1.

Answer (c)
Explanation
ANDHRA KESARI’, TANGUTURI PARKASAM
 Tanguturi Prakasam was one of the foremost leaders of Indian freedom struggle. The people of Andhra
Pradesh in particular, have derived much inspiration from his achievements as fighter, editor and political
leader.
 He was born on 23rd of August 1872 at a village called Kanuparthi (then in Guntur district).
 Tanguturi Prakasam earned the sobriquet ‘Andhra Kesari’ after he bared his chest and dared the British to
open fire upon him during the visit of Simon Commission to Madras. When the Simon Commission visited
India, the congress party decided to boycott it with the slogan "Simon, go back".
 P. Anandacharlu was the first south Indian president of INC (1891 Nagpur session)
2. Answer (b)
Explanation
SHYAMJI KRISHNA VARMA
 Considered as a staunch nationalist, Shyamji Krishna Varma founded the Indian Home Rule Society,
India House and The Indian Sociologist in London.
 The monthly Indian Sociologist became an outlet for nationalist ideas and through the Indian Home Rule
Society, he criticised the British rule in India.
 The Indian Sociologist was an Indian nationalist journal in the early 20th century. Its subtitle was An Organ
of Freedom, and Political, Social, and Religious Reform.The journal was edited by Shyamji
Krishnavarma from 1905 to 1914, then between 1920 and 1922.
 Varma, who became the first President of Bombay Arya Samaj, was an admirer of Dayanand
Saraswati, and he inspired Veer Savarkar who was a member of India House in London. Verma also
served as the Divan of a number of states in India.
3. Answer (b)
Explanation
KALAMKARI
 Kalamkari literally meant a painting done by kalam (pen). This art got popularised as it came down from one
generation to another. These paintings are made in Andhra Pradesh. It is hand painted as well as block
printing with vegetable dyes applied on cloth.
SRI-KALAHASTI AND MASAULIPATNAM
 A small place Sri-Kalahasti is the best known centre of Kalamkari art. This work is also found at
Masaulipatnam in Andhra Pradesh. Owing to Muslim rulers in Golconda, the Masulipatnam kalamkari was
widely influenced by Persian motifs and designs.
 PATRONAGE, THEMES AND MATERIALS
 This art is mainly related to decorating temple interiors with painted cloth panels, which was developed in
the fifteenth century under the patronage of Vijaynagar rulers. Subjects are adopted from the
Ramayana, the Mahabharata and Hindu religious mythology.
 This art was started on garments, bed covers and curtains. The artists use a bamboo or date palm stick
pointed at one end with a bundle of fine hair attached to the other end to serve as brush or pen. Vegetable
dyes are used for colour in the Kalam Kari work. The kalamkari dyes are obtained by extracting colours from
plant roots, leaves, along with mineral salts of iron, tin, copper, alum etc.
ROGAN ART
 It is an art of cloth printing practiced in the Kutch District of Gujarat.
 In this art, organic colours such as vegetable pigments are used with castor oil base
 The painting is done using a stick, a rod or a metal block.
 The most frequently used colours are yellow, blue and red.
 Geometric and floral designs are most common.
4. Answer (b)
Explanation
• Recently Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has
approved the renaming of the new Central Sector Scheme - SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine
Processing and Development of Agro-Processing Clusters) as "Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) ".
• The objective of PMKSY is to supplement agriculture, modernize processing and decrease Agri-Waste.
• PMKSY is an umbrella scheme incorporating ongoing schemes of the Ministry of Food
Processing Industries (MOFPI) like Mega Food Parks, Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition
Infrastructure, Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure, etc. and also new schemes like
Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters, Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages, Creation /
Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities.
• Option (a) is one of the objectives of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinjai Yojana (PMKSY). Option (c) is the aim
of ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’.
5. Answer (d)
Explanation
• Hyper spectral imaging means analysing extremely detailed images of an object — frequently to the scale
of nanometres — and then reconstructing its constituent elements.
• With Hyper spectral imaging using custom-developed algorithms, satellite-images, or those taken from low
flying planes or drones, can be used to calculate the proportion of nitrogen, potassium and
phosphorous — the three most vital nutrients — as well as other minerals in the soil and be used to gauge
its health. Thus this kind of spectroscopy can be used to analyse soil health, though it has wider
applications in geology, characteristics of air pollution etc.
• The Department of Science and Technology (DST) is looking to link the government’s massive scheme
to analyse the soil quality of farms across the country with a research project at the Indian Institute of
Technology Bombay that uses Hyper spectral imaging techniques and it can picture the nutrient balance of a
patch of land without necessarily collecting soil sample.
6. Answer (b)
Explanation
• Soil Health Management (SHM) is one of the most important interventions under National Mission for
Sustainable Agriculture(NMSA).
• SHM aims at
 promoting Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) through judicious use of chemical fertilisers
including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manures and bio-fertilisers for
improving soil health and its productivity (Thus statement 1 is wrong as it specifies use of only organic
manures and bio-fertilisers);
 strengthening of soil and fertiliser testing facilities to provide soil test based recommendations to
farmers for improving soil fertility; ensuring quality control requirements of fertilisers, bio-fertilisers and
organic fertilisers under Fertiliser Control Order, 1985;
 upgradation of skill and knowledge of soil testing laboratory staff, extension staff and farmers through
training and demonstrations;
 promoting organic farming practices etc.

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7. Answer (a)
Explanation
• Micronutrients required by plants include iron (Fe), boron (B), copper (Cu), chlorine (Cl), Manganese
(Mn), molybdenum (Mo), zinc (Zn), cobalt (Co), and nickel (Ni) whereas sulphur is a secondary nutrient.
Hence answer is option (a)
• Plants require eighteen elements found in nature to properly grow and develop. Some of these elements are
utilized within the physical plant structure, namely carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O). These
elements, obtained from the air (CO2) and water (H2O), are the basis for carbohydrates such as sugars and
starch, which provide the strength of cell walls, stems, and leaves, and are also sources of energy for the
plant and organisms that consume the plant.
• Elements used in large quantities by the plant are termed macronutrients, which can be further defined
as primary or secondary. The primary nutrients include nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium
(K). These elements contribute to plant nutrient content, function of plant enzymes and biochemical
processes, and integrity of plant cells. Deficiency of these nutrients contributes to reduced plant growth,
health, and yield; thus they are the three most important nutrients supplied by fertilizers. The secondary
nutrients include calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulphur (S).
• The final essential elements are used in small quantities by the plant, but nevertheless are necessary for plant
survival. These micronutrients include iron (Fe), boron (B), copper (Cu), chlorine (Cl), Manganese (Mn),
molybdenum (Mo), zinc (Zn), cobalt (Co), and nickel (Ni).
8. Answer (c)
Explanation
• Recently the Web Portal of Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) & “Electronic
Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR) System” has been launched.
• It is informed that the e-NWRs would have no chances of any tempering, mutilation, fudging, loss or
damage and with no possibility of any multiple financing. Hence, these NWRs will not only facilitate an
easy pledge financing by banks and other financial institutions but also smooth trading on various
trading centres like commodity exchanges, electronic National Agriculture Markets (e-NAM) and other
electronic platforms. (Therefore both statements 1 and 2 are correct.)
• It is felt that these e-NWRs will save expenditure in logistics as the stocks could be traded through multiple
buyers without physical movement and can be even split for partial transfer or withdrawal.
• It is expressed that these initiatives would revolutionise the marketing of agricultural commodities and
help farmers realize better price for their produce which will be a step towards doubling the farmers’ income
by 2022 as well as Digital India mission as envisaged by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.
9. Answer (c)
Explanation
 Based on a recent genetic study of samples from tiger post-mortems and collection from live tigers has found
that India has three distinct and genetically connected tiger populations. These are in: south India;
central India, the Terai and north-east India; and in Ranthambore.
 The study also suggests that Ranthambore’s tigers suffer from low genetic diversity and isolation. While
numbers of tigers are stable inside reserves, connectivity between them is getting cut off.
 The populations require genetic flow to remain robust; securing healthy tiger numbers are not enough for
tiger health. Genetically isolated or stranded populations can suffer from genetic depression, and
subsequently, mutations and ailments
10. Answer (c)
Explanation
Tiger Reserves State
1. Sundarbans : West Bengal
2. Ranthambore : Rajasthan
3. Panna : Madhya Pradesh
All these tiger reserves were recently in news
11. Answer (d)
Explanation
WILDLIFE INSTITUTE OF INDIA (WII)
 This institute was set up in 1982 by Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India. WII’s aim
is to develop wildlife science and promote its application in the field according to India’s economic and
socio-culture background. Research in Wildlife is the major activity of WII.
 Wildlife Institute of India was established in 1982 as an attached office of the Ministry of Environment and
Forests. Subsequently, it was granted autonomous status in 1986.
 The institute is mandated by Government of India to carry out research on various aspects on Wild Life
conservation, conduct training programmes for capacity building of Wild Life managers, build up repository

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 of knowledge of Wild Life and provide technical and advisory services to the State and Central
Governments in the country.
12. Answer (c)
Explanation
ECOSENSITIVE ZONE or ECO-FRAGILE ZONE
 Ecosensitive zones are the transition zones around the Protected areas and is guidelined by the Ministry
of Environment and Forests (MoEF) by the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016). It is declared as Eco
sensitive zone under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
 The land falling within 10km of the boundaries of Protected Areas are declared as Eco sensitive zone/ Eco
fragile zone, to prevent ecological damage caused due to developmental activities around National Parks
and Wildlife Sanctuaries by acting as a shock absorber or transition zone.
 The methods to manage such zones are by classifying the activities in to Prohibited, Regulated and
Permitted.
13. Answer (a)
Explanation
 Kerala and Goa are the states which have coconut tree as state tree. The State government has decided to
include coconut palm as tree in the Goa, Daman and Diu (Preservation of) Trees Act, 1984 to regulate felling
of coconut trees under this Act,”
 The population of Tamil Nadu's state tree, palm tree is dwindling. Though every part of the palm tree
(Borassus flabellifer) is useful, its future is uncertain, as authorities concerned pay very little attention to it.
14. Answer (a)
Explanation
 Brahmaputra Biodiversity Biology Boat (B4) is a two-tiered barge that will roughly be the size of two large
conference rooms and host scientists and a full-fledged lab that will allow those on board to collect
samples from various stretches of the Brahmaputra river, perform tests on water quality and
biodiversity of the wider ecosystem.
 It will be commissioned by the Department of Biotechnology (Ministry of Science and Technology).
 It will also have ‘mobile labs’ that would run along the tributaries of the Brahmaputra to feed in data to
the B4.
15. Answer (b)
Explanation
 Octlantis is an underwater site built entirely by octopuses, where they communicate with each other by
posturing, chasing or colour changes.
 Scientists have recently discovered it.
 The discovery lends credence to the idea that octopuses are not necessarily loners.
 The first gloomy octopus site was found in Jervis Bay off the east coast of Australia in 2009.
 The new site is located just a few hundred meters away from the first site, and has been dubbed Octlantis.
16. Answer (d)
Explanation
Greens’ Alliance for Conservation of Eastern Ghats (GrACE)
 Greens Alliance for Conservation Eastern Ghats (GrACE) is an alliance to provide an ideal platform for the
wide range people’s movement for sustainability of the hill ranges of Eastern Ghats.
 It is launched by Council for Green Revolution, an environmental action group based at Hyderabad
working for the protection of environment and sustainable development.
17. Answer (a)
Explanation
 Catalonia is an autonomous region of Spain with a population of 7.5 million. Its capital is Barcelona.
 Catalonia's government has staged a referendum on leaving Spain on October 1- against the wishes of
the national authorities. Organisers say 90% backed independence. The Spanish leadership has rejected the
vote as illegal.
18. Answer (d)
Explanation
 The Eurasian Economic Union is an international organization for regional economic integration. It has
international legal personality and is established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union.
 The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labour, pursues coordinated,
harmonized and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the
Union.
 The Member-States of the Eurasian Economic Union are the Republic of Armenia, the Republic of Belarus,
the Republic of Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the Russian Federation.

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19. Answer (a)
Explanation
 The Group of Twenty (G20) is the premier forum for its members’ international economic cooperation and
decision-making.
 Its membership comprises 19 countries plus the European Union. The members of the G20 are Argentina,
Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico,
Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States and the European Union.
 Germany took over the G20 Presidency on 1 December 2016. The 2017 G20 Summit was held in
Hamburg on 7 and 8 July 2017. The 2016 G20 Summit was held in Hangzhou, China.
20. Answer (b)
Explanation
 The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN) is a coalition of non-government
organizations in one hundred countries advocating for a strong and effective nuclear weapon ban treaty.
(Its not a specialised agency of UN
 ICAN began in Australia and was officially launched in Vienna, Austria in 2007. Its main office is located in
Geneva, Switzerland.
 India is not a member of ICAN.
 The 2017 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons
(ICAN).
21. Answer (b)
Explanation
 The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), known commonly as the Iran deal or Iran nuclear deal, is
an international agreement on the nuclear program of Iran reached in Vienna on 14 July 2015 between Iran,
the P5+1 (the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—China, France, Russia,
United Kingdom, United States—plus Germany) and the European Union.
 It aims to ensure that Iran’s nuclear program will be exclusively peaceful. To monitor and verify Iran's
compliance with the agreement, the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) will have regular access to
all Iranian nuclear facilities. The agreement provides that in return for verifiably abiding by its commitments,
Iran will receive relief from U.S., European Union, and United Nations Security Council nuclear-related
economic sanctions.
22. Answer (a)
Explanation
 ‘MITRA SHAKTI’ exercise is a military exercise between India and Sri Lanka.
 The fifth India-Sri Lanka joint training exercise "Mitra Shakti 2017" focusing on counter-terrorism operations
was held at Aundh Military Station in Pune on October 2017.
23. Answer (c)
Explanation
 India extended humanitarian assistance for Rohingya refugees in Bangladesh by flying down food and
other essential items to the neighbour to help it deal with the huge influx of Rohingyas who have fled from
Myanmar.
 The relief material was delivered in multiple consignments under "Operation Insaniyat”. Operation Sankat
Mochan was an operation of the Indian Air Force to evacuate Indian citizens from South Sudan during the
South Sudanese Civil War.
24. Answer (a)
Explanation
 Qubit is the short form of Quantum Bit. It is used in quantum computation. It is a unit of quantum
information.
 A quantum computer, still largely a theoretical entity, employs the principles of quantum mechanics to store
information in ‘qubits’ instead of the typical ‘bits’ of 1 and 0.
 Department of Science and Technology (DST) recently decided to fund a project to develop quantum
computers.
25. Answer (d)
Explanation
 Mission XI Million is a school contact programme which leading up to the FIFA U-17 World Cup, will
evolve into India's biggest outreach sporting activity ever, and leave a legacy for the first FIFA tournament in
India.
 A Government of India and All India Football Federation initiative, MXIM is spread across India and will
cover 36 cities and reach out to more than 15000 schools and over 11 million children.

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26. Answer (b)
Explanation
 The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the MHRD and launched on 29th
September 2015. This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country.
 The methodology draws from the overall recommendations broad understanding arrived at by a Core
Committee set up by MHRD, to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and institutions.
 The parameters broadly cover “Teaching, Learning and Resources,” “Research and Professional
Practices,” “Graduation Outcomes,” “Outreach and Inclusivity,” and “Perception”.
27. Answer (a)
Explanation
 Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a scheme formulated by
Government of India.
 Under the scheme, each MP has the choice to suggest to the District Collector for works to the tune of
Rs.5 Crores per annum to be taken up in his/her constituency.
 The Rajya Sabha Members of Parliament can recommend works in one or more districts in the State
from where he/she has been elected. The Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha may
select any one or more Districts from any one State in the Country for implementation of their choice of
work under the scheme.
 Initially, this scheme was administered by Ministry of Rural Development. Later, in October 1994, Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) has been looking into its working.
28. Answer (b)
Explanation
 DAY-National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM) was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban
Poverty Alleviation, Government of India in 23rd September, 2013 by replacing the existing Swarna Jayanti
Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY).
 The Mission is aimed at providing shelter equipped with essential services to the urban homeless in a
phased manner. In addition, the Mission would also address livelihood concerns of the urban street
vendors.
 The NULM will focus on organizing urban poor in their strong grassroots level institutions, creating
opportunities for skill development leading to market-based employment and helping them to set up self-
employment venture by ensuring easy access to credit.
29. Answer (a)
Explanation
 The Hague Convention of 25 October 1980 on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction is a
multilateral treaty, which seeks to protect children from the harmful effects of abduction and retention
across international boundaries by providing a procedure to bring about their prompt return.
 The "Child Abduction Section" provides information about the operation of the Convention and the work of the
Hague Conference in monitoring its implementation and promoting international co-operation in the area of
child abduction.
 94 states are part to the Hague Convention on Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction. India is not a
signatory to the Hague Convention. A country has to have a domestic law in place before it can become a
signatory.
30. Answer (d)
Explanation
 Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (Department of Sports) have formulated ‘NSDF Target Olympic
Podium (TOP) Scheme’ in the National Sports Development Fund (NSDF) with the objective of identifying
and supporting potential medal prospects for 2016 and 2020 Olympic Games.
 Now, it has reconstituted the committee and expanded its target for 2020 and 2024 Olympic Games.
 Under the scheme the selected athletes are provided financial assistance for their customized training at
Institutes having world class facilities and other necessary support which is expected to result in improved
performance and a higher position in medals tally for the country.
 Focused disciplines will be Athletics, Archery, Badminton, Boxing, Wrestling and Shooting.
31. Answer (c)
Explanation
 The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the revamped Khelo India programme at a
cost of Rs. 1,756 crore for the period 2017-18 to 2019-20.
 The programme aims at mainstreaming sport as a tool for individual development, community
development, economic development and national development.
 This programme strives to promote “Sports for All” as well as “Sports for Excellence.”

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  The Programme aims to promote 20 universities (not all) across the country as hubs of sporting
excellence, which would enable talented sports persons to pursue the dual pathway of education and
competitive sports.
 The revamped Khelo India Programme would impact the entire sports ecosystem, including infrastructure,
community sports, talent identification, coaching for excellence, competition structure and sports economy.
32. Answer (c)
Explanation
 The Ministry of Finance, Government of India had set up a dedicated fund called Nirbhaya Fund in 2013,
for implementation of initiatives aimed at enhancing the safety and security for women in the country.
 In April 2015, the government made the Women and Child Development Ministry (WCD) the nodal
agency for the Nirbhaya Fund in place of the Home Ministry, which utilized only one percent of the funds.
(Hence statement 2 is wrong)
 It was decided that the department of economic affairs under the finance ministry will look at financial
appraisals of the funds released for the various schemes.
 Keeping in mind the need to have schematic interventions and proper mechanism for handholding of women
in distress, three schemes i.e. ‘One Stop Centre’, ‘Universalisation of Women Helpline’ and ‘Mahila
Police Volunteer’ were initiated by the Ministry of Women and Child Development from the Nirbhaya Fund.
33. Answer (b)
Explanation
 The Ministry of Science & Technology has launched Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhayay Vigyan Gram Sankul
Pariyojana to formulate and implement appropriate S&T interventions for sustainable development
through cluster approach in Uttarakhand.
 Under the scheme, Department of Science and Technology (DST) will adopt few clusters of villages in
Uttarakhand and transform them to become self- sustainable in time bound manner through tools of S&T.
 Local resources and locally available skill sets will be utilised using S&T under the scheme for substantial
value addition for local produce and services which can sustain rural population.
34. Answer (a)
Explanation
 The Union Government has inaugurated Hunar Haat (Skill Haat) exhibition at India International Trade Fair
(2016) at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi on 15 November 2016. The exhibition aims at supporting and
promoting artisans from minority communities and providing them domestic as well as international
market to display and sell their products.
 National Minorities Development & Finance Corporation (NMDFC) has organised the exhibition Hunar Haat
under scheme USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills & Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for Development) of
Ministry of Minority Affairs.
 USTTAD scheme was launched on 14 May 2015 in Varanasi. It was launched with an aim to preserve rich
heritage of traditional arts and crafts of the Minority communities. It seeks to build a capacity of
traditional artisans and craftsmen.
35. Answer (d)
Explanation
 The correct sequence of occurrence of these cities in Central Asia as one proceeds from south to north is
Ashgabat(Turkmenistan) Tashkent (Uzbekistan) Bishkek(Kyrgyzstan) Astana(Kazakhstan).
 All these are the capitals of the central Asian countries given in bracket and they often come in news too.
36. Answer (a)
Explanation
Irradiation is an effective technique used in treating the horticultural produces. The advantages of the method
are:
 Radiation technology increases the shelf life of horticultural produces.
 It effectively eliminates harmful bacteria, viruses, insects, pests.
 It is cold and clean process. (No temperature raise or residue)
 The treatment is done after final packaging. (No repacking necessary-Hence statement 4 is wrong)
37. Answer (c)
Explanation
• GeneXpert, is a US-developed technology tool being used worldwide since 2010. It can detect the TB
bacterium as well check for resistance to rifampicin, one of the standard key TB drugs, within 90 minutes.
Conventional tests take at least a day or more and require well-trained personnel for similar results.
• GeneXpert will be used in the Universal Drug Sensitivity Test, launched recently in India to test every
tuberculosis (TB) patient for signs of resistance to first-line drugs.

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 • GeneXpert kits, though one of their kind, are also known to be expensive, as well as requiring air-conditioned
settings and reliable electricity access for optimal output. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) is
in the process of testing a cheaper alternative to GeneXpert called Truenat MTB, which is reportedly more
portable, battery-operated, and performs as well at lower costs.
38. Answer (b)
Explanation
 Cassini- Huygens is a joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency, or ESA, and the Italian
Space Agency. (Roscoms, the space agency of Russia was not part of it.)
 Cassini was launched in 1997 along with ESA's Huygens probe. The spacecraft contributed to studies of
Jupiter for six months in 2000 before reaching its destination, Saturn, in 2004 and starting a string of flybys of
Saturn's moons.
 In 2004, it released the Huygens probe on Saturn's moon Titan to conduct a study of the moon's
atmosphere and surface composition.
 When Cassini and Huygens explored Titan, it revealed many interesting earth-like geographic features.It
discovered great lakes of liquid gas on the moon's surface.
 It is the only space craft to orbit Saturn ever.
 On September 15, 2017; Cassini crashed into Saturn thus ending its exploration.
39. Answer (b)
Explanation
 India’s first private sector missile sub-systems manufacturing facility, is a joint venture between the
Kalyani Group and Israel’s (not French) Rafael Advanced Defence Systems Ltd.,
 It was opened recently at Hyderabad.
40. Answer (c)
Explanation
 ‘NISAR Mission’ is a joint initiative of NASA and ISRO. NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use
two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band) to measure changes in Earth’s surface less than a
centimeter across. While the L- band will be developed by NASA, S-band will be developed by ISRO. It
will be launched by 2021 from India and will be launched using GSLV.
41. Answer (d)
Explanation
 Council of Science and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established by the Government of India in 1942. CSIR
is celebrating platinum jubilee this year.
 Although it is mainly funded by the Ministry of Science and Technology, it operates as an autonomous
body through the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
 The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of CSIR.
42. Answer (b)
Explanation
 INS Tarasa is the fourth and last of the follow-on Water Jet Fast Attack Craft, built by the Garden Reach
Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
 The first two ships of the class i.e. IN ships Tarmugli and Tihayu were commissioned in 2016 and are based
at Visakhapatnam; while the third ship INS Tillanchang was commissioned earlier this year at Karwar on 09
March 2017.
 These ships are an upgrade of the Car Nicobar class Fast Attack Crafts with the Indian Navy, which were
also indigenously designed and built by GRSE, Kolkata
43. Answer (a)
Explanation
Major ports in India Location
1. Haldia : West Bengal
2. Kandla : Gujarat
3. Ennore : Tamilnadu

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44. Answer (c)
Explanation
Harvey (2017)
Katrina (2005)
Irma (2017)
45. Answer (d)
Explanation
 Gravitational waves are 'ripples' in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and
energetic processes in the Universe.
 Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity.
 The strongest gravitational waves are produced by catastrophic events such as colliding black holes, the
collapse of stellar cores (supernovae), coalescing neutron stars or white dwarf stars, the slightly wobbly
rotation of neutron stars that are not perfect spheres, and the remnants of gravitational radiation created
by the birth of the Universe itself.
 The milestone of detecting gravitational waves was achieved by Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave
Observatory (LIGO), a pair of giant laser detectors in the U.S located in Louisiana and Washington State.

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  The detection at once improves our understanding of the workings of the universe and, more important,
throws open a big opportunity to study it from completely new angles. It opens the way to get information
about the evolution of galaxies and black holes.
 2017 Nobel Prize for Physics was awarded for decisive contributions to the LIGO detector and the observation
of gravitational waves
46. Answer (c)
Explanation
 The 360-degree feedback mechanism is a commonly used management tool to fill top slots of the government
that will see officers rated on all-round aptitude, attitude, etc., based on feedback from peers, and those
they worked with, inside and outside the government.
 It involves an assessment of work experience, management style and interest areas of the civil servant
beyond what is in the annual confidential reports (ACRs).
 The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is experimenting this management tool for the first time to streamline
government functioning.
47. Answer (b)
Explanation
 National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a statutory body established under NCBC Act,
1993. Inclusion of communities/ castes in the Central List of OBCs is done on the advice of NCBC as
envisaged in Section (9) of NCBC Act, 1993.
 The criteria for including a community in OBCs list is social, educational, economic backwardness and
inadequate representation in the Central Government posts and services.
 In Indra Sawhney and others vs. Union of India (1993), the Supreme Court held that there was no
constitutional or legal bar to a State categorizing backward classes as backward or more backward and
had further observed that if a State chooses to do it (sub-categorisation).
 Article 340 of Indian Constitution provides that President can appoint a Commission to investigate the
conditions of and difficulties of socially and educationally backward classes.
 On 23rd, August, 2017, the President Ram Nath Kovind appointed a five-member Commission headed by
Delhi High Court's former Chief Justice G Rohini to examine sub categorization of Other Backward Classes
(OBCs) under Article 340 of the Constitution.
 The Commission is required to submit its report within 12 weeks from the date of appointment of the
Chairperson of the Commission. The Commission is constituted for the following purposes;
(i) To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes/
communities included in the broad category of OBCs, with reference to the OBCs included in the Central
list.
(ii) To work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters for sub-categorization within such OBCs
in a scientific approach, and,
(iii) To identify the respective castes/communities/ sub-castes/ synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and
classifying them into their respective sub-categories.
48. Answer (a)
Explanation
 On 27, 2013 Supreme Court, in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India, upheld the
constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections. The court held that right to vote is a
statutory right and the act of exercising that right by the casting of a vote is a constitutional right as
enshrined in Article 19(1)(a), the right to freedom of speech and expression.
 Since democracy is about choice and it can be better expressed by giving voters opportunity to verbalise
themselves, the Court recognised ‘negative voting’ as a part of freedom of speech and expression in
Article 19(1)(a) and right to personal liberty in Article 21. Negative voting will lead to a systemic change in
polls and political parties will be forced to project clean candidates. Therefore, right to reject a candidate is
a fundamental right of speech and expression under the Constitution. (Hence statement 1 is wrong)
 The apex court directed the Election Commission to have an option of 'None of The Above' (NOTA) on the
electronic voting machines (EVMs).
 NOTA is already in use in 13 countries, including the United States, France, Brazil, Bangladesh, Sweden
and Spain. (Hence statement 3 is wrong)
 In 2014, Election Commission directed its applicability in Rajya Sabha polls which were immediately
introduced for the biennial elections to Rajya Sabha held in 16 States on NOTA option would not impact the
results of the elections. The NOTA option on EVMs has no electoral value. In case of NOTA gets
maximum votes, the candidate securing maximum votes is elected.
49. Answer (c)
Explanation
 Bhutan does not share border with Myanamr

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  Myanmar is bordered by India and Bangladesh to its west, Thailand and Laos to its east and China to its
north and northeast. To its south, about one third of Myanmar's total perimeter of 5,876 km forms an
uninterrupted coastline along the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.
50. Answer (c)
Explanation
 The Aral Sea is situated in Central Asia, between the Southern part of Kazakhstan and Northern Uzbekistan.
 The shallow Aral Sea was once the world’s fourth largest body of inland water.
 Its remnants are remaining in the climatically inhospitable heart of Central Asia, to the east of the Caspian
Sea.
 The Aral Sea and its demise are of great interest and increasing concern to scientists because of the
remarkable shrinkage of its area and volume that began in the second half of the 20th century—when the
region was part of the Soviet Union—and continued into the 21st.

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