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Solutions To IE Irodov S Problems in General Physics Volume I Abh PDF
Solutions To IE Irodov S Problems in General Physics Volume I Abh PDF
= oe —— tT where Ar” is the net displacement of the body during time of flight. As, mg"L Ar” so
= 0 ‘We have ee at?, ot, v= VaRt, t is defined to start from the begining of motion from rest. So, 0,2 Ba VaR Instantaneous power, PaF y= m (Ww, le, + Wy iy, )- (VaR th, ), (where ii, and i, are unit vectors along the direction of tangent (velocity) and normal respectively) So, P= mw,VaR t= ma Rt Hence the sought average power ' ' f Pdt f ma Rt dt
e SB
' t
fe
0
_maRt? | maRt
2t 2
Let the body m acquire the horizontal velocity vy along positive x — axis at the point O.
(a) Velocity of the body t seconds after the begining of the motion,
ve twee (vy—ket)im q@
Instantaneous power P= Fv (- longi): (vy kgt) i= — kang (vo - ket )
From Eq. (1), the time of motion t= v9/kg
Hence sought average power during the time of motion
1
Hence
kang vo
Jf He 75 — bee ya
ee
: F 7 ~2W (On substitution)
From F,= mw,
— kg = mw, = ee
or, v,dv,= -kgdx = - agxdx1128
1.129
1130
To find v (x), let us integrate the above equation
v x
fu - ag f rae or, P= y-age @
% 0
Now, P- Fv -maxgVve-agx* Q2)
For maximum power, fee ) = 0 which yields x=
Putting this value of x, in Eq. (2) we get,
Prag - im vivag
Centrifugal force of inertia is directed outward along radial line, thus the sought work
n
Yo
V2ag
Ae J mor dr= § mat G - rn) = 0:20T (On substitution)
4
Since the springs are connected in series, the combination may be treated as a single spring
of spring constant.
KK
Ky +k,
From the equation of increment of ME., AT+AU=A.,
K
O+twalt= A, o, A=t *% \ap
2 2 Ky +}
First, let us find the total height of ascent. At the beginning and the end of the path of
velocity of the body is equal to zero, and therefore the increment of the kinetic energy of
the body is also equal to zero. On the other hand, in according with work-energy theorem
AT is equal to the algebraic sum of the works A performed by all the forces, i.e. by the
force F and gravity, over this path. However, since AT= 0 then A = 0. Taking into
account that the upward direction is assumed to coincide with the positive direction of the
y-axis, we can write
h
kh
asf ona * Se-mow
s
- me fa -2ay) dy= mgh(1-ah)= 0.
0
whence h= 1/a.
The work performed by the force F over the first half of the ascent is
nr nr
Ars f Fay amg fay) ay 3 mg/4a.
0 0
The corresponding increment of the potential energy is
AU= mgh/2= mg/2a.70
1.131
1,132
From the equation F, = 2 we get F,= [-3+3]
(a) we have at r= ro, the particle is in equilibrium position. ie. F,= 0 80, ro= a
To check, whether the position is steady (the position of stable equilibrium), we have to
satisfy
@u
ale
@U_ [6a 2b
We have a (e-3|
Putting the value of r= r= 22, we get
daUe (bs
ra ‘se’ (as a and b are positive constant)
So cule
: dr? 8a’
which indicates that the potential energy of the system is minimum, hence this position
is steady. :
aq _[ 2b
(b) We have F--2. 33]
For F, to b i #, 0
‘or F, to be maximum, = "=
3a -3
So, r= PF and then Fig)” 57>
As F, is negative, the force is attractive.
(a) We have
au -aU
F,- ~~ -2a0x and B= = -2By
So, Fe 2axi-2Byiand, Fe 2Voexrepy ()
For a central force, 7 F= 0
aa >of
Here, rxF= ity] )x(-2oxi-2By))
= -2Bxyk-2axy(k)«0
Hence the force is not a central force.
()) As U= ox? + py?
au -au
So, Fo Gyn ax and Fy= SO = -2By.
So, FeVEsF =V4er+4py
According to the problem
F=2Va7x'+ py’ = C (constant)4133
1144
1.135
71
or, esp y= ¢
a. |
or, ea" axe” Fey) Q)
Therefore the surfaces for which F is constant is an ellipse.
For an equipotential surface U is constant.
So, ax’+By* = Cy (constant)
mye
or, VE + Jt - an = Ky (constant)
Hence the equipotential surface is also an ellipse.
Let us calculate the work performed by the forces of each field over the path from a
certain point 1 (x,, y,) to another certain point 2 (x,, y2)
5
@) dA= F- dF ayivd?™ ayde or, A= a fra
> =. > a
(i) dA= F-d7™ (axi+byi )-d7™= axdx + bydy
4 %
Hence An f axdx+| bydy
tee nm
In the first case, the integral depends on the function of type y (x), ie. on the shape of
the path. Consequently, the first field of force is not potential. In the second case, both
the integrals do not depend on the shape of the path. They are defined only by the coordinate
of the initial and final points of the path, therefore the second field of force is potential.
Let s be the sought distance, then from the equation of increment of M.E.
AT +AU = Ay,
(0-58) + messin - kang cosas
%
or, s= 5p / (ina + keos a)
~ ke
ae 4 2(e+ tana)
yp =~ kang cos as =
Velocity of the body at height h, v, = V2g (HA), horizontally (from the figure given in
the problem). Time taken in falling through the distance h.
t= V 2 {as initial vertical component of the velocity is zero.)
Now s=v,t= Vig@ith V2 - Vat=F1.136
1.137
For Spay 4 (Hh - 1?) =0, which yields h= #
Putting this value of 4 in the expression obtained for s, we get,
Swoax = H
To complete a smooth vertical track of radius R, the minimum height at which a particle
starts, must be equal to Sr (one can proved it from energy conservation). Thus in our
problem body could not reach the upper most point of the vertical track of radius R/2.
Let the particle A leave the track at some point O with speed v (Fig.). Now from energy
conservation for the body A in the field of gravity :
i 7
me[A-3C+sin)]- dm?
cere (ty
From Newton’s second law for the particle at
the point O; F,= mw,,
mn
Ww
But, at the point O the normal reaction N = 0
N+mgsin0=
So, ve Bh sin 8 (2)
From (3) and (4), sin 0= 2 and v= Y ea
After leaving the track at O, the particle A comes in air and further goes up and at maximum
height of it’s trajectory in air, it’s velocity (say v’) becomes horizontal (Fig.). Hence, the
sought velocity of A at this point.
non 2/8
v' = vcos (90 - 6) = vsinO= 3 3
Let, the point of suspension be shifted with velocity v, in the horizontal direction towards
left then in the rest frame of point of suspension the ball starts with same velocity horizontally
towards right, Let us work in this, frame. From Newton’s second law in projection form
towards the point of suspension at the upper most point (say B) :
2 v
my; m
mg+T= 7" of, T= 7 -mg @)
Condition required, to complete the vertical circle is that T= 0. But (2)
im} = mg (2) +3 mii So, ve= yi-4gl @)1.138
1.139
73
From (1), (2) and (3)
v2 — 4 gl
T= MUA Ae) geo or, v,= V5 gl
Thus YA (wisy = V5 gt
From the equation F, = mw, at point C
oo
7 (4)
s
Again from energy conservation
imi Sw + mg 6)
From (4) and (5)
T= 3mg
Since the tension is always perpendicular to the velocity vector, the work done by the
tension force will be zero. Hence, according to the work energy theorem, the kinetic energy
or velocity of the disc will remain constant during it’s motion. Hence, the sought time
t=, where s is the total distance traversed by the small disc during it’s motion.
0
Now, at an arbitary position (Fig.)
ds = (Iy-R0)d®,
UR
s0, s=f G-R 840
0
2 2
o: 8 See te
i 2K? 2R
i
Hence, the required time, f= IRV
It should be clearly understood that the only uncompensated force acting on the disc A
in this case is the tension T, of the thread. It is easy to see that there is no point here,
relative to which the moment of force T is invarible in the process of motion. Hence
conservation of angular momentum is not applicable here.
Suppose that Al is the elongation of the rubbler cord. Then from energy conservation,
AU,, + AUy= 0 (as AT = 0)
= mg (1+ A) + 2x Al? = 0
or,
5x Al? — mg Al~ mg! =074
1.140
1.141
mgt Vf (mg) +4xSmgl z r]
oe ke Zed
or, al = xS= 147 1278
2
Since the value of V1 + a is certainly greater than 1, hence negative sign is avoided.
— mel, ./ za |
So, ue (1, 14 ng
When the thread FA is burnt, obviously the speed of the bars will be equal at any instant
of time until it breaks off. Let v be the speed of each block and 8 be the angle, which
the elongated spring makes with the vertical at the moment, when the bar A breaks off
the plane. At this stage the elongation in the spring.
Al= hy sec @ ~ hy = ly (sec 8 ~ 1) Q)
Since the problem is concerned with position and there are no forces other than conservative
forces, the mechanical energy of the system (both bars + spring) in the field of gravity is
conserved, ic. AT+ AU = 0
So, 2 G*) +413 (6ec0-1)?— mgiptan 0 = 0 Q
From Newton’s second law in projection form N
along vertical direction : 8
mg = N +x Iy (sec @ - 1) cos @ Klo Gxo-t
But, at the moment of break off, N = 0. r
Hence, x J, (sec 8-1) cos 8 = mg
K1y)- mg
or, cos 0 = ce @)
"™,
a 78, simultaneous solution\of (2) and (3) yields : 3
fo
ve = 17m/s.
Obviously the elongation in the cord, Al= /, (sec 6 - 1), at the moment the sliding first
Starts and at the moment horizontal projection of spring force equals the limiting friction.
So, x, Alsin 8 = KN qa
(where x, is the elastic constant). KAL
From Newton’s law in projection form along
vertical direction :
k, Al cos 0 +N = mg.
or, N= mg~x, Alcos®
From (1) and (2),
(2)
x, Alsin @ = k(mg - «x, Al cos @) mg1.142
1.143
75
or,
oc gaa
*1™ Aisin @ + k Al cos 0
From the equation of the increment of
mechanical energy : AU + AT = Ay,
1
or, (:na")- 4,
king Al?
2. Al (sin 8 + & cos 0)
dang ly (sec 8 - 1)
2 (sin © — k cos ®)
Let the deformation in the spring be Al, when the rod AB has attained the angular velocity «.
From the second law of motion in projection form F,= mw, .
or, = Ay,
Thus Ay, = = 0-093 (on substitution)
2
mor I,
KAl= mo? (Ip+Al or, Al=
(y+ AD Par
2
From the energy equation, A, = jm + 7 x Al?
13 aol
= yma? (Ip + Al? +5 x Al
We know that acceleration of centre of mass of the system is given by the expression.
— >
Mm Witmw,
Wom Tay +m,
Since Wim -
<> __ (my -m,) W
Wem @
my +m,
Now from Newton’s second law F'= mis, for
the bodies m, and m, respectively.
T+ m, a= m,¥%, @
and T+ m,g% mwy=— mi, (3)
Solving (2) and (3)
wn mim
: my +m,
476
1.144
1.145
1.146
Thus from (1), (2) and (4),
a> _ (m-my 3
(m, + my
As the closed system consisting two particles
m, and of m, is initially at rest the C.M. of
the system will remain at rest. Further as
m= m,/2, the C.M. of the system divides the
line joining m, and mz at all the moments of
time in the ratio 1 : 2. In addition to it the
total linear momentum of the system at all the
times is zero. So, p; = — Dp, and therefore the
velocities of m, and m, are also directed in
opposite sense. Bearing in mind all these thing,
the sought trajectory is as shown in the figure.
First of all, it is clear that the chain does not
move in the vertical direction during the
uniform rotation. This means that the vertical
component of the tension T balances gravity.
As for the horizontal component of the tension
T, it is constant in magnitude and permanently
directed toward the rotation axis. It follows from.
this that the C.M. of the chain, the point C,
travels along horizontal circle of radius p (say).
Therefore we have,
TcosO= mg and Tsin0 = mo” p
Thus p= £228. ag cm
w
and T= 782 SN
cos 6
(a) Let us draw free body diagram and write Newton’s
second law in terms of projection along vertical aud
horizontal direction respectively.
Neos a -mg + frsina= 0 qa
froosa-Nsina = mw?! (2)
From (1) and (2)
rcos = 2S (fr sin a+ mg) = mo?!
cos Ot 81.147
2
So, fr= me sna ®cosa)= oN @)
(b) For rolling, without sliding,
frs kN
but, N= mg cos a-mw7Isina
o71 2
mg | sina +S 00s at | = k (mg cos o- mc? sin ct) [Using (3)]
Rearranging, we get,
mo? l(cosa+ksina) = (kmg cos a - mg sina)
Thus wsVg(k-tana)/(1+ktana)! = 2 rad/s
(a) Total kinetic energy in frame K’ is
1 —- > 1 oe
T= 5m, (H-V P+ 5m (-V)
This is minimum with respect to variation in V, when
so 0, ie. m, (4 -VY +m, (1, -V)=0
ytm,V,
> my +
ve Mut"
or i
m,+m,
Hence, it is the frame of C.M. in which kinetic energy of a system is minimum.
(b) Linear momentum of the particle 1 in the K’ or C frame
= oy I oe
Ble m (~~ AM aw)
ee my my
or, Pi= #(¥,~-¥2), where, p= +m, reduced mass
Similarly, P= w(-%)
So, [Pil= [Pol= B= wy where, v,¢= 1¥7-¥%I (3)
Now the total kinetic energy of the system in the C frame is
eee ee a 2
T-T+h- £-E- a
fol
Hence Te guvme 5H | A-a|78
1.148
1.149
1.150
To find the relationship between the values of the mechanical energy of a system in the
K and C reference frames, let us begin with the kinetic energy T of the system. The
velocity of the i-th particle in the K frame may be represented as ¥;= ¥; + Vo. Now we
can write
T= Sy Emvt= D $m (F400): O47)
ta = yl 2
=D ymBsvey mite yD ome
Since in the C frame J) m;¥;= 0, the previous expression takes the form
Fri mye Fed mv? (Gince according to the problem v¢= V) Q)
Since the internal potential energy U of a system depends only on its configuration,
the magnitude U is the same in all refrence frames. Adding U to the left and right
hand sides of Eq. (1), we obtain the sought relationship
E=E+ im v?
As initially U= 0 = 0, so, E= T
From the solution of 1.147 (b)
Fs ult-H1,
As WL
z1mim
Thus T- Im, +m 01t)
Velocity of masses m, and m,, after f seconds are respectively.
Wy = Weg and Hy = y+ et
Hence the final momentum of the system,
— = os ~
Pe mV, +m,Vz = Mm, V, +m, V2 + (mM, +m) gt
= potmat, (where, po= mV, +m, ¥; and m= m,+m,)
And radius vector, re were hi
(my V+ my vg) t else
(m, +m) ey
|
>, 1a» —» MV, +m, Vv.
= Wore S et, where ee
o739
1.151 After releasing the bar 2 acquires the velocity v,, obtained by the energy, conservation :
1.152
1,153
1 1
m= aKX oF, y= XV = (a)
2
Thus the sought velocity of C.M.
osmzVm Vig
m+m,—~ (m+m,)
Vom =
Let us consider both blocks and spring as the physical system. The centre of mass of the
system moves with acceleration a = as towards right. Let us work in the frame of
1 2
centre of mass. As this frame is a non-inertial frame (accelerated with respect to the
ground) we have to apply a pseudo force m, a towards left on the block m, and m, a
towards left on the block m,
As the center of mass is at rest in this frame,
the blocks move in opposite directions and
come to instantaneous rest at some instant. The Mp a
elongation of the spring will be maximum or
minimum at this instant. Assume that the block lm Losmoon
‘m, is displaced by the distance x, and the block
mz, through a distance x, from the initial
positions.
From the energy equation in the frame of C.M.
AT+U=A,,,
(where Aj, also includes the work done by the pseudo forces)
Here,
AT=0, U=ZkG, +2) and
F-m,F m,F m, F (x, +x,)
We) ee
m, +m, m, +m, m,+m,
1 2m (1 +) F
or, 5 ely +2) am
. 2m,F
0, Hyty = 0 00 2 + 22 = Fos my
2m, F
Hence the maximum separation between the blocks equals : /) + ————~
K(m, +m)
Obviously the minimum sepation corresponds to zero elongation and is equal to Jy
(a) The initial compression in the spring Al must be such that after burning of the thread,
the upper cube rises to a height that produces a tension in the spring that is atleast equal
to the weight of the lower cube. Actually, the spring will first go from its compressed80
1.154
State to its natural length and then get elongated beyond this natural length. Let / be the
maximum elongation produced under these circumstances.
Then
xl = mg ()
Now, from energy conservation,
1 2 di?
Ze A?= mg (Ale D+ 5K! (2)
(Because at maximum elongation of the spring, the speed of upper cube becomes zero)
From (1) and (2),
2
ay? 2mga Smeg 0 oy b= 2, =H
«
Therefore, acceptable solution of Al equals oz
(b) Let v the velocity of upper cube at the position (say, at C ) when the lower block
breaks off the floor, then from energy conservation.
iat 22)
piv? = 5x (Al? = 1?) mg (1+ Al)
(where = mg/x and Al = 78)
2
or, ve 3278 Q)
«
mv+0
At the position C, the velocity of C.M; vo= ">
. 5 ake, the C.M. of the system
(spring+ two cubes) further rises up to A yoy
Now, from energy conservation,
5m) v= Om) g bres
But, uptil position C, the C.M. of the system i
has already elevated by,
(Al+1m+0 4m
Oe eee =
Hence, the net displacement of the CM. of
the system, in upward direction
8 mg
Ayc™ AYa+A¥a= 1
K
Due to ejection of mass from a moving system (which moves due to inertia) in a direction
perpendicular to it, the velocity of moving system does not change. The momentum change
being adjusted by the forces on the rails. Hence in our problem velocities of buggies
change only due to the entrance of the man coming from the other buggy. From the1.155
1.156
1.157
81
Solving (1) and (2), we get
mv My
Me uta and v, = M-m
As Mth vand tty”
=> -mv = My
So, 1" Grom 4 2" Geom
From momentum conservation, for the system “rear buggy with man”
(M+m)ip= mut ig) + Mig (@)
From momentum conservation, for the system (front buggy + man coming from rear buggy)
Mip+m (Ut vp) = (M+m) vp
Mv
= 0 m
So, “e" M+m*M+m
Putting the value of Vz from (1), we get
@+ vg)
et Or
(M+ my
(i) Let v7 be the velocity of the buggy after both man jump off simultaneously. For the
closed system (two men + buggy), from the conservation of linear momentum,
Mij+2m(i+i7)= 0
os i ip ®
(ii) Let 0” be the velocity of buggy with man, when one man jump off the buggy. For
the closed system (buggy with one man + other man) from the conservation of linear
momentum :
O= (M+m)v" +m(uv") (2)
Let v3 be the sought velocity of the buggy when the second man jump off the buggy; then
from conservation of linear momentum of the system (buggy + one man) :
(M+m)v" = Miz +mU+i) @Q)
Solving equations (2) and (3) we get
or, (2M + 3m) a” (4)
“2” (M+ m) (M+ 2m)
From (1) and (4)
%2 m
4 1 *2@tem >!
Hence v,>v,
The descending part of the chain is in free fall, it has speed v= V2 gh at the instant, all
its points have descended a distance y. The length of the chain which lands on the floor
during the differential time interval dt following this instant is vdt.1.158
1.159
For the incoming chain clement on the floor :
From dp, = F,dt (where y-axis is directed down) ' 4
0- (vit) v= F, dt
or Fy= -hv= -2dgy
Hence, the force exerted on the falling chain
equals 2.v* and is directed upward. Therefore
from third law the force exerted by the falling {
chain on the table at the same instant of ae = pee
time becomes 2 v? and is directed downward. v
Since a length of chain of weight (yg) already lies on the table the total force on the
floor is (2Ayg) + (yg) = (3Ayg) or the weight of a length 3y of chain.
Velocity of the ball, with which it hits the slab, v= V2 gh
After first impact, v’ = ev (upward) but according to the problem v= WP so e= a q@)
and momentum, imparted to the slab,
= mv-(- mv’) = mv(1 +e)
Similarly, velocity of the ball after second impact,
via evm ey
And momentum imparted = m(v'.+v’)= m(L+e)ev
Again, momentum imparted during third impact,
= m(1+e)e*v, and so on,
Hence, net momentum, imparted = mv (1 + e) + mve (1 +) + mve” (1 +e) +...
= mv(l+e)(ltete+...)
(1+e)
= ee)
, (from summation of GP)
(1 +=
n
= v2 gh : = m2 gh / (q+ 1)/(n- 1) (Using Eq. 1)
(4)
= 0-2kg m/s. (On substitution)
(a) Since the resistance of water is negligibly small, the resultant of all external forces
acting on the system “a man and a raft” is equal to zero. This means that the position of
the C.M. of the given system does not change in the process of motion.
ie. 7o= constant or, Are= 0 ie. Sm; Arr= 0
or, m (Ane + Ay, +M bie = 0
Thus, m(T" +1)+Mie 0, or, T=- al”
: = m+M
(b) As net external force on “man-raft” system is equal to zero, therefore the momentum
of this system does not change,
So, O= m[” (+H O)]+MA)1159
1.160
1161
1.162
83
(a) Since the resistance of water is negligibly small, the resultant of all external forces
acting on the system “a man and a raft” is equal to aero. This means that the position of
the C.M. of the given system does not change in the process of motion.
ie. 7¢= constant or, Arc= 0 ie. Sy m,Ar= 0
or, a ed + Aig) + M ry, =0
| ie
Thus, m(I"'+1)+MI1= 0, or, 10-7
(b) As net external force on “man-raft” system is equal to zero, therefore the momentum
of this system does not change,
So, O= m[V" (H+ HO ]+M()
or, wy(@)= - mila qa)
As ¥” (0) or ¥5(¥) is along horizontal direction, thus the sought force on the raft
Madi Mm dv")
dt m+M_ dt
Note : we may get the result of part (a), if we integrate Eq. (1) over the time of motion
of man or raft.
In the refrence frame fixed to the pulley axis
the location of C.M. of the given system is
described by the radius vector
ar M Arig + (M =m) Arig my +m Ary
‘= 2M
> a
But Ary = ~ Ara my
and ATE = AFoagm + ATor-m (4-mn) +m
mI”
Thus Arca ou
Note : one may also solve this problem using momentum conservation.
Velocity of cannon as well as that of shell equals V2 gi sina down the inclined plane
taken as the positive x - axis. From the linear impulse momentum theorem in projection
form along x - axis for the system (connon + shell) ic. Ap, = F, At:
pcosa-MV2gisina = Mgsina At (as mass of the shell is neligible)
poosa-MV 2glsina
or, At= =
Mgsino.
From conservation of momentum, for the system (bullet + body) along the initial direction
of bullet
mv
m+M
mvy= (m+M)v, of, v=84
1.163
1.164
When the disc breaks off the body M, its velocity towards right (along x-axis) equals the
velocity of the body M, and let the disc’s velocity’in upward direction (along y-axis) at
that moment be v',
From conservation of momentum, along x-axis for the system (disc + body)
mv
my= (m+M)v, ot vgn Se (@)
And from energy conservation, for the same system in the field of gravity :
re ae ;
zm = s(m+M) vz +> mvs + meh ,
where A’ is the ae of break off point from initial level. So,
Lin mv 1 2» , ‘
zm = Some) - an using (1)
y2 ,
or, vee PH ime 7) -2gh'
Also, if h” is the height of the disc, from the break-off point,
then, vom 2 gh"
2 mv
So, 2g (h" +h')= ve oA
Hence, the total height, raised from the initial level
Me
oN th J Mem)
(a) When the disc slides and comes to a plank, it has a velocity equal to v= V2 gh. Due
to friction between the disc and the plank the disc slows down and after some time the
disc moves in one piece with the plank with velocity v’ (say).
From the momentum conservation for the system (disc + plank) along horizontal towards
right :
my
m+M
Now from the equation of the increment of total mechanical energy of a system :
mv= (m+M)v' or v'
1 a_i
(M+ m)v? mv = Ay,
my?
1 1
or, =(M+m -imv= Ay,
x6 Gna Me z "
so,
Hence,1.165
1.166
85
(b) We look at the problem from a frame in which the hill is moving (together with the
disc on it) to the right with speed u. Then in this frame the speed of the disc when it just
gets onto the plank is, by the law of addition of velocities, ¥ = u +V2gh. Similarly the
common speed of the plank and the disc when they move together is
= m
V = us Vig
vi 1 ze
Then as above A, = yim+M vom a - Mu’
i 2 ums 1 21
= Z(m+M) ferme MU V2Bh + anage 2h} ~ 3 MO 5 m 20 VT ~ mg
We see that A, is independent of u and is in fact just - 4 gh as in (a). Thus the result
obtained does not depend on the choice of reference frame.
Do note however that it will be in correct to apply “conservation of enegy” formula in
the frame in which the hill is moving. The energy carried by the hill is not negligible
in this frame. See also the next problem.
In a frame moving relative to the earth, one has to include the kinetic energy of the earth
as well as carth’s acceleration to be able to apply conservation of energy to the problem.
In a reference frame falling to the earth with velocity v,, the stone is initially going up
with velocity v, and so is the earth. The final velocity of the stone is 0 = v,—gt and
that of the earth is v, + Fret (M is the mass of the earth), from Newton's third law,
where t = time of fall. From conservation of energy
dmg + Sag + mgh = 7M (r0 + i)
1 mi
Hence 3% (» + ii) = mgh
Negecting 7 in comparison with 1, we get
vp = 2gh or v, = V2gh
The point is this in earth’s rest frame the effect of earth’s accleration is of order 7 and
can be neglected but in a frame moving with respect to the earth the effect of earth’s
acceleration must be kept because it is of order one (ie. lange).
From conservation of momentum, for the closed system “both colliding particles”
myvz + mv, = (m, +m)"
ge Mut mah 187227} +24j- 68). 797 ze
3
or, v=
my +m,
Hence [T= V144+16 m/s= 46m/s1.167
1.168
For perfectly inelastic collision, in the C.M. frame, final kinetic energy of the colliding
system (both spheres) becomes zero. Hence initial kinetic energy of the system in C.M.
frame completely tums into the internal energy (Q) of the formed body. Hence
ze |a- ay
2
Now from energy conservation AT™= -Q = -hu r-
In lab frame the same result is obtained as
LL (aie my 1
A 2 sy2
arn 5 mee 5m Lael? +m 15
i
=- ely - 4
(a) Let the initial and final velocities of m, and m, are ui, u, and V,, V2 respectively.
Then from conservation of momentum along horizontal and vertical directions, we get :
mu, = m,v, cos @ 0)
and my, = my, sin® Q tv
Squaring (1) and (2) and then adding them, ub
miy3 = my (ui + vt) ~O> wan nee eee yee.
Now, from kinetic energy conservation, 9
\.
1 1 1 .
Lin ade Lm, vba dim v2 ®)
—
mi
or, m(-v2)= my= m, a +v2) [Using (3)]
2
m: mM:
or, @i1-—]= Bf14+—
m, m,
Y; . m,
- (2) ee @
hed My +
So, fraction of kinetic energy lost by the particle 1,
tt
gman am ve
2 — 21-4
zm ua wy
mm, - Mm; 2m, :
~ 1-24 = [sing (4)] 6)
m,+m, my +m,
(b) When the collision occurs head on,
mu, = my, + mV, ()
and from conservation of kinetic energy,1.169
87
or,
(6)
or,
uy (f+ m7)
Fraction of kinetic energy, lost
2
mn _ 4mm,
=1- =" 1- sing (6)
Z (Bam ae [Using (6)]
(a) When the particles fly apart in opposite direction with equal velocities (say v), then
from conservatin of momentum,
m,u+0= (m,-m)v ()
and from conservation of kinetic energy,
Lads ban Pod?
or, mw = (m,+m,) 7 Q)
From £q. (1) and (2),
Pu?
m
mw = (m+ U7,
aoe Co
or, m,-3m,m,= 0
Hence “tat asm, 00
oo es
(>) When they fly apart symmetrically relative to the initial motion direction with the
angle of divergence @= 60°,
From conservation of momentum, along horizontal and vertical direction,
im, uy = m, v, 608 (8/2) + ma v, 008 (0/2) @
and im, v, sin (0/2) = mv, sin (0/2)
or, mV, = m2 Vv, (2)
Now, from conservation of kinetic energy,
1 az 1
FMM +O= om yt amy @)
From (1) and (2),
mv
amy ty = 05 (8/2) [my » + ma} = 2m, v, cos (8/2)1.170
So, u, = 2-v, cos (0/2) (4)
From (2), (3), and (4)
2%
4m, cos? (8/2) v3 = m, v2 4 727
2 a
or, 4cos?(0/2)= 1+—
m
mM,
or, te cos? 2-1
m, 2
m,
and putting the value of 8, we get, a 2
If (¥4,,%y) are the instantaneous velocity components of the incident ball and
(ve, Vay) are the velocity components of the struck ball at the same moment, then since
there are no external impulsive forces (i.e. other than the mutual interaction of the balls)
‘We have Usina= vy , vy=0
MU COSA. = MV, + M Voy
The impulsive force of mutual interaction satisfies
d F d
gwds a> ay ad)
(F is along the x axis as the balls are smooth. Thus Y component of momentum is not
transferred.) Since loss of KLE. is stored as deformation energy D, we have
1. 1g Ln
D zm pm 5mv,
1
= me cos’ — smvyy ~ sv,
: x miaPeosta- mv? — (mucosa mv,,)? |
-= [ 2mucosar,,~ 2m'v2 ] = m(vigoose~ v,.")
2
_ Weos’a _ ( ucosa :
4 Pe
‘We see that D is maximum when
u
Sn Ma
Zoos
mu’cos’a.
and Des 4 4
>
Then = = deosta = b u
1p 2 4
ym
On substiuting a= 45° x1.171 From the conservation of linear momentum of the shell just before and after its fragmentation
1.172
Were ee @)
where ¥;, ¥5 and ¥3 are the velocities of its fragments.
From the energy conservation 3nv?=v3 +3403 Q
Now Vor Vie = Vi Ve =v @
where 72= "= velocity of the CM. of the fragments the velocity of the shell. Obviously
in the C.M. frame the linear momentum of a system is equal to zero, so
oe Seo
Vy+v,+¥3=0 4)
Using (3) and (4) in (2), we get
By = VET) + OEP FOL V- VE)? = v4 272 4 292 4 207
or, 252 + 25, F, cosO + 273+3(1-n) =0 ()
If we have had used ¥)=-¥; ~ Vy, then Eq. 5 were contain 4, instead of ¥, and so on.
The problem being symmetrical we can look for the maximum of any one. Obviously it
will be the same for each.
For 9,10 be real in Eq. (5)
453 cos’ = 8(273 + 3 (1 - 1) v7) or 6(n - 1) & (4 - cos”0)F3
So, Bev YEO? ot Fay V2-0 v
Hence 2 (au) |V%* Vala, =¥+V2 (0-1) vev(teV2q@-0 =1km/s
Thus owing to the symmetry
Y yguax) ¥2 as)" Yanan) 7 ¥ (1 +¥2(n = 1)) = 1 km/s
Since, the collision is head on, the particle 1 will continue moving along the same line
as before the collision, but there will be a change in the magnitude of it’s velocity vector.
Let it starts moving with velocity v, and particle 2 with v, after collision, then from the
conservation of momentum
mu = mv, + mv, Of, Us Vv, +V2 ()
And from the condition, given,
1 2 av? +} mv
zyme dee vie
qe 2+. 1-+2
Smut uw
or, vievi= (L-n) i? Q)
From (1) and (2),
vi+ uv? = -n)
or, Vaew-2uv, += (L-n)u?90
1.173
1.174
or, wi-wutnu= 0
aa
So, ve Que eS
= 3 [e2ViP-an? l- dua *vI-%m)
Positive sign gives the velocity of the 2nd particle which lies ahead. The negative sign is
correct for vy.
So, ¥, = ju (1-VI=2y ) = 5 m/s will continue moving in the same direction.
Note that v,= 0 if n= 0 as it must.
Since, no external impulsive force is effective on the system “M + m’”, its total momentum
along any direction will remain conserved.
So from p, = const.
u
mu = Mv, cos ®@ or, “ed Q)
and from p, = const
v= My,sinO ot, v= My, sinO= wtan0, [using (1)]
Final kinetic energy of the system
7,= Lmisiod
And initial kinetic energy of the system= zoe
T, -T;
% change = Te 100
So,
2 Mee
dm tan? 0 += sue, =F mu
M? cos*@ 2
. x 100
7 2
2” u
ae 2 im ao
2 tan?044 at see 0 ju i “a
13
2"
- S
. oa +7 sec" 0 — 1) x 100
and putting the values of @ and a , we get % of change in kinetic energy= - 40 %
(a) Let the particles m, and m, move with velocities vy and V3 respectively. On the basis
P 1 2 1 Tesp y.
of solution of problem 1.147 (b)
Bourg oo | H-¥|1175
1.176
91
As WLI,
m
So, Bo uVied where y= L™
mm, +m,
(©) Again from 1.147 (b)
ae Lye xo 2
P= Swe Sut]
So, F-Sucieyd
From conservation of momentum
P=P +P
> met? , Ui '
so (-Pr') = Pi-20, py’ e090, + py? = py?
From conservation of energy
a : py? . Py?
Im, ~ Im, * Im,
Eliminating p,' we get
ry mz ' q my
O= py (+ = ~ 2p;' p,cos0, + py (\- |
This quadratic equation for p,' has a real solution in terms of p, and cos 0, only if
2
mi
tenn -F
my
i
SOY.
2
mi
or sin? 0, <>
my oo
8 7
. my ‘ my
or sin®, Vy
As the difference in height of the water column is Af, therefore
P2 ~P, = pgAh 2)
From Bemoull’s theorem between points 1 and 2 of a streamline
13 iL
Pitz PM = Prt x PM
1
or, Pr- Pi =z PM -¥%)
or pgbh= 5 e(% - ¥%3) 3) (using Eq. 2)
using (1) in (3), we get |
2gAh : :
vy = Sy 3
a-s
Hence the sought volume of water flowing per see
i 2
Q=y,S, = 5,8,1317
1.318
1.319
157
Applying Bemoulli’s theorem for the point A and B,
lio _ A
Pam Pat xP as, vy= 0 :
iG —=_8
or, ZPY = Pa-Pa= Ah pos
2h
So, ve P08 Ah
Thus, rate of flow of gas, Q= Sv= S
P
The gas flows over the tube past it at B. But at A the gas becomes stationary as the gas
will move into the tube which already contains gas.
In applying Bernoulli’s theorem we should remember that 2 : + ; v? + gz is constant along
a streamline. In the present case, we are really applying Bernoulli's theorem somewhat
indirectly. The streamline at A is not the streamline at B. Nevertheless the result is correct.
To be convinced of this, we need only apply Bernoull’s theorem to the streamline that
goes through A by comparing the situation at A with that above B on the same level. In
steady conditions, this agrees with the result derived because there cannot be a transverse
pressure differential.
Since, the density of water is greater than that of kerosene oil, it will collect at the bottom.
Now, pressure due to water level equals /, p,g and pressure due to kerosene oil level
equals fy pg. So, net pressure becomes h, p; g + hz P28.
From Bernoulli’s theorem, this pressure energy
will be converted into kinetic energy while
flowing through the whole A.
ie a
ie Meygth pg se
Hencev= ‘Vf 2 2{neme tle = sms
Let, H be the total height of water column and the hole is made at a height / from the
bottom.
Then from Bernoulli’s theorem
1
zev= Hh) pg
or, v= V(H-h) 2g, which is diregted horizontally.
For the horizontal range, /= v
= VigGi-h)- = 2VHh- 1)158
1.320
1.321
2)
Now, for maximum 4, 24-1) _ 9
which yields he= a. 25 em.
Let the velocity of thie water jet, near the orifice be v’, then applying Bernoullis theorem,
ic: 1
Zev = hypetspv
or, ve Vi? = 2g hy a
Here the pressure term on both sides is the same and equal to atmospheric pressure. (In
the problem book Fig. should be more clear.)
Now, if it rises upto a height A, then at this height, whole of its kinetic-energy will be
converted into potential energy. So,
y2
a eva
ze pgh or h 2
¥ 5
= ag ho = 20cm, [using Eq. (1)]
Water flows through the small clearance into the orifice. Let d be the clearance. Then
from the equation of continuity
(2m Rd) v, = (2urd)v= (2nd) vy
or vy Ry= vr= vy Ry (1)
where v, , vz and v are respectively the inward
radial velocities of the fluid at 1, 2 and 3.
Now by Bemoulli’s theorem just before 2 and
just after it in the clearance
1
Pot hpg= prt 5 Pry @
Applying the same theorem at 3 and 1 we find
that this also equals
2 az
P+ 5 P= Pot Py e)
(since the pressure in the orifice is py )
From Eqs. (2) and (3) we also hence
V 2gh @
2
-()
2
=
y°
and 7 8
P~ Pot 5%
1
= Po + hog (. 6) [Using (1) and (4)]
7159
ARR Let the force acting on the piston be F and the length of the cylinder be 1.
‘Then, work done = Fl Q)
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem for points
A and B,p= Sev where p is the density
and v is the velocity at point B. Now, force
on the piston,
F= pA= $e vA 2
where A is the cross section area of piston.
Also, discharge through the orifice during time
interval t = Svt and this is equal to the volume
of the cylinder, ie.,
Vv
Va Su or ves @G)
From Eq. (1), (2) and (3) work done
we
(se?
1.323 Let at any moment of time, water level in the vessel be H then speed of’ flow of water
through the orifice, at that moment will be
v= Vigh @)
In the time interval df, the volume of water ejected through orifice,
dV= svdt (2)
On the other hand, the volume of water in the vessel at time t equals
V=SH
Differentiating (3) with respect to time,
Hott @
oe or dV= SdH
= dov%armt patGre Levys? (as Al= V)
Eqs. (2) and (4)
SdH= svdt or a= 8 bil
V2gH’
from (2)
t o
. Ss dh
— J = aS vi
o h
Thus, t= Sy [2
2 6
1.324 In a rotating frame (with constant angular velocity) the Eulerian equation is
s
-Vp + pa+ 2p" x D+ purrs pe
In the frame of rotating tube the liquid in the "column* is practically static because the
orifice is sufficiently small. Thus the Eulerian Eq. in projection form along 7” (which is160
1.325
1.326
the position vector of an arbitrary liquid element of lenth dr relative to the rotation axis)
reduces to
=4p
2)
ar +por=0
or, dp = pa rdr
? r
so, i dp = pu” Si rdr
Po @-)
2
Thus PO =Pot a [- «-n)] Q)
Hence the pressure at the end B just before the orifice i.e.
2
PW = py + 25 Qik - HY @
‘Then applying Bernoull’s theorem at the orifice for the points just inside and outside of
the end B
Pot Spat (2Ih-B) = py + Sov? ( where v is the sought velocity)
So, v= oh
wos st ‘
‘The Euler's equation is p= f-Vp~ - Vp + pg), where zis vertically upwards.
a Ww to
Now (RT) FF a)
But @V)o v5 ) _ 9% Curl 2)
we consider the steady (je. 877at = 0) flow of an incompressible fluid then p = constant.
cand as the motion is irrotational Curl = 0
a
So from (1) and (2) 0¥(5"]- Ferre
or, F[p+pors oe) =o
Hence p+ pv +pgz = constant.
Let the velocity of water, flowing through Abe v, and that through Bbe vg, then discharging
rate through A= Q,= Sv, and similarly through B= S vy.
Now, force of reaction at A,
Fy= pQara= PSH1.327
1.328
161
Hence, the net force,
F=pSVi-v) a FthF, — ()
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem to the liquid
flowing out of A we get
1
Po + PRL = Py + 5 PMA
and similarly at B
1
Po + PE (hi+ Ah) = py + > PVG
Hence (3 = v2) 7 = Ahpg
Thus F = 2pgSAh = 0-50N
Consider an element of height dy at a distance y from the top. The velocity of the fluid
coming out of the element is
v= V2 gy
The force of reaction dF due to this is dF = pdAv’, as in the previous problem,
= p(bdy)2 gy i
Integrating F= pgb f 2ydy
hed
= pgb[i? -(h- 1? = pgbl (2h-)
(The slit runs from a depth h-/ to a depth h from the top.)
Let the velocity of water flowing through the tube at a certain instant of time be u, then
ue 2, where Q is the rate of flow of water and 2 7” is the cross section area of the tube.
nu
From impulse momentum theorem, for the stream of water striking the tube comer, in
x-direction in the time interval dt, |
F,dt= -pQudt or F,=-pQu
and similarly, F,= p Qu
Therefore, the force exerted on the water stream.
by the tube,
2. > >
F=-pQuit+pQuj
According to third law, the reaction forcg on
the tube’s wall by the stream equals (- F)
= pQui-pQuj.
Hence, the sought moment of force about 0
becomes
AY
in
= > > > 2
Ne 1(-i)x(p Quiz pQuj)= pQuik= oe ik
x
2
and WW 22. 070 Nm
xr162
1.329 Suppose the radius at A is R and it decreases uniformaly to r at B where S = mR? and
5 = 72”. Assume also that the semi vectical angle at 0 is c. Then
oy
ees
R-r
1-1,
where y is the radius at the point P distant x from the vertex O. Suppose the velocity with
which the liquid flows out is V at A, v at B and u at P. Then by the equation of continuity
RRV = xy = yu
The velocity v of efflux is given by
v= V2gh
and Bernoulli’s theorem gives
So yers
@ - Ly
12 1
Pp +z ow = pot > pv
where p, is the pressure at P and py is the
atmospheric pressure which is the pressure just
outside of B. The force on the nozzle tending
to pull it out is then
F -f (,-Po) sin® 2nyds
‘We have subtracted py which is the force due to atmosphenic pressure the factor sin 8
gives horizontal component of the force and ds is the length of the clement of nozzle
surface, ds = dx sec @ and
x oh
R-r
oes eet;
Thus
L,
13 R-r
F fie Ww) p 2ny L-1,“
L,
R
rf
= mp eft S) rw
:
wre g [P-F +5 3
22
- oat (ME)
= pgh (S-s)°/S = 602N on putting the values.
Note : If we try to calculate F from the momentum change of the liquid flowing out w:
will be wrong even as regards the sign of the force.
There is of course the effect of pressure at S and s but quantitative derivation of F fron
Newton’s law is difficult.163
1.330 The Euler’s equation is of. F-Tp in the space fixed frame where f= -pgk
downward. We assume incompressible fluid so p is constant.
Then f= - V(pgz) where z is the height vertically upwards from some fixed origin. We
go to rotating frame where the equation becomes
a
ar
the additional terms on the right are the well known coriolis and centrifugal forces. In the
frame rotating with the liquid 9” = 0 so
= - Vp + pgz)+ parr 2p 0" xB)
¥[p+082-5 00%) 0
or p+pgz-sporr= constant
On the free surface p = constant, thus
ze pe ? + constant
If we choose the origin at point r = 0 (i.e. the axis) of the free surface then “cosntant” = 0 and
ze ee (The paraboloid of revolution)
At the bottom z= constant
So p= $ pw’? + constant
If p= py on the axis at the bottom, then
P= Pot de a?
1.331 When the disc rotates the fuild in contact with, corotates but the fluid in contact with the
walls of the cavity does not rotate. A velocity gradient is then set up leading to viscous forces.
At a distance r from the axis the linear velocity is wr so there is a velocity gradient
or
h
radial width is dr is
both in the upper and lower clearance. The corresponding force on the element whose
n2nrdr 2 (Grom the formular F= 1A 2 )
The torque due to this force is
1 2nrdr = r
and the net torque considering both the upper and lower clearance is
R
2 J naw? ar?
= aRion/h
So power developed is
P= nR‘w'n/h= 9-05 W (on putting the values).
(As instructed end effects i.e. rotation of fluid in the clearance r > R has been neglected.)164
1,332 Let us consider a coaxial cylinder of radius r and thickness dr, then force of friction or
1.333
viscous force on this elemental layer, F= 2nr in &.
This force must be constant from layer to layer so that steady motion may be possible.
or, —= 2ninav.
Integrating,
dr
rf f= 2m fa
% 0
r
or, Fis(y)- 2nInv
Putting r= R,, we get
R,
Finge= 2x1%
From (2) by (3) we get,
Inr/R,
Y= Yo in R,/Rp
Note : The force F is supplied by the agency which tries to carry the inner cylinder with
velocity vg .
(a) Let us consider an elemental cylinder of radius rand thickness dr then from Newton’s
formula
do do
Fe 2nrlyrdo= 2xlyP ae
and moment of this force acting on the element,
No 2nP in re 207 In
or, 2alndo= NS 2
As in the previous problem N is constant when
conditions are steady
a
Integrating, 2xIn feo =N a
oO Rx
or, e)
Putting r= Ry, @= @,, We get
Nfl 1
2alyno.= >| a-a @)
21R, OR165
From (3) and (4),
oo Sa
2 RoR?) Re >
(b) From Eq. (4), :
2
1X
eee
1.334 (a) Let dV be the volume flowing per second through the cylindrical shell of thickness
dr then,
2 é
a= erat) zavo(r- Far
and the total volume,
R
2
v= me (-Be- 2a i= ER vy
(b) Let, dE be the kinetic energy, within the above cylindrical shell. Then
de 5 (am) $Qnrldrp) v
. 3 r
= poxtprani(i-F- a pvolp Bar ga
Hence, total energy of the fluid,
R
3 5 aR ply,
T= nionif (Bae) Beer
0
(©) Here frictional force is the shearing force on the tube, exerted by the fluid, which
dv
equals - nT.
Given, ve (ta
dv r
So, oa
ad 2%
And at raR, Ge -R166
1.335
1.336
1.337
Then, viscous force is given by, F = - 1 (2a) (a)
r= R
2y
- -2neni(-F)- A4xnvl
(d@) Taking a cylindrical shell of thickness dr and radius r viscous force,
av
Fe -n (nr),
Let Ap be the pressure difference, then net force on the element = Apxr’+2xn re
But, since the flow is steady, F,.,= 0
r
-2amrh ~antnr(-™79|
Ir 2
or, ee = 4yv9U/R
rr a af
The loss of pressure head in travelling a distance / is seen from the middle section to be
hy - hy= 10 cm, Since hy - hy = hy in our problem and h,-h,=15cm=5+h,- hy,
we see that a pressure head of 5 cm remains incompensated and must be converted into
kinetic energy, the liquid flowing out. Thus
oe pg Ah where Ah= h;- h,
Thus v= ¥ 2gdh «1 m/s
We know that, Reynold’s number (R,) is defined as, R, = pvl/n, where v is the velocity
is the characteristic length and 1 the coefficient of viscosity. In the case of circular cross
section the chracteristic length is the diameter of cross-section d, and v is taken as average
velocity of flow of liquid.
pd, yy
mn
Now, R, (Reynold’s number at x, from the pipe end) = where v, is the velocity
q
at distance x
_ PaMe Ry dy
and similarh R, o == ——
ae a OR by
From equation of continuity, Ay v= Ay ¥
or, wrivy= RAV, or dyyyr= dyV2r2
ayy men
dy,” 1” meh
= et (as x) -x,= Ax)
Thus
We know that Reynold’s number for turbulent flow is greater than that on laminar flow:
pvd 2% 2 Po Vato
1 ™ n
Now, (R= and (R,=1.338
1.339
167
But, (R,), = (R.);
vy.
so v2, = Putas Ma = 5m/s on putting the values.
= P2r2T
d
We have R= ~°2
and_v is given by
4
6nnrv= F70-pds
(p = density of lead, py = density of glycerine.)
2
1
ve gy P- Pde = Tey P- Pose
11 3
Thus 5" Feat O08 0d
and = d= [9"/po(p - py) gg] = 5-2mm on putting the values.
dv
mo = mg-6 xv
de
dy 6xnr
or Goa ye g
av 6xnr
or G+ kvm gy ken SAE
dv ie ie don i
or et +ket ve ge™ or Tet vm ge
or vet= Bete or v= £ace™ (where C is const.)
Since v= 0 for t= 0, 0= Bic
oof
So cn -#
Thus ve fa-e*)
The steady state velocity is 7
v differs from 7 by where e"*= n
or t= din n
4x
sige en
6nnr 18H 18H
We have neglected buoyancy in olive oil.
Thus168
1.8 RELATIVISTIC MECHANICS
1.340 From the formula for length contraction
v
(.-.vi-e : nb
2
So, 1-4= (1-1) or v= cvn@=a)
¢
1.341 (a) In the frame in which the triangle is at rest the space coordinates of the vertices are
(000), (Foe, fe oB,
frame the corresponding coordinates at time 1’ are
As(of,0,0).8:( $95 VIF tu 39) and e:(ge vi 4 w-$.0)
The perimeter P is then
1”
Pe a+a(Fa-p+ 3) 7 a(t+V4-36" )
(b) The coordinates in the first frame are shown at time ¢. The coordinates in the moving
frame are,
-$.0} all measured at the same time ¢. In the moving
B 8
(0,0,0) C (@,0,0)
A: (f,00,B:(5V4 ~ Pew’, oF .0} c:(aVi-# +w’, 0,0)
The perimeter P is then
P= aVi-p +Sfi- pea] x 2 a(Vi-B? +V4—pF) bere B= ©
1.342 In the rest frame, the coordinates of the ends of the rod in terms of proper length /,
A: (0,0,0) B : (Iy €08Qp , fy Sin, , 0)
at time ¢. In the laboratory frame the coordinates at time #’ are
A: (vf',0,0),B: (« cos0, V1 - B? +t’, Iysin®y, 0)1.343
1.344
1.345
169
Therefore we can write,
108 y= Ip cos8y V1 -B? and [sin @= Jy sin,
2 2) sin? @ B
Hence = (es er: ) sin’
1- in” 0
: . BF A :
In the frame K in which the cone is at rest the coordinates of A are (0,0,0) and of B are
(A, A tan @, 0). In the frame K’, which is moving with velocity v along the axis of the cone,
the coordinates of A and B at time f’ are
Az(-v, 0,0), B: (V1 aoe w, htan 6, 0)
Thus the taper angle in the frame K’ is
tan 0 Yn-V's
1-8 2's =A
and the lateral surface area is,
S= mh” sec6' tan’
= xi (1p) V1 BES. svi pcos?
e 1-6
Here Sy = xh’ sec® tan6 is the lateral surface area in the rest frame and
‘0
k= hV1-B', B= v/c.
Because of time dilation, a moving clock reads less time. We write,
t-At= ¢V1-B?, B= =
2
Thus, ae a) ee
tan 6’ =
t t
In the frame K the length / of the rod is related to the time of flight Ar by
Tm var
In the reference frame fixed to the rod (frame X’)the proper length J, of the rod is
given by
b= val
But oe
> B=
als
i]170
1.346
1.347
1.348
1,349
Thus, ar = 4
2
So 1-p'= (i) or vec (ey
and y= c V(r - (Air = car 1 - (a)
The distance travelled in the laboratory frame of reference is vA t where v is the velocity
of the particle. But by time dilation
As
2 So v= cV1-(Aty/An?
1-7!
Thus the distance traversed is
cbt V1 — (Aip/At
(@) If % is the proper life time of the muon the life time in the moving frame is
At=
2
and hence |=
Thus m= iM
(The words "from the muon’s stand point” are not part of any standard terminology)
In the frame K in which the particles are at rest, their positions are A and B whose
coordinates may be taken as,
A: (0,0,0), B= (Ip ,0,0)
In the frame K’ with respect to which K is moving with a velocity v the coordinates of
A and B at time ¢ in the moving frame are
A= (',0,0)B = (1oVi-B + w, 00) p-2 ©
Suppose B hits a stationary target in K’ after
time t’, while A hits it after time t, + At. Then,
[V1 -B? +00 y= v (ig + As)
vAt
ve
So,
In the reference frame fixed to the ruler the rod is moving with a velocity v and suffers
Lorentz contraction. If {y is the proper length of the rod, its measured length will be
Ax, = V1-6", Baz1.350
1.351
1.352
171
In the reference frame fixed to the rod the ruler suffers Lorentz contraction and we must
have
Ax, V1-B? = fy thus [= VAx, Ax,
Ax a,
and 1-p= 5 of ve cY1-—
Po Be
The coordinates of the ends of the rods in the frame fixed to the left rod are shown.
The points B and D coincides when
fin
I= Cy-Vfy OF fo=
The points A and E coincide when
C+ V1-B"
Om c+ Vi- poy, = STRIP Vea:
l
Thus Arm iy-f = 3 (1+Vi- FF )
(0,0,0) (ly 100) (C1-vt,02)
2 2
cr (a 7 =1-P=1-5 (Cr tlo V-B?-Vt,00)
0 c
oe 2c? At/Iy 2p/ At
ee "Te AP/E” T+ (h/e My
In Kg the rest frame of the particles, the events corresponding to the decay of the particles
are,
A:(0,0,0,0) and (0, 0,0)= B
In the reference frame K, the corresponding coordintes are by Lorentz, transformation
vlp ly
2vi-g 1
Now V1-p? =1
by Lorentz Fitzgerald contraction formula. Thus the time lag of the decay time of B is
vly vt vl
evi-gp ©a-B) e-¥
B decays later (B is the forward particle in the direction of motion)
A: (0,0,0,0), B:
0,0
At=
(a) In the reference frame K with respect to which the rod is moving with velocity v, the
coordinates of A and B are
A:hx,t+v(t-t),0,0
B:t,x,+v(t-t,),0,0172
1.353
1.384 By Lorentz transformation f’ = => -3)
7
y
Thus I= x4-xg-v(t,- ty) = V1 - 6
Xq-X_y-V (ty
So
() # h-vy-t) = l=hV1-V7e
(Since x4 xp can be either +l) or — ly)
Thus v(t, -t,)= (« 1 Vi-v7ey)I,
ie. noe BW 2)
|
na (le Vi- v7? )
or
At the instant the picture is taken the coordintes of A, B,A’, B’ in the rest frame of AB
are
A: (0,0, 0,0) Al B’
B: (0, ly, 0, 0) ——>> >
B': (0,0,0,0) =—————p,
A 8
A’: Q,-[V1 ~v7e ,0,0)
In this frame the coordinates of B’ at other times are B’ : (t, vt, 0,0). So B’ is opposite to
k
B at time ¢(B) = + In the frame in which B’, A’ is at rest the time corresponding this
is by Lorentz tranformation.
ce 3)- bv; 1-V fh
v
v
1-4
e
Similarly in the rest frame of A, B, te coordinates of A at other times are
mee V 1-5 +09
ne : s. 1 _
A’ is opposite tu A at time ¢ (A) = o 1-5
c
The corresponding time in the frame in which A’, B’ are at rest is
ty
HA)= eA) >
2
i
21355
1.356
173
a 1
So at time t=0, re Ft
evi ve
Ifx>01' <0, if x <0, t’>0 and we get the diagram given below "in terms of the K-clock".
kK FOOOOSO
k DOOOOODD
The situation in terms of the K’ clock is reversed.
Suppose x (t) is the locus of points in the frame K at which the readings of the clocks of
both reference system are permanently identical, then by Lorentz transformation
[ol (-“52)-«
1-V77e 2
2 2
So differentiating x (0) = é(-vi-e |. g(i-Vi-B), B= ¢
e
Let B= tanhO, 0s O<%, Then
c Vicunhie )= ¢£ost8 (,;__ 1
= Gag (1-Vi-tan?0 ) anne (! wai]
cahOn1, (ROT uy,
© sinh cos hO+1 2
(tan h@ is a monotonically increasing function of @)
‘We can take the coordinates of the two events to be
A:(0,0,0,0) B: (At, a, 0,0)
For B to be the effect and A to be cause we must have At> lat
In the moving frame the coordinates of A and B become
A:(0,0,0,0),B: [*(«-} ve-VaH,0,0] where y=
¢
2
2 a) 1) ale 2
[| [«-3) a vas") (ap ->0
we must have Af’ > el174
1.357 (a) The four-dimensional interval between A and B (assuming Ay = Az~= 0) is :
5-3? = 16 units
Therefore the time interval between these two events in the reference frame in which the
events occurred at the same place is
c('g-t,)= VI6 = 4m ct
t= 4. $x10°%s
(b) The four dimensional interval between
A and C is (assuming Ay= Az= 0)
PS? = -16
So the distance between the two events in the frame
in which they are simultaneous is 4 units = 4m.
1.358 By the velocity addition formula
vv vy V1 -V7/c7
Men a 9
c Pd
and
RU
-vy +e -V7/c7
ve Wav = wy, vy sul ce)
7 se
e
1.359 (a) By definition the velocity of apporach is
dx, dx,
Veggeach " Ge — gp = UT Cw= ut
in the reference frame K .
(b) The relative velocity is obtained by the transformation law
wry) yt
v=
ey v4.
1] 1 ( ) 1+ 13
¢
1.360 The velocity of one of the rods in the reference frame fixed to the other rod is
ye vty. 2
in the laboratory frame. So
Vapproach * Vi + V21.362
1.364
175
On the other hand, the relative velocity can be obtained by using the velocity addition
formula and has the components
VY.
so V,= Vita 3-2
1
[-1. Wee x
The components of the velocity of the unstable particle in the frame K are
(ove
1
so the velocity relative to K is % ¥
12y2
2_vleV
Vav?-t
The life time in this frame dilates to
a
wl soa "
and the distance traversed is
7 W407 - 0? W)/ 2
Vi Ve? Vi -v?/
In the frame K’ the components of the velocity of the particle are
, vcos 0-V
ves
* Pa) ® ®
¢
vsin 0V1 - V/c?
on vv
1-— cos 8 .
e v
»_ Vy _ _vsin @ 5
Hence, tan @’ = = 88° _Viqy yc’ (
In K’ the coordinates of A and B are
A:(¢,0,-v't', 0); B:(¢,1,-v' 1,0)
After performing Lorentz transformation to the frame K we get
A:teyf ata y(eeG|
¢
ree y\re (40)
a
z=0 z=0
: vi :
By translating ¢’ —> 1’ - —y, we can write
e
the coordinates of B as B:t= yt’176
vu
eens
1.365
In K the velocities at time ¢ and 1+ df are respectively v and v + wdt along x - axis which
is parallel to the vector V. In the frame K’ moving with velocity V with respect to K, the
velocities are respectively,
v-V vewdt-V
vy and Vv
oon 1-(v+wdt)
2 2
The latter velocity is written as
v-V [ wdt .
Vv Vv
l-vz 1-v5
e e
Also by Lorentz transformation
1 w/c?
ate HZ Var?
V1-V/e? Vi-W/e?
Thus the acceleration in the K’ frame is
(b) In the K frame the velocities of the particle at the time ¢ and 1+ di are repectively
(0, v, 0) and (0, v + wat, 0)
where V is along x-axis. In the K’ frame the velocities are
(-Y%» 1-V 7/2 ,0)
(- V, (w+ wd) V1 - V7/e7 , 0) respectively
and1.366
1368
177
Thus the acceleration
wat Va - Vc?) v
EES
w 3] along the y-axis.
dt
v1-V¥/e
In the instantaneous rest frame v= V and
w= —*__, (from 1.365)
(-E
We have used df’ =
So,
w’ is constant by assumption. Thus integration gives
wt
2 7
¢ wi
Integrating once again x= ( 1+ ( © ) - 5
The boost time ty in the reference frame fixed to the rocket is related to the time t elapsed
on the earth by
Wwe
-f tes fyte-se
Vis (2 vay Vive ©
mo
! Jg\2
wry uF]
c c
]
V1 -B'
For 12.
” my“ VEG=B) VEq
We define the density p in the frame K in such a way that p de dy dz is the rest mass
dm, of the element. That is p dx dy dz= py dty dyy dz) , where Pp is the proper density
dxy, dy), dz, are the dimensions of the element in the rest frame Ky Now
y= dyy, dem deg, dem dey _¥
¢178
1.370
1371
1.372
if the frame K is moving with velocity, v relative to the frame Ko. Thus
Defining y by p= po(1+n)
1 v 1 (2
We get 1+n= a= o, Fa 1- z- 2@+n)
(+n (+n)
. i. -Vie+n, eVn(2+n)
(l+my ot +m
We have
Mv m 2
— ar or, ‘0 = Vind &
V2 ?
-4 1
22 2
or [ee
oO mc+p pt+me
or a :
VP eme ‘my c\2
a (eee)
P
-V2
mM Py ce
So f%. 1-(1-(%4 xs00% » 3("2*) x 100 %
¢ P 2\P
By definition of y,
mv ved
=ynmv or 1-3" >
0 2 wv
evi
The work done is equal to change in kinetic energy which is different in the two cases
Classically ie. in nonrelativistic mechanics, the change in kinetic energy is
1 Daal mert\. 2 208s 0: 2
zMc (os) (0-6) ) 3g ¢7 0:28 = 0-14 mc
Relativistically it is, .
Img moc? myc? mac?
2 = mg c? (1-666 - 1-250)
V1-(08). “Vi-6y (06) "06 ~ 08
= 0°416 myc? = 0-42 myc?1.374
1.375
1376
178
mod
o 1-5=H
oe 4
7 ee
Cc. 2s 2
Relativistically
So
2r ry? 2r (is “)
4
Thus By | 5-335 5 myc
mo mac my c
Hence if
the velocity B is given by the classical formula with an error less than &.
From the formula
2
a -_—e
E »P Vieve =F
vig
ee
2
we find EB? cp +mict or (myc?+T) = cp +mact
or TQme+Te= 2p? ic. p= EVT(Qm2+T)
c
Let the total force exerted by the beam on the target surface be F and the power liberated
there be P. Then, using the result of the previous problem we sce
F=Np= AVF (r+ 2m e - Z VI (T+ 2m, c’)
since = Ne, N being the number of particles striking the target per second. Also,
These will be, respectively, equal to the pressure and power developed per unit area of
the target if J is current density.180
1.377 In the frame fixed to the Sphere :- The momentum transfe1
particle is Tred to the eastically scatterred
Vt
The density of the moving element is, from 1.369, n
2
io
2
and the momentum — per : time per unit area is
In the frame fixed to the = z= When the a hits a stationary particle, the latter recoils
with a velocity
p= the pressure =
vev | 2v
v
1+ 1+
ane
m2v
The momentum transferred is e my
y’
7
zs
2m
and the pressure is I oneve
v
1- i-
2 2
1.378 The equation of motion is
a(t
a F
eS
c
Integrating = = BF, sing v= 0 for t= 0
ong = "Vig mas
DM Fet
es Ee ee
Fe (mor ” Vtg c)? + Ft?
VF P+ mic + constant
Fet dt
Sra £ f mis
Fr emc FIVE s(mcy F
| (=) my 7
[Moca Mocs
or using x= 0 at t= 0, we get, x= Vcr F $161
1380 F. 4
a
Thus
z w
Fm oq gaye Wa AY
1.381 By definition,
E=m
¢
where ds? = c? di? - dx” is the invariant interval (dy = dz= 0)
dy (dx - Ve) _ Py - VE/
Thus, pl,= cm, = cmyy
a ae
# ong\
E= my Fo - Og —z— =
1.382 For a photon moving in the x direction
£= CP, Py= Pz= 0,
e)_ vf/l-ve
8 -Vilne 1+V/c
1
fee
as pp Oo oe ga oe
In the moving frame, e' =
Note that v=
Nie
1.383 As before
3dt da
Ex moo 5, pen moc F-182
Similarly Py me, Pe* Mc g
Then Bi clph= Bbc? (pi +p +2)
mi ct (Cd? = de — dy? ~ de?) 2
= mic’ is invariant
1.384 (b) & (a) In the CM frame, the total momentum is zero, Thus
(eee - YEG + 2m 2) fe
ce” Ey+E) T+2myc?
where we have used the result of probiem (1.375)
Then
1 1 4 [T+2me
vi-Vie f .
1
T 2my¢'
T+2myc?
- Total energy in the CM frame is
T+ im :
= 2m eV = V 2m (T+ 2m, ce) = T+ 2m
c
4/ T
Si T= 2 i
0 2m c a
0
Also 2Vc2p 4 mic! = V2myc(F+ 2m, c*) , 4c2p= 2mycT, oF B= V 5m oT
1385 2. VF-op
V (Qing c+ TY? — T (21mg c+ T) = V2img c (2g c+ T) = cV 2g (2my c+ T)
2
Also cp= VI(T +2mc) , v= oe. c Tim
1.386 Let 7’ = kinetic energy of a proton striking another stationary particle of the same rest
mass. Then, combined kinetic energy in the CM frame
2
~ me | sa)ean Zea) eae .
( mye
mg ¢ 2m, c?
T! _,TQmc?+T) : 27 (T+ 2m, c?)
Omen nec es ne)183
1.387 We have
E,+E,+E3™ myc’, py +p,+p;~ 0
- 2
Hence (myc? -E,P- 7p? = E+E) - (+75 ) 2
The LHS. = (mic! -E,)°- 2 pt= (me + m2) ct - 2myc7 Ey
The RH.S. is an invariant. We can evaluate it in any frame, Choose the CM frame of the
particles 2 and 3.
In this frame RH.S. = (E’, + E’3)"= (m4 m,°c*
Thus —(m}+ m2) c* — 2m, cE, = (m,+m,)*c*
ee
of mp c®Ey = {G+ m2 —(m,+myi] ct, or Ey < MPM Oats)
2m
1.388 The velocity of ejected gases is u realtive to the rocket. In an earth centred frame it is
veu
rail
i
ce
in the direction of the rocket. The momentum conservation equation then reads
Here - dm is the mass of the ejected gases. so
uv?
te 2
mdy - ———— dm = 0, or mivu(t— 23) 0
1 e
2
w Hae
(neglecting 1-—> since u is non- relativistic.)
¢
u
+ qinm = constant
ThusPART TWO
THERMODYNAMICS AND MOLECULAR PHYSICS
2.1 EQUATION OF THE GAS STATE * PROCESSES
21
2.2
Let m, and m, be the masses of the gas in the vessel before and after the gas is released+
Hence mass of the gas released,
Am = m,-m,
Now from ideal gas equation
PiV= mE and p,V= m, ET,
as V and T are same before and after the release of the gas.
R R
So, (Py-P:) V= (my ~ my) FT = Am 55 To
(P1-P) VM _ apVM
or, Am= sve 1
RT, RT, @
We also know p= ekr 50, —_ £ Q
0 Po
(where py= standard atmospheric pressure and Ty = 273 K)
From Eqs. (1) and (2) we get
m= pv a 13x30x 28. 30g
Po 1
Let m, be the mass of the gas enclosed.
Then, pV=¥,RT,
When heated, some gas, passes into the evacuated vessel till préssure difference becomes
Ap. Let p’, and p’, be the pressure on the two sides of the valve. Then
p';V= v', RT) and
P',V= v',RT,= (vy, -vV) RT;23
185
T, RT,
But, P'-P'2= Ap
P,P’, + Ap’
So, f= IT,
P2 Gt Ty fr
An
TP? Ap
T,
Ae - «| = 0-08 atm
az
or,
Let the mixture contain v, and v, moles of H, and H, respectively. If molecular weights
of H, and H, are M, and M,, then respective masses in the mixture are equal to
m,= v,M, and m,= v,M3
Therefore, for the total mass of the mixture we get,
m= m+m, or m= v,M,+v,M, (1)
Also, if v is the total number of moles of the mixture in the vessels, then we know,
veV tv, Q)
Solving (1) and (2) for v, and v,, we get,
(VM, -m) m- TM,
“I" M,-M,’ 2" = My,
(My -m) (m-vM,)
Therefore, we get_m= My 725 and m= M,—
eee ee
my _ My (WM, ~m)
= my My (m-vM,)
One can also express the above result in terms of the effective molecular weight M of the
mixture, defined as,
m_ RT
Mn yy
a m, M, M)-M 1-M/M,
us, m, M, M-M, M/M,-1
Using the data and table, we get :
m
M~= 30g and, = 050
Le186
2.4 We know, for the mixture, N and CO, (being regarded as ideal gases, their mixture too
25
behaves like an ideal gas)
pV=vRT, so pyV= vRT
where, v is the total number of moles of the gases (mixture) present and V is the volume
of the vessel. If v, and v, are number of moles of N, and CO, respectively present in
the mixture, then
vevity,
Now number of moles of N, and CO, is, by definition, given by
y= i and, v= ie
where, my is the mass of Ny (Moleculer weight = M,) in the mixture and m is the mass
of CO, (Molecular weight = M,) in the mixture.
Therefore density of the mixture is given by
m,+m, —m,+m,
P= 9" GRIT)
o Po ra Po (my + mz) My Mz
RT v,+¥, RT(m,M,+m,M,)
= 1-5. kg/m? on substitution
(a) The mixture contains v, ,'v, and v; moles of O,,N, and CO, respectively. Then the
total number of moles of the mixture
VeVi ty) tV3
We know, ideal gas equation for the mixture
vRT
v
pV=vRT or p=
or,
(vy + vp +¥3) RT
Ce ey ee 1-968 atm on substitution
(b) Mass of oxygen (O,) present in the mixture : m, = v,M,
Mass of nitrogen (N,) present in the mixture : m. = v.M,
Mass of carbon dioxide (CO,) present in the mixture : m,= v;M;
So, mass of the mixture
m= m,+m,+m;= v,M, +v.M,+v3M;
mass of the mixture
Moleculer mass of the mixture : M=
‘otal number of moles
v, My + V7 My + 4M
= 22S | 36-7 g/mol. on substitution
V+ +52.6
27
187
Let p, and p, be the pressure in the upper and lower part of the cylinder respectively at
temperature Ty, At the equilibrium position for the piston :
a a
P,S+mg= p,S on p,+ e Pp (mis the mass of the piston.)
RY,
But p,= ave (where Vg is the initial volume of the lower part)
RT, mg RT mg_ RT 1
So, wets Wy OS, (-5) @)
Let T be the sought temperature and at this temperature the volume of the lower part
becomes V’, then according to the problem the volume of the upper part becomes 1)/ V’
Hence, mg, AT ( - m] Q)
Sy
n
From (1) and (2),
As, the total volume must be constant,
Vy(i+n)=V(L+n’) oF
Putting the value of V’ in Eq. (3), we get
_ Ton’- 1a
(n'7-1)n
= 042kK
Let p, be the density after the first stroke. The the mass remains constant
fe
1" (V+ AV)
Similarly, if p, is the density after second stroke
Vp=(V+aV) py, oF,
2
vo vo
Vp,= (V+AV)p, of, p= (veav}- (rea) Po
In this way after nth stroke.
.
-(—~)
Pam \Veav} Po
Since pressure 0. density,188
28
29
v
P= (ra Po (because temperature is constant.)
It is required by 2% tobe +
Po a
: *
: Vv V+Al
so, ela rere = ee
7 (ra) 7 ( Vv 5
Hence n= —
in(t+4¥
Vv
From the ideal gas equation p = ae
dp, RI dm @
dt MV dt
In each stroke, volume v of the gas is ejected, where v is given by
ve YL my_y-m
ma [Meio
In case of continuous ejection, if (my _;) corresponds to mass of gas in the vessel at time
t, then my is the mass at time ¢ + At, where At, is the time in which volume v of the gas
has come out. The rate of evacuation is therefore 7 ie.
ve Vv _m(t+ At) - m(t)
At m (t+ At) At
In the limit At - 0, we get
c
Vdm
Cm a ®)
From (1) and (2)
d C mRT (o
GPa pe oo Ga - Ge
. :
: pc f —
Integrating, f 7 V dt or In fa yi
: ;
Thus pene culy
Let p be the instantaneous density, then instantaneous mass = V,,. In a short interval dt
the volume is increased by Cat.
So, ; Vp= (V+Cdt) (p +dp)
(because mass remains constant in a short interval dé)2.10
211
189
de
so, oe -pe
Since pressure a density ee ao Cat
or f-*- c,
ay.
A
Vi te Vigt 1.0 mi
or t= Ein = Lind 10min
The physical system consists of one mole of gas confined in the smooth vertical tube. Let
m, and my be the masses of upper and lower pistons and S, and S, are their respective
areas.
For the lower piston
PS, +m,8= PyS,+T,
or, T= py) S,+mg q@)
Similarly for the upper piston
PoSy+T+mg= pS,,
or, T= @-p)S,- m8 Q)
From (1) and (2)
(P - Po) (Sy - Sz) = (om, +m) &
or, P-Po) AS = mg
so, p= rd + Py = constant
From the gas law, pV= vRT
pAV= vRAT (because p is constant)
me 7
So, (oo HE) 354 RAT,
Hence, AT= py as+mg)i= 09K
:
® p= my-aV?= pp-a(i]
P
(as, V= RT/p for one mole of gas)
1 1
Thus, T= RyaP PoP - Ra VPP -P (
2 a
PoP -P
For Tay a (Po ) must be zero
dp190
2.12
2.13
which yields, : xy Q)
12> [2 _ 2 (po\/Po
He So ~f£p, = =/-2;Y 2
fence, Tax RYa 370 WPo~ 3 Po 3(R) 3a
©) pm poe PY = poe?
BRT Po Py Po
so =in =, and T= & in 2 1
P P BR p .
For T,,,, the condition is a” which yields
Po
Fda a
Hence using this value of p in Eq. (1), we get
Po
Tow” SBR
2 2
T=Tt+aV7= Tora
(as, V= RT/p for one mole of gas)
So, p= Vo RT(T-T,)* (t)
For p 2 = 0, which gives
T=2T% Q)
From (1) and (2), we get,
Prrin ™ VOR 2Tp (27, - To)" “? = 2RVAT
Consider a thin layer at a height h and thickness dh. Let p and dp +p be the pressure on
the two sides of the layer. The mass of the layer is Sdhp. Equating vertical downward
force to the upward force acting on the layer.
Sdh p g+(p+dp)S= pS
But, p= 2 RT, wehave dp = Rar,
os, -SRar~'pedh
So, q. at. -34K/km
That means, temperature of air drops by 34°C_at a height of 1 km above bottom.214
215
2.16
We have, 2. ~ pg (See 2.13)
But, from p= Cp" (where C is, a const) g. Cn ptt
We have from gas low p= ext, so using (2)
C= ea Tor Te veer?
-2
Thus, e Mca. 1)p"
aT _ dT dp dp
But, ah” dp dp dh
aT_M
Fo Mea-y gr?
So, a7 ROVE
— pp) = —Mat-1)
Cup ps) ™R
We have, dp = - p gdh and from gas law p= He
a _Me
Thus r art
Integrating, we get
?
h
Mg f pe Me
or, fe RT dh or, oa RT A,
2 2
(where po is the pressure at the surface of the Earth.)
Pa pye MEAT,
[Under standard condition, py= 1atm, T= 273K
7
Pressure at a height of 5 atm = 1 x e~%%981*500314%7273 0.5 atm,
= 28 x 981 x (~ 5000/8314 x 273
Pressure in a mine at a depth of 5 km = 1xe = 2atm.]
We have dp = - pg dh but from gas law p= £ RT,
Thus dp= Ber at const. temperature
de aM
So, DRT dh
Pp A
Integrating within limits f . RT dh
0
Po
191
@)
2
@)
)192
2.18
£2. aM
or, inf EE
: RT
So, p= pye ME”FT and ha —<— In &
> MEP
(@) Given T= 273°K, *. e
a
Th «Fel.
us he - HT inet = Bim.
() T = 273°K and
PorP . 0.01 or 2 = 0.99
Po Po
Thus a= -22 in & » 0.09 km on substitution
fg” by
From the Barometric formula, we have
P= poe MENT
-oM
and from gas law =
So, at constant temperature from these two Eqs.
= Mg W/RT (ty
My
en. poe’
P= =z
Eq. (1) shows that density varies with height in the same manner as pressure. Let us
consider the mass element of the gas contained in the coftmn.
M;
dm = 9 (Sdh) = Fhe MMR sah
Hence the sought mass,
h
Mp5 -MEWRE gy POS ty —o Mewar)
&
As the gravitational field is constant the centre of gravity and the centre of mass are same.
The location of C.M.
fran fe pdh
0 .2
fn fom
But from Barometric formula and gas law p= py
h=
-Mg h/RT219
2.20
193
fren dh
0 RI
@ * Mg
f c-) dh
0
So, he
(a) We know that the variation of pressure with height of a fluid is given by :
dp=-pgdh
eM
But from gas law pe ART or, px oe
From these two Eqs.
Mi
dp= -P ah @
dp _-Mgdh
Pp RTy(Q-ah)
or,
we get
. kh
: dp _ -Mg f
Integrating, J p” RT, aly
Po 0
in? = In(1 - ah) M0/*%
Po
Hence, P= poll ah) MR, Obvionsly h Gar ee
If a, b do not vary much with temperature, then the effect at high temperature is clearly
determined by b and its effect is repulsive so compressibility is less.196
2.2. THE FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS. HEAT CAPACITY
2.26 Intemal energy of air, treating as an ideal gas
m Rip pv
C7 eager et @
c
Using C= since C, ~ Cy = R and oe =Y
v
y-1?
Thus at constant pressure U= constant, because the volume of the room is a constant.
Puting the value of p= Pyq and V in Eq, (1), we get U=10MJ.
2.27 From energy conservation
U,+ Som) = U,
or, AU = dum Q)
But from U = v
“ AT (trom the previous problem) Q)
Hence from Eqs. (1) and (2).
2
ap = Me a-))
2R
2.28 On opening the valve, the air will flow from the vessel at heigher pressure to the vessel
at lower pressure till both vessels have the same air pressure. If this air pressure is p, the
total volume of the air in the two vessels will be (V, + V,). Also if v, and v, be the
number of moles of air initially in the two vessels, we have
P,Vi= v, RT, and p,V,= v, RT; a)
After the air is mixed up, the total number of moles are (v, + v2) and the mixture is at
temperature 7.
Hence p(V, + Vp) = (vy +¥,) RT (2)
Let us look at the two portions of air as one single system. Since this system is contained
in a thermally insulated vessel, no heat exchange is involved in the process. That is, total
heat transfer for the combined system Q = 0
Moreover, this combined system does not perform mechanical work either. The walls of
the containers are rigid and there are no pistons etc to be pushed, looking at the total
system, we know A = 0.
Hence, internal energy of the combined system docs not change in the process. Initially
energy of the combined system is equal to the sum of internal energies of the two portions
of air :
MRT veRTy
U.= Uy+,= ah?
@)2.29
2.30
231
2.32
197
Final internal energy of (n, + 72) moles of air at temperature T is given by
(yy +¥,)RT
Ue eed (4)
Therefore, U;= U, implies :
Miia ee hee
vty, @V,/T) + @2V2/T) 9) PVT +P Va
From (2), therefore, final pressure is given by :
VitV,
e -R_y PiVi+P2V2
PPV, Wav,
T,+v2T,)= V,4V;
This process in an example of free adiabatic expansion of ideal gas.
By the first law of thermodynamics,
Q= AU+A
Here A = 0, as the volume remains constant,
vR
So, Q= AU= aT
From gas law, PoV= VRTy
PoVAT
So, = -02510
T)(y-1)
Hence amount of heat lost = - AU = 0.25 kJ
By the first law of thermodynamics Q = AU+A
~ PAVE A .
But AU Fou 721 7 (#5 P is constant)
oa eis .
Q= yan Pe ga 7
Under isobaric process A = pAV= RAT (as v= 1) = 0-6 KI
From the first law of thermodynamics
AU= Q-A= Q-RAT=1kK)
we cee RAT
Again increment in internal energy AU = YI?
RAT Q
y-1 ™ '" Q-RaT™
forv=1
Thus Q-RAT= 16
Let v = 2 moles of the gas. In the first phase, under isochoric process, A, = 0, therefore
from gas law if pressure is reduced n times so that temperature i.c. new temperature
becomes Ty/n.
Now from first law of thermodynamics
vRAT
Q,= AU, =
-1198
LOR (E-+)- vRT(1-n)
ee
During the second phase (under isobaric process),
A,= pAV= vRAT
Thus from first law of thermodynamics :
vRA!
y-1
Q,= AU;+A,= YRAT, yRar
R(T
RT) (n-1)¥
n(y-1)
y-1
Hence the total amount of heat absorbed
VRT)(1—n) RT) (n-1)y
n(y=1) *~ n(y=3)
VRTy(n-1)¥ 1
- See var(t-5)
2.33 Total no. of moles of the mixture v = v, + v2
Q= 2,+Q)=
At a certain temperature, U= U,+U, or vCy= vy Cy +2 Cy,
‘ ‘a
Ma
vy cyt Vy Cy any
Thus Cy= ae
MC, #¥2Cp,
Similarly C= =
uk Pi
Vice ey
viv Cy, +¥2¥2 Cv, Yn Ye
i. v v
2 an -D+%2 2-1)
vie-1)+%2 (4-1)
‘234 From the previous problem
= 15-2 J/mole.K
NytNy2.35
2.36
199
y, Ry eR
ty,-1° 27y-1
and ea hk = 23-85 J/mole. K
ie Vit V2
ps Total_mass 20+
Now molar mass of the mixture (M) = =——— "EEE ——— it 36
2*4
cy ,
Hence cys 57 042I/g K and cy FF = 066I/gK
Let S be the area of the piston and F be the force exerted by the external agent.
Then, F +pS= poS (Fig.) at an arbitrary instant of time. Here p is the pressure at the
instant the volume is V. (Initially the pressure inside is py)
ny,
A. (Work done by the agent)= f Fd
Y
nv avy F
=f @-ns-ae= f o-prav Ps
% %
nv, nv, wv Ps Vv
= Po(n-1) Vy J par = pyn-¥9-f ver
% %,
’o ‘0
= (1-1) py Vo - nRT In y= (1-1) VRT- vRT Ing
= vRT(q-1-Iny) = RT(n-1-1Inn) (For v= 1 mole)
Let the agent move the piston to the right by x. In equilibirium position,
PiS+Fegeu™ P25, % Fagen ™ (P2-P)S
Work done by the agent in an infinitesmal change dx is
Fagen B= (P2 ~ P;) Sd = (p2- py) dV
By applying pV = constant, for the two parts,
Py (Vo + Sx) = Py Vo and pz (Vo - Sx) = py Vo
PoVo2Sx _— 2pyoVoV
PPL” Va sta” Va
When the volume of the left end is 1 times the volume of the right end
-1
Mor V= 1Ve-V), 0, V= DTM
So, (where Sx= V)200
2.37
2.38
v
2p VoV
A-for-nare fe Po dV = ~PoVo[ In (Wo vy
0 0
= ~PoVo[ In (Vg ~V?)-In VG ]
7 ~Po¥o] in| v3 - (2s) v2 | nv
nei
4 (m+ie
= = pyVo(in—s | = py Voli
‘Po of a) Povo an
In the isothermal process, heat transfer to the gas is given by
V2 2. PA
Qy= vRTpIn = vRTyInn [Fons ¥ ip
In the isochoric process, A= 0
Thus heat transfer to the gas is given by
wR R
Q2= AU= vCyaT= “ar (ir Cy= 7]
=
P2_ To PL Pi
But = =, of T= Ty—= HT) |for n= —
at opie ate (te n= Zt)
vR
or, AT= 9 T)-T)= (N-1)T> 50, Q.= yar - DT
Thus, net heat transfer to the gas
Q- WRTyIn n+ “%(m-1)
2. aol 22 wer
or, WRT, has 1? % RT, Inn ya1
es
-Ing SO x10) 6
VRTy 3x 8314 x 273
(a) From ideal gas law p = (F T= kT (where k= #
For isochoric process, obviously k = constant, thus p = kT, represents a straight line passing
through the origin and its slope becomes k.
For isobaric process p = constant, thus on p - T curve, it is a horizontal straight line parallel
to T-axis, if T is along horizontal (or x - axis)
For isothermal process, T= constant, thus on p-T curve, it represents a vertical straight
line if T is taken along horizontal (or x - axis)
For adiabatic process T’p'~" = constant
After diffrentiating, we get (1-y) p"'dp-T'+yp!"1-T""! -dT= 02.39
2.40
201
a (S)7))- a)
The approximate plots of isochoric, isobaric, isothermal, and adiabatic processess are drawn
in the answersheet.
(b) As p is not considered as variable, we have from ideal gas law
ve Kren xe r{wherek =
P P
On V-T co-ordinate system let us, take T along x — axis.
For isochoric process V= constant, thus k’ = constant and V= &’T obviously represents a
straight line pasing through the origin of the co-ordinate system and &’ is its slope.
For isothermal process T= constant. Thus on the stated co- ordinate system it represents
a straight line parallel to the V- axis.
For adiabatic process TV'~* = constant
After differentiating, we get (y- 1) V""?dV-T+V"'dT= 0
WM (A)y
at” ~\y-1) T
The approximate plots of isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic processes are drawn
in the answer sheet.
According to Tp relation in adiabatic process, I" = kp’~1 (where k= constant)
yl
7) (P2 no P2
and 2] - (2 So, =n" for n= 2
=| é : q% 2 | Pi
Hence T= Tn — = 290 x 1074-14 2 0.56 KK
(b) Using the solution of part (a), sought work done
vRAT | VRTp
Az vat F1
G1) = 5:61 kJ (on substitution)
Let (Pp, Vo, Ty) be the initial state of the gas.
-vRAT
y-1
We know Agiig = (work done by the gas
dia y
But from the equation TV ’~' = constant, we get AT= Ty (nr = 1)
~»at, (1"*~1)
Thus Avia ™ I
On the other hand, we know A;,.= VRTp In (;) = -vRTy\ny (work done by the gas)
Avg y'71-1 5°21
Ao Y-Dinyn” 0-4xinS _
Thus202
2.41 Since here the piston is conducting and it is moved slowly the temperature on the two
sides increases and maintained at the same value.
Elementary work done by the agent = Work done in compression - Work done in expansion
ic. dA = p, dV-p,dV= (p,-p,) dV
where p, and p, are pressures at any instant of the gas on expansion and compression
side respectively.
From the gas law p, (Vj + Sx) = vRT and p, (Vy - Sx) = vRT, for each section
(x is the displacement of the piston towards section 2)
2Sx Vv.
So, = py= vRT 2S = vat. as Se
ome V-s?2 va-vi! 2
So aA = vaT 2" av
Ve-V'
Also, from the first law of thermodynamics
dA= -dU= - 2 Soar (as dQ = 0)
So, work done on the gas = -dA= av Ro ar
Thus 2v—8_ are var 2
‘ae Vo-V
or aT yy vay
ee ee hay
: ee AS
When the left end is 1 times the volume of
the right end. BS
-1
(y+ = n(Vo-W) or V= DTV fagent
r v
: : aT vay
On integrating fz o-vf $5
0
T, 0
or ine y-)| -Lm(v2-v?) yo
T Pe) o
= - 1 [ in ve -¥?)-n VG V7) 10 V6]
2
- Ba eyed _ Yel, @+iy
-S [3 mvg{a (3) i 7 ay
uw
2 \ 2
Hence T= Ty (*32*)
m2.42
2.43
2.44
203
From energy conservation as in the derivation of Bernoullis theorem it reads
beyy +gz+u+Q, = constant (1)
In the Eq. (1) u is the internal energy per unit mass and in this case is the thermal energy
per unit mass of the gas. As the gas vessel is thermally insulated Q, = 0, also in our case.
c,T
Just inside the vessel u =~ = a also ee a + Inside the vessel v= 0 also, Just
outside p = 0, and u=0. Ingeneral gz is not very significant for gases.
Thus applying Eq. (1) just inside and outside the hole, we get
ae
2 Vv p tu
Rt aT | Rr
M M(y-1)) M(y-1)
2y RT 2y RT
Hence ve = I gg ve YA 23,22 kms.
M(y-1) M(y-1)
Note : The velocity here is the velocity of hydrodynamic flow of the gas into vaccum.
This requires that the diameter of the hole is not too small (D > mean free path /). In the
opposite case (D << J) the flow is called effusion. Then the above result does not apply
and kinetic theory methods are needed.
The differential work done by the gas
2
dA = pay = AE
(- 7 dT = -vRdT
( pV = vRT and V= 4]
rear
So, A= -f vRdT = - vRAT
T
From the first law of thermodynamics
Q= AU+A= TA ar-vRar
: var Sate Rar-oot (for v= 1 mole)
According to the problem : Aa U or dA =aU (where a is proportionality constant)
ce pdV = avRaT
rat a
From ideal gas law, pV= v RT, on differentiating
pdV + Vdp = v RAT 2)204
2.45
2.46
Thus from = and (2)
paV = 5 (pa + Vp)
wat Sot} vero
or, pdV(k-1)+kVdp = 0 (where k= = another constant)
or, pav ®=1. 5 vdp = 0
or, pdVn + Vdp = 0 (where
= n= ratio)
Dividing both the sides by pV
n g + 2 =0
On integrating n In V+in p= InC (where C is constant)
or, In(pV")= InC ot, pV"= C (const)
In the polytropic process work done by the gas
an RUE
(where T; and T, are initial and final temperature of the gas like in adiabatic process)
and AU= Pa -1)
By the first law of aa cad ona AU+A
~~ r- n+ a-1
7 ot we
a oe oe @-1)G-D =
According to definition of molar heat capacity when number of moles
v= 1 and AT= 1 then Q = Molar heat capacity.
__Rt-y)
Here, Cc wep <0 for l = ——___,° ___ =. —_+__,
2
moa B
fa ar)
0
Note : The claculation of §, which can also be checked by using motional emf is correct
even though the conductor is not a closed semicircle , for the flux linked to the rectangular
part containing the resistance R is not changing. The answer given in the book is off by
a factor 1/4,3.299
3.300
385
The flux through the coil changes sign. Initially it is BS per turn.
Finally it is - BS per turn. Now if flux is ® at an intermediate state then the current at
that moment will be
d®
. dt
R
So charge that flows during a sudden turning of the coil is
is
am fide -X[@--a)]- 2NBS/R
Hence, Be pak = 0:5 T on putting the values.
According to Ohm’s law and Faraday’s law of induction, the current iy appearing in the
frame, during its rotation, is determined by the formula,
: d® Ldiy
leer ganar
Hence, the required amount of electricity (charge) is,
: 1 i: a: :
az f gare -7 Jf Grr diy) = ZAP +L Aig)
Since the frame has been stopped after rotation,
the current in it vanishes, and hence A iy = 0.
It remains for us to find the increment of the
flux A ® through the frame (A ® = , - &,).
Let us choose the normal 7to the plane of the i
frame, for instance, so that in the final position,
n’ is directed behind the plane of the figure
(along B ).
Cl
—.
i
t
t
t
Se
* Then it can be easily seen that in the final position, &, > 0, while in the initial position,
3.301
©, <0 (the normal is opposite to B )s and A@ turns out to be simply equal to the fulx
through the surface bounded by the final and initial positions of the frame :
bea
Ada 44/0 f Badr,
bea
where B is a function of r, whose form can be easily found with the help of the theorem
of circulation. Finally omitting the minus sign, we obtain,
Ad Hod bea
I" R~ 2nRb-a
As B, due to the straight current carrying wire, varies along the rod (connector) and enters
linerarly so, to make the calculations simple, B is made constant by taking its average
value in the range [a, b].386
3.302
Joe [ete
=*
fa
7
fe
ip |b
Ho
= In @-a™
or,
(a) The flux of B changes through the loop due to the movement of the connector. According
to Lenz’s law, the current in the loop will be anticlockwise. The magnitude of motional
em.£,
£,= v(b-a)
Bo s 4
= Ixb-a" 26- ae Teiols v
So, induced current
jw Bin, Moo
2. oe
(b) The force required to maintain the constant velocity of the connector must be the
magnitude equal to that of Ampere’s acting on the connector, but in opposite direction.
"]
: Ho ob ig
So, Feg= ig h= (= RPS Z\e- (te a
2
v (Ho: 2 i i i i
-; ( © ip n= ) , and will be directed as shown in the (Fig.)
(a) The flux through the loop changes due to the movement of the rod AB. According to
Lenz’s law current should be anticlockwise in sense as we have assumed B is directed
into the plane of the loop. The motion e.m.f ,,(0) = Blv
and induced current i;, wat A
From Newton’s law in projection form F,= mw, Vp
vdv -2
Fang” Se R3. Fam B@
. vB?
But Fay ™ ig! B= Ee B
rs vB? 1? myt
: R de3.303
3.304
387
x
mR mR vo
on fae- Bh om 2 Ee
(b) From equation of energy conservation; E, - E; + Heat liberated = A. +Aca
[o -}m “| + Heat liberated = 0 +0
So, heat liberated = im a
With the help of the calculation, done in the previous problem, Ampere’s force on the
connector,
= 2)2
Fin ™ directed towards left.
Now from Newton’s second law, A
dv
FF agg =m
vB? dv
So, Fo +mG
' »
dy
or, dt= mf —_—ST
J 4 Pua B
for
or,
Thus
According to Lenz, the sense of induced e.m.f. is such that it opposes the cause of change
of flux. In our problem, magnetic field is directed away from the reader and is diminishing.
(a) (6) (c) (d)
So, in figure (a), in the round conductor, it is clockwise and there is no current in the
connector
In figure (b) in the outside conductor, clockwise.388
3.305
3.306
3.307
In figure (c) in both the conductor, clockwise; and there is no current in the connector to
obey the charge conservation.
In figure (d) in the left side of the figure, clockwise.
The loops are connected in such a way that if the current is clockwise in one, itis anticlockwise
in the other. Hence the e.m.f. in loop b opposes the e.m.f. in loop a.
eam in loop a= 4 (028) = a? 4 sin ot)
Similarly, e.m.f. in loop b= b” By w cos wf.
Hence, net e.m.f. in the circuit = (a? - b) By © cos wt, as both the e.m.f’s are in opposite
sense, and resistance of the circuit = 4 (a+) p
Therefore, the amplitude of the current
@- 8) Byw
- Tee 7 OM
The flat shape is made up of concentric loops, having different radii, varying from 0 to
a.
Let us consider an elementary loop of radius 7, then e.m.f. induced due to this loop
-d(B-S)
2
= 1r° By ® cos wt.
dt -
and the total induced e.m.f.,
Sam f (7? By w cos wt) dN, (1)
O
where 27? w cos wt is the contribution of one tum of radius r and dN is the number of
turns in the interval [r, r + dr].
So, dN- (") a Q)
1B, @ cos w tN a”
From (1) and (2), §= f ~ (1? By w cos on Nar ;
0
Maximum value of e.mn.f. amplitude &,., = inB, oN@
The flux through the loop changes due to the variation in B with time and also due to the
movement of the cortnector.
— 4055) @s)|
>
dt as S and B are colliniear
But, B, after ¢ sec. of beginning of motion = Bt, and S becomes = dw, as connector
starts moving from rest with a constant acceleration w.
So, Bat 3B lwt?3.308
3.309
3.310
3.311
389
We use B= pynl
Then, from the law of electromagnetic induction
> > do
f Bare -F
So, for ra
E,2nr= -na? pnt or, E,= ~pynta?/2r
The meaning of minus sign can be deduced from Lenz’s law.
2
The e.m.f. induced in the turn is ponin
The resistance is Hay,
wyntSd
So, the current is
4p
= 2mA, where p is the resistivity of copper.
The changing magnetic field will induce an e.m.f. in the ring, which is obviously equal,
in the two parts by symmetry (the e.m.f. induced by electromagnetic induction does not
depend on resistance). The current, that will flow due to this, will be different in the two
parts. This will cause an acceleration of charge, leading to the setting up of an electric
field E which has opposite sign in the two parts. Thus,
5 nak= rT and, Synaks ard,
where & is the total induced e.m.f. From this,
§= (q+1)r1,
ois Sele nel
“ Be ga Us aay
But by Faraday’s law,§ = ab
1a
so, Ena
Go to the rotating frame with an instantaneous angular vélocity @(¢). In this frame, a
Coriolis force, 2mv” x @(t) _
acts which must be balanced by the magnetic force, e Vx B (1)
Thus, w= - oe .
(it is assumed that @”is small and varies slowly, so @” and & can be neglected.)390
3.312
3.313
3.314
The solenoid has an inductance,
L=pyn'ab7s,
where n = number of turns of the solenoid per unit length. When the solenoid is connected
to the source an e.m.f. is set up, which, because of the inductance and resistance, rises
slowly, according to the equation,
RIi+LI= V
This has the well known solution,
= ta ea):
Corresponding to this current, an e.m.f. is induced in the ring. Its magnetic field
B= ign in the solenoid, produces a force per unit length, ¢ = Biz wan’ na’ i/r
2, py?
_ Homa V" x? | eR eR)
r (RL g
acting on each segment of the ring. This force is zero initially and zero for large ¢. Its
maximum value is for some finite t. The maximum value of
2
tw) i
-(feemy et.
dFay vama’V? 42 pga’ V?
ae Tee aR gen be
eM (ye UE
So
The amount of heat generated in the loop during a small time interval dt,
dQ-= &/Rdt, but, §= -2. 2at-at,
2
So, dQ- Canam
and hence, the amount of heat, generated in the loop during the time interval 0 to t.
Qat-ay? , 1a?
2 f Ree see
0
Take an elementary ring of radius r and width dr. dr
The e.m.f. induced in this elementary ring is x7” B.
Now the conductance of this ring is. ES
1 hdr hrdr
(Qs mer Sy)’
Integrating we get the total current,
’
/ hrdr, _ hB(b-a’)
= ae
2p 4p3.315
3.316
3.317
3.318
391
Given L= pig” V= uyn7 ly xR”, where R is the radius of the solenoid.
5‘
Thus, n= .
Hox
So, length of the wire required is,
a/4nLhy
l= nh2aR= V—— = 0:10km.
Ho
From the previous problem, we know that,
I’ = length of the wire needed= WV a , Where I= length of solenoid here.
0
r
Now, R= Po, (where $= area of crossection of the wire. Also m= pS’)
RS_ Rm
=—=——, ol
PoP Po!’ Po
where py = resistivity of copper and p = its density.
Thus, a:
Equating, =
Z PPy Hy/4%
Hy mR
_ 1” Gn ppol
The current at time ¢ is given by,
1(0)= Fa-e™)
The steady state value is, [y= x
0
R at
or, om RT 7 149s
L
TR
Pos
where, pg = resistivity, /y= length of the winding wire, S= cross section of the wire.
But m= 1p,5S
L mL
So eliminating S,x = a
Polo Poly
m/ply392
From problem 3.315 1, = V
(note the interchange of ! and {, because of difference in notation here.)
Thus, t —_- Hyd = 07 ms,
ppg LI ie
Ho
3.319 Between the cables, where a v'? + v’
so, 0",-¥°)>0 and therefore angle of divergence < 90°.
Suppose that at time 4 the rocket has the mass m and the velocity v”, relative to the
reference frame, employed. Now consider the inertial frame moving with the velocity that
the rocket has at the given moment. In this reference frame, the momentum increament
that the rocket & ejected gas system acquires during time dt is,
dp= mais udti= F dt
on mite F- wi1.179
1.180
1.181
93
According to the question, F= Oandp = — dm/dt so the equation for this system becomes,
mit, ini»
dt” dt
As dvt}i” so, mdv= -udm.
Integrating within the limits :
: s
1fa-- de Ye in ™
u mn
0
mo
Thus, v= uin—
m
mo
As dv't{ i so in vector form v= -#In >
According to the question, F (external force) = 0
So, nt. he
, a a"
As at iy
so, in scalar form, mdv= -udm
wdt dm
or, “Ss
u m
Integrating within the limits for m (1)
wt dn v
ee ee
u m u my
my
Hence, m= me“)
As F= 0, from the equation of dynamics of a body with variable mass;
av” adm wi o
ma eG dv= iv
Now dv"} jii’and since i"L, ¥; we must have | dv"| = a (because vp is constant)
where do. is the angle by which the spaceship turns in time df.
udm
So, -u Meyda o daw -4+™
m Vo m
. _ fens (3)
%94
1.182
1.183
1.184
We have —-= -p or, dm= - pdt
dt
:
Integrating fame -u fa of, m= my-pt
™, 0
As u’= 0 so, from the equation of variable mass system :
dv > dvi >
(mp - vt) G = F or, a7 0s F/m- ws)
- :
or, famF a.
(2g - wt)
0
Hence oe F inf —"o_
Bo [my pe
Let the car be moving in a reference frame to which the hopper is fixed and at any instant
of time, let its mass be m and velocity v-
Then from the general equation, for variable mass system.
dv" => —sdm
mat Ft dt
We write the equation, for our system as,
dv" > dm —- =
ma FOS as, we 70 qd)
So 4 iy =F
BR
and v= = on integration.
But m= m+ pt
=
> Fr
50, ve
m (: *m
mo
>
Thus the sought acceleration, w= 2. SS
It
milton )
0
Let the length of the chain inside the smooth horizontal tube at an arbitrary instant is x.
From the equation,
—» = —»dm
mw= F+u dt1.185
95
as T= 0, F tt @; for the chain inside the tube
Axw= T where Met (a)
Similarly for the overhanging part, AW Tr
w= 0 ooo
Thus mw = F T
or Ahw= Khg-T (2) h
From (1) and (2), hg.
dv
AQ+A)w= Ahg or, +h)v Tem hg B
,
dv
or, (+iv Capt Bh
[As the length of the chain inside the ube decreases with time, ds = - dx.]
de
or, vdv= -gh5
» °
Integrating, J vdv= -gh f ay
0 (lek)
or, ee gh In (i) or v= VY 2h In (i)
Force moment relative to point O ;
N- an. 2b
—
Let the angle between M and N,
a= 45° att = tye
MeN @+b2)- 2b)
IMIIN| Vat +0? tf 2bt0
2 43 2
2b" ty bty
Vas bt 21, Var+b ty
Then Jy
So, 2b 4b= a? +bPtg oF, tom Vv £ (as fg cannot be negative)
It is also obvious from the figure that the angle a is equal to 45° at the moment fo,
when a= bi2, ie. fy = Va7b and N= 25 a96
1.186
1,187
1.188
M(Q)=7kpe= (renga ‘xm 4 +3)
= ma? sin (3+ ack y+ E-mu gt * sin (5 +a)@)
4 ivy gt? cosa (-E):
2
mvy 8 t? cos a
Thus M (1) = 20
Thus angular momentum at maximum height
: x vosina
ie at t= t=———,
2 8g a
a) (mi :
m5) Fe [ sw acosa 37kg-m'/s Q
Alternate : 777 Gee
MO)=0 so, Mi= f Nac= f (Femz)
o oO
2
<> Looe is
J [eee ae maa (*o* me) 7
(a) The disc experiences gravity, the force of
reaction of the horizontal surface, and the force
R of reaction of the wall at the moment of the
impact against it. The first two forces
counter-balance each other, leaving only the g
force R. It’s moment relative to any point of A
the line along which the vector R acts or along
normal to the wall is equal to zero and therefore oL >
the angular momentum of the disc relative to =
any of these points does not change in the given
process.
(b) During the course of collision with wall
the position of disc is same and is equal to
FZ, Obviously the increment in linear
momentum of the ball Ap™= 2mv cos a.n
Here, AM = 72, x Ap™= 2mv cos cn and directed normally emerging from the plane of
figure
Thus |AM|= 2mvl cosa
(a) The ball is under the influence of forces T’ and m "at all the moments of time, while
o-.. . -
9
3.
moving along a horizontal circle. Obviously the vertical component of T balance m g’and1.189
1.190
97
So the net moment of these two about any point becoems zero. The horizontal component
of T, which provides the centripetal acceleration to ball is already directed toward the
centre (C) of the horizontal circle, thus its moment about the point C equals zero at all
the moments of time. Hence the net moment of the force acting on the ball about point
C equals zero and that’s why the angular mommetum of the ball is conserved about the
horizontal circle.
(b) Let o be the angle which the thread forms
with the vertical.
Now from equation of particle dynamics :
Tcosa= mg and Tsina = mw’ Isina
1
. or @
As |M | is constant in magnitude so from figure.
|AM| = 2M cos a where
M~ |M;|= |M,|
= |xmv |= my I (as iio LV)
Hence on solving cos 0. =
Thus|AM| = 2 mv 1cos a= 2 mw I? sin a cos
2mgl /, e
= a &] (using 1).
, the reference point O moves in hoizontal direction
During the free fall time t= t =
(say towards right) by the distance V7. In the translating frame as M (0) =0, so
o ~>
AM= Mi,=F / iW)
= (-Vuithj )xm[guj-Vi] o
2
= -mV girs mVh(+é) J (9)
2h) = .
: -mve(F|Femvaed) = -mVhk
Hence |AM|= mVA
The Coriolis force is.(2m 0" x @).
Here @ is along the z-axis (vertical). The moving disc is moving with velocity vy which
is constant. The motion is along the x-axis say. Then the Coriolis force is along y-axis
and has the magnitude 2m vo. At time ¢, the distance of the centre of moving disc from
O is vot (along x-axis). Thus the torque N due to the coriolis force is
N= 2mvg eve along the z-axis.1.191
1.192
Hence equating this to a
aM
GT UMMOt or M= mvj ot? + constant.
The constant is irrelevant and may be put equal to zero if the disc is originally set in
motion from the point O.
This discussion is approximate. The Coriolis force will cause the disc to swerve from
straight line motion and thus cause deviation from the above formula which will be substantial
for large t
If = radial velocity of the particle then the total energy of the particle at any instant is
i) Me
mira thn E 1
2 oe @)
where the second term is the kinetic energy of angular motion about the centre O. Then
the extreme values of r are determined by 7 = 0 and solving the resulting quadratic equation
pe
KP Br + no
we get
From this we see that
E=Kyi +7) Q)
where r, is the minimum distance from O and r, is the maximum distance. Then
dom} + Dkr} = k (A+)
hi 2?
fence, m=
i)
‘Note : Eq, (1) can be derived from the standard expression for kinetic energy and angular
momentum in plane poler coordinates :
1a 7
T=5mr +zmro
M = angular momentum = mr” 6
The swinging sphere experiences two forces : The gravitational force and the tension of
the thread. Now, it is clear from the condition, given in the problem, that the moment of
these forces about the vertical axis, passing through the point of suspension N, = 0. Con-
sequently, the angular momentum M, of the sphere relative to the given axis (z) is constant.
Thus myg (I sin @) = mv 1 qa
where m is the mass of the sphere and v is it s velocity in the position, when the thread
x
forms an angle 5
with the vertical. Mechanical energy is also conserved, as the sphere is1193
1.194
1.195
99
under the influence if only one other force, i.e. tension, which does not perform any work,
as it is always perpendicular to the velocity.
So, imi +mglcos 0= im? (2)
From (1) and (2), we get,
Vg = V2gI7cos ©
Forces, acting on the mass m are shown in the figure. As N= mg’ the net torque of these
two forces about any fixed point must be equal to zero. Tension T, acting on the mass m
is a central force, which is always directed towards the centre O. Hence the moment of
force T is also zero about the point O and therefore the angular momentum of the particle
m is conserved about O.
Let, the angular velocity of the particle be @, when the separation between hole and
particle m is r, then from the conservation of momentum about the point O, :
m (7p) ro = m(wr)r,
or
or a
r
Now, from the second law of motion for m,
T= F= mor
Hence the sought tension;
mogrér moard
Foe —_—=
ne re F
On the given system the weight of the body mis the only force whose moment is effective
about the axis of pulley. Let us take the sense of @ of the pulley at an arbitrary instant
as the positive sense of axis of rotation (z-axis)
As M,(0)= 0, s0, AM, = M, (= f N,de
'
So, M,@= f mgRdt= mg Rt
Oo
Let the point of contact of sphere at initial
moment (t= 0) be at O. At an arbitrary
moment, the forces acting on the sphere are
shown in the figure. We have normal reaction
N, = mg sin a. and both pass through same line
and the force of static friction passes through
the point O, thus the moment about point O
becomes zero. Hence mg sin a: is the only force
which has effective torque about point O, and
is given by |N |= mgRsina normally
emerging from the plane of figure.
As M(t= 0)= 0, so, A= (= f Nar
Hence, M(t)= Nt= mgRsinot100
1.196
1.197
1.198
Let position vectors of the particles of the system be
O and O’ respectively. Then we have,
in +7 ()
nd 7; with respect to the points
where 76 is the radius vector of O! with respect to O.
Now, the angular momentum of the system relative to the point O can be written as follows;
Mm ¥ (xt) - D (7 «Pi)+ > (exz) [using (1)]
or, u- ia + (x P), where, BY 7 @
From (2), if the total linear momentum of the system, p’= 0, then its angular momen-
tum does not depend on the choice of the point O.
Note that in the C.M. frame, the system of particles, as a whole is at rest.
On the basis of solution of problem 1.196, we have concluded that; “in the C.M. frame,
the angular momentum of system of particles is independent of the choice of the point,
relative to which it is determined” and in accordance with the problem, this is denoted
by M.
We denote the angular momentum of the system of particles, relative to the point O, by
M,. Since the internal and proper angular momentum Mf, in the C.M. frame, does not depend
on the choice of the point O’, this point may be taken coincident with the point O of the
K-frame, at a given moment of time. Then at that moment, the radius vectors of all the
particles, in both reference frames, are equal (7° = F;) and the velocities are related by
the equation,
Wn Viv, a
where v7 is the velocity of C.M. frame, relative to the K-frame. Consequently, we may
write,
Me Sm (Hea e Dm (798) Fm (FH)
o, Ms Mam (xi), as J) mrj= m72, where m=) m,.
or, Mz f+ (rx mvp) = M+ (xP)
From conservation of linear momentum along the direction of incident ball for the system
consists with colliding ball and phhere
myy= my! + 3 %y (1)
where v’ and v, are the velocities of ball and sphere 1 respectively after collision. (Remember
that the collision is head on).
As the collision is perfectly clastic, from the definition of co-efficeint of restitution,
vay
0-%
1=
on, v= y= -% Q)1.199
101
Solving (1) and (2), we get,
4v Vy
Y= > directed towards right. @->-- my
4 i
In the C.M. frame of spheres 1 and 2 (Fig.)
Pi = -Py and |Dil= 173] = wly- HI
Also, Fic = ~Tic, thus M = 2[7{-xDz] c
Avy a
As Fic L Diy so, Bea[} m2 a %
(where 1 is the unit vector in the sense of 77x Pt ) mp
mol
Hence M=
In the CM. frame of the system (both the discs + spring), the linear momentum of the
discs are related by the relation, p;= —p5 at all the moments of time.
where, By By= B= WM pe
And the total kinetic ae of the system,
T= swe [See solution of 1.147 (b)]
Bearing in mind that at the moment of maximum deformation of the spring, the projection
of Vy along the length of the spring becomes zero, i.e. Vj21(.)= 0
The conservation of mechanical energy of the considered system in the C.M. frame gives.
1 (m
(3) 3 aera (al ra) (a)
Now from the conservation of angular momentum of the system about the C.M.,
1 (4) +X) m
3(2 G »)- 2a Jaro
vol xy? x
or, Yel 9) Ts - v(t “7 ~ volt-Z} as x<< ly Q)
Using (2) in (1), amils-(-f) Jee?
2
or, ms] +) |-xe
0
mvox :
or, i ~ «x, [neglecting x” / 12]
mv%
As xe 0, thus x=
Kh102
1.4
1.200
1.201
UNIVERSAL GRAVITATION
We have
Mi yMm tm
a ee
Thus ¥
v
o=t=—"_ 2 7
rym/v? ym,
(Here m, is the mass of the Sun.)
Qmym, In x 667x107" x 197 x 10%
So T= St = XOOe eee
y (349 x 107)
(The answer is incorrectly written in terms of the planetary mass M)
= 194 x 10" sec = 225 days.
For any planet
MRot= — or w= yf
R?
So, T= =. 2nR?7/Vym,
372
T, Ry
(a) Thus 7m (z)
Ry 1s a
So Be” Til Te) = (12)? = 5-24.
ws
ae ym, = {rv
) Viw TE, and Ry (“He
ws
. v2 (rm, )? 2x)? y, = (220%
i T acer 7
where T= 12 years. m,= mass of ths Sun.
Putting the values we get V, = 12:97 km/s
2
. vy (2erm, 2x
pectin = Za (222%) (ie
aa
- (7) (ym, )'?
= 245x104 km/s”103
1.202 Semi-major axis= (r + R)/2
r+R
2
It is sufficient to consider the motion be along a circle of semi-major axis for T
does not depend on eccentricity.
r+R
2n\ 2
ae
(again m, is the mass of the Sun)
Hence T=
y"
= nV(r+R)/2ym,
1.203 We can think of the body as moving in a very elongated orbit of maximum distance R
and minimum distance 0 so semi major axis = R/2. Hence if t is the time of fall then
2 3
2 R/2 22 7
(3) -(@) « ere
or t= T/4V2 = 365 / 4V2 = 64:5 days.
1.204 T= 22R°?/Vym,
If the distances are scaled down, R°” decreases by a factor 1°and so does m, . Hence
T does not change.
mm,
1.205 The double star can be replaced by a single star of mass
m,+m,
moving about the centre
of mass subjected to the force y m, m,/1°. Then
2xF? ie 2nras
T=
So
( i
or, r=
1.206 (a) The gravitational potential due to m, at the point of location of mz :
Otek ce
Yan f Bare f Uae 1
z ;
mm
So, Uy, = m,Vy= 17%
Similarly ee mm
T104
1.207
cae m me
ym, o——_.,—___+ -—----—| }—->
Uy= Uy,= U= im rox Ik xe
dx
(b) Choose the location of the point mass as the origin. Then the potential erfergy dU of
an element of mass amt = Mae of the rod in the field of the point mass is
Mod
dU =~ ym Fae
where x is the distance between the element and the point. (Note that the rod and the
point mass are on a straight line.) If then a is the distance of the nearer end of the rod
from the point mass.
mM{ dx M
at bla 4)
The force of interaction is
ou
fe ag
2 iM ee
1 | | alas)
1 z)- ynM
14+-\ *
@
Minus sign means attraction.
As the planet is under central force (gravitational interaction), its angular momentum is
conserved about the Sun (which is situated at one of the focii of the ellipse)
an
So, MVr,= MVzr, OF, ye a q@)
4
From the conservation of mechanical energy of the system (Sun + planet),
ymm 1 ymm 1 2
a7 tymye - tam,
or, atm 12 (tm) 1.2 rysing (1)]
: 1 2 ?P nae
Thus, vy V2ym, 7,1 7,(r, +7) (2)
Hence Mx myyry= mV2ym, ry F2/ (r; +7)1.208
1.209
105
From the previous problem, if r, , r, are the maximum and minimum distances from the
sun to the planet and v, , v2 are the corresponding velocities, then, say,
E= dmv} - =
Vie = TO PUsing Eq. (2) of 1.207]
ole et ee ee
ntn mm Mh hth 2a
where 2d = major axis =r, + r,. The same result can also be obtained directly by writing
an equation analogous to Eq (1) of problem 1.191.
1 2, Me ymm,
E= gmre+ ar
(Here M is angular momentum of the planet and m is its mass). For extreme position
r= 0 and we get the quadratic
Me
Er +ymmy - m7?
The sum of the two roots of this equation are
ths E724
Thus er
2a
From the conservtion of angular momentum about the Sun.
MvorySiNA= MV, T= MVZr, Of, VyTL= Vyl,= Vor2 Sina ()
From conservation of mechanical energy,
m m,m
sey eee 1my-t =
Qe 2 Ty
- 1m, vorsivoa ym, |
i 20% 2n "
2ym,
or, (#- t "Ae 2umn-sirina 0
0
7%) 7m,
2% . @-9)
™) Ym,
where 1 = ¥7y/ym,, (1m, is the mass of the Sun).
v7 sin” 2 i 2) r[12V¥1-@-mnsina |106
1.210
1211
At the minimum separation with the Sun, the cosmic body’s velocity is perpendicular to
its position vector relative to the Sun. If r,,, be the sought minimum distance, from con-
servation of angular momentum about the Sun (C).
Vol
mvp = Mvraig OF Ve @
‘min
From conservation of mechanical energy of tlie system (sun + cosmic body),
mim
Forge may?
2
‘min
2 2
Yo Ym, % 5
So, Zz Tan 22, (using 1)
or, Vo rg + 2Y My Fain — Vg? = 0
: = 2y m,2V4y? m? + 4v2 v2 0? -ym,xVy? m2 + ve?
0, Tig ye
2ve ve
Hence, taking positive root
Tain (Ym, /ve)[ VI (10g/ym,¥ - 1]
Suppose that the sphere has a radius equal to a. We may imagine that the sphere is made
up of concentric thin spherical shells (layers) with radii ranging from 0 to a; and each
spherical layer is made up of elementry bands (rings). Let us first calculate potential due
to an elementry band of a spherjcal layer at the point of location of the point mass m (say
point P) (Fig.). As all the points of the band are located at the distance / from the point
P, so,
ape - 1a (where mass of the band) @
7 | (2x asin 8) (add)
am ( na |
Ana
= ( S*) sino ao (®
And 1? = a?
+7r?—2arcos® (3)
Differentiating Eq. (3), we get
Idl = ar sin@ dO @
Hence using above equations
aon -(Sar ja ©)1.212
1.213
107
Now integrating this Eq. over the whole spherical layer
au
donfoge rat f
So dg- at ©
Equation (6) demonstrates that the potential produced by a thin uniform spherical layer
outside the layer is such as if the whole mass of the layer were concentrated at it’s centre;
Hence the potential due to the sphere at point P;
(M_
= fap~ -tfam--¥ 0)
This expression is similar to that of Eq. (6)
Hence thte sought potential energy of gravitational interaction of the particle m and the
sphere,
= mon tli
U= mp -
(b) Using the Eq,, G,= -42
G,=-YF (wing Ea. 7)
So = MF and Fe mont ®)
r
(The problem has already a clear hint in the answer sheet of the problem book). Here we
adopt a different method,
Let m be the mass of the spherical layer, wich
is imagined to be made up of rings. At a point
inside the spherical layer at distance r from
the centre, the gravitational potential due to a
ring element of radius a equals,
age _ dl (see Eq. (5) of solution of 1.211)
Hence a
or
Hence gravitational field strength as well as field force becomes zero, inside a thin sphereical
layer.
One can imagine that the uniform hemisphere is made up of thin hemispherical layers of
radii ranging from 0 to R. Let us consider such a layer (Fig.). Potential at point O, due
to this layer is,108
1.214
2
d= ~ Mt. 3M yar, where dm= —M__| 4" | g,
[ R (2/3) aR? \ 2
(This is because all points of each hemispherical shell are equidistant from O.)
R
3yM IM.
Hence, g= fap~ - "AE frir= -2
0
M
Hence, the work done by the gravitational field VN
force on the particle of mass m, to remove it
to infinity is given by the formula m
A= mg, since @ = 0 at infinity. \]
Hence the sought work, y))
Ap... 2M.
a re
(The work done by the external agent is — A.)
In the solution of problem 1.211, we have obtained and G due to a uniform shpere, at
a distance r from it’s centre outside it. We have from Eqs. (7) and (8) of 1.211,
p= ut and G= ur (A)
Accordance with the Eq. (1) of the solution of 1.212, potential due to a spherical shell of
radius a, at any point, inside it becomes
p= @.. const. and G,= -22~ 0 ®)
a or
For a point (say P) which lies inside the uniform solid sphere, the potential ¢ at that point
may be represented as a sum.
= Oth,
where @, is the potential of a solid sphere having radius r and @, is the potential of the
layer of radii r and R. In accordance with equation (A)
+ Mad *)- Wr
=-t sur
%1° ~F\Ga73) aR? 3 R
The potential @, produced by the layer (thick shell) is the same at all points inside it. The
potential @, is easiest to calculate, for the point positioned at the layer’s centre. Using
Eq. ®)
R
=- aM __3 YM p2_,2
= if : 2 ek ry)
:
where dM = —! gn rtdr= (3M) 2 a
(4/3) xR R
is the mass of a thin layer betveen the radii + and r+ dr.
2
M
Thus oe wens (Se)b-Z) ©1.215
109
From the Eq. G- a2
yMr
G,= 3
=~ Mo Anos
or G= -ESTS - 15 n0F
(here p=
AnR3
3
, is the density of the sphere) ©)
The plots @ (r) and G (r) for a uniform sphere of radius R are shown in figure of answersheet.
Alternate : Like Gauss’s theorem of electrostatics, one can derive Gauss’s theorem for
gravitation in the form f G+ dS -4 RY Mciocea » For calculation of G at a point
inside the sphere at a distance r from its centre, let us consider a Gaussian surface of
radius r, Then,
G,4xr= ~4ar(tey or, G= “1,
So yMie 4 M
Hence, Ge -IMpe -y4npr{as p» —“,
R? 73 or c aaa)
So, s-Jow-f- ti ras ft
Integrating and summing i we get,
- oie
°""2R ( 2]
And from Gauss’s theorem for outside it :
G4ur7= -4nyM or G,= pals
r
Thus ot f Gar -u
r
Treating the cavity as negative mass of density - p in a uniform sphere density +p and
using the superposition principle, the sought field strength is :
ee
or G= ~ dni + -Frx-p) wr
(where 77 and 7~ are the position vectors of
an orbitrary point P inside the cavity with
respect to centre of sphere and cavity
respectively.)
Thus Gea -Snyp(7-7)= -4nypl
3 TYP (7-7) = -3%YP110
1.216
1217
We partition the solid sphere into thin spherical layers and consider a layer of thickness
dr lying at a distance r from the centre of the ball. Each spherical layer presses on the
layers within it. The considered layer is attracted to the part of the sphere lying within it
(the outer part does not act on the layer). Hence for the considered layer
dp4nr?=dF
4s
v(3*" )axrtars)
r
(where p is the mean density of sphere)
or, dP4nr?=
or, dp= fay ptrdr
R
2
Thus p= f ap- ye? (R?-1?)
7
(The pressure.must vanish at r = R.)
oe pe 200 = (?/R%) 7M] a4, Potting p= M/(4/3) xR?
Putting r= 0, we have the pressure at sphere’s centre, and treating it as the Earth where
mean density is equal to p= 5-5 x 10° kg/m? and R= 64x 107 km
we have, p= 1-73x10"Pa or 1:72 x 10° atms.
(a) Since the potential at each point of a spherical surface (shell) is constant and is equal
to p= - a [as we have in Eq. (1) of solution of problem 1.212]
We obtain in accordance with the equation
v= Lange bef m
a (- 3) me
R 2R
(The factor 5
(b) In this case the potential inside the sphere depends only on r (see Eq. (C) of the
solution of problem 1.214)
is needed otherwise contribution of different mass elements is counted twice.)
2
3ym i=
2R 3R?
Here dm is the mass of an elementry spherical layer confined between the radii
rand r+dr:
g--
2 3m) 2
dm= (4nr?drp)= (a) dr1.218
1.219
1.220
Mi
Letw= V SE = circular frequency of the satellite in the outer orbit,
r
coo= WE, = circular frequency of the satellite in the inner orbit.
(r-Are
So, relative angular velocity = w# cw where — sign is to be taken when the satellites are
moving in the same sense and + sign if they are moving in opposite sense.
Hence, time between closest approaches
-—~2% 2 2x 1
+o 3Ar
®o Vy, [127 +8
where 6 is 0 in the first case and 2 in the second case.
{ 45 days (6 = 0)
0-80 hour (8 = 2)
YM _ 667x107! x 5-96 x 10%
oo = 9-8 m/s*
eR (637 x10
2 2
~ otRe (22) pe (—2%22 ' cs 2
@,= wR (F)* (sexssnox7 7) 637%10 0-034 m/s’
M “Ay
a ge eee COP nAO X197 X10" gg 1073 m/s?
Re (149-50 x 10° x 10°)
Then @, : @) 3 @; = 1: 0-0034 : 0-0006
Let h be the sought height in the first case. so
ory Me
100 8 (R+hy
—M_,. 2,
(143) (+3)
R R112
1.221
1.222
1.223
-2
or 1+> 2
i R
From the statement of the problem, it is obvious that in this case h<
_ 2xrB
and ee xP ae ah
So, energy increment per revolution is,
ed®_ 2nd
dt At
(a) Even in the relativistic case, we know that : p= Ber
Thus, We= Ve*p*+mic* - mgc? = myc? (Vi+ Ber 7mgeY -1)
(b) The distance traversed is,
w w Wat
2m eo” ea a Ber’
on using the result of the previous problem.