area. The Imperial in Southern California is an example of
such a place; it is a vast and productive agricultural area that was once a desert. Today,
2,000 miles of canals irrigate the fertile land and keep it productive.

1. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a way that Colorado River
water gets to the Southwest?
(A) By truck
(B) In bottles
(C) In wells
(D) Through canals
2. According to the passage, the Imperial Valley?
(A) is a desert today
(B) is located in Colorado
(C) produces a lot of agricultural goods
(D) does not require irrigation

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 UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Unstated Detail Questions

How to identify the question Which of the following is not stated …?
Which of the following is not mentioned …?
Which of the following is not discussed …?
All of the following are true except …?
Where to find the answer The answers to these questions are found in order in
the passage.
How to answer the question 1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan the appropriate place in the passage for
the key word (or deleted idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word
or idea carefully.
4. Look for the answers that are definitely true
according to the passage. Eliminate those
answers.
5. Choose the answer that is not true or not
discussed in the passage.

Blood pressure measurement has two components; systolic and diastolic. Systolic
pressure is taken when the heart is contracting to pump blood; diastolic pressure is taken
when the heart is resting between beats. In the usual blood pressure reading, the systolic
measurement is given first and is the higher of the two.
Normal blood pressure is a systolic measurement of 120 – 140, and when the
systolic pressure is 160 or higher, then hypertension exits. Systolic pressure between 140
and 160 indicates borderline hypertension.

1. Which of the following in NOT true about systolic blood pressure?

(A) It is taken during the contraction of the heart.
(B) It is usually given first in a blood pressure reading.
(C) A normal systolic measurement is 120 – 140.
(D) Hypertension exits when the systolic pressure is below 140
2. Which of the following is NOT stated about diastolic pressure?
(A) It is one of the two components of blood pressure measurement.
(B) It is taken when the heart is resting.
(C) It is lower than systolic pressure.
(D) A diastolic measurement of 140 is normal.

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 IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS

Implied Questions
How to identify the question It is implied in the passage that …
It can be inferred from the passage that …
It is mostly likely that …
What probably happened …?
Where to find the answer The answer to these questions are found in order in the
passage.
How to answer the question 1. Choose a key word in the question.
2. Scan the passage for the key word (or deleted
idea).
3. Read the sentence that contains the key word
carefully.
4. Look for an answer that could be true
according to that sentence.

Until 1996 The Sears Tower was the tallest building in the world, with more than
a hundred stories. It is located in Chicago, whose nickname is the Windy City. The
combination of a very tall building in a city with such weather conditions lead to a lot of
swaying in the breeze.
On a windy day, the top of the building can move back and forth as much as three
feet every few seconds. The inside doors at the top of the building open and close, and
water in sinks sloshes back and forth.

1. The sears Tower is probably

(A) as tall as The Empire State Building
(B) no longer the tallest building in the world
(C) taller than any other building
(D) still the highest building in the world
2. It can be inferred from the passage that Chicago
(A) has moderate weather
(B) is generally warm
(C) has humid weather
(D) usually has a lot of wind
3. It is implied in the passage that the upper-level doors in the Sears Tower open and
close because
(A) the building was poorly constructed
(B) people go in and out so often
(C) the building moves in the wind
(D) there is water in the sinks

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 VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT QUESTIONS

Vocabulary Questions Containing Difficult Words

How to identify the question What is the meaning …?
Which of the following is closest in meaning to …?
… could best be replaced by which of the following?
Where to find the answer The question usually tells you in which line of the
passage the words or expression can be found.
How to answer the question 1. Find the word or expression in the passage.
2. Read the sentence that contains the word
carefully.
3. Look for context clues to help you understand
the meaning.
4. Choose the answer that the context indicates.

When babies are born, they always have blue eyes. This is because the melanin,
the pigment that colors the eyes, is not on the surface of the iris. Instead, it is within the
creases of the iris. Because there is little melanin on the surface of the iris, the eyes
appear blue.
After a few months, the melanin moves to the surfaces of the iris. It is the
amount of melanin on the surface that determines a person’s permanent eye color, so it
is at this point that a baby’s eyes develop the color they will have for a lifetime.

1. The word “pigment” in line 2is closest in meaning to

(A) skin
(B) muscle
(C) tissue
(D) color
2. The word “surface” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) top
(B) inside
(C) back
(D) bottom
3. The word “permanent” in line 6 could best be replaced by
(A) changeable
(B) lasting
(C) dark
(D) possible
4. The word “point” in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) dot
(B) era
(C) time
(D) place

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 “WHERE” QUESTIONS

Questions about Where in the Passage

How to identify the question Where in the passage …?
Where to find the answer The question can be in any of the lines listed in the
answers to the question.
How to answer the question 1. Choose a key word or idea in the question.
2. Skim the lines in the passage that are listed in
the answers to the question. You should skim
for the key word or idea.
3. Choose the answer that contains the line
numbers of a restatement of the key word or
idea in the question.

A geyser occurs when rainwater seeps into the ground and volcanic magma
beneath the surface heats it. The rainwater then turns into steam. The pressurized steam
rises to the surface and bursts out as a geyser.
Yellowstone National Park has more geysers than all of the rest of the world
together. The most famous of these geyser is Old Faithful, which erupts in a high arc of
steam about once an hour.
There have not been any volcanic eruptions in the Yellowstone are for 70,000
years. However, the existence of the geysers is proof that the area is volcanically active.

1. Where in the passage does the author mention what heats the water in a geyser?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Lines 4
(C) Lines 5-6
(D) Line 7
2. The author indicates how often Old Faithful erupts in
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Line 4
(C) Lines 5-6
(D) Line 7
3. Where in the passage does the author state how long it has been since a volcano
erupted at Yellowstone?
(A) Lines 2-3
(B) Lines 5-6
(C) Line 7
(D) Line 8

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 SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section, with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or
implied by the speaker you hear.

PART A

Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversation between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers
in your paper and choose the best answer. Then, darken on the answer you have chosen.

1. (A) Cooking dinner right away

(B) Not having dinner at all
(C) Going out to eat
(D) Shopping for groceries
2. (A) On a plane
(B) On a bus
(C) On a train
(D) In a car
3. (A) She hardly worked on the paper
(B) It was not possible to write the paper
(C) It is hard for her to be pleased
(D) She made a strong effort
4. (A) Answers have already been mailed
(B) He has just responded to the woman’s questions
(C) He will send responses tomorrow morning
(D) Many of the letters still require responses
5. (A) The stadium was never built
(B) The school really needs a new stadium
(C) He really likes the new stadium
(D) He agrees with the woman
6. (A) He is on his way to take the test
(B) He’s displeased about the grade on the exam
(C) He’s happy the score is so good
(D) He has not yet received his score
7. (A) Buying a folder now
(B) Writing the report now
(C) Heading to the biology lab
(D) Studying together for biology
8. (A) A writer
(B) A singer
(C) An actor
(D) A musician

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9. (A) He prays often
(B) He is pleased with their work
(C) He said their work was good
(D) He has displayed their work
10. (A) She’ll fix it after dinner
(B) Dinner will be ready in a few minutes
(C) Dinner was prepared quickly
(D) She got dressed for dinner
11. (A) She would like more information about the lecture
(B) She did not enjoy the lecture
(C) She agrees with the man about the lecture
(D) She would like to attend the lecture
12. (A) The room was not dark
(B) He did not notice the lights
(C) He thought the room was too light
(D) The lights were of
13. (A) Turning the heat on
(B) Adding another layer of clothing
(C) Working up a sweat
(D) Putting the sweater away
14. (A) On a ship
(B) On a plane
(C) On a train
(D) On a bus
15. (A) He’s waiting patiently to go
(B) He’s eager to go
(C) He doesn’t want to go
(D) He can’t attend the concert
16. (A) Not much mail arrived today
(B) Numerous pieces of email were delivered earlier today
(C) The letter carrier has not yet delivered the mail
(D) He already took the mail to the post office
17. (A) He finds the seats rather comfortable
(B) He really agrees with the woman
(C) He thinks there are not enough seats in the theater
(D) He would like her to repeat what she said
18. (A) The math building is too hot
(B) The math problems are too difficult
(C) He was unable to find the math building
(D) The math building is cold
19. (A) Going away now
(B) Continuing the search
(C) Looking at the car
(D) Keeping the keys
20. (A) At an airport
(B) At a train station
(C) In a market
(D) In a hotel

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 21. (A) Explain her problem to the professor
(B) Pay attention to the professor
(C) Complete the assignment today
(D) Listen to the song one more time
22. (A) What the man said to Beth
(B) What was said by Beth
(C) What Beth heard
(D) What she should say next
23. (A) He’s going to walk home instead
(B) He needs to see the professor, too
(C) He’ll talk to the professor in class
(D) He doesn’t need to talk to the professor
24. (A) It seemed to pass rather slowly
(B) It went by too fast
(C) It was completely disastrous
(D) It is coming up fast
25. (A) Requesting a later due date
(B) Finishing the paper now
(C) Extending the length of the paper
(D) Ending the term tomorrow
26. (A) A doctor
(B) A teller
(C) A pharmacist
(D) A counselor
27. (A) She’s always nice to everyone
(B) He’s known her for a long time
(C) He introduced her to many of his friends
(D) She was very kind
28. (A) The exams have not yet been returned
(B) The professor has already given the exams back
(C) The exams will be returned in two days
(D) The professor returned to class the day before yesterday
29. (A) She agrees with the man about the excuse
(B) They’ve heard many sillier excuses
(C) The excuse was not so silly
(D) They haven’t heard any other excuses
30. (A) They’re dry
(B) She has had them for two weeks
(C) She just watered them
(D) She has two of them

PART B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers on your paper and
choose the best answer. Then, darken on your answer you have chosen.

38 | P a g e
 31. (A) Attend a lecture with the woman
(B) Invite the woman to have some coffee
(C) Blame the woman for an accident
(D) Use the woman’s notes
32. (A) His missed the class
(B) He didn’t take good notes
(C) His notes became unreadable
(D) He was in a car accident
33. (A) He spilled his drink on them
(B) He left them in the lecture hall
(C) He lent them to the woman
(D) He accidentally threw them away
34. (A) Buy him some coffee
(B) Let him use her notes
(C) Borrow notes from someone else
(D) Lend him some money
35. (A) There was one major tornado
(B) There were three major tornadoes
(C) There was one minor tornado
(D) There were three minor tornadoes
36. (A) In the eastern part of town
(B) In the western part of town
(C) In the northern of town
(D) In the southern part of town
37. (A) In the part of town where tornadoes hit
(B) Outside of town
(C) In the opposite part of town from where the tornadoes hit
(D) In a different town from where the tornadoes hit
38. (A) Absolutely no damage
(B) Minor damage to property
(C) Some inquiries to people
(D) A huge amount of damage

PART C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will
hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your paper and choose the best answer. Then,
darken on your answer you have chosen.

39. (A) To read ten pages

(B) To solve ten problems
(C) To read twenty pages
(D) To complete twenty problems
40. (A) Number 7
(B) Number 9
(C) Number 12
(D) Number 15

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41. (A) Questions
(B) Diagrams
(C) Calculations
(D) Answers
42. (A) Before the end of the day today
(B) Before class starts tomorrow
(C) By the end of tomorrow’s class
(D) Next week
43. (A) A type of cloud
(B) A circle of light
(C) A meteorologist’s tool
(D) A kind of rain
44. (A) Prior to a period of good weather
(B) After it snows
(C) Before a storm comes
(D) While it is raining
45. (A) Because a certain type of cloud has formed
(B) Because the sun has risen
(C) Because snow is blocking the sun or moon
(D) Because the moon is in front of the sun
46. (A) It is not scientific
(B) One’s grandparents have not heard of it
(C) Meteorologists think it is a funny saying
(D) There is a scientific basis for it.
47. (A) What the explorers found in North America
(B) A bird that shares its name with a country
(C) Why the Pilgrims celebrated Thanksgiving
(D) Birds that are native to Turkey
48. (A) It was brought from Turkey to North America
(B) It is native to the country of Turkey
(C) It was transported from Africa to Turkey
(D) It is a close relation of the Turkey
49. (A) It resembled a guinea fowl
(B) It came from Guinea
(C) It was really a guinea fowl
(D) It was closely related to the guinea fowl
50. (A) It was found on many continents
(B) It was common in Turkey
(C) It was close relation to the guinea fowl
(D) It was native only to North America

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 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time – 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.

STRUCTURE

Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will
see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase
that best completes the sentence. Then, darken on the answer you have chosen.

1. ___ plays only a few low tones, but it can be used to accompany other instruments
or voices.
(A) The primitive bagpipe
(B) The bagpipe is primitive
(C) Because of the primitive bagpipe
(D) The primitive bagpipe’s
2. Cinderella, ___ from ninth-century China, featured a noiseless slipper of gold.
(A) was a fairy tale
(B) a fairy tale was
(C) a fairy tale
(D) it was a fairy tale
3. Children need to be aware of driving safety, ___ old enough to drive or not.
(A) they are
(B) to their
(C) whether they are
(D) their not
4. ____ of American high school students successfully pass math courses in
elementary calculus.
(A) The percent is less than two
(B) At less than two percent
(C) Less than two percent
(D) With a percent of less than two
5. The Australian boomerang, curved and flat, ___ to the thrower.
(A) the return
(B) and returned
(C) returnable
(D) returns
6. A fir tree growing in nature ___ rather like a pyramid.
(A) a tendency to be shaped
(B) the shape tends to be
(C) tends to be shaped
(D) a tendency of the shape

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7. The beaver ___, which it uses to propel itself though the water like a paddle.
(A) with a thick, flat tail
(B) it has a thick flat tail
(C) whose tail is thick and flat
(D) has a thick, flat tail
8. Seabird lay elongated eggs, ___ less likely to be blown out of rocky nests.
(A) are
(B) which are
(C) they are
(D) therefore, they are
9. Geologists know ___ commonly found enveloped in igneous rock.
(A) that uranium
(B) that uranium is
(C) uranium
(D) is that uranium
10. On American rails in 1913 ___ more than 10,000 Pullman sleepers, which gave
rest to 100,000 passengers a night in the world’s biggest hotel chain.
(A) were
(B) train cars were
(C) the train cars
(D) being
11. Benny Goodman, who made swing music popular, ____ along with his band after
performing at the Palomar Ballroom in Los Angeles in 1935.
(A) to become an overnight success
(B) becoming an overnight success
(C) in becoming an overnight success
(D) became an overnight success
12. In the preparation of pie crusts, biscuits, or scones, ___ are beaten with the fat
until the dough is crumbly, at which time the liquid are added.
(A) the ingredients are dry
(B) the dry ingredients
(C) to dry the ingredients
(D) drying the ingredients
13. A skier making remark telemark turns ___ to be genuflecting down the mountain.
(A) that appear
(B) appears
(C) in the appearance
(D) appear
14. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next
millennium, and ___ the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered
as a technological hero.
(A) what the discovery of
(B) the discovery of
(C) whose discovery of
(D) whoever discovers

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 15. Should ___ California cuisine, you would find an eclectic mix of Asian, European,
Latin American, and other influences.
(A) try
(B) you try
(C) trying
(D) you tried

WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Directions: In this section each sentence has four underlined words and phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, and D. Identify the one underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, darken
on the answer you have chosen.

Direction: in this section each sentence has four underlined words and phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked a, b, c, d. Identify the one underlined word
or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, click on the
answer you have chosen.

16. A estimated 52 million Americans are doing at least some of their work from
A B C
home by using computers.
D
17. The bee hummingbird of the Caribbean is the smallest of the amethyst woodstar
A B C
bird.
D
18. Nearly every plant that develops roots are dependent on the mechanical and
A B

chemical environment provided by the silicate structure of clay.

C D
19. Levi jeans were first wear by California gold miner and were made popular in the
A B C
1950s by James Dean and Marlon Brando.
D
20. Small cars are involved in less accidents than large ones, but large cars are
A
considered more safe when involved in accidents.
B C D
21. When hunting for fish, dolphins emit loud clicking sounds to confuse theirs prey.
A B C D
22. Both helicopters and tiltrotors are capable of vertical and horizontal flight, but
A B
helicopters are neither as fuel efficient nor as speedily as tiltrotors.
C D

43 | P a g e
23. The stegosaurus weighted approximately two tons, yet their brain cavity was
A B
merely the size of a golf ball.
C D
24. During flight, the forces of lift and thrust overcomes the counterforces of weight
A B C
and drag.
D
25. The ancient game of chess, once the game of eccentrics, is all of a sudden boom
A B C D
in grade schools.
26. The first successful planetary probe has reached Venus in December 1962 after it
A B C
made a stunning 180 million-mile voyage.
D
27. Most people do not realize that sixty percent of the English words that are used
A
every day in this century came from Latin and Greek, two languages early which
B C
are seldom spoken today.
D
28. In 1940, the 40-hour work week went into effect under a Fair Labor Standard Act
A B C
of 1938.
D
29. Scanning, dislike reading slowly to find the contextual meaning of a vocabulary
A B
word, is a reading skill that requires the reader to skim quickly through a passage
C D
to find a key word or phrase.
30. Laser surgery to repair nearsightedness is becoming common over the past several
A B C D
years.
31. Economic reports often focus on unemployment, but underemployment is equally
A
detrimental as underemployed people have either more time or unusing skills to
B C D
offer the workplace.
32. Typically less than half of the tress in a coniferous forest is old-growth timber.
A B C D
33. A candle relied on the capillary action of the wick, which keeps the flame supplied
A B C D
with molten wax as it burns.
34. Freeware is a category of software that mostly distributed on the Internet or
A B C D
through computer bulletin boards.
35. The sheep industry has been breeding larger sheeps to make lamb chops closer in
A B C

44 | P a g e
 size to pork chops and therefore more attractive to the consumer.
D
36. Benjamin Britten’s opera Peter Grimes primarily uses the orchestra as the
A
accompanist, but during “Sea Interludes” the orchestra is lone in carrying the
B C D
opera.
37. Two residents of the United States of America were from Vermont; one was
A B
Chester Arthur, and other was Calvin Coolidge.
C D
38. According to in-the-know analysts, the higher a bull market climbs, the more
A B
insecure stock market investment will be and the least likely profit taking will be.
C D
39. One of the most electrifying, no soon-to-be-forgotten moments in Super Bowl
A B
history occurred in 1989 when quarterback Joe Montana led the San Francisco
C
Forty- Niners 92 yards down the field for the game-winning touchdown.
D
40. In liquid form, an acid will turn blue litmus paper red and react for bases to form
A B C D
salts.

45 | P a g e
 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time – 55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)

This section is designed to measure your ability to read and understand short passages
similar in topic and style to those that students are likely to encounter in North American
universities and colleges. This section contains reading passages and questions about the
passages.

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a
number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D),
to each question. Then darken on the answer you have chosen.

Passage 1

Exquisite patterns and surface ornamentation were an integral part of the

aesthetics of the late Victorian era. In America, these developments were
incorporated into the themes of national expositions and artistic movements, as
Line cottage industries grew and productivity in the decorative arts flourished. The
(5) last three decades of the 19th century saw a change in sensibility that resulted in
new stylistic approaches in American decorative arts, a departure from the
previous era of Rococo and Renaissance Revival excess. Shapes became more
angular, smoother and less flamboyant. The popular carvings and deep modeling
of earlier years disappeared as ornamentation became more linear and lighter in
(10) appearance. Decoration focused on the surface with rich and elegant patterns
adorning furniture, objects of every sort, and architectural and interior
decorations. This artistic reawakening was prompted by the effects of the
Industrial Revolution on contemporary design.
This new attitude, with its focus on ornament and the decorative, was later
referred to as the Aesthetic Movement, but it also encompassed the early Arts
(15) and Crafts Movement as well. The purpose was to bring a refined sensibility and
components of “good taste” to the domestic interior. Art and good taste not only
denoted good character, but also could be used to induce proper moral conduct
and actions, thereby contributing to the betterment of society. This placed a
heavy burden on designers/decorators as well as on women as keepers of the
(20) home. Americans drew inspiration from the writing and work of English artists.
This was a period of great eclecticism. Tastes ranged from the Modern Gothic
through the Persian, Greek and Islamic, to the Japanese, and with more than a
nod to Mother Nature. Yet, regardless of the influence, surface pattern reigned
supreme. English reformers dictated that ornament should be derived from
(25) nature, and pattern should be flat and stylized. Forms were accentuated by
colored outlines, or often with touches of gold. The emphasis was on art and on
development of a refined sensibility. It was all a matter of taste.

46 | P a g e
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) defining the “Aesthetic Movement”
(B) decorative arts in late 19th century America
(C) English influences on American decorative arts in the late 19th century
(D) The change in tastes from “Rocco and Renaissance Revival” to the
‘Aesthetic Movement” in late 19th century America
2. The word “integral” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
(A) essential
(B) additional
(C) important
(D) beautifying
3. According to the passage, during the Aesthetic Movement popular carvings and
deep modeling of earlier years
(A) were popular
(B) again became popular
(C) disappeared
(D) defined good taste
4. The word “elegant” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) beautiful
(B) ornamental
(C) colorful
(D) refined
5. According to the passage, the purpose of the Aesthetic Movement was to
(A) induce proper moral conduct and actions
(B) define what was meant by good taste in the domestic interior
(C) encompass Arts and Crafts as well as ornament an decoration
(D) define good character and contribute to the betterment of society
6. The phrase “new attitude” in line 14 refers to
(A) including the early Arts and Craft Movement as well
(B) artistic reawakening
(C) the Industrial Revolution
(D) Rococo and Renaissance Revival
7. The word “denoted” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) promoted
(B) facilitated
(C) developed
(D) signified
8. Where in the passage does the author mention the influence of art and good taste
on morals?
(A) lines 5-9
(B) lines 10-14
(C) lines 15-20
(D) lines 20-24
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(A) designers and decorators were mainly responsible for starting the new
attitude
(B) the movement led to a higher standard of morality in late 19th century
America

47 | P a g e
 (C) the Americans considered the English to be the arbiters of good taste
(D) women, as keepers of the home, faced a heavy burden
10. According to the passage, which of the following remained most important,
regardless of influences from other countries?
(A) surface pattern
(B) English opinions
(C) good taste
(D) Proper moral conduct and actions

Passage 2

The study of the astronomical practices, celestial lore, mythologies,

religions and world-views of all ancient cultures is called archaeoastronomy. It
is described, in essence, as the "anthropology of astronomy", to distinguish it
Line from the "history of astronomy". Many of the great monuments and ceremonial
(5) constructions of early civilizations were astronomically aligned, and two well-
known ancient archaeological sites seem to have had an astronomical purpose.
The Orion mystery, as it is dubbed, purports that the geometry and brightness of
the stars in the Orion constellation are mirrored in the alignment and size of the
great pyramids of Egypt. While this claim remains hypothetical, it is
(10) nevertheless clear that ancient Egyptians incorporated astronomy with
architecture. In the Temple of Abu Simbel, for example, sunlight penetrates a
sacred chamber to illuminate a statue of Ramses on October 18, which ushered
in the start of the Egyptian civil year. Astronomy did not exist on its own,
however, but as one limb of a larger body whose other limbs included agriculture
and the after-life. In this sense, astronomy linked the two themes humans are
(15) most obsessed with: life and death.
Around the same period, another monument was erected that combines
religion, architecture and astronomy. Stonehenge was built in three separate
stages, starting in approximately 3000 B.C. Mostly it remains a mystery, but two
clues offer some enlightenment. One is that the megalithic arrangement is not
(20) random nor purely aesthetic but astronomical: It marks the solstice and lunar
phases. The other is that archaeological excavations have revealed it was also
used in religious ceremonies. Chinese records suggest their own astronomical
observations dated from the same period; Indian sacred books point to earlier
observations; and Babylonian clay tablets show Chaldean priests had been
(25) observing the sky (including the motion of the visible planets and of eclipses)
shortly thereafter. But the earliest physical vestige of an observatory in fact, lies
in southern Egypt. Surprisingly it is probably not the product of a Semitic (Syrian
or Babylonian) peoples but rather sub-Saharan, as evidenced by analysis of a
human jawbone found on site. The Nabta site is the African equivalent of
Stonehenge except it predates it by some 1,500 years.

11. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) the definition and some examples of archaeoastronomy
(B) the possible astronomical significance of ancient monuments
(C) the history of astronomy
(D) the oldest known site possibly used for astronomy

48 | P a g e
12. The word “celestial” in line 1 could best be replaced by
(A) ancient
(B) historical
(C) heavenly
(D) scientific
13. According to the passage, archaeoastronomy
(A) pre-dates astronomy
(B) is the anthropology of astronomy
(C) is also called the history of astronomy
(D) is not a true science
14. Which of the following, according to the passage, is true about the great
pyramids of Egypt?
(A) they were built for purposes of astronomy
(B) they mark the solstice and lunar phases
(C) one of them contains a statue of Ramses in a sacred chamber
(D) they are part of the Orion mystery
15. The word “ushered” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) brought
(B) identified
(C) marked
(D) signaled
16. The word “illuminate” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) light up
(B) warm up
(C) touch
(D) explain
17. Where in the passage does the author make reference to the moon?
(A) lines 5-9
(B) lines 10-14
(C) lines 15-19
(D) lines 20-24
18. The word “enlightenment” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) awareness
(B) hope
(C) evidence
(D) explanation
19. According to the passage, the earliest known site of an observatory is probably
(A) Semitic
(B) Babylonian
(C) Chaldean
(D) Sub-Saharan
20. In line 27, the word “it” refers to which of the following?
(A) Stonehenge
(B) the Nabta site
(C) African
(D) sub-Saharan

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Passage 3

Alexis de Tocqueville, the French political scientist, historian, philosopher

and politician, is most famous for a four-volume book he wrote called
“Democracy in America”. He came to America in 1831 to study the American
Line form of democracy and what it might mean to the rest of the world. After a visit
(5) of only nine months, he wrote a remarkable book which is regarded as a classic.
De Tocqueville had unusual powers of observation. He described not only the
democratic system of government and how it operated, but also its effect on how
Americans think, feel, and act. Many scholars believe he had a deeper
understanding of traditional American beliefs and values than anyone else who
(10) has written about the United States. What is so remarkable is that many of these
traits which he observed nearly 200 years ago, are still visible and meaningful
today. His observations are also important because the timing of his visit, the
1830s, was before America was industrialized. This was the era of the small
farmer, the small businessman, and the settling of the western frontier. It was the
(15) period of history when the traditional values of the new country were newly
established. In just a generation, some 40 years since the adoption of the U.S.
Constitution, the new form of government had already produced a society of
people with unique values. He was, however, a neutral observer and saw both
the good and bad sides of these qualities.
The first part of “Democracy in America” was written in 1831-32 and
(20) published in 1835. A highly positive and optimistic account of American
government and society, the book was very well received. He attempted to get a
glimpse of the essence of American society, all the while promoting his own
philosophy: the equaling of the classes and the inevitable depth of aristocratic
privilege. The rest of the book he labored on for four years, and in 1840 the
(25) second part was published. This was substantially more pessimistic than the first,
warning of the dangers despotism and governmental centralization, and applying
his ideas and criticisms more directly to France. As a result, it was not received
as well as the first part, except in England where it was acclaimed highly.

21. What is the passage primarily about?

(A) Alexis de Tocqueville
(B) “Democracy in America”
(C) the progress achieved in America within about 40 years after adoption of the
U.S. Constitution
(D) the impact of the book “Democracy in America”
22. All of the following fields of professional interest and activity are used to
describe de Tocqueville EXCEPT
(A) philosopher
(B) author
(C) political scientist
(D) politician
23. According to the passage, when did de Tocqueville visit America
(A) 1830s
(B) 1831

50 | P a g e
 (C) 1831-32
(D) 1835
24. The phrase “these traits” in lines 9-10 refers to
(A) observations
(B) how Americans think, feel, and act
(C) traditional American beliefs and values
(D) visible and meaningful observations
25. What in the passage is mentioned as being truly remarkable?
(A) many of his observations are still visible and meaningful today
(B) the book was so detailed and thorough after only such a comparatively short
visit
(C) that the second volume should be so pessimistic in comparison with the first
(D) de Tocqueville’s powers of observation
26. The word “unique” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) clearly identifiable
(B) outstanding
(C) unmatched
(D) positive
27. The word “neutral” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) impartial
(B) careful
(C) important
(D) thorough
28. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(A) the English don’t like the French
(B) the book was most important because it was the first time that American
values had been clearly documented
(C) de Tocqueville was a slow writer
(D) de Tocqueville was primarily motivated by an interest in his own country
29. The word “glimpse” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
(A) overview
(B) glance
(C) brief understanding
(D) quick conclusion
30. According to the passage, “Democracy in America” consisted of how many
volumes?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four

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Passage 4

William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of

O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend
his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong
Line love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year,
(5) on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to
La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time,
Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter
gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short
stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first
(10) recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of
calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He
worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a
venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily
Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the
(15) subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter
then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in
Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however
she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced
to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison
(20) as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom.
He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym
he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and
after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more
than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter
married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York
City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all
over the world.

31. Why did the author write the passage?

(A) because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer
(B) to outline the career of a famous American
(C) because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer
(D) to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing
32. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was
(A) responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
(B) the person who gave him a life-long love of books
(C) a medical doctor
(D) a licensed pharmacist
33. The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) supposedly
(B) reportedly
(C) wrongly
(D) mistakenly

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34. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
(A) both of Porter’s wives died before he died
(B) Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
(C) Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
(D) the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
35. The word “venture” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) challenging experiment
(B) bold initiative
(C) speculative action
(D) sorry experience
36. The word “subsequent in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) resulting
(B) police
(C) alleged
(D) official
37. Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his
(A) home
(B) wife
(C) job
(D) books
38. According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for
three years?
(A) more than 300
(B) 35
(C) at least 12
(D) over 20
39. The author implies which of the following is true?
(A) Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison
for three years
(B) Porter was in poor health throughout his life
(C) O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America
(D) Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when
he fled.
40. Where in the passage does the author mention a habit of Porter that was to
become very useful for him later?
(A) lines 6-10
(B) lines 11-15
(C) lines 16-20
(D) lines 21-25

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Passage 5

At the turn of the nineteenth century, Concord was a thriving community,

already famous throughout the young nation for its critical early role in the
events leading up to the American Revolution. It was the half shire town for
Line Middlesex County, attracting over 500 visitors to the courts twice a year, among
(5) them customers for Concord’s hats, shoes, carriages and clocks. Among
Concord’s approximately 400 heads of households in this period, about 65%
were in agriculture, 4% in commerce, and 35% in manufacturing. Of those in
manufacturing, seven men headed clockmaking shops and another thirty or so
were engaged in the shops or in businesses that supplied the clockmaking trade
(10) – the brass foundry, iron forge, wire-drawing mill, and a number of
cabinetmaking shops. In short, the center of Concord, the Milldam, was a
machine for the production of clocks, second only in importance to Boston’s
industrial Roxbury Neck, where the influential Willard family had been
producing clocks since about 1785.
While the handsome and well-crafted clocks of these seven shops,
(15) featuring inlaid mahogany cases, enameled dials and reverse painted glasses, are
generally perceived as products of a traditional clockmaker (one person at a
bench fashioning an eight-day clock from scratch) , they are actually products of
a network of shops employing journeymen labor that extended from Concord to
Boston and overseas to the highly developed tool trade of Lancashire, England.
In addition to crafting in the fashionable Willard features such as the
(20) pierced fretwork, columns with brass fixtures, and white enamel dial, Concord
clockmakers attempted to differentiate their products from those of the Willards
through such means as a distinctive ornamental inlay, which added to the
perception of custom work not usually seen on the Willard’s standardized
products. The Willards also made less expensive wall clocks, including “banjo
(25) clocks” patented by Simon Willard in 1802. The distinctive diamond shaped
design and inverted movement of some Concord wall clocks may reflect an
attempt to circumvent Willard’s patent.

41. What is the passage primarily about?

(A) clockmaking in Concord at the turn of the nineteenth century
(B) Concord at the turn of the nineteenth century
(C) Competition between Concord clockmakers and the Willards
(D) The influence of the Willards on clockmaking in Concord
42. According to the passage, which of the following businesses did NOT supply the
clockmaking trade?
(A) wire-drawing mill
(B) cabinetmaking shops
(C) iron forge
(D) glass shops
43. The phrase “in short” in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) generally speaking
(B) to sum up
(C) in conclusion
(D) however

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44. According to the passage, “the Milldam” was
(A) where the Willard family had been producing clocks
(B) a type of clock
(C) in Boston’s industrial Roxbury Neck
(D) in Concord
45. Which of the following terms does the author explain in the passage?
(A) banjo clocks (line 24)
(B) journeymen labor (line 17)
(C) traditional clockmaker (line 15)
(D) pierced fretwork (line 20)
46. Which of the following features is NOT mentioned as a way the Concord
clockmakers attempted to differentiate their products from Willards
(A) inverted movements
(B) brass fixtures
(C) distinctive ornamental inlay
(D) diamond shaped design
47. The word “differentiate” in line 21 is closest in meaning to
(A) identify
(B) distinguish
(C) dignify
(D) divide
48. The author implies that the Concord clockmakers
(A) would do anything to try to compete with Willards
(B) attempted to customize their products as much as possible
(C) were the most important industry in Concord
(D) were in danger of being prosecuted for breach of patent
49. The word “inverted” in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) intricate
(B) musical
(C) upside down
(D) external
50. The word “circumvent” in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) copy
(B) evade
(C) compete with
(D) minimize

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 REFERENCES

Phillips, D. (2001). Longman introductory course for the TOEFL test. Longman.
Phillips, D. (2004). Longman introductory course for the TOEFL test: the paper test.
Longman.

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