Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Value-at-Risk Framework
April 1999
In this paper we develop an asset allocation model which allocates assets by maximising
expected return subject to the constraint that the expected maximum loss should meet
the Value-at-Risk limits set by the risk manager. Similar to the mean-variance approach a
performance index like the Sharpe index is constructed. Furthermore it is shown that the
model nests the mean-variance approach in case of normally distributed expected
returns. We provide an empirical analysis using two assets: US stocks and bonds. The
results highlight the influence of non-normal characteristics of the expected return
distribution on the optimal asset allocation.
Correspondence:
Rachel A. J. Pownall
Erasmus University Rotterdam, Faculty of Business Administration
Financial Management, 3000 DR Rotterdam
The Netherlands
Tel: +31 10 4081255 Fax: +31 10 4089017
All authors are at the Erasmus University in Rotterdam. Koedijk is also at Maastricht University, and
CEPR. The respective email addresses are rhuisman@fac.fbk.eur.nl, ckoedijk@fac.fbk.eur.nl, and
rpownall@fac.fbk.eur.nl. All errors pertain to the authors. The authors would like to thank Frans de
Rhoon and participants at the Rotterdam Institute for Financial Management lunch seminar series for their
comments.
1 Introduction
Modern portfolio theory aims to allocate assets by maximising the expected risk
premium per unit of risk. In a mean-variance framework risk is defined in terms of the
possible variation of expected portfolio returns. The focus on standard deviation as the
appropriate measure for risk implies that investors weigh the probability of negative
returns equally against positive returns. However it is highly unlikely that the perception
of investors to downside risk faced on investments is the same as the perception to the
upward potential. Indeed risk measures such as semi-variance were originally constructed
Another approach that has been taken is to incorporate downside risk directly into the
asset allocation model. The optimal portfolio is then selected by maximising the expected
return over candidate portfolios so that some shortfall criterium is met. Leibowitz and
Kogelman (1991), and Lucas and Klaassen (1998) for example construct portfolios by
minimum return should be gained over a given time horizon for a given confidence level.
Roy (1952) and Arzac and Bawa (1977) define the shortfall constraint such that the
probability that the value of the portfolio falling below a specified disaster level is limited
to a specified disaster probability; these are examples of the safety-first approach to asset
allocation. Although the concept of using shortfall constraints is more in line with
investors’ perception to risk, their applicability is rather limited since the disaster levels,
In this paper we extend the literature on asset allocation subject to shortfall constraints.
We adress the criticism concerning the definition of disaster levels and probabilities
2
through the use of Value-at-Risk (VaR). Banks and financial institutions have adopted
VaR as the measure for market risk1, whereby VaR is defined as the maximum expected
loss on an investment over a specified horizon given some confidence level2. It therefore
reflects the potential downside risk faced on investments in terms of nominal losses. We
therefore show how VaR can be implemented into the asset allocation framework using
shortfall constraints. The advantage being that the shortfall constraint is then clearly
methodology extends the richness of VaR as a risk management tool. At present risk
managers determine the VaR of their portfolios, for a chosen confidence level, whereby
VaR is used as an ex-post measure to evaluate the current exposure to market risk and the
subject to a VaR shortfall constraint extends the importance of VaR as an ex-ante market
risk control measure. In our framework risk managers thus define a VaR limit, i.e. set the
maximum allowed loss that will only be exceeded by a small probability, and then let the
portfolio manager allocate assets in such a way that the maximum expected loss on the
In developing the model we proceed along the lines of Arzac and Bawa (1977). Their
approach is superior to the others mentioned above, since they are able to derive a
performance measure equivalent to the Sharpe index, which gives portfolio managers an
easy tool with which they can evaluate the efficiency of several (candidate) portfolios.
Furthermore market equilibrium can be derived under specific assumptions regarding the
allocation model leads to the same optimal portfolio as a mean-variance approach in the
feeling that the framework is closely related to traditional models. It is widely known
3
however that the expected returns on many financial assets are not normally distributed
(they are not symmetric and exhibit excess leptokurtosis); we are also able to incorporate
this issue into the asset allocation decision. The model need not make any assumptions
regarding the skewness and the structure of the tails of the distribution, thus enabling us
to choose a distribution, which can correctly reflect the apparent tail fatness of financial
return distribution: an important feature for a framework that focuses on downside risk
The plan of the paper is as follows. We introduce the framework in the following section.
The third section then provides empirical results of the optimal portfolio allocation for a
variety of asset classes. We also shall address the importance of the non-normal
2 Methodology
In this section we present a portfolio construction model subject to a VaR limit set by
the risk manager for a specified horizon. In other words we derive an optimal portfolio
such that the maximum expected loss would not exceed the VaR for a chosen
investment horizon at a given confidence level. Using VaR as the measure for risk in this
framework is in accordance with the banking regulations in practice and provides a clear
aversion is set according to the VaR limit; hence avoiding the limitations of expected
utility theory as to the degree of risk aversion, which an investor is thought to exhibit.
4
2.1 The asset allocation problem and shortfall constraints
Suppose the risk management department sets the portfolio manager’s VaR limit on an
amount W(0) to be invested for an investment horizon T. The portfolio manager can
invest this amount plus an amount B representing borrowing (B > 0) or lending (B < 0).
The manager may invest in n assets whereby γ(i) denotes the fraction invested in the
risky asset, i. Hence the γ(i)’s must sum to one. Let P(i,t) be the price of asset i at time t (t
= 0 reflects the current decision period). Equation (1) gives the initial value of the
n
W ( 0 ) + B = ∑ γ ( i ) P ( i ,0 ) (1)
i =1
According to 0 the manager needs to choose the fractions γ(i) to be invested with wealth
W(0) and the amount to be borrowed or lent at time 0: we assume rf is the interest rate at
which the investor can borrow and lend for the period T. The portfolio allocation
problem arises on allocating the assets in the portfolio and choosing the amount to
borrow or lend such that the maximum expected level of final wealth is achieved.
The introduction of Value-at-Risk into risk management requires the portfolio manager
to be highly concerned about the value of the portfolio falling below the VaR constraint.
VaR is defined as the worst expected loss over a chosen time horizon within a given
confidence interval c (see Jorion 1997). For example a 99% VaR for a 10-day holding
period3, implies that the maximum loss incurred over the next 10 days should only
exceed the VaR limit once in every 100 cases. Chosing the desired level of Value-at-Risk
5
Pr denotes the expected probability conditioned on the information available at time 0.
VaR is thus the worst expected loss over the investment horizon T, that can be expected
with confidence level c. The investor’s level of risk aversion is reflected in the VaR level,
and the confidence level associated with it. Hence the optimal portfolio which is derived
Kogelman (1991) and recently Lucas and Klaassen (1998) construct portfolios by
maximising expected return subject to a shortfall constraint defined such that a minimum
return should be gained over the given time horizon within a given confidence level.
Arzac and Bawa (1977) developed a similar framework according to the safety-first
principle introduced by Roy (1952). In that framework investors maximise the expected
return of their portfolio subject to a shortfall constraint defined such that the probability
that the end-of-investment horizon value of the portfolio falls below a disaster level s is
smaller than a disaster probability α. Arzac and Bawa develop the optimal asset
allocation for risk-averse investors and are also able to show that the model nests the
believe that the Arzac and Bawa model is the most serious contender to a theory of
portfolio choice for risk-averse investors. The limitation however is in specifying the
6
The introduction of VaR however provides us with a shortfall constraint (denoted by
equation 0) that fits perfectly into the Arzac and Bawa framework. We therefore build
upon their results to derive an optimal asset allocation model. The investor is interested
in maximising wealth at the end of the investment horizon. Let r(p) be the expected total
return on a portfolio p in period T; assume that asset i is included with fraction γ(i,p) in
portfolio p. The expected wealth from investing in portfolio p at the end of the
Substituting in for B as given in equation (1), we are able to express final wealth in terms
of the risk-free rate of return and the expected portfolio risk premium (r(p)-rf):
n
E0 (W (T , p )) = W ( 0 )(1 + r f ) + ( ∑ γ ( i , p )P ( i ,0 ))( r ( p ) − r f ) (5)
i =1
Equation 0 shows that as long as the expected risk premium is positive a risk-averse
investor will always invest some fraction of his wealth in the risky assets. In order to
determine the optimal portfolio that maximises the expected final wealth subject to the
VaR * +W ( 0 )r f
Pr{r ( p ) ≤ r f − n
} ≤ (1 − c ) (6)
∑ γ ( i , p )P ( i ,0 )
i =1
Equation 0 simply defines the quantile q(c,p) that corresponds to probability (1-c) that
can be read off the cdf of the expected return distribution for portfolio p. This quantile is
n VaR * +W ( 0 )r f
∑ γ ( i , p )P ( i ,0 ) = r f − q( c , p )
(7)
i =1
7
Substituting 0 back into 0 leads us to the following expression for the expected final
(r ( p ) − r f )
E0 (W (T , p )) = W ( 0 )(1 + r f ) + (VaR * +W ( 0 )r f ) (8)
( r f − q( c , p ))
Dividing 0 by initial wealth W(0) we obtain the following expression for the expected
W (T , p ) (r ( p ) − r f )
E0 ( ) = (1 + r f ) + (VaR * +W ( 0 )r f ) (9)
W ( 0) (W ( 0 )r f − W ( 0 )q( c , p ))
It can be seen from equation 0 that the final expected return on wealth is maximised for
an investor concerned about the downside risk for the portfolio which maximises S(p) in
r( p) − rf
p ' : max S ( p ) = (10)
p W ( 0 )r f − W ( 0 )q( c , p )
Note that although initial wealth is in the denomenator of S(p) it does not affect the
choice of the optimal portfolio since it is only a scale constant in the maximisation. The
asset allocation process is thus independent of wealth. The advantage however of having
initial wealth in the denomenator of 0 is in its interpretation. S(p) equals the ratio of the
expected risk premium offered on portfolio p to the risk, reflected by the maximum
expected loss on portfolio p that is incurred with probability 1-c relative to the risk-free
rate. Since the negative quantile of the return distribution multiplied by the initial wealth
is the Value-at-Risk associated with the portfolio for a chosen confidence level, then we
are able to derive an expression for the risk faced by the investor as ϕ. Letting VaR(c,p)
denote portfolio p’s Value-at-Risk, the denominator of (10) may be written as:
8
ϕ ( c , p ) = W ( 0 )r f − VaR ( c , p ) (11)
Such a measure for risk is in fitting with investors’ behaviour of focussing on the risk
free rate of return as the benchmark return with risk being measured as the potential for
losses to be made with respect to the riskfree rate as the point of reference. Indeed the
measure for risk can be seen as a possible measure for regret, since it measures the
potential opportunity loss of investing in risky assets. Investors will therefore only accept
greater returns if they can tolerate the regret occuring from the greater potential wealth-
at-risk. The risk-return ratio S(p), which is maximised for the optimal portfolio p′ can
r( p) − rf
p ' : max S( p ) = (12)
p ϕ( c , p )
S(p) is thus a performance measure like the Sharpe index that can be used to evaluate the
efficiency of portfolios (see Sharpe 1994 for more details). Indeed under the assumption
that expected portfolio returns are normally distributed, and the risk free rate is zero, S(p)
collapses to a multiple of the Sharpe index. In this case the VaR is expressed as a
multiple of the standard deviation of the expected returns so that the point at which both
performance indices are maximised will lead to the same optimal portfolio being chosen.
Only a minimal difference in the optimal portfolio weights occurs for positive risk free
rates, so that both approaches will lead to almost identical results. Since our performance
index S(p) does not rely on any distributional assumptions it has the advantage of being
able to incorporate non-normalities into the asset allocation problem, through the use of
encounter later.
9
The optimal portfolio that maximises S(p) in 0 is chosen independently from the level of
initial wealth. It is also independent from the desired VaR, since the risk measure ϕ for
the various portfolios depends on the estimated portfolio VaR rather than the desired
Value-at-Risk. Investors first allocate the risky assets and then, the amount of borrowing
or lending will reflect by how much the VaR of the portfolio differs from the VaR limit
set; thus two-fund separation holds like in the mean-variance framework. However since
the investors’ degree of risk aversion is captured by the chosen Value-at-Risk level, the
determined. The amount of borrowing is therefore found by substituting (1) and (11)
Of course the critical assumption in finding the maximising portfolio and hence the
optimal asset allocation is in the choice of distributional assumption for the future
distribution of returns. It is to this question which we now turn, with the use of an
select the optimal allocation of US stocks and Bonds such that a VaR constraint is met.
We employ daily data from US stock and bond indices from January 1980 until
December 1998, providing us with 2364 observations. We use data obtained from
Datastream for the S&P 500 Composite Return Index for the US, the 10- Year
10
Treasury Bill rate for the risk free rate. The average annual return on the S&P 500 over
the sample period was 16.81%, just over twice as high as the average annual return on
the 10-year Government Bond Index of 8.35%. The annual standard deviation is also
higher on the S&P 500 at 13.42% per annum, compared to the less volatile nature of the
Government Bonds with an annual standard deviation of only 6.31%. Both series exhibit
significant negative skewness, -0.45 and –0.42 for the S&P 500 Index and Bond Index
respectively, and significant kurtosis, with greater excess kurtosis on the S&P 500 Index,
To maximise the performance index S(p) in 0 we estimate the expected return r(p) and
the daily Value-at-Risk(c,p) for various combinations of US stocks and bonds using the
whole sample period. Figure 1 shows the efficient VaR frontier for a 95% confidence
level. The VaR level for the 95% level is directly read off from the empirical return
Insert Figure 1
The VaR efficient frontier is similar to a mean-variance frontier except for the definition
of risk: VaR relative to the benchmark return (ϕ) instead of standard deviation (σ). The
lower-left point represents a portfolio containing 100% bonds and the upper-right
Below we assume that the portfolio manager needs to select a portfolio that has the same
95% VaR as has been observed in the past. The optimum position on the efficient VaR
frontier, for an investor, who wants to be 95% confident that his wealth will not drop by
more than the daily VaR limit, occurs where the return per unit of risk is maximised. This
11
occurs where equation (9) is maximised, and is independent of the level of wealth. Using
the empirical sample we are therefore able to determine the optimal allocation between
stocks and bonds, whereby the last available 3-month Treasury Bill rate in the sample
period is used for the risk free rate of return. Taking 4.47% as the risk free rate, we find
that the optimal allocation between US stocks and bonds occurs when 36% of wealth is
held in stocks and 64% in bonds for an investor with a VaR limit at the 95% confidence
level. If the desired daily Value-at-Risk, which the risk manager sets is different from the
VaR associated with this 95% empirical estimate, then part of the wealth will need to be
lent, or additional funds borrowed, at the risk free rate in accordance with equation (13).
This involves moving along the Capital Market Line, also shown in Figure 1, until the
The combinations for stocks and bonds for a variety of confidence levels are provided in
Insert Table 1
Taking the desired VaR level as the daily VaR at the 95% confidence level from the
required so that this benchmark VaR level is met for higher confidence levels. We can
therefore see how sensitive the asset allocation decision is to changes in the confidence
level associated with the Value-at-Risk limit. Allocating 36% in Stocks and 64% in Bonds
generates a 95% VaR on the portfolio of $6.86 and of course no borrowing or lending is
required to meet the VaR with 95% confidence. If however the risk manager desires
greater confidence in the probability that the initial wealth will not drop by more than the
VaR level, then the VaR associated with the portfolio allocation will be greater than the
VaR limit and hence results in too much risk being taken4. In order to meet the
12
benchmark VaR less risk will have to be taken and hence $313.20 of the initial $1000
wealth is lent at the risk free rate. In the last column of the table we show the nominal
amounts needed to be lent so that the daily VaR of $6.86 is met for the various
confidence levels. The final portfolio allocations are given in the bottom segment of
Table 1, and we see that the greater the confidence level, hence the lower the risk
tolerance of the investor, the greater the proportion of wealth that needs to be lent at the
We have now shown how we can find the optimal allocation from the use of the
empirical distribution, whereby we assumed that future returns are distributed in exactly
the same manner as in the past. The reliance on a large sample is therefore crucial, so
that the quantiles are estimated accurately. The choice of sample period is also extremely
the methodology in such a way certainly levies some benefits. Firstly, estimation risk is
reduced - especially crucial for high confidence levels - hence providing more accurate
estimates of quantiles. Secondly, quantile estimation is simplified since the quantiles are a
are derived from the historical data and the quantile is obtained by inferring the quantile
point from the fitted distribution function. Finally, certain parametric assumptions enable
a unique solution to be found for the maximising portfolio, regardless of the quantile
used in the maximisation process. Regardless therefore of the investors risk preferences
the choice of risky assets will be identical up to a scale constant for all investors. Specific
13
If we assume that the future distribution of returns can be accurately proxied by the
normal distribution, the only risk factor in our downside risk measure is the standard
deviation of the distribution. This means that the quantile estimate is merely a multiple of
standard deviations, and our risk measure ϕ in equation (12) is a multiple of the standard
deviation alone. This results in the risk-return trade off being identical to that derived
under the mean-variance framework. The maximisation will occur at the same point as
which the Sharpe ratio is maximised, and the market model will collapse to the CAPM.
the first two moments of the distribution only and hence are able to include the
used to represent the future distribution of returns, which can provide a unique solution
to our maximising equation, equation (9), regardless of the quantile chosen, will allow for
to first analyse the extent to which non-normalities effect the optimal allocation of assets.
We therefore compare the optimal allocation of assets derived using both the normal
distribution and a fatter tailed distribution, the student-t, whereby we use the same
We first shall assume that the distribution of future returns can be captured using the
normal distribution. To see how accurate the use of standard deviation alone is as the
measure for risk we can plot the efficient VaR frontier for the risk-return trade off at the
14
95% confidence level for the normal distribution against the empirical VaR frontier
derived earlier. It can also be seen in Figure 1 that at the 95% VaR level the assumption
of normality reflects the actual risk-return trade off fairly well. On average the
assumption of normality for the future distribution of returns at the 95% level means
that the risk is only slightly overestimated6 for a given level of return. The risk is
minimised at the optimal allocation of 40% stocks and 60% bonds, and as mentioned
earlier this optimum will occur at the same point for various confidence levels. This is
Insert Table 2
In order to compare how well the normal distribution proxies for the empirical
distribution, we again use the historical VaR at the 95% level as our benchmark VaR
level. With wealth equal to $1000, an amount of $44.43 needs to be lent at the risk free
We have seen that the assumption of normality renders the investors attitude to risk as
unimportant in the optimisation process. Only after the optimising portfolio has been
found do the individuals risk preferences come into play. The non-parametric nature of
the empirical distribution however, led to the changing optimum allocation of assets for
proportionally greater increase in lending to meet the desired VaR level for higher
confidence levels. Under the assumption of normality with standard deviation alone as
the measure for risk this effect is not captured, and it appears that for a desired
confidence level of 99%, too aggressive an investment strategy will result. It would
appear that the trade off between risk and return is underestimated for higher confidence
levels. We can see this graphically by comparing the efficient VaR frontiers at the 99%
15
confidence level for both the normal and the empirical distributions. This is presented in
Figure 2.
Insert Figure 2
Risk, as measured by the empirical VaR for the portfolio is higher for all combinations of
stocks and bonds than captured by the use of standard deviation alone. This
underestimation of risk far out in the tails of the distribution will be greater the greater
the deviation from normality9. The greater probability of extreme negative returns in the
empirical distribution implies greater downside risk than is captured by the measure of
standard deviation alone. The use therefore of the normal distribution to assess the risk-
return trade off will result in an incorrect allocation of assets for investors with low risk
tolerance and risk managers wishing to set 99% confidence levels. Since non-normalities
will cause errors to be made in the asset proportions held, it would appear more desirable
characteristics of financial assets for the whole range of confidence levels associated with
The student-t with 5 degrees of freedom, a fatter tailed distribution than the normal
distribution, has been shown to represent the tail of the distribution of many financial
assets more accurately than the normal distribution. In order to determine the extent to
which non-normalities effect the optimal allocation of assets we compare both the
efficient VaR frontier and the optimal allocation of assets using the assumption that
efficient VaR frontiers using the empirical distribution, against the normal and the
student-t. In figure 1 we see that the student-t with 5 degrees of freedom represents the
empirical trade off at the 95% confidence level fairly well. This confirms that the
16
additional downside risk associated with the presence of fat tails in the distribution only
becomes apparent for investors and risk managers wishing to know with greater certainty
As we move to higher confidence levels, as shown in figure 2 for the 99% level, we find
that it becomes vital that the additional downside risk from fat tails is incorporated into
the risk-return trade off11. Comparing the optimal portfolio allocation in Table 2 we find
that the proportions held in the various risky assets are again identical to the outcome
when we assumed normally distributed returns. The measure for risk is however greater
when using the student-t distribution and hence the amount of lending required to meet
the same VaR level as before is greater. This is presented in the final two columns of
Table 2. Indeed the proportion of wealth held in the various assets is much more in line
The use therefore of a risk measure, which is able to capture higher moments of the
distribution appears to capture the true trade-off between risk and return as observed in
financial markets. It indeed may provide a better explanation for the size of the risk
premium, an interesting area for future research. Furthermore the results show that if a
risk manager is concerned about his 99% VaR (as recommended by the regulatory
framework of the Basle Committee) the use of the standard deviation alone in
determining the correct risk-return trade off with which to optimise the allocation
capture some of the additional downside risk, such as the student-t, would appear to
allocate assets more in accord with the risk-return trade off observed in US financial
markets.
17
We find that the use of a student-t distribution with 5 degrees of freedom is better able
than the assumption of normality to correctly assess the risk return trade off in financial
markets, however the exact nature of the parametric distribution which best represents
the distribution of future returns in the negative tail of the distribution is still open to
correlation between assets as we move further into the tails of the distribution, and the
notion that correlation increases for large negative returns may be able to explain the
4 Concluding Remarks
The move towards greater risk management has highlighted the need to be able to
control and manage financial risk. Until now Value-at-Risk as a risk management tool has
been used in the assessment of risk ex-post in financial markets. In this paper we highlight
the need for taking an ex-ante approach to risk management, such that assets are allocated
so that expected return is maximised and that the risk of the portfolio’s value falling
below a critical level is known. The introduction of VaR allows us to develop such an
downside risk rather than standard deviation as the crucial measure for risk. The use of
Value-at-Risk therefore enables the level of risk aversion to be measured, and hence the
portfolio theory.
In this paper we provide a model for asset allocation which is able to move away from
the use of standard deviation alone as the approriate measure for risk in financial
markets. We focus on the use of downside risk, as measured by Value-at-Risk, and hence
18
are able to allocate assets more in accordance with the risk perceptions which investors
hold. The model is derived without having to impose distributional assumptions about
the future distribution of returns, and hence enables an approach which is also able to
other than normality we are able to incorporate non-normalities into the asset allocation
process. The use of the normal distribution, or the student-t, allows for a market
equilibrium model to be derived13, whereas the use of normality enables the model to
Empirical results for US stock and bonds provide evidence of additional downside risk
from skewness and kurtosis, and thus the use of the normal distribution results in an
incorrect estimation of the risk-return trade off for investors wanting to know the
probability of their portfolio falling below the VaR level with high confidence. Since the
the 99% Value-at-Risk, allocating assets such that the 99% VaR level is met is of crucial
able to assess the risk-return trade-off observed in financial markets, such that the VaR
models would appear to be much more desirable than the present assumption that assets
are normally distributed in the tails. A move away from current portfolio theory, such
that assets can be allocated to meet risk management constraints, and the possible
19
5 References
Arzac, E.R. and V.S. Bawa (1977) ‘Portfolio Choice and Equilibrium in Capital Markets
Huisman, R., C.G. Koedijk, and R.A. Pownall (1998) ‘VaR-x: Fat Tails in Financial Risk
Jansen, D.W., C.G. Koedijk, and C.G. de Vries (1998) ‘Portfolio Selection with Limited
Jorion, P. (1997) Value at Risk: The New Benchmark for Controlling Derivatives Risk, McGraw-
Hill Publishers.
Leibowitz, M.L. and S. Kogelman (1991) ‘Asset Allocation under Shortfall Constraints’.
Longin, F. and B. Solnik (1995) ‘Is the International Correlation of Equity Returns
Lucas, A. and P. Klaassen (1998) ‘Extreme Returns, Downside Risk, and Optimal Asset
20
Roy, A.D. (1952) ‘Safety-First and the Holding of Assets’. Econometrica, 20, 431-449.
Sharpe, W. (1994) ‘The Sharpe Ratio’. Journal of Portfolio Management, 21, 49-58.
Working Paper.
21
Table 1
The table gives the optimal allocation between Stocks and Bonds using data on the S&P 500 Composite
Returns Index and the 10- Year Datastream US Benchmark Government Bond Index over the period
January 1980 - December 1998. The risk-return trade off maximises equation (10), whereby the risk free
return is the return on the one month Treasury Bill on 31.12.98 of 4.47%. The historical distribution is
used to estimate the Value-at-Risk. The VaRs for the portfolio are given, the amount of borrowing or
lending required to meet the daily historical VaR at the 95%, and the final portfolio allocation such that the
22
Table 2
The table gives the optimal allocation between Stocks and Bonds using data on the S&P 500 Composite
Returns Index and the 10- Year Datastream US Benchmark Government Bond Index over the period
January 1980 - December 1998. The risk-return trade off maximises equation (10), whereby the risk free
return is the return on the one month Treasury Bill on 31.12.98 of 4.47%. The normal distribution and the
Student-t with 5 degrees of freedom are used to estimate the Value-at-Risk. The VaRs for the portfolio are
given, the amount of borrowing or lending required to meet the daily historical VaR at the 95%, and the
Normality Student-t
23
Figure 1
The figure presents the risk return trade off for portfolios of Stocks and Bonds whereby risk is measured
by the VaR of the portfolio at the 95% confidence level. The returns and VaR estimates are obtained using
data on the S&P 500 Composite Returns Index and the 10- Year Datastream US Benchmark Government
Bond Index for the period January 1980 until December 1998. We present the efficient frontier for the
empirical distribution, the parametric normal approach and under the assumption of a Student-t
0.0007
0.0006
0.0005
0.0004
RETURN
0.0003
0.0002
0.0001
0
0 5 10 15 20 25
RISK
24
Figure 2
The figure presents the risk return trade off for portfolios of Stocks and Bonds whereby risk is measured
by the VaR of the portfolio at the 99% confidence level. The returns and VaR estimates are obtained using
data on the S&P 500 Composite Returns Index and the 10- Year Datastream US Benchmark Government
Bond Index for the period January 1980 until December 1998. We present the efficient frontier for the
empirical distribution, the parametric normal approach and under the assumption of a Student-t
0.0007
0.0006
0.0005
R 0.0004
E
T
U 0.0003
0.0002
0.0001
0
0 5 10 15 20 25
RISK
25
Endnotes
26