get gfterat / QUESTION BOOKLET gftcar 4 get at ee : 40 Number of Pages in Booklet : 40 yftcran 4 eal at Fear : 100 Number of Question in Booklet ; 100 wa /Time : 2.00 we / Hours INSTRUCTIONS Answer all questions. All questions cary equal marks. Only one answer is to be ghen for each question, . if more than one answer is marked, it would be treated as wrong answer. ‘Answers are to be marked on the OMR Answer sheet, which is provided separately. Each question has four alternate responses ‘marked serially as 1,2,3,4. You have to darken ‘only one circle oF bubble indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using BLACK/ BLUE BALL PEN. There is no Negative Marking, . Mobile Phone or any other electronic gadget in the examination hall Is striety prohibited. A ‘candidate found with any of such objectionable material with him/her willbe strictly eat as per rules. . Please carefully and correctly fil your Rott ‘Number and Series printed on Question Paper Booklet on O.M.R. Sheet. >. there is any sort of ambiguity / mistake ether ‘of printing or factual nature then out of Hind! and English Version of the question, the English Version willbe treated as standard. Warning : Candidate using unfair means in the ‘exam will be disqualified 7 action as per law shall betaken. 15-16 320885 gee art qeites / Maximum Marks : 100 freer eh wet B sere Are wh wet & sie et 1 wate We a Seat ew Moe Ae | wt afte ore tt om a ee ee rae AT TET | Reeth: whan argent we 2 reel at archer ae far ot Ge Page srdandh aA ore1. An arbitration agreement providing for arbitration by four arbitrators is, under the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, to be construed as an agreement for arbitration by :- (1) Sole arbitrator. (2) Five arbitrators. (3) Three arbitrators. (4) Four arbitrators. 1. Teer wd Ye afar, 1996 S aerfs, wae arAeR aR fit ae Feet or ma &, a Per} aRT Aer St Pee aT GT (1) Year FERRET! (2) dha Fear) @) ate reer) @) aR Ferer 2. Specific performance of any contract may be ordered where :~ (1) There exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage by non performance of the act to be done. (2) Compensation in money is adequate relief. (3) The performance of the contract involves performance of continuous duty which the court cannot supervise. (4) The contract is by its nature determinable. 2. Biaar at ffs rer or ander fear oT Wea z, vet — 4) fey ar ae of } ame err oa arafae qour or aftifieaa ae & fey ag are fern a a 2) aad war F oftee senha agate at @) Wire frat orem 4H ter waq-arda or orem oradfea et ferret rararera TeaaoT SK IS | (4) wfaer orett maf @ at wefeta et 3. A partnership firm is :- (1) Adistinct legal entity from its partners. (2) Anindependent juristic person. (3) Anagent of its partners. (4) None of the above. JS-16 3 SET-Aft) oA AMTeR Borer we AF Tar (2) ue ears fare aafarca @) aaa anfrany a oiftarct (4) setter 4S ag et 4. In view of Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a lease of immovable property is a transfer of :- (1) Arright to enjoy such property in consideration of price paid or promised or of money, a share of crops, service or any other thing of value. (2) An interest in specific immovable property for securing the payment of money advanced. (3) Ownership in consideration of price paid or promised. (4) Certain immovable property, made voluntarily and without consideration. 4, watt arareor offre, 1902 AL eT 105 HATO KOT TAG HT TET WH AATF (a) fered Pret A ag Ba ar VA oY S ay, aera 4, HA | sie, dar apne Pt oT Feu YS wt w oH wah S Th S atte GT SAT eT @) Pare gare PR ma er S ara a aftRT wea} waters G faPAlee gore wafer & fe wT AMT eT @) fren @ mg Ara or RA oS Te S wf A waht HT aT a 4) Foret Pret eee wae ar Bawa she afew F AT SANT eT 5, Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court of India shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India? (1) Article 141 (2) Article 139-A (3) Article 140 (4) Article 142 55-16 4 SET-A5. AR & Teas sr BT ol agede wade wear 8 fH aa S Terry ~aeT are ehfta fa aRa & wouda S Fhe wh weal oe anaaox eth ? (4) orypede 141 2) ayes 139-5 @) arqewe 140 (4) orgede 142 6. A lease of immovable property for any term exceeding one year can be made:- (1) Only by a registered instrument (2) By oral agreement (3) By oral agreement accompanied with delivery of possession (4) _ Either by oral agreement or by a registered instrument 6. Wa ea ar Vw ae S afew feet ara or veer fea or wean & — (1) baat vforeftepa fered ener Q) Aten ae ent @) ward Rar afta Hew ae ar 4) a a atRae ar gre ar vorgfiqga feat grt 7. Provisions of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 for extension of prescribed period are applicable to :- () Asuit (2) An application for execution of decree (3) Both the above (4) None of the above 7. fata area S fea eg oe sis, 1963 a ars aT ee — (1) ae wR Q) feat & frenea & ordes oK @) wR a we @) opted 4 a ag ad 8. A suit may be defeated due to :- (1) Non joinder of a proper party (2) Misjoinder ofa necessary party (3) Non joinder of a necessary party. (4) Misjoinder of a proper party. IS-16 5; SET-Aa. ag ag fewer BHAT ey (1) afar carer sR & QQ) saga Gere & qeaior 8 (3) saa WEtee 3 orien @ (@) afta vero & aetatorst a 9. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer :- (1) When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer. (2) When itis put in the course of transmission to the proposer so as to be out of power of the acceptor. (3) | When the acceptance jis communicated to the proposer. (4) All the above. 9, eran & Pie after ot sega wept et onl B () wa ae Wea & st Foret B @) wa ae Gad UR ge WOR URW S agwr Hae Font sf we ufregien a afta & arex et wire (9) a saftereor srecraes ay eieyfert BY AT () | sate wit 10. The Commissioner appointed under the provisions of Order XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure for the purposes of recording of evidence cannot :- (1) Re-examine a witness (2) Decide objections raised during the recording of evidence (3) None of the above ‘ (4) Both (1) & (2) to, BER siren sar S onder XVI areréa ere coffee wet & fore Pras where el GY Were ae (4) ae A ga: wet @ area daag Poy ony & cert wary Te BE area ar Fok (3) omnia 4-8 wy Tet @) @) 4 @ at 11. ‘Premises’ under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001 does not include :- (1) Out house appurtenant to a building (2) Accommodation in a hostel (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of the above 35-16 6 SET-A11, Toren fer Preset afOPe, 2001 & arity uRae A uftaferd vet ee 0) ware ayer wTTS @ Brera 4 are—gfter ® @&@ a 4) wa aS ay ae 12. ‘Dominant heritages’ under the Easements Act, 1882 means :~ (1) _ The Land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists (2) The land on which the liability is imposed (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2) 12. Farr afiraa, iss2 } ais ‘afer! wofear 8 ada ze — 4) ae aff fore ores soar & ford after fae & 2) ae aft ere oy ane afta ® Wee ar 4) 0) &@ aa ae 13. ‘Lok Adalats’ are organised under which legislation? (1) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. (2) The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (3) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (4) None of the above 13. ce area or orator fea arp & arate ear & ? (1) Alexa sifefrar, 1988 (2) faftte Gar sifraxcr aff, 1987 () aaa wftrar afar, 1908 (@) ater 4 a ag adi 14. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to :- (1) all judicial proceedings in or before any Court (2) _ affidavits presented to any Court or Officer (3) proceedings before an Arbitrator (4) all the above JS-16 7 SET-A44, Ra Bret afer, 1872 any eta & (1) fae saverera Hay Ga At eee eran aorearfea A (2) fel career ar safer ner ter Pa eet H (3) fa mere} GH orfatedt 7 (4) were enh Fi 15. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not applicable to =~ (1) a follower of the Brahmo Samaj (2) the person, who is a Sikh by religion (3) any person, who is a convert to the Hindu religion (4) the members of any Scheduled Tribe 45, fry fare fStras, 4955 TY, wel ela S — (1) we ware & organ ox @) Ra after we, Gt ent S fear e @) ae afta ow, fare Rey ert Te Prat B (4) fret orate orton & wat we 16. The special provisions as to payment of compensation on structured formula basis under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 are contained in :~ (1) _ Section 140 (2) Section 163 (3) Section 163-A (4) Section 166 t0. Aree ars APE, 1968 ora Heel YA S ATE Oe HII g TET & faq fae wears areifeee 2 (4) or 140% ant 163 4 @) amr 163-8 4 (4) arr 166 4 JS-16 8 SETA17. The Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 provides for making which of the following presumptions as special rule of evidence, until the contrary is proved:- (1) _ that every negotiable instrument bearing a date was not made or drawn on such date (2) _ that every transfer of negotiable instrument was not made before its maturity (3) _ that a lost promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque was duly stamped (4) all the above 17. Were feraa offre, 1881, Fr aS fee seen oY wea oT fate Pram soars exer &, ora ae fe wftae wife ae we fear ara (4) BR aera feraa fore oe athe ost &, Oe arte wy efter or fereht aa ret eft 2) ReprE feraa wT ee ar ae Guar } ye adi fear var aT @) awa aes, feaa—ca or ae wR wy O verre TT! @ ore wh 18, A document registered under the Registration Act, 1908 operates :- (1) _ from the time of its registration (2) from the time from which it would have commenced to operate, if no registration was required (3) _ at the choice of executants (4) all the above 18, Virgie afSfrer, 1908 serfa doled cemder wafer eta F — () refer & wa a (2) Sa aaa O, fred f& ale sear a eri anita a Star, al sear wade omer gam elat () Prenat georTAR @ ser wh Js-16 9 SET-A19. Under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955, the sale, gift or bequest of Khatedari interests by a member of the Scheduled Caste in favour of a person, who is not a member of Scheduled Caste shall be :- (1) valid Q) void G) _ voidable (4) __ voidable at the instance of transferor 49. TORO wreccnrtt oP, 1056, 3 sient aiqyfeer ont wera eT weareartt fect an faa, aH oT Riad WS afta & ver 4, ot orqyfad onft ar wees a Bi, eT — ) a Q2 @) yrewe (4) ore } ae We Breit 20. Appeals from original decrees under the Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 is provided under :- (1) Section 223 (2) Section 224 G) Section 225 (4) Section 229 20. ToT secant aflPray, 1955 3 arate yet Pfipal At ante seat & — (1) amet 223 ¥ (2) amet 224 # @) oR 225 4 4) ar 229 4 21. If an instrument comes within several descriptions in the Schedule to the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, where the duties chargeable are different, stamp duty is chargeable :- (1) _ with the lowest of such duties (2) with the highest of such duties (3) at the choice of the executants (4) _ none of the above 1S-16 10 SET-A21. TRUM KIT aaa, 1998 H serfs ale arg ferwd orpyet & fate wht # omit &, oat wit yoo Pri—frr 8, erg Yoo ma & - () geet 4 8 2) & wei FS aoa @) Penee of gear (4) oaRter 4 a ag aah 22. An instrument chargeable with the duty under the Rajasthan Stamp Act, 1998, unless such instrument is duly stamped :- (1) cannot be admitted in evidence for any purpose (2) cam be acted upon (3) _ cam be registered or authenticated (4) all the above 22. TORU ery afer, 1998 d ania yoo @ ward arg ferad, wa ae fe Th faa wae wr 4 read adi @ (1). fee a gators & fer wea A ore el ef Q) wa orfad FH on wad 2 @) vfiregtart ar afterrvfias st or aad & 4) wR wit 23., Under the provisions of Rajasthan Agricultural Credit Operations (Removal of Difficulties) Act, 1974, the prescribed authority on the application of a bank cannot make an order against :~ (1) _ the agriculturist, who has availed financial assistance (2) _ heirs or legal representative of the agriculturist (3) — guarantor of the agriculturist (4) _ tenant of the agriculturist 23, ToT BY sar eifar (@fSarsal ar Pree) afSe, 1974 3 arte, fata witram, de o omer Ww Ret @ foe shew oa we OR Waa (1) Grey, RRP anf were ore at 8) (2) eye & series ar fates wafer @) que & sfry) (4) eye or arart| JS-16 a SET-A.24. Ina suit for partition and separate possession of joint family property or property owned jointly or in common by a plaintiff who is in joint possession of such property, if the value of plaintiff's share exceeds Rs.10,000/-, the court fees payable in Rajasthan would be :- (1) computed on the market value of the plaintiff's share of the property (2) computed on half of the market value of the plaintiff's share (3) fixed court fee of Rs.200/- (4) computed on market value of the entire property 24, after Gere BY wate freer caer cigar ws Set a as 4A eb farors Ten gers aad B fay ara are H, fever VS are arr forerat A eae ue wigan war &, af ard B Hed wr AeA 10,000/— 8 aiff eh, worry 4 dea ore Oe (4) |) Bt eer wate A al } Ret S arene yea oY A are 2 Adorn aa 3 RS aOR qe} ont w a oA @) wid 200/- & ARad ad ore ert 4) Bl dren wept waft & aoe yes we ehh 25. Which provision of the Rajasthan Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1961 provides for refund of full amount of fee where a suit is settled by any one of the modes provided under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure? (1) — Section 63 (2) Section 65-A. (3) Section 65-B (4) Section 68 25, Wor Gre WHE Tea ae Yeu aA AH, 1961 GT BAT WTAE Te ede 3 ga Gra at yt wor, wet are a7 Poere after wie fsa AL one so & fet a soar S arity gor al, & oferara wr waar wear & ? (i) aT 63 (2) aT 65-@ @) ee 65-@ @) antes JS-16 12 SET-A26. Under the provisions of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property inherited by a female Hindu from her father or mother shall devolve, in absence of any son or daughter of the deceased (including the children of any pre-deceased son or daughter) :- (1) Upon the heirs referred to in Section 15 (1) of the Act (2) Upon the heirs of deceased female Hindu’s father (3) Upon the heirs of deceased female Hindu’s husband (4) None of the above 26. fq veto affirm, 1956 S arerfa He wafer foraat fart fey A a aay flor ar aT B yes Ey @, gaat S ga a GA > (ores omnia fort gaya ya ar ga A wera A @) aera 4 =arra eft G4) afetfrera ot eet 15 (1) ¥ fates artat ar 2) Fae Req aT S ft S ate ay @) awe fey aa S ofa S aR a (4) oaRtan HS ag ae 27. — In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that under the Muslim Law a gift of immovable property fulfilling essential ingredients of a valid gift i.e. declaration of gift by donor, acceptance of gift by donee and delivery of possession, even if reduced into writing does not require compulsory registration? (1) Hafeeza Bibi and others v.Shaikh Farid & others ~ (2011) 5 SCC 654 (2) Abdul Basit v. Mohd. Abdul Kadir Chaudhary & others- (2014) 10 SCC 754 (3) Abdul Gani Bhat v. Islamia College Governing Board — (2011) 12 SCC 640 (4) None of the above JS-16 13 SET-Aa7. Pra 4 @ oe are 4 aera wdhea sare 4 ae fafa fear & fe yer ARTS opie wR WaT oT a, fT de aS we crease Tea ONY eTTETAT ERI am HA Badan, arrafSar ar art gE a Ke Ud wat oT oars, ae fata A A fear rer 8 ah A frac ar coher aftrard aa F 7 (4) eétar 4 a ora aera tre wee FST (2011) 5 SCC 654 (2) sage afta aH A, sega arfex sheet a aia (2014) 10 SCC 754 @) saga WA ae aay ReenfhaT Hictat TaP AT Ms (2011) 12 SCC 640 (4) satan a a ats ae 28. — Part IX-B of the Constitution of India containing Articles 243ZH to 243ZT pertaining to the Cooperative Societies was inserted by :- (1) Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992 (2) Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011 (3) Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003 (4) Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment) Act, 2010 28. ARG @ wear 4, weet wed A adr arr o-w fon smgwe 243-4 WS HAT 243-4 7 Safe @, Gr aranfter fear TAT (1) Wfaers (73 df eter) afBfream, 1992 ERT @) Wfters (7 af diem) afar, 2011 arr @) « Sfaera 1 af Beira) afSPreA, 2003 art (4) “after @s at dztes) afBPre, 2010 Ere 29. Whether a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption & Maintenance Act, 1956, can be cancelled by the adoptive father or mother or any other person? (1) Yes (2) No (3) Only by adoptive mother (4) None of the above 20. war Peg eae ved aT—aheer afraH, 1956 FH ya fararTE: ee, TIT Ee ee ee A EE 1 Q wi (@) dae que AM ERT (4) outers a a ang ae30. Under which provision of the Rajasthan Land Revenue Act, 1956, power to stay execution of orders of lower court, has been conferred on the appellate authority? (1) Section 151 (2) Section 41 (3) Section 81 (4) Section 75 30, YORUM AR ofa, 19566 3 fa wae } arta Pred earners & oneal or Freres te BA SF ales, atta orders ay wart at wet B ? (4) amr 151 @) emra1 @) oat 4) oM7s 31. Can a civil court adjudicate in a civil suit, upon any question relating to registration of a person in an electoral roll for a constituency, under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994? (l) Yes (2) No @) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of the above 31. Far Ve false Marea wares Sarat wal sha, 1994 a arerfer fret afd & Pater aa a Patas arrach 4 defer @ Walt oer or fearer Sari ae 4 ax wera 8 ? Oa Qa ® Owe aH 4) sates 4S ag ae 32. Which provision of the Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009 deals with suits against Municipality or its officets? (1) Section 302 (2) Section 304 (3) Section 182 (4) Section 199 JS-16 4s SET-Aa2. wae aaeaferart sO TT, 2009 aT SIA BT Mau ArREnferaT BT TES aftrantat & free are 8 wafer & ? (4) aT 302 (2) oR 304 (3) aT 182 (4) aRT 199 33. Which of the following Statutes regulates the amount of legal practitioner's fee to be taxed as costs under a decree or order of a court? (1) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (2) Rajasthan Court Fee & Suit Valuation Act, 1961 (3) General Rules (Civil), 1986 (4) Income Tax Act, 1961 a3. Pra 4 a Oe SM AD sae AH A a ade 3 ois Gato oT A PAR AR aaah A vhs Ft ear a faPratia wet F ? (1) weer wfirar wfFaT, 1908 @) worens até Ge Wi ae yeas aifOAaH, 1961 (3) aren fre (Rfera), 1986 (@) ara affirm, 1961 34. In the event of death of the person referred to in sub-clause (i) of Section 2(i) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, in case of premises let out for residential purposes, who of the following ordinarily residing with the tenant as member of his family upto his death shall be included within the definition of tenant ? (1) surviving spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister, mother, father, grand father and grand mother (2) _ surviving spouse, son, daughter, brother, sister, mother and father (3) _ surviving spouse, son, daughter, mother and father (4) _ surviving spouse, son and daughter JS-16 16 SET-A34, Corea Pern Pacer sfOPias, 2001 F ant 2(H) S wreS (i) ¥ ffs afta & acq at ar at cen 4, Prarie watoraef feet fea wey after a cer 4, (8 oer 4 feeder } ae > Gees S wa A THe yy TH WTA Pane ay we Prafefad 8 a ata ofa fete at ofearer A afPafert ert 2 (4) sarod off ar get, ga, gat ang, af, aren, fen, eer ud wel Q) vercid of ar oof, ga, gat, ang, af, rat wd far (3) BaReidt off ar ooh, ga, gal, Are od for 4) seen off at ooh, ga wa GAY 35. The authority competent under Rajasthan Tenancy Act, 1955 to decide a dispute about ownership of a tree and a right to remove it is :~ (1) Patwari (2) Sadar Kanungo (3) Tehsildar (4) Sub-Divisional Officer 35, WURU SreTere afSfrea, 1955 d arta ww ge S cafes vd TY Ber BS ator B weve FH fare ar Profs we wy Tes (4) Wear Q) wer orprit 6) aettieer 4) STs affrert 36. Which of the following statements is not correct :- (1) In a criminal act done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of them will be held liable for that act. (2) Inan act done by several persons, the act being criminal only by reason of its being done with criminal knowledge or intention, all persons joining in the act, irrespective of such knowledge or intention, will be held liable for that act. (3) Iman offence done by means of “several acts, all the persons intentionally cooperating in that act by doing any of those acts, will be held liable for that offence. “(4) In a criminal act done by several persons, all may be held liable for different offences by means of that act. — 47 SET-A.36, Pra 4S Stren aert we AEB — (i) weg afterall are, Ba} SAY sera ore H flog Ty ome aE 4, a afta oe ort } fey aftania erm) @ ag cafe are Roy 7a ard, Gt area art aT area SB fey aT S aro & amas &, ¥ aPafer wh ates, a aT aT onea oT fea fou for, oa ord & fry aftranita art (@) ag are are Poe ae ww aoe §, Th afta A oa art AS aE we or aed, va ate Fo urea aed wea SAI Ta ae S fey afticanin ert | @) wf afterdt are foe ay orate ord A gw wh ates, va orl S amar oe AAT arene & fry aecanits et ward FI 37. ‘A’, a public servant, having charge of translation of a document, makes an incorrect translation of a document with an intent to cause injury to ‘B”. The offence committed by ‘A’ is :- 2 (1) Non-Cognizable. (2) Non-Bailable. (3). Non-Compoundable. (4) All of the above. 37, WH clataw ‘a, ETAT HI SATS EY aH AK FHA TW | THAT TT ae aga ‘a at aft ats oe S area 8 ween 8) oF are fear TT omnes & (1) orisray @) sora @) aera (4) uated wh 38. ‘A’ & ‘BY orally agree to sell an estate. ‘A’ dishonestly induces ‘B’ to make advance payment of Rs.5 lacs and make final payment at the execution of conveyance. ‘B’ pays advance amount. Later on, at the request of ‘B’ to execute the conveyance, ‘A’ denies the agreement as well as the receipt of any amount. What offence has been committed by ‘A’? (1) Offence under Section 403 Indian Panel Code. (2) Offence under Section 406 Indian Panel Code. (3) Offence under Section 420 Indian Panel Code. (4) Offence under Sections 420 & 465 Indian Panel Code. lee ‘aa SET-A38. ‘of aw wwe wa } dum bq Aes aay ae 2) or adarigde “7 @ vata ara 8 & ‘a ola ora wa or aftr as He & cen gifs WATT wera forest & ea oe fear ony) ‘a afte ya Se 81 ae A 7 ar eea—ua feat or Paes wet Wy at Hee S HIT THs ERT as aH UT SLAY, FH BAT Bl ‘a ger Sra ower far way 8? (1) oer siete emer 403 aNd aos wear | 2) starrer sire eet 406 ata avs wieaT | (3) soe sierfa emer 420 ada aos difkaT (4) seer sierfar eer 420 7 465 Rea ave Bec! 39. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are good friends. ‘A’ proposes ‘B’ for marriage, but she denies. in suspicion of B's love affair with somebody else, monitors the use of mobile phone and email account by ‘B’. What offence has been committed by 2Ae (1) Outrage the modesty. (2) Voyeurism. (3) Stalking. (4) None of the above. 30. ot aie a od faa 2) or, 7 Sad om oT ee weet & YE For owt @) ‘of gu wee we a a AR oa > we da wee Bw arr Hager rT ao gAe wrt B gear fey GM wy arfee wear BI ‘a aT ‘ern arora fear rar 8? (1) avon FT] 2) gearfereran! (3) fer een (4) onter ¥ 8 we aT 40. Which of the following case upheld the constitutionality of Section 499 & 500 of the Indian Penal Code? (1) Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, Ministry of Law & Ors. 2016 (2) MLJ (Cri) 542 (2) Jacob Mathew v. State of Punjab & Anr. (2005) 6 SCC 1 (3) Brij Bhushan v. State of Delhi. AIR 1952 SC 329 (4) Manoj Narula v. Union of India. (2014) 9 SSC 1 JS-16 19 SET-A40. fret 4 farm are F ener 499 @ 500 aRla evs Biter BY edenfoaT a gfe a ag 82 (1) Garret earth wary are Ha! 2016 (2) TH Tat TC AB) 542 Q) Sera Fey aarr Goa oT gary! (2005) 6 we Va M1 @) Fa ya aa feceh wea! y ons one 1952 va HH 329 (4) Fal awer FATA ART eT (2014) 9 GH WE HL 41. The Court, after the commencement of prosecution evidence, allows. the Assistant Public Prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution. The accused shall be :- (1) Released. (2) Discharged. (3) Acquitted. (4) None of the above. 41. re, stator ae oer eS ovary werss ate afte ar oPratort arr ot at argater tar 2) afteen wr Pear ore (4) Reni Q) wea 6) tag! (4) oer 4 a aig adi 42. Statement A : Bail granted under Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 has same incidents as bail granted under Chapter XXXIII of the Code. Statement B : Bail granted under Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 cannot be cancelled under Section 437(5) of the Code. (1) — Statement A is correct. (2) Statement B is correct. (3) Both the statements are correct. (4) Both the statements are incorrect. 42, BUS : ave wir wife, 1973 a aT 167 (2) B aierfer eAtag GT By adh vein Veh ot gw alka S nara 33 & siete GATE etET SA wx ert 21 © Bere : avg wfbar afk, 1973 FH at 167 (2) B sierfer whee oA &H Siar FH ener 437 (6) & sierfa Pred wel By or wadt 21 (4) wer ‘or wer Q) wry we @) ahi wer wat 21 (4) det wer wet adi 81 35-16. 20 SET-A43. Any court may take cognizance of an offence after expiry of the period of limitation, if it is satisfied on the facts and circumstances of the case that :- (1) An attempt has been made to explain the delay. (2) It is necessary so to do in the interest of justice. (3) The State Government has given instructions for taking such cognizance. (4) Im 1 and 2 both the conditions. 43, @g A saree fee orp or dst GR are S aT H rar B wernt &, aft ara & cea ar aRRefaal @ seer wares et ora & fa — (4) faera at eae oer or ware frat war 81 (@) =m fea F tar Ser araeas 21 (3) wea BRM ae WaT mista OF dq Pte fa Wa 3) 4) 1 yi2 a & ami A 44. On a declaration of forfeiture of a book by the State Government under Section 95 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the application to set aside lies to the :- (1) _ District Magistrate. (2) Chief Judicial Magistrate. (3) District & Sessions Judge. (4) High Court. 44, UR TRO ERI, eos wfhar afsar A at 95 > sierta, Gere wT wget wet at chen a sured oer 3 ford areca mega eT — 4) féren afregze S erat | Q Fea zaite afige @ wre! @) — fSren ua Ser =a SAAT | (4) ea earrrera } THEFT | 45. Which of the following is correct ? (1) A person arrested by police officer without warrant shall be taken before a Magistrate without unnecessary delay. (2) The detention of a person in police custody arrested without warrant, cannot exceed twenty-four hours even by a special order of Magistrate, excluding the time necessary for journey from place of arrest to the Magistrate’s court. (3) The police officer shall discharge the person arrested of bailable offence without any bond or bail. (4) All of the above. JS-16 2 SET-A45, Pra 4S atte wel 2? 4) said aifteor®t arr, fear arere & firecrare cater at, fae feel saree frora d afore S wae A GAT VIET @) aftrege @ fate onder WA, Pramt 3 ers S afore } aaa eH aa } anew ema or sacha wee ER, far awe Frew feed a canfter a gfe after adhe uve S saftres Te ey weet 81 6) softer ana aren rare crt 4 Fee afer or fla feoeth wea ar aaa & Safes feat TTT (4) vate eh 46. The effect of error in stating the required particulars in the charge, shall be regarded material under which of the following circumstances :- (1) When co-accused dies. (2) When the accused is misled by the error. (3) When a material witness becomes hostile. (4) When the accused is declared absconded. ao, PRAT Re fee A, ameta A ordkerer PARRA ay rer ar sear fC AT STE 6) wa ae-atrge Sh ay a GT! Q) wa afta sa Tent a gerd 4 os aT @) wa arg Heerph we vere et org) (4) we aftrge at wee afte far way 47. Under Section 428 of Code of Criminal Procedure, which of the following, period of detention undergone by the accused shall be set-off against the sentence of imprisonment in a case :- (1) _ Period of detention undergone in default of payment of fine. (2) Period of detention undergone during investigation and trial of that case. (3) Period of detention undergone during investigation and trial of a similar case. (4) All of the above. 47, ORT Aza WS OAS GBA S arava, Pes A a eh ag Per a feo ara wy, wa ad A ona 3 were } fwE Fore fea oT — (1) gait Beara & axftion A ah og Prete ora wr (2) Sa aa S arte g aver & Mes ahhh TE Aer sta wr @) age Ha & orehoor a Prareor } cher any ag Fete stale @) water wht at) ‘jS-16 2 SET-A48. During the course of trial of a murder case, which of the following may be proved :- () Q) @) (4) Statement of confession of accused made in police custody during investigation. Recovery of the weapon of offence on basis of statement made by accused during investigation of another case. After recovery of dead body, the statement of accused as to the place where he threw the dead body. None of the above. 48, cen AA > fran d chr Fea a 8 ore enfea fear on ad — (1) @) 6) @) afte rer oreaeor Shera yer arte H fear ar wedtephy wert a are 3 ater 3 eh afta } ger & ore we ae are oe F og efor at aeaafty WIR SH Reh S cea ag an ad wR a SS TP Te WIM Tat Be | oman 4 8 arg ae 49. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (1) Q) G) (4) The non-examination of the doctor endorsing the dying declaration, does not always affect the evidentiary value of the dying declaration. Non-signing of the dying declaration by a literate declarant unable to sign, does not render the veracity of dying declaration doubtful. When the relatives of the declarant are present during dying declaration, the dying declaration would not be relevant. The statements recorded in F.ILR. may be treated as dying declaration. 49, frat 4S otter Gor wer wet z 7 () @ @) (4) IS-16 yates aera poifea oe are Steer or weary sel Sy B Aeqanfers wer @ write yea we ere waa wet USAT! Bee |e F sremel us—fers er@at aR yeyerfers Herr We SATE wel oe 8 yegarfers oes a eastern deena vel ek wa eyarfers sera S dhe, serrwat & Redan thas ef at yeqenfers out Bra wel eT er yet Rod F after qe a yeqafee gery AAT OT HEM a 23 SET-A50. The report of a Medical Officer stating the injuries of the victim is :- (1) Conclusive in nature. (2) Relevant and admissible in evidence. (3) Irrelevant. (4) Substantive piece of evidence. 50. faftcentranst arr asa a adret ar aot ae Rare — (1) - Pear weft a 21 @) Bina a wee A oraz @) anima 21 (4) GRA wea 2) 51. Under which of the following conditions, a leading question may be asked during examination-in-chief with the permission of the Court? (1) _ Inmatters which are disputed or not introductory. (2) When matter in question is sufficiently proved. (3) Under both of the above conditions. (4) Under none of the above conditions. st, Pra 4 a aie oRRa A ger whem & ches waar A agate a Yas WHI WP wT Wad z ? (1) BA at 3 aA oh Rafa Ba Grea S we AE aI (2) wa wera ara yak wr S uta 81 (3) sattat etait ofefterfaat 41 (4) sates 4S fet aera 4 aa 52. Statement A : The presumption under Section. 113-A of Indian Evidence Act is not attracted if the marriage took place more than seven years prior to the suicide of woman, even if the cruelty is established by prosecution. Statement B : By the introduction of Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act, the prosecution is not required to prove the facts beyond reasonable doubt against the accused. Which of the statement is correct ? (1) Statement A. (2) Statement B. (3) Both statements A & B. (4) None of the statements. JS-16 24 SET-A52. ea: ade wey aePras a ar 113-8 H deq SITET, ara ERT aR waft Se OR A arafia sei Veh, ae Al or faare Tad sicrEcat oe o ua af 8 afte wea wd gem at aera: anda ures attra BH ana 113-9 d wads oy, after a afta & fea cea wr eee S oy weft Se A gravee Ael we 21 ela Gert Wel 8? (4) wer atl Q eral (@) Sar a cen @ at (6) we Hh wert ae 53. During examination-in-chief of a case under Section 325 of Indian Penal Code, the victim denies the prosecution case. Under what provision of Indian Evidence Act, the victim may be asked leading questions by the Public Prosecutor? (1) Section 139 (2) Section 144 (3) Section 154 (4) Section 165 53. ORT 325 aa aos ater S ae A HR wen S ches, fsa afar verre TER oe ft) ada wea sa s fea man S aed cle atria Aisa 8 yarn we yw wera 8? (1) aT 139 (2) aT 144 (3) aR 154 (4) aT 165 54. Statement A —Ifan alteration to the electronic signature made after affixing such signature, is not detectable, then for the purpose of authentication, such electronic signature is reliable. Statement B — During formation of a contract, the communication of proposals is expressed through electronic record. In such a case, that electronic record solely does not render the contract unenforceable. (1) Statement A is correct. (2) Statement B is correct. (3) Both statements are correct. (4) Both statements are incorrect. JS-16 25 SET-Aga, wert ‘or: we eaagifre eeemere PA oo are Geri PRT aT Reh an arr ate ae B, tr TORT d eto oy aw Teal Pra eee Pears a1 aor ‘a = ww after Heer & eh weet A gar stage afer ram & afrored Bue 21 WH aa A, Sac we seagiPie aie, wear at agri et ara 81 4) pero wales Q: era wei @) at oer wa 21 (4) att wert wet sei 21 55. The offence of theft of electricity is committed, if :- (1) the meter is dishonestly tampered with. (2) The meter is dishonestly moved from one place to another without consent of owner. (3) The meter is dishonestly stored without consent of the owner. (4) _ All the above. 55, fae @ chet or araere fear ater &, afe — (4) agaringde, Mex } arr Bours H oh 21 @ agavirade, Arex a oad want A area & Fe, TH WIT TR CIT W eM TAT BI 3) agarttyder, tex a, oa anh A Tents & fer, who Pear arar B1 @ wed wh 56. A material alteration in a negotiable instrument without the consent of the endorser, renders the negotiable instrument as :~ (1) Voidable. (2) Void. @) Invalid. (4) None of the above. se, grates Bh args & fer ew some Fave A eam ata FHA APY wR ae wprra fered BT (4) erecta ware 21 @) a wan 2) @) ate ware 81 (4) outa HB wg ATI -16 26 SET-A57. A-On failure to observe any of the conditions of the bond entered under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Court is at discretion to sentence the offender for the original offence, or to impose a penalty upto rupees fifty in case of first failure. B — An offender, above the age of twenty one years, cannot be granted probation under Sections 3 & 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958. C - On failure of the offender to enter a fresh bond on an order of Court under Section 8 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, the Court shall not sentence him for the offence of which he was found guilty. D- The amount of compensation imposed on. the offender under Section 5 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 can be recovered as fine in accordance with the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure. Which of the above is correct ? (1) Statements A & B. (2) Statements B & C. (3) Statements C & D. (4) Statements D & A. 57. 3: aR 4, amen often afSfran, 1958 3 sinha sega fad 7a Fao HH wel S arqurera F orerwer VF we, wares oT aw faaw & fH ae seal @ at a & fay sierfa aged fear ora @) sa vara S ges wy wate at cea 8 waht wrret Wa ae fry wt wad # (4) ame a Pena ot S onda S ae a aef smh 31 fea TOT GM BY Yare Te SH wafer wed 2) Are a Pea oe S ade} ag amt 30 aT ar 31 faa Tr ae Ey via ae at weft oR 6) Ae ao PRN oe S area S are arm 31 fea S THT Se ee de af & waa we @ ame aw Pea ae $ area } ae ae 30 Ga ar 31 fewer a TOT oe Ey, a ae at wenfer-az] 66. The Chief Judicial Magistrate is duty bound to inspect the court of his subordinate Judicial Magistrate, on which of the following basis ? (1) Weekly. (2). Quarterly. (3) Halfyearly. (4) Yearly. 66. Prt 4 @ fre ore we qe anf afte, sad anitrer ante Aftrege O eres oT PQ oe 8g arta gre stag @ ? (4) urenfta | (2) eater) @) saarfife | 4) arte) 67. Under Section 2(12) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, “child” means a person, who has not completed :- (1) 21 years of age. (2) 18 years of age. (3) 14 years of age. (4) 16 years of age. 67. feeix =a (areal FH Sata va we) ofa, 2015 a are 2(12) ois “are” 8 aftiora: sa aftr 8 @, fort gel wel a B — (Q) 21 af a ong @ wat atom @) 14 af Hong) 4) 16 af a arg) JS-16 31 SET-A68. Who shall review the pendency of cases of Juvenile Justice Board, on quarterly basis ? (1) Chief Judicial Magistrate. (2) High Level Committee consisting of the Executive Chairperson of the State Legal Services Authority. (3) _ District Magistrate. (4) Chairperson of Human Rights Commission. es. Pt 4S ay, Peek =a wea 3 aftad acl at Ane arene Ww athe ae ? 4) Fe ante afte | (2) ea wate SNS fore wee Pe dar eT S wrlarcras sae ei (@) fren afore (4) ara ora arart } areaer | 69. (A) A Judicial Magistrate First Class can authorize the detention in custody, of a person accused under an offence triable by Special Court established under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, for a period not exceeding fifteen days. (B) The Special Court established under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, cannot exercise the power to authorize the detention of accused in custody, as enunciated under Section 167 of Code of Criminal Procedure. (© The definition of ‘use’ under Section 2 (xxviii-a) of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, excludes personal consumption of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances. (D) The High Court, by special order, may constitute as many Special Courts under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, as necessary. Which of the above statements are correct ? (i) A&B. 2) A&C. 3) B&C. (4) C&D.69. (i) arom sie otk wma gel afta, 1985 & cect wafte fare wararea Ene Parca ames F aida aftr st es germ Ao afte APSE wae feat ot omftre oat & fry afte a Peg ae d fore wed ae BoM z| @ wage sea otk wad vert afOfan, 19865 H cel vente fae Tae wi, INT 167 Ws Ui Gen & sina Pree afer # afte oT wifrega ae or afro et 81 (@) ware she aie word garef afeaH, 1985 A eT 2 (xxviii-w) B siete oadtr at oRarer 4 earee site ste sara veri wr arfeerrea ort arrafeia fear rar 1 (3) dea are, fasts see ERT, KaTTs sie she HaseTa ger afar, 1905 & seq we dy Tea wT TSA Ge Ge z, fr arazaw et) omiad FS Shr wert wel 8? @) waa Q way 8) Tawi @ waz 70. Who of the following police officers is empowered to record statement of a child under Section 24 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012? (1) Constable. (2) Any woman police officer. (3) Woman police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector. (4) Woman police officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police. 70. Fra 4 8 atrer yfers afta’, afte sore B arerat wr eRe ofA, 2012 H ae 24} siete aTerm S aes aftferttad Get ky sfaa s ? ()) @iReaer! @ ag A after gfe aftert @) we-Ptae ot df S op After yfera sflare | 4) sa-anfers oh oft @ apr after gfore sffrere | JS-16 33 SET-AFill in the blank with correct form of verb. (Q.No.71 to 73) 71. Look, that man is a photo of you. (1) takes (2) will take (3) took (4) taking 72. Someone has my books. (1) | steal (2) _ stolen (3) stole (4) will steal 73. Slow and steady the race. () win (2) will win (3) wins (4) won Choose the correct passive voice of the given sentence. (Q.No.74 and 75) 74. The child broke the mirror. . (1) | The mirror is broken by the child. (2) The mirror was broken by the child. (3) The mirror was broken. (4). The mirror has been broken. 75. Send these letters by Registered Post. (1) _ The letters are sent by Registered Post. (2) The letters were sent by Registered Post. (3) Let these letters be sent by Registered Post. (4) Let these letters sent by Registered Post. Fill in the blanks with a grammatically correct and meaningful option from those given in each question. (Q.No.76 to 79) 76. _____ small shopkeepers are finding life increasingly difficult. aq) A @) An @) The (4) Any JS-16 34 SET-A77. ___is known about the side effects of this drug. (1) Few (2) Some (3) None (4) Little 78. Heisovereighty but____ still read without glasses. (1) used (2) can (3) needs (4) must 79. We____ pay income tax without fail. (1) _ should (2) must (3) may (4) need not Choose the correct option of the following as directed against each word/phrase. (Q.No.80 to 83) 80. ILLEGIBLE (opposite) (1) Lawful (2) Easy (3) Imitable (4) Readable 81. LIABILITY (opposite) (1) Treasure (2) Debt (3) Assets (4) Property e 82. A bone of contention (Meaning) (1) ~ act of submission (2) area of agreement (3) _ subject of dispute (4) subject of intention JS-16 35 SET-A83. The accused was hiding important evidence. (Change to Negative) (1) _ The accused not hiding important evidence. (2) The accused was hiding not important evidence. (3) The accused was not hiding important evidence. (4) The accused not hiding was important evidence. Fill in the blank with most appropriate option. (Q.No.84 and 85) 84, Tigers won’tattack___ they are hungry. (1) because 2) if @) unless (4) although 85, Trustingod___do the right. (1) but 2) and G3) or (4) yet 86. UG+ER BH WN FX 4) Same Q SER @) var 4) sa a7. “ard HH waa & (4) smart ages @) srerht sq @) we aqey @) agate a8. Preifer a 8 yay wee or uafaarh ae a 4) wrt 2) sneer (@) yftar (4) sacn 15-16 36 SET-A89. Yor we oT facta e — (1) Frater @ wer @) fro 4) oH oo. Prafeftad Fa Ye wes 4) waft @ afertt @) afeat 4) oftafi of. SY @ Preearr aa 2 4) we ! gr a ore oe fea @) war wea ae @) FR ae gee wa aid) ? (4) faeneif wer 4 wafers ae er) 92. frenfed 4a ye aay ze — (4) gerttere 9 erator or wera feral @) gertere 4 ware ar ser fear @) gerttere 3 wracare or ore fra (4) Gerttars 4 weaken of Water fra i 93, ‘Suis we Tara yea a sel—dew gray F (4) ster or of at ufera oe arent &1 2) hen at oft at gear H anger arr aed 2) () her or aff & oreh gear } orga ora oar 81 (4) Sten ar oft orf gear S UR ar oT 21 94, FRI A HAT AeraY aT seh F — (4) Read aa) @) se te @) gar wear @) URI aR eT JS-16 37 SET-A9s, fore aro ¥ cite ae & 2 (1) aftst—arfter @) fatter @) Tecan @) wfer 96. fara wez at act ctaqut & 2 (4) ayer 2) Waeta 6) sage 4) WaT 97. Uqtort a aA 8 — 4) eas 2 wr @) aor 4) wor 98, TY St gear WaM area & fed waged weg (1) feat @) ada @) feremay 4) ara 90. Hee 8 ager oe Gor 8 Ad a wea S a wt aT @KA a Saat & 4) amd 3m, qoch } er Q Aw, waa wi @) at eri 4 weg! @ Rsaa ge 100. “fort Gar fr urgai Tet art do’ ciahfder wr sek F (4) feat ware 3 amt err! Q) om oe 4 tea eet! 6) dh aero @, 3 Rem or ae a OB wa saw OTT aed 2] 4) UiaRear 4 fora wae fea BY ort RT! JS-16 38 SET-A.