Roll Number

STATE COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

STATE LEVEL NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2016

Class – X
Part – I
SCHOLASTIC A PTITUDE TEST (SAT)
Time : 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES : kq}ƒL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥ :
Read the following instructions before you answer S\Lh|°¥¨V D¾qU IuOfL¢ fOa°OÐf]jV oOÒV
the questions. Answers are to be given in a fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ j]¡SÇw°¥ yèÈU
SEPARATE OMR ANSWER SHEET provided vLp]¨OW. D¾qU j¤SWºfV KqO NkSf|W
inside this booklet. Break the seal and start D¾q¨asLy]¤ BeV. j]¡SÇw¾]jO SwxU oLNfSo
answering the questions once asked to do so. y}¤ fOr¨OvLjOU, D¾qU IuOfOvLjOU kLaOçP.
1. j]°tORa SrL¥ jÒ¡ (KqO Wç]p]¤ KqO
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very A¨U oLNfU) v|©oLp] j]°tORa NkSvwj
clearly (only one digit in one block) as given in kNf¾]¤ fÐ]q]¨OÐfO SkLRs IuOfOW.
your Admission Card. 2. CT kq}ƒLkOñW¾]¤ 100 S\Lh|°tOºV.
2. There are 100 questions in this test. The S\Lh|°¥ fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkWLqU
questions are arranged in the following order : NWoRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐO.
• 1 oOf¤ 40 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ wLNñ¾]¤
• Questions 1 to 40 belong to Science j]ÐV.
Subjects.
• 41 oOf¤ 60 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ Ye]f
• Questions 41 to 60 are on Mathematics ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
Subjects. • 61 oOf¤ 100 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ yLoPz|
• Questions 61 to 100 are on Social Science. wLNñ¾]¤ j]ÐV.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each 3. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU D\]foLp D¾qU
question and completely darken the circle f]qR´aO¾V wq]pLp D¾qR¾ yP\]Õ]
¨OÐ vQ¾U oLNfU fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ
corresponding to the correct alternative as v]i¾]¤ kP¡¹oLp] WrOÕ]¨OW.
shown below.
wq]pLp q}f] RfãLp q}f]
Correct Method Wrong Method
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
4. IŠL S\Lh|°¥¨OU KqO oL¡¨V v}fU.
4. All questions carry ONE MARK each. 5. j|Pj oL¡¨V CŠ. KLSqL wq] D¾q¾]jOU KqO
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct oL¡¨V v}fU sn]¨OU.
answer will be awarded one mark. 6. j]°tORa SkqV S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£SpL
6. Do not write your name on any part of the D¾q¨asLy]R£SpL KqO nLY¾OU IuOfO
question booklet or on the answer sheet. vL¢ kLa]Š.
SCERT 2016
The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the SCERT and no part of it should be used by
anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the SCERT. The items are prepared
with best expertise. In case of any dispute the opinion of the experts appointed by SCERT will be final.
Class – X SAT

RE
HE
E
RIT
TW
NO
DO

M-1
Class – X SAT

There are 100 questions in all. For each
question four alternative answers are given
marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find
the most appropriate answer. The number
denoting this answer is there in the answer
sheet against the question number concerned.
Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen
only. Record the answers thus in the OMR
answer sheet only. Do not write anything in
the question booklet except your Roll Number
on the cover page and rough work in the
space provided for the purpose.
BRW 100 S\Lh|°¥ DºV. KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU
(1), (2), (3), (4) IÐV AapLtRÕaO¾]p jLsV
v|f|ñ D¾qU v}fU RWLaO¾]ŸOºV . Avp]¤
wq]pLpSfL JãvOU AjOSpL^|oLpSfL Bp
D¾qU WºOk]a]¨OW. CT D¾qR¾ WOr]¨OÐ
jÒ¡ D¾q¨asLy]¤ AfLfV S\Lh|¾]Rjf]Rq
DºV. CT jÒ¡ Aa°]p vQ¾U j}s ARŠË]¤
WrOÕV ox]pOç mL¥ Rk¢ DkSpLY]ˆV
WrOÕ]¨OW. D¾q°¥ ANkWLqU OMR D¾q
¨asLy]¤ oLNfU SqXRÕaO¾OW. S\Lh|°¥
Aa°]p mO¨]R£ Wv¡ Sk^]¤ j]°tORa SrL¥
jÒqOU, rlV v¡¨]jO Svº] fÐ]ŸOtt òs¾V
Af]jOtt WOr]ÕOW¥ Ku]RW oRãLÐOU IuOfqOfV.

1. The enzymes commonly called ‘Genetic 1. "^j]fW WNf]W' IÐr]pRÕ

Scissors’ are aOÐ qLyL®]W¥ BeV
(1) Ligases (1) s]SYyOW¥

(2) Lipases (2) s]SkyOW¥

(3) RrNy›]ƒ¢ I¢ScL
(3) Restriction endonucleases
j|P„]SpyOW¥
(4) Proteases
(4) SNkLŸ]SpyOW¥

2. Choose the group that contains fungi 2. lUYyOW¥ oLNfU D¥R¨LçOÐ

only NYPÕV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Euglena, lichen (1) pP…]j, RRs¨¢
(2) Yeast, mushroom
(2) p}yVãV, oxVrPU (WP¦ )
(3) Anabaena, Amoeba
(3) Ajm]j, Ao}m
(4) Paramecium, mycoplasma
(4) kLqo]y]pU, RRoSWL†LyVo

3. Climbers grow towards and around a 3. vç]Rˆa]W¥ fL°]¤ \Oã] vt

support is an example of qOÐfV IÍ]jV DhLzqeoLeV ?
(1) Hydrotropism (1) ^sSNaLk]W \sjU
(2) Haptotropism (2) yסwSNaLk]W \sjU
(3) Geotropism (3) nPYOqOf~SNaLk]W \sjU
(4) Phototropism (4) NkWLwSNaLk]W \sjU
M-1 -1- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

4. Select the correct statement regarding 4. z}SoLS…Lm]j]Rs m}ãL wQUXs

p]Rs Ao]SjL By]cOWtORa
the arrangement of aminoacids in beta ( β ) NWo}WqevOoLp] mÌR՟
NkñLvjWt]¤ j]ÐOU wq]pLpfV
chain of haemoglobin.
f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Same in man and rat (1) ojOx|j]sOU Is]p]sOU KqO
SkLRspLeV
(2) Same in man and chimpanzee (2) ojOx|j]sOU \]ÒL¢y]p]sOU
KqO SkLRspLeV
(3) Different in man and chimpanzee (3) ojOx|j]sOU \]ÒL¢y]p]sOU
v|f|ñoLeV
(4) Same in man and gorilla (4) ojOx|j]sOU SYLr]Šp]sOU KqO
SkLRspLeV
5. The gas responsible for ozone 5. KLSyL¦ SwLxe¾]jV WLqe
depletion is oLp vLfWoLeV
(1) Nitrogen and argon (1) RRjNa^jOU B¡YeOU
(2) Carbon dioxide (2) WL¡m¦ cSpLWVRRycV
(3) Carbon monoxide (3) WL¡m¦ SoLSeLWVRRycV
(4) Chlorofluorocarbons (4) S„LSrL læPSrL WL¡meOW¥

6. Chromosomes are composed of 6. SNWLoSyLoOW¥ j]¡Ú]ˆ]q]¨OÐfV

(1) DNA and protein (1) DNA pOU SNkLŸ}jOU
(2) RNA and lipids (2) RNA pOU s]k]cOWtOU
(3) Ribosomes and lipids (3) RRrSmLSyLoOWtOU s]k]cOWtOU
(4) DNA and lipids (4) DNA pOU s]k]cOWtOU

7. Choose the immune response of 7. SmSyLl]Š]R£ Nkf]SqLi Nkv¡

basophil
¾jU f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) mLWVa}q]pRp v]uO°]
(1) Engulfs and destroys the bacteria jw]Õ]¨OÐO.
(2) Produces chemical substances that (2) Aj|vñO¨Rt jw]Õ]¨OÐ
destroy foreign bodies qLyvñO¨tOºL¨OÐO.
(3) q©¨OusOW¥ v]Wy]Õ]
(3) Dilates the blood vessels
¨OÐO.
(4) Produces chemical substances (4) v}°¤ Nkf]Wqe¾]jL
needed for inflammatory response vw|oLp qLyvñO¨¥
D¤ÕLh]Õ]¨OÐO.
M-1 -2-
Class – X SAT
8. Decrease in the production of dopamine 8. ScLkLo]R£ DsVÕLhjU WOrpO
causes ÐfV oPsU DºLWOÐ SqLYU
(1) Parkinson’s (1) kL¡¨]¢y¦yV
(2) Meningitis (2) Roj]RRµã]yV
(3) Alzheimer’s (3) A¤x]SouVyV
(4) Epilepsy (4) AkyÜLqU

9. The excretory organ in cockroach is 9. kLãpORa v]y¡^jLvpvoLeV

(1) Kidney (1) vQ¨
(2) Malpighian tubules (2) oL¤k}^]p¢ jt]WW¥
(3) Contractile vacuoles (3) ySËL\Slj°¥
(4) Nephridia (4) RjNl}c]p

10. The three R’s to save the environment
represent
(1) Repeat, Reduce, Resale
(2) Reuse, Reduce, Resale
(3) Recycle, Reuse, Repeat
(4) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
10. kq]ò]f] yUqƒe¾]jLpOç
oPÐV ‘R’ W¥ IÍ]Rj yP\]Õ]
¨OÐO ?
(1) r]k}ãV, Rrc|PyV, r}RypV¤
(2) r}pPyV, Rrc|PyV, r}RypV¤
(3) r}RRy¨]¥, r}pPyV, r]k}ãV
(4) Rrc|PyV, r}RRy¨]¥, r}pPyV

11. Glands are modified forms of ______ 11. _________qPkLÍqU NkLk]ˆLeV

NYÏ]W¥ DºLp]q]¨OÐfV.
(1) Epithelial tissue
(1) Bvqe Ws
(2) Cardiac tissue
(2) WL¡c]pLWV Ws
(3) Muscular tissue
(3) Skw}Ws
(4) Connective tissue (4) SpL^W Ws

12. Movement of water molecules from a 12. ^sfÓLNfW¥ Af]R£ YLdf

region of its higher concentration to a
WPa]p nLY¾Oj]ÐO YLdf
WOr´ nLYS¾¨V KqO A¡i
region of its lower concentration through
fLq|yVfq¾]sPRa v|Lk]¨OÐ
a semi permeable membrane is called NkNW]ppLeV
(1) Plasmolysis
(1) †LyVSoLt]y]yV
(2) Endocytosis
(2) I¢ScLRRySãLy]yV
(3) Osmosis (3) KLyVSoLy]yV
(4) Diffusion (4) c]l|Px¢
M-1 -3- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT
13. Which of the following statement is 13. Ra¢cjOoLp] mÌR՟V wq]pLp
correct about tendons ? NkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Aò]pOU Aò]pOU fÚ]¤
(1) Connect bones to bones mÌ]Õ]¨OÐO.
(2) Connect bones to muscles (2) Aò]pOU Skw]pOU fÚ]¤
(3) Smoothen bone surfaces
mÌ]Õ]¨OÐO.
(3) Aò]pORa NkfsU opRÕaO
(4) Fibrous tissue with high flexibility ¾OÐO.
(4) WPaOf¤ vu¨oOç jLqOWs.
14. Select the process that occurs in dark 14. CqOºZŸ¾]¤ ja¨OÐ NkNW]p
reaction. f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) Light energy is converted into (1) NkWLSwL¡^U qLSyL¡^oL¨]
chemical energy oLãOÐO.
(2) Water splits into hydrogen and (2) ^sU v]Za]ˆV RRzNc^jOU
oxygen KLWVy]^jOU DºLWOÐO.
(3) Hydrogen is added to carbon (3) RRzNc^¢ WL¡m¦ cSpLWV
dioxide RRycOoLp] S\¡¨OÐO.
(4) Oxygen is evolved (4) KLWVy]^¢ y~fNÍoLWOÐO.

15. Which of the following statements 15. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ Bã¾]R£

DO NOT match with the postulates of
SmL¡ oLfQWpORa AjOoLj
°tOoLp] SpL^]¨L¾ NkñLvj
Bohr’s model of atom ? SpfV ?
a. Electrons are revolving around the a. CsSNûLeOW¥ Bã¾]jO \OãOU
nucleus in specified paths called KL¡m]ãOW¥ AgvL RxŠOW¥
orbits/shells IÐO v]t]¨OÐ WQf|kLf
b. Each shell is associated with Wt]¤ WPa] Wr°]R¨Lº]q]
¨OÐO
definite amount of energy
b. KLSqL RxŠ]jOU j]é]f DT¡²U
c. Electron, while revolving through DºV
a particular shell can increase or c. KqO j]é]f RxŠ]¤ WPa] Wr
decrease its energy °OÐ CsSNûLe]jV Af]R£
d. Energy of the shells decreases as DT¡²U WOrpV¨LSjL WPŸLSjL
their distance from nucleus Wu]pOU
increases d. j|P„]pô]¤ j]ÐOç AWsU
WPaOÐf]jjOyq]ˆV RxŠO
Select the correct alternative. WtORa DT¡²U WOrpOÐO
(1) (c) and (d) wq]pLpNkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
(2) (b) and (c) (1) (c) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (a) and (c) (2) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (b) and (d) (3) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (b) pOU (d) pOU
M-1 -4-
Class – X SAT
16. Which of the following statements are 16. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤,
NOT CORRECT ? wq]pŠL¾SffV ?
a. Isobars are atoms of same a. KSq oPsW°tORa Bã°tLeV
elements RISyLmLrOW¥
b. Isotopes are atoms of different b. v|f|ñ oPsW°tORa Bã°
elements tLeV RISyLSaLÕOW¥
c. Isotones are atoms of same
c. KSq oPsW°tORa Bã°tLeV
elements
RISyLSaLeOW¥
d. Isotones are atoms of different
elements d. v|f|ñ oPsW°tORa Bã
°tLeV RISyLSaLeOW¥
Select the correct alternative.
wq]pLp NkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) (b) and (c)
(1) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(2) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a) pOU (b) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (d) only (4) (d) oLNfU

17. Which of the following represents the 17. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ oPsW
sequence in which the given compounds °Rt AvpORa ZaW oPsW
are arranged in the increasing order of °tORa C s S N û L R j Y ã ] v ] ã ]
the electronegativity difference of their v|f|Ly¾]R£ BSqLze NWo
component elements ? ¾]¤ v]j|y]ˆ]q]¨OÐ Sèe]
CH4, NaCl, CO, Na2O, MgCl2
JfV ?
(1) CH4 < MgCl2 < CO < NaCl < Na2O CH4, NaCl, CO, Na2O, MgCl2
(1) CH4 < MgCl2 < CO < NaCl < Na2O
(2) Na2O < CO < MgCl2 < NaCl < CH4
(2) Na2O < CO < MgCl2 < NaCl < CH4
(3) MgCl2 < Na2O < CO < CH4 < NaCl (3) MgCl2 < Na2O < CO < CH4 < NaCl
(4) CH4 < CO < MgCl2 < NaCl < Na2O (4) CH4 < CO < MgCl2 < NaCl < Na2O
18. Water is a compound with relatively low 18. fLqfSo|j WOr´ SoLt]W|OsL¡
molecular mass (18 g mol–1). But it exists oLôOç KqO yUpO©oLeV ^sU
(18 g mol–1) IÐL¤ CfV AÍ
as a liquid at room temperature. This is
q}ƒ DTxÜ L v]¤ NhLvWLv
because òp]sLeV ò]f] R\áOÐfV .
(1) Water molecules have angular Cf]jO WLqeU
geometry (1) ^s fÓLNfW¥¨V B¢YOsL¡
S^|LRoNa]pOçf]jL¤
(2) Electronegativity difference
(2) RRzNc^jOU KLWõ ] ^jOU fÚ]
between hydrogen and oxygen is sOç CsSNûLRRjYã]v]ã]
less v|f|LyU WOrvLpf]jL¤
(3) Water molecules are associated (3) ^sfÓLNfW¥ RRzNc^¢
through hydrogen bonding mÌjU vu] KqOo]ˆO S\qOÐ
f]jL¤
(4) Water is a universal solvent
(4) ^sU KqO yL¡‹sLpWoLpf]jL¤

M-1 -5- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

19. Which of the following represents pairs 19. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤

of metalloids ?
DkSsLz S^Lc]Rp yP\]Õ]¨OÐ
SffV ?
a. Si & Sb
a. Si & Sb
b. Pb & Sb
b. Pb & Sb
c. Ru & Rh c. Ru & Rh
d. Ge & As d. Ge & As

Select the correct alternative. wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.

(1) (b) and (d) (1) (b) pOU (d) pOU

(2) (a) and (c) (2) (a) pOU (c) pOU

(3) (b) and (c) (3) (b) pOU (c) pOU

(4) (a) and (d) (4) (a) pOU (d) pOU

20. Which of the following reactions 20. fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOçvp]¤ JfV

requires the highest temperature to qLyNkv¡¾jU ja¨OÐf]jLeV
occur ? JãvOU WPa]p fLkj]s Bvw|
(1) N2 + O2 → 2NO oOçfV ?
(1) N2 + O2 → 2NO
(2) 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
(2) 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
(3) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
(3) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
(4) 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3
(4) 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3

21. The total number of electrons in 1 kg 21. KqO W]SsLNYLU …PS¨Ly]Rs

glucose (C6H12O6) is [Molecular mass of (C6H12O6) BRW CsSNûLeOWtORa
I¹RoNf ? […PS¨Ly]R£ SoLt]
glucose is 180 u]
W|OsL¡ oLôV 180 u BeV ]
(1) 6.022 × 10 23
(1) 6.022 × 10 23
(2) 1.8 × 10 5 (2) 1.8 × 10 5
(3) 3.346 × 10 21 (3) 3.346 × 10 21
(4) 3.2 × 10 26 (4) 3.2 × 10 26

M-1 -6-
Class – X SAT
22. Which of the following are NOT 22. o¡ÇU v¡È]Õ]¨OSÒL¥, KqO
CORRECT for a gaseous reversible vLfW Dnp h]wL Nkv¡¾jR¾
reaction when pressure is increased ?
yUmÌ]ˆV wq]pŠL¾Sfv ?
a. Distance between gaseous
molecules decreases a. vLfW fÓLNfW¥ fÚ]sOç
b. Number of molecules per unit AWsU WOrpOÐO
volume decreases b. pPe]ãO v|LkVf¾]sOç fÓLNf
c. Reaction proceeds in the WtORa I¹U WOrpOÐO
direction in which there is c. SoLtOWtORa I¹U WPaOÐ h ] w
increase in number of moles
d. Reaction proceeds in the direction
p]¤ Nkv¡¾jU ja¨OÐO
in which there is decrease in number d. SoLtOWtORa I¹U WOrpOÐ
of moles h]wp]¤ Nkv¡¾jU ja¨OÐO
Select the correct alternative. wq]pLp NkñLvj f]qR´aO¨OW.
(1) (a) and (d) (1) (a) pOU (d) pOU
(2) (b) and (d) (2) (b) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (a) and (c) (3) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) pOU (c) pOU
23. In which of the following solutions iron 23. fLRuRWLaO¾]ŸOçvp]¤
gets oxidized ? JRfLR¨ sLpj]Wt]sLeV CqOÒV
a. Silver nitrate KLWõ}Wqe¾]jV v]SipoLWOÐfV ?
b. Zinc sulphate a. y]¤v¡ RRjSNaãV
c. Magnesium sulphate b. y]ËV y¥SlãV
d. Copper sulphate c. oYVj}x|U y¥SlãV
Select the correct alternative. d. SWLÕ¡ y¥SlãV
(1) (b) and (d) wq]pLpfV f]qR´aO¨OW.
(2) (a) and (c) (1) (b) pOU (d) pOU
(3) (b) and (c) (2) (a) pOU (c) pOU
(3) (b) pOU (c) pOU
(4) (a) and (d)
(4) (a) pOU (d) pOU
24. When the reaction 24. Pb (NO3 )2 → 2PbO + NO2 + O2 IÐ
Pb (NO3 )2 → 2PbO + NO2 + O2 is qLyNkv¡¾jU yo}Wq]¨OSÒL¥
balanced the coefficients of the yo}WQf yovLW|¾]¤ An]WLq
reactants and products in the balanced W°tOSapOU D¤ÕаtOSapOU
SWLp]l]x|£OW¥, fLRuÕrpO
reaction will be
Ðvp]¤ JfLp]q]¨OU ?
(1) 4, 2, 1, 2 (2) 2, 2, 4, 1
(1) 4, 2, 1, 2 (2) 2, 2, 4, 1
(3) 2, 4, 1, 2 (4) 4, 2, 2, 1 (3) 2, 4, 1, 2 (4) 4, 2, 2, 1

M-1 -7- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

25. What is the volume of N2 gas formed 25. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ yo vLW|
at STP when 63 g of (NH4)2 Cr2O7 is NkWLqU v]Za]¨OSÒL¥ 63g
thermally decomposed according to (NH4 )2 Cr2 O 7 j¤WOÐ N2 v]R£

the equation given below ? (Atomic

v|LkÅU STP p]¤ INf Bp]q]¨OU ?
(ASãLo]W oLyV Cr = 52, H = 1,
mass of Cr = 52, H = 1, N = 14, O = 16)
N = 14, O = 16)
(NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3
(NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3
(1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L
(1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L (3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L

26. What is the number of s-electrons 26. KqO SNWLo]pU Bã¾]¤ INf
present in a chromium atom ? s – CsSNûL¦ DºV ?
(SNWLo]p¾]R£ ASãLo]W
(Atomic number of Cr – 24)
yUX| – 24)
(1) 7 (2) 1
(1) 7 (2) 1
(3) 8 (4) 5
(3) 8 (4) 5

27. The two elements X and Y have 5 and 27. X IÐ oPsW¾]¤ 5, Y IÐ oPs
7 valance electrons respectively. What W¾]¤ 7 IÐ]°Rj vLs¢yV
CsSNûLeOW¥ DºV . X, Y Cv
will be the most probable formula of the fÚ]¤ DºLWLvOÐ yUpO©
compound formed between them ? ¾]R£ JãvOU yLÈ|fpOç
SlL¡oOs JfV ?
(1) X7 Y5 (2) X5 Y7
(1) X7Y5 (2) X5Y7
(3) X3 Y (4) XY3
(3) X3Y (4) XY 3

28. The average acceleration of a body 28. ‘t’yop CaSvtp]¤ KqO vñO
during a time interval ‘t’ is given by the v]R£ wqLwq] f~qeU We¨L¨O
slope of its ÐfV JfO NYLl]R£ \q]v]¤
j]ÐLeV ?
(1) Velocity – speed graph
(1) NkSvY – SvYf NYLlV
(2) Velocity – time graph
(2) NkSvY – yop NYLlV
(3) Speed – time graph (3) SvYf – yop NYLlV
(4) Velocity – displacement graph (4) NkSvY – òLjLÍq NYLlV

M-1 -8-
Class – X SAT
29. An object moving at a constant speed 29. v¡¾Ot kLfp]sPRa ò]qSvYf
in a circular path experiences a force p]¤ \s]ˆO RWLº]q]¨OÐ KqO
which is vñOv]¤ AjOnvRÕaOÐ msU
(1) In the direction of motion (1) vñOv]R£ \sj h]wp]sLeV
(2) Outwards and at 45° to the direction (2) \sj kLfàV 45 SWLe]¤ kOr

of motion S¾¨LeV
(3) Inwards and at right angles to the (3) \sjkLfàV sUmoLp] AW
direction of motion S¾àLeV
(4) Opposite to the direction of motion (4) \sj h]wpORa v]kq}fh]w
p]sLeV
30. A vehicle will accelerate as long as 30. KqO vLzj¾]jV f~qeU AjOnv
RÕaOÐfV
(1) Air resistance is greater than the
(1) vLpO Nkf]SqLiU Nfð]Sj¨L¥
thrust WPaOfsLWOÐfO vRq
(2) Air resistance is greater than the (2) vLpO Nkf]SqLiU Af]R£
inertia
^cf~R¾¨L¥ WPaOÐfO
vRq
(3) Thrust is greater than the sum of air (3) NfðV , vLpO Nkf]SqLi¾]R£pOU
resistance and friction Z¡xe¾]R£pOU fOWRp
¨L¥ WPaOfsLWOÐfOvRq
(4) Friction is greater than the thrust (4) Z¡xeU Nfð]Rj¨L¥ WPaOf
sLWOÐfOvRq
31. Which of the following statement is
31. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ wq]pLp
correct ? NkñLvjSpfV ?
The force acting on an object is KqO vñOv]¤ AjOnvRÕaOÐ
msU __________ fOs|oLeV.
equivalent to
(1) Af]R£ B¨ v|f|LyS¾LaV
(1) Its change in momentum (2) Af]jV KqO Ry¨£]¤ sn]¨OÐ
BSvYS¾LaV
(2) The impulse it receives per second (3) Af]jV KqO Ry¨£]¤ sn]¨OÐ
(3) The energy it gains per second DT¡²S¾LaV
(4) Af]R£ KqO o}ãr]sOºLWOÐ
(4) Its acceleration per meter
f~qeS¾LaV
32. Work done by the force of gravity on a 32. 36000 km Dpq¾]¤ 500 kg oLyOç

satellite of 500 kg at a height of 36000 km is

KqO DkNYz¾]¤ nPYOqOf~LW¡
xe msU R\áOÐ NkvQ¾]
(1) 0 J (2) 1031 J ________ BeV.
(3) 1021 J (4) 109.8 J (1) 0 J (2) 1031J
(3) 1021J (4) 109.8J
M-1 -9- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

33. Upthrust of water acting on a wooden 33. kP¡¹oLp] ^s¾]¤ j]o®oLp]q]

¨OÐ 10 cm vw°tOç KqO
cube of side 10 cm immersed
W|Pm]¤ AjOnvRÕaOÐ †v
completely in water is (density of ƒomsU
water = 1000 kgm–3 and g = 10 ms–2) [^s¾]R£ yLNÎf = 1000kgm–3,
g = 10 ms–2]
(1) 5 N (2) 10 N
(1) 5 N (2) 10 N
(3) 3 N (4) 2 N (3) 3 N (4) 2 N

34. Energy transferred to a stone of weight 34. 250 o}ã¡ DpqoOç KqO SYLkOq
10 N, falling freely from the top of a tower ¾]¤ j]ÐV j]¡mLiU kf]¨OÐ
of 250 m height is about 10 N nLqoOç KqO WŠ]jO sn]¨OÐ

(1) 25000 J
DT¡²U.
(1) 25000 J
(2) 250000 J
(2) 250000 J
(3) 2500 J
(3) 2500 J
(4) 250 J
(4) 250 J

35. The factor on which the speed of sound 35. vLpOv]sPRapOç wmV h NkSv
through air doesn’t depend is YR¾ y~Li}j]¨L¾ ZaWU
JfV ?
(1) Humidity
(1) B¡Nhf
(2) Density
(2) yLNÎf
(3) Temperature (3) DTxÜLvV
(4) Frequency of sound (4) wý¾]R£ BvQ¾]

36. The waves that require a material 36. SNkxeU R\áRÕaL¢ KqO oLi|oU
medium for their propagation are Bvw|oLp fqUY°¥ Ar]p
called RÕaOÐfV ?
(1) Matter waves (1) Nhv|fqUY°¥
(2) Electromagnetic waves (2) RRvh|Of WLÍ]W fqUY°¥
(3) Carrier waves (3) vLzW fqUY°¥
(4) Mechanical waves (4) pLNÍ]W fqUY°¥

M-1 -10-
Class – X SAT

37. How much heat does a 40 W bulb 37. 40 WkvrOç KqO RRvh|Of
generate in 1 hour ? m¥mV KqO oe]¨Pr]¤ D¤nv]Õ]
(1) 144000 J
¨OÐ fLkU INf ?
(1) 144000 J
(2) 144 J
(2) 144 J
(3) 1.44 J (3) 1.44 J
(4) 14 J (4) 14 J

38. Three bulbs are rated 40 W, 60 W and 38. 220 V SNyLfyOoLp] Sèe} q}f]
100 W. Which bulb will glow brightly if p]¤ Za]Õ]ˆ]ŸOç 40 W, 60 W,
they are connected in series across a 100 W IÐ} kvrOWtOç m¥mO

220 V source ? Wt]¤, WPa]p f}Nvfp]¤ NkWLw]

¨OÐ m¥mV JfV ?
(1) 40 W
(1) 40 W
(2) 60 W
(2) 60 W
(3) 100 W
(3) 100 W
(4) All will glow equally bright
(4) oPÐOU KSq q}f]p]¤ NkWLw]¨OU
39. A device which uses the phenomenon 39. o|P\~¤ C¢cƒ¢ DkSpLY
of mutual induction is RÕaO¾]p]q]¨OÐ KqO DkWqeU
(1) AC generator (1) I y] ^jSrã¡
(2) DC generator (2) c] y] ^jSrã¡
(3) Induction coil (3) C¢cƒ¢ SWLp]¤
(4) Transformer (4) NaL¢yVSlL¡o¡

40. Indian Regional Navigation Satellite 40. CÍ|¢ r}^]pe¤ jLv]SYx¢

System (IRNSS) has a group of _____ yLãRRsãV y]ð [IRNSS] ¾]sOç
satellites. DkNYz°tORa I¹U
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 9
(3) 7 (4) 9

M-1 -11- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

41. Using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without 41. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 IÐ} A¨°¥

repetition, 120 five-digit numbers can Bv¡¾]¨LRf DkSpLY]ˆV 120
Aµ¨yUX|W¥ DºL¨LU.
be made. How many five-digit
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, IÐ} A¨°¥ Bv¡
numbers can be made using the ¾]¨LRf DkSpLY]ˆV INf Aµ
digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 without repetition ? ¨yUX|W¥ DºL¨LU ?
(1) 120 (1) 120

(2) 100 (2) 100

(3) 96 (3) 96

(4) 24 (4) 24

42. 3 , 1 1 , 2 1 , ... IÐ yoLÍq Sèe]

42. In the arithmetic sequence 4 2 4
3 , 1 1 , 2 1 , ... at which position p]Rs INfLoR¾ òLj¾LeV
4 2 4 Bh|oLp] KqO kP¡ev¡YU
does a perfect square appear first ? vqOÐfV ?
(1) 192 (2) 108 (1) 192 (2) 108
(3) 48 (4) 12 (3) 48 (4) 12

43. How much more is the sum of the first 43. 11, 21, 31,... IÐ yoLÍq Sèe]

40 terms of the arithmetic sequence pORa Bh|R¾ 40 kh°tORa

fOWRp¨L¥ INf WPaOfsLeV,
11, 21, 31, ... than the sum of the first
12, 23, 34, ... IÐ yoLÍqSèe]
40 terms of the arithmetic sequence
pORa Bh|R¾ 40 kh°tORa
12, 23, 34, ... ?
fOW.
(1) 1600 (2) 820 (1) 1600 (2) 820

(3) 780 (4) 40 (3) 780 (4) 40

44. The difference of the squares of two 44. qºV I¹¤ yUX|WtORa v¡Y
natural numbers is 101. What is the °tORa v|f|LyU 101. AvpORa
v¡Y°tORa fOW IÍLeV ?
sum of their squares ?
(1) 5000 (2) 5100 (1) 5000 (2) 5100

(3) 5101 (4) 5102 (3) 5101 (4) 5102

M-1 -12-
Class – X SAT

45. Each three-digit number is written in 45. oPШ yUX|WStLSqLÐOU KLSqL

WasLyV fOº]RsuOf] KqO RkŸ]
a paper slip and put in a box. If one
p]¤ CŸ]ŸOºV . Cf]¤ j]ÐV KqO
slip is drawn from it, what is the fORºaO¾L¤ Af]Rs yUX| 5 ¤
probability of it being a multiple of 9 AvyLj]¨OÐ 9 R£ YOe]f
which ends in 5 ? oLWLjOç yLi|f IÍLeV ?
1 1 1 1
(1) 9 (2) 18 (1) (2)
9 18
1 1 1 1
(3) 90 (4) 100 (3) (4)
90 100

46. What number added to the polynomial 46. 3x 2 + 5x IÐ mzOkh¾]SjLaV

3x2 + 5x gives the square of a first JfO yUX| WPŸ]pL¤ KqO KÐLU
degree polynomial ? WQf] mzOkh¾]R£ v¡YoLWOU ?
25 25
(1) 25 (2) 25 (1) (2)
12 24 12 24

(3) 25 (4) 25 (3)

25
(4)
25
36 48 36 48

47. In the polynomial p( x ) = x 2 − 10 x + 2 , 47. IÐ mzOkh

p(x) = x2 – 10x + 2
what number should be taken as x to ¾]¤, x Bp] JfO yUX| IaO¾L
get the least possible number as p(x) ?
sLeV p(x) Bp] JãvOU R\r]p
yUX| W]ŸOÐfV ?
(1) 10 (2) 5
(1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 0 (4) –5
(3) 0 (4) –5

48. If all real numbers are taken as x, 48. x Bp] IŠL SqX}pyUX|WtO
what is the smallest number got as RoaO¾L¤, |x – 1| + |x – 2| + |x – 4|
x−1 + x− 2 + x −4 ? Bp] W]ŸOÐ JãvOU R\r]p
yUX| IÍLeV ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4

M-1 -13- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

49. The areas of two squares are in the 49. qºO yo\fOq°tORa kqÕtvOW¥
ratio a : b and their perimeters are in a : b IРAUwm̾]sOU, Av
pORa \OãtvOW¥ b : 8a IÐ
the ratio b : 8a. What is the ratio of
AUwm̾]sOoLeV. AvpORa
their sides ? vw°¥ fÚ]sOç AUwmÌU
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4 IÍLeV ?
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

50. The sum of a number and its 50. KqO yUX|pORapOU Af]R£ v|O¤
reciprocal is 4. What is their difference ?
NWo¾]R£pOU fOW 4 BeV. Av
pORa v|f|LyU IÍLeV ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 2 2 (4) 2 3 (3) 2 2 (4) 2 3

51. Which of the polygons given below 51. \OvRa RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤

cannot be drawn by joining the JfO mzOnO^oLeV, KqO S„L¨]Rs
numbers on a clock ?
yUX|W¥ SpL^]Õ]ˆV vqàL¢ Wu]
pL¾fV ?
(1) Equilateral triangle
(1) yonO^Nf]SWLeU
(2) Square
(2) yo\fOqU
(3) Regular pentagon
(3) yokµnO^U
(4) Regular hexagon
(4) yoxcVnO^U
52. The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are 52. KqO \NW}p \fO¡nO^¾]R£
in one of the ratios given below. Which SWLeOW¥, \OvRa RWLaO¾]
is it ? q]¨OÐvp]¤ KqO AUwmÌ
¾]sLeV. JfLefV ?
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 : 3 : 4
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 : 3 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 4 : 3 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 : 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 4 : 3 : 2

53. The angles of a 15-sided polygon are 53. 15 vw°tOç KqO mzOnO^¾]Rs
in arithmetic sequence. Which of SWLeOW¥ yoLÍqSèe]p]
those given below is an angle of this sLeV. Cf]Rs KqO SWL¦ \OvRa
polygon ? RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤ JfLeV ?
(1) 128° (2) 130° (1) 128° (2) 130°
(3) 132° (4) 156° (3) 132° (4) 156°
M-1 -14-
Class – X SAT

54. The bisectors of ∠ A and ∠ B of the 54. ABC IÐ Nf]SWLe¾]Rs ∠ A ,

triangle ABC meet at P and PQ, PR ∠ B CvpORa yonL^]W¥ P p]¤
WPŸ]oOŸOÐO. PQ, PR Cv AC, BC
are parallel to AC and BC. CvàV yoLÍqoLeV.

The perimeter of triangle PQR is Nf]SWLeU PQR R£ \OãtvV 30

30 centimeters. What is the length of AB ? Ry£]o}ãrLeV AB pORa j}tU INf
(1) 20 (2) 25 Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 30 (4) 45
(3) 30 (4) 45

55. ABC is an equilateral triangle and the 55. ABC KqO yonO^Nf]SWLeoLeV .
points P, Q, R divide the sides AB, P, Q, R IÐ} m]ÎO¨¥ AB, BC, CA
BC, CA in the ratio 1 : 2. IÐ} vw°Rt 1 : 2 IÐ AUw
m̾]¤ nLY]¨OÐO.

If the area of triangle PQR is 60 Nf]SWLeU PQR R£ kqÕtvV 60

square centimeters, what is the area \fOqè Ry£]o}ã¡, Nf]SWLeU
of triangle ABC ? ABC pORa kqÕtvV INf \fOqè
Ry£]o}ã¡ ?
(1) 180 (2) 150
(1) 180 (2) 150
(3) 120 (4) 90
(3) 120 (4) 90

M-1 -15- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

56. In the picture, a diameter of the 56. \]Nf¾]Rs vQ¾¾]¤ KqO v|LyvOU,
circle and a chord perpendicular to Af]jO sUmoLp KqO `LeOU
vqˆ]q]¨OÐO.
it are drawn.

The length of the chord is 24 `Le}R£ j}tU 24 Ry£}o}ãrOU,

centimeters and it cuts the diameter AfV v|LyR¾ oOr]¨OÐfV 9 : 1
in the ratio 9 : 1. What is the diameter IРAUw m̾]sOoLeV. v|LyU
in centimeters ?
INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 20 (2) 30
(1) 20 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 60
(3) 40 (4) 60

57. In the picture, chords AB and CD of

57. \]Nf¾]¤ vQ¾¾]Rs AB, CD
IÐ} `LeOW¥ j}Ÿ]pfV P IÐ
the circle are extended to meet at P m]ÎOv]¤ WPŸ]oOŸOÐO. AD, BC
and the chords AD and BC intersect IÐ} `LeOW¥ Q IÐ m]ÎO
at Q. v]¤ oOr]ˆO Wa¨OÐO.

AC IÐ R\r]p \Lk¾]R£ SWNÎ

The central angle of the smaller arc
SWL¦ 120° DU BD IÐ R\r]p
AC is 120° and the central angle of \Lk¾]R£ SWNÎSWL¦ 30° DU
the smaller arc BD is 30°. What are BeV ∠APC , ∠AQC Cv INf
∠APC and ∠AQC ? pLeV ?
(1) 15°, 60° (2) 45°, 75° (1) 15 ° , 60° (2) 45°, 75°
(3) 40°, 80° (4) 50°, 80° (3) 40°, 80 ° (4) 50°, 80°
M-1 -16-
Class – X SAT
58. In the picture, AB and CD are 58. \]Nf¾]¤ AB, CD vQ¾¾]Rs
diameters of the circle and E is a point v|Ly°tLeV. E vQ¾¾]Rs KqO
on the circle. m]ÎOvOU

The diameter of the circle is 6 vQ¾¾]R£ v|LyU 6 Ry£]o}ã¡

centimeters. What is the length of DE ? DE pORa j}tU INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 2 3 (2) 3 3
(1) 2 3 (2) 3 3
(3) 4 3 (4) 6 3
(3) 4 3 (4) 6 3

59. An exterior angle of a regular polygon

59. KqO yomzOnO^¾]R£ mLz|
SWL¦ 36° pOU JãvOU vs]p KqO
is 36° and one of its longest diagonals v]W¡e¾]R£ j}tU 10 Ry£}
is 10 centimeters. What is its perimeter ? o}ãrOoLeV . mzOnO^¾]R£
\OãtvV INf Ry£]o}ãrLeV ?
(1) 100 sin 18° (2) 100 sin 36°
(1) 100 sin 18° (2) 100 sin 36°
(3) 100 sin 54° (4) 100 sin 72°
(3) 100 sin 54° (4) 100 sin 72 °
60. In the trapezium shown below, the 60. \]Nf¾]¤ sUmW¾]R£ yoLÍq
longer of the parallel sides is three vw°t]¤ R\rOf]R£ oPÐO
times the shorter. oa°LeV vsOfV.

If a point is marked within the sUmW¾]jOç]¤ KqO WO¾]ŸL¤,

trapezium, what is the probability that AfV WrOÕ]ˆ Nf]SWLe¾]jOç]¤
it would be within the shaded triangle ?
BWLjOç yLi|f IÍLeV ?
1 2 1 2
(1) (2) 3 (1) (2)
2 2 3
4
(3) 3 (4) 5 (3)
3
(4)
4
4 4 5
M-1 -17- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

61. The practice of land grants in India 61. CÍ|p]¤ nPhLjU BqUn]ˆfV JfO
was started by qL^L¨ÓLqORa WLs¾Lp]qOÐO ?
(1) Cholas (1) S\Lt¢oL¡

(2) Pandyas (2) kL¼|ÓL¡

(3) Satavahanas (3) wLfvLzjÓL¡

(4) Guptas (4) YOkÅÓL¡

62. Rearrange chronologically

62. NWoLjOYfoLp] \]ŸRÕaO¾OW.
a. mLRRðs]R£ kfjU
a. Fall of Bastille
b. RaÐ}yV SWL¡ŸV Nkf]³
b. Oath of Tennis Court
c. jLxe¤ AôU‡]
c. National Assembly
d. Execution of Louis XVI d. sPp] XVI LoR£ viw]ƒ
jaÕL¨¤
(1) a b c d
(1) a b c d
(2) c a b d
(2) c a b d
(3) b c a d
(3) b c a d
(4) d a b c
(4) d a b c

63. Which among the following is the holy 63. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV
book of Buddhism ? mOÈof¾]R£ v]wOÈ NYÏ
oLp] Ar]pRÕaOÐfV ?
(1) Purvas
(1) kP¡‹°¥
(2) Angas
(2) AUY°¥
(3) Tripitakas (3) Nf]k]aW°¥
(4) Zend Avesta (4) Ry£V ARvñ

64. Which among the following is not 64. fLRukrpOÐvp]¤ SpL^]¨L

correctly matched ? ¾fV JfV ?
(1) Mrichchakatikam – Sudraka (1) oQ±Wa]WU – wPNhW¢

(2) Svapnavasavadatta – Bhasa (2) y~kÔvLyvh¾U – nLy¢

(3) Devichandraguptam – Bharavi (3) Shv}\NÎYOkÅU – nqv]
(4) Dasakumaracharita – Dandi (4) hwWOoLq\q]fU – h¼]
M-1 -18-
Class – X SAT

65. Who among the following was the 65. NkL\}j fo]uV yLz]f| yP\j
God of ‘Marutam’ as recorded in old NkWLqU oqOf¾]Rs BqLijL
Tamil literature ? oP¡¾]pLqV ?
(1) Cheyon (1) S\SpL¢
(2) Mayon (2) oLSpL¢
(3) Kottavai (3) RWLãRRv
(4) Ventan (4) Sv͢

66. Which is the correct chronological 66. fLRu krpOÐ yUnv°tORa wq]
order of the following events ? pLp WLsYejLNWoU JfLeV ?
a. W~]ãV CÍ|LyoqU
a. Quit India Movement
b. DÕV yf|LNYzU
b. Salt Satyagraha
c. ^Ls]p¢vLsL mLYV hOqÍU
c. Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
d. jLv]W WsLkU
d. Naval Mutiny
(1) a b d c
(1) a b d c
(2) b c a d
(2) b c a d
(3) c b a d
(3) c b a d
(4) d c b a
(4) d c b a

67. The term ‘tithe’ stands for 67. "f]Rg' IÐfV IÍLeV A¡À
oL¨OÐfV ?
(1) Tax levied by the Church (1) NW]ñ}p ShvLspU \Oo¾OÐ
(2) Tax levied by the State j]WOf]
(2) Yv¦Ro£V \Oo¾OÐ j]WOf]
(3) Tax levied by the feudal lord
(3) nPNknO \Oo¾OÐ j]WOf]
(4) Tax on animals (4) oQY°¥¨Oç j]WOf]

68. Mahadandanayaka under the Gupta 68. YOkÅ nqe WLsR¾ ozLh¼
rule was taking care of jLpW¢ RRWWLq|U R\pÅ]qOÐ
vWOÕV ?
(1) Revenue
(1) rvj|P
(2) Police
(2) SkLs}yV
(3) Judiciary (3) j}f]j|LpU
(4) Army (4) RRyj|U

M-1 -19- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

69. Terms ‘Zat’ and ‘Sawar’ are related to 69. "yLfV ', "yvL¡' IÐ} kh°¥
(1) Iqta system
IÍOoLp] mÌR՟fLeV ?
(1) CXVf yNÒhLpU
(2) Jagirdari system
(2) ^LY]¡hLq] yNÒhLpU
(3) Ryotwari system
(3) rpŸVvLq] yNÒhLpU
(4) Mansabdari system (4) o¢ymVhLq] yNÒhLpU

70. ‘The Fat Man’ was 70. "h] lLãV oL¢' IÐfV A¡ÀoL¨O
ÐfV
(1) an atom bomb
(1) BãU SmLUmV
(2) a ship (2) WÕs]R£ SkqV
(3) a code name of the Gestapo (3) YñSÕLv]¤ DkSpLY]ˆ]qOÐ
SWLcV
(4) name of an autobiography
(4) KqO BÄWgpORa SkqV
71. Which among the following is 71. fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ "NYLoy~pU
connected with the idea of ‘Village nqeU' IÐ BwpvOoLp]
Autonomy’ ? mÌR՟SffV ?
(1) Sivaji (1) w]v^]
(2) Krishna Deva Raya (2) WQxVe ShvqLp¡
(3) Chola administration (3) S\Lt nqeU
(4) Sultanate of Delhi (4) c¤z]p]Rs y¤¾j¾V

72. The film ‘Grand Illusion’ tells the story of 72. "NYL£V CŠ|Px¢' IÐ y]j]opORa
(1) The French Revolution
NkSopU
(1) NlµV v]†vU
(2) The Russian Revolution
(2) rx|¢ v]†vU
(3) The First World War (3) KÐLU SsLW pOÈU
(4) The Second World War (4) qºLU SsLW pOÈU

73. Which among the following water 73. jä]p]ŸOçvp]¤ JfV ^skLf
ways is considered as National Water pLeV Shw}p^skLf – 1 Bp]
Way 1 ? We¨L¨RÕaOÐfV ?
(1) The Brahmaputra river between (1) yLh]p oOf¤ iPNm] vRqpOç
Sadiya and Dhubri NmùkONfjh]
(2) The West coast canal in Kerala (2) SWqt¾]Rs ké]of}q WjL¤
(3) The Ganga river between (3) AszmLh]jOU zL¤c]
Allahabad and Haldia pàOo]ap]sOç YUYLjh]
(4) Buckingham canal of (4) BNÌLNkShw]Rs m¨]UzLU
Andhra Pradesh WjL¤
M-1 -20-
Class – X SAT

74. The industries which supply their 74. oãV v|vyLp°¥¨V Bvw|oLp
products as raw materials for other AyUyV W QfvñO¨¥ D¤kLh]
industries are called as Õ]ˆV NkhLjU R\áOÐ v|vyLp
°Rt v]t]¨OÐ SkqV
(1) Consumer good industries
(1) DkSnLWVfQ v|vyLp°¥
(2) Basic industries
(2) Aa]òLj v|vyLp°¥
(3) Footloose industries
(3) kLhoO© v|vyLp°¥
(4) Agro-based industries
(4) WQx]pi]xVb]f v|vyLp°¥

75. The finest iron ore with more than 70% 75. 70% ¾]SsRr CqOÒV AUwoOç
iron content is Dp¡Ð j]svLq¾]sOç CqOÒ
(1) Haemetite p]SqfV ?
(1) SzoRRããV
(2) Magnetite
(2) oLYVjRRããV
(3) Limonite
(3) s]SoLRReãV
(4) Siderite
(4) y]cRRrãV

76. Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh is 76. z]oL\¤ NkShw]Rs oe]Wq¢

known for IÐ òsU IÍ]jL¤ Nky]È
(1) Geo-thermal energy project oLeV ?
(1) nTofLSkL¡² kÈf]
(2) Thermal power project
(2) fLSkL¡² kÈf]
(3) Nuclear energy project
(3) BeSvL¡² kÈf]
(4) Hydel power project
(4) ^sRRvh|Of kÈf]

77. Jhumming refers to 77. "^Po]UYV ' IÐfV IÍ]Rj yP\]Õ]

(1) Primitive subsistence farming ¨OÐO ?
(1) NkL\}j Dk^}vj WQx]
(2) Commercial farming
(2) vLe]^| WQx]
(3) Intensive subsistence farming
(3) f}Nv Dk^}vj WQx]
(4) Dairy farming
(4) ƒ}q WQx]

M-1 -21- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT
78. Identify the terms used to denote the 78. \OvRa jä]p]ŸOç KLSqLÐ]RjpOU
following and choose the correct yP\]Õ]¨OÐ kh°¥ f]q]ˆr]´V
order from those given. wq]pLp NWoU RfqR´aO¨OW.
i. Species which are in the danger of i. vUw jLwn}xe] Sjq]aOÐ
extinction v¡«°¥
ii. I¹¾]¤ RkLfORv WOrvLp
ii. Species with a small population
v¡«°¥
iii. Species which are found only in
iii. nPo]wLNñkqoLp \]s yv]
some particular areas usually
Swx SoXsWt]¤ oLNfU WLe
isolated by Geographical barriers RÕaOÐ v¡«°¥
iv. Species which are not found after iv. WLeRÕaL¢ yLi|fpOç SoX
searches in known or likely areas sWt]¤ ASj~xe¾]RjLaO
where they may occur v]sOU WRº¾L¢ Wu]pL¾
(1) i) Rare species v¡«°¥
ii) Endangered species (1) i) rp¡ y×}x}yV
iii) Extinct species ii) I¢cp]¢S^¡cV y×}x}yV
iv) Endemic species iii) IWVyVã]UYVãV y×}x}yV
iv) I¢co]WV y×}x}yV
(2) i) Endangered species
ii) Rare species (2) i) I¢cp]¢S^¡cV y×}x}yV
iii) Endemic species ii) rp¡ y×}x}yV
iv) Extinct species iii) I¢co]WV y×}x}yV
(3) i) Endemic species iv) IWVyVã]UYVãV y×}x}yV
ii) Extinct species (3) i) I¢co]WV y×}x}yV
iii) Endangered species ii) IWVyVã]UYVãV y×}x}yV
iv) Rare species iii) I¢cp]¢S^¡cV y×}x}yV
(4) i) Extinct species iv) rp¡ y×}x}yV
ii) Endangered species (4) i) IWVyVã]UYVãV y×}x}yV
ii) I¢cp]¢S^¡cV y×}x}yV
iii) Endemic species
iii) I¢co]WV y×}x}yV
iv) Rare species
iv) rp¡ y×}x}yV

79. Which among the following are 79. jä]p]ŸOçvp]¤ AÍLqLNì

considered as international resource ? v]nv°tLp] We¨L¨LvOÐ
SffV ?
(1) Forests (1) vj°¥
(2) Wildlife (2) vj|^}v]W¥
(3) Oceanic resources beyond 200 km (3) qL^|°tORa f}qSqXp]¤ j]ÐOU
200 W]. o} oLr] ò]f] R\áOÐ
from the coast of each country
yoONh v]nv°¥
(4) All oceanic resources (4) IŠL yoONh v]nv°tOU
M-1 -22-
Class – X SAT

80. Identify the country which is larger 80. nPv]ñQf]p]¤ CÍ|Rp¨L¥

than India in land area, but smaller vsOfOU Nmy}s]Rj¨L¥ R\rOfO
than Brazil. oLp qL^|SofV ?
(1) Canada (1) WLjc
(2) USA (2) USA
(3) Australia (3) BSNy›s]p
(4) China (4) RR\j

81. In the Northern Plains ‘Kankar’ 81. "W¦W¡' IÐV v]t]¨RÕaOÐ

formations are common among j]Sƒk qPk°¥ D¾q ozLyo
(1) Khadar fs¾]¤ Iv]RapLeV RkLfORv
(2) Bhangar
WLeRÕaOÐfV ?
(3) Bhabhar (1) XLh¡ (2) nUY¡
(4) Tarai (3) nLn¡ (4) frLpV
82. Match the following and choose the 82. S\qOUka] S\¡¾V wq]pLp
correct combination : D¾qU RfqR´aO¨OW.
A. Malabar Coast i. Paradip A. osmL¡ f}qU i. kLqLh}kV
B. North Circar ii. Chennai B. va¨¢ y]¡¨L¡ ii. R\RRÐ
C. Coromandal Coast iii. Kochi C. RWLroLº¤ f}qU iii. RWLˆ]
D. Konkan Coast iv. Mumbai D. RWL˦ f}qU iv. oOURRm
(1) A – i B – ii C – iv D – iii (1) A – i B – ii C – iv D – iii
(2) A – i B – ii C – iii D – iv (2) A – i B – ii C – iii D – iv
(3) A – iv B – iii C – ii D–i (3) A – iv B – iii C – ii D – i
(4) A – iii B–i C – ii D – iv (4) A – iii B–i C – ii D – iv

83. jä]p]ŸOçvp]¤ SYLhLvq] jh]

83. One among the following features is not
pORa yv]SwxfpŠL¾fV f]q]
related to river Godavari. Identify it. ˆr]pOW.
(1) 1500 km in length (1) 1500 W]. o}. j}tU
(2) Originates from Mahabaleswar (2) ozLmSsw~r]¤ j]ÐOU DÂvU
(3) Known as Dakshin Ganga (3) hƒ]eYUY IÐOU Ar]p
RÕaOÐO
(4) The largest peninsular river
(4) JãvOU vs]p Dkh~}k}p jh]

M-1 -23- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT

84. ‘Loo’ is a phenomenon in India during 84. "sP'IÐfV CÍ|p]¤ JfV EfO
v]Rs Nkf]nLyoLeV ?
(1) Hot weather season (1) DxVeWLsU
(2) Cold weather season (2) RRwf|WLsU
(3) South west monsoon season (3) Rf¨V ka]´Lr¢ o¦yP¦
WLsU
(4) North east monsoon season (4) va¨V&W]u¨V o¦yP¦ WLsU
85. Fiscal deficit may lead to 85. ijWÚ] oPsU
a. Increased debt a. WaU v¡È]¨OÐO
b. Interest payments obligation b. ks]w AavV mLi|f DºL¨OÐO
c. Current account deficit c. Wr£V A¨TºV WÚ] DºLWOÐO
d. Capital formation alone d. oPsij y~qPkeU oLNf
(1) a, b and c are correct oOºLWOÐO
(1) a, b, c IÐ]v wq]pLeV
(2) c and d are correct
(2) c pOU d pOU wq]pLeV
(3) b and c are correct
(3) b pOU c pOU wq]pLeV
(4) only d is correct
(4) ‘d’ oLNfU wq]pLeV

86. Mudra Yojana provides financial 86. "oONh SpL^j' yLÒ¾]W yzLpU
assistance to j¤WOÐfV
(1) Exports only (1) WpãOof]¨L¡¨V oLNfU
(2) Big Industrialists only (2) v¢W]a v|vyLp]W¥¨V
(3) Micro and small entrepreneurs (3) R\rOW]a yUqUnW¡¨V
(4) Scientific experiment (4) wLNñ kq}ƒe°¥¨V

87. Stand-up India scheme is promoted by 87. ðL£V & AÕV C¢c| kÈf]Rp
k]ÍL°OÐfV
(1) SIDBI (1) y]cVm]
(2) NABARD (2) jmL¡cV
(3) SBI (3) IyV m] RI
(4) RBI (4) B¡ m] RI

88. Second generation economic 88. qºLU fsoOr yLÒ¾]W kq]xV

reforms means
(1) Commodity market reforms
(2) Reforms introduced in 1991
(3) Financial sector reforms
(4) Reforms in factor and input
markets
M-1
WLqU A¡ÀoL¨OÐfV
(1) D¤ÕÐ v]ke] kq]ëLq°¥
(2) 1991 ¤ BqUn]ˆ kq]ëLq°¥
(3) ijWLq| SoXs kq]ëLq°¥
(4) DfVÕLhj ZaW&AyUØQf
vñO v]ke]p]Rs kq]ëLq°¥
-24-
Class – X SAT

89. Goods and Service Tax (GST) consists of 89. \q¨V Syvj j]WOf]p]¤ D¥RÕ
aOÐfV
a. Central GST
a. SWNÎ \q¨V Syvj j]WOf]
b. State GST b. yUòLj \q¨V Syvj j]WOf]
c. Interstate GST c. AÍ¡yUòLj \q¨V Syvj
(1) a only (2) b only j]WOf]
(1) (a) oLNfU (2) (b) oLNfU
(3) c only (4) both a and b
(3) (c) oLNfU (4) (a) pOU (b) pOU
90. W.T.O. is a 90. SsLWv|LkLq yUZaj KqO
(1) Multilateral trade negotiation (1) mzOoOX v|LkLq \¡ˆ,
system yUv]iLjU BeV
(2) Bilateral trade negotiation system (2) h~]oOX v|LkLq \¡ˆL yUv]
(3) Forum for trade agreements
iLjU BeV
(3) v]Wy~q qL^|°¥¨LpOç
between LDCs
v|LkLq DaÒa] Svh]pLeV
(4) Forum for trade agreements (4) v]Wy]f qL^|°¥¨LpOç
between developed countries v|LkLq DaÒa] Svh]pLeV
91. Reverse Repo rate is 91. r]SvuVyV r]SÕL&j]q¨V IÐL¤
(1) SWNÎ mLËV vLe]^| mLËO
(1) Rate at which commercial banks Wt]¤ j]ÐV WaRoaO¨OÐf]jV
lend to Central Bank j¤WOÐ ks]w j]q¨V
(2) Rate at which central banks lend to (2) vLe]^| mLËV SWNÎ mLË]¤
j]ÐOU WaRoaO¨OÐf]jV
commercial banks j¤WOÐ ks]wj]q¨V
(3) Rate at which governments lends (3) y¡¨L¡ mLË]fq ijWLq|
to NBFIs òLkj°¥¨V j¤WOÐ vLp×
¨Oç ks]w j]q¨V
(4) Rate at which governments lend to (4) y¡¨L¡ W¡xW¡¨V j¤WOÐ
farmers vLpרOç ks]w j]q¨V
92 Personal Income is estimated by 92. v|©]Yf vqOoLjU We¨L¨O
ÐfV ?
(1) Dividing national income by
(1) Shw}p vqOoLjR¾ ^jyUX|
population
RWLºV nLY]ˆV
(2) Adding all factor incomes (2) ZaW vqOoLj°Rt WPŸ]
(3) Adding all factor incomes and Sˆ¡¾V RWLºV
transfer payments (3) ZaW vqOoLj°tOU oLã AavO
WtOU WPŸ]S\¡¾V RWLºV
(4) Adding all factor incomes minus (4) ZaW vqOoLj°t]¤ j]ÐV oLã
transfer payments AavOW¥ WOrˆV RWLºV
M-1 -25- P.T.O.
Class – X SAT

93. The system of power sharing by 93. v]v]i yLoPz]W NYPÕOWt]sLp]

different groups is known as
Ai]WLqU kËO vàOÐ yNÒhLpU
Ar]pRÕaOÐfV
(1) Social Government (1) yLoPz]W Yv¦Ro£V
(2) Community Government (2) yLoOhLp]W Yv¦Ro£V
(3) Local Self Government (3) NkLShw]W y~pUnqe Yv¦
(4) Coalition Government Ro£V
(4) WPŸOWƒ] Yv¦Ro£V
94. The Article of the Indian Constitution 94. kµLp¾OWtOoLp] mÌR՟
which deals with the Panchayats CÍ|¢ nqeZaj AjOS±hU
(1) 246 (2) 245 (1) 246 (2) 245
(3) 244 (4) 243 (3) 244 (4) 243

95. The state in which ‘Kittiko-Hachchiko’ 95. JfO yUòLj¾]sLeV

Movement was started ? "W]ã]S¨L&zLˆ]S¨L' NkòLjU
BqUn]ˆfV ?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(1) BNÌNkShwV
(2) Karnataka (2) W¡¹LaW
(3) Telengana (3) RfsOËLj
(4) Maharashtra (4) ozLqLNì

96. Identify the Secular States 96. ofj]qSkƒfL qL^|°Rt

f]q]ˆr]pOW.
(1) Sri Lanka and India
(1) è}sËpOU CÍ|pOU
(2) Pakistan and Ireland
(2) kL¨]òLjOU RI¡s£OU
(3) India and Nepal (3) CÍ|pOU SjÕLtOU
(4) Britan and Afghanistan (4) Nm]ŸjOU AlVYLj]òLjOU

97. Which of the following is not a

97. \OvRa S\¡¾]q]¨OÐvp]¤
m|PSrLNWy]pORa yv]Swxf
feature of Bureaucracy ? AŠL¾SffV ?
(1) Permanently appointed (1) ò]qoLp] j]po]¨RÕaOÐv¡
(2) SpLY|fpORa Aa]òLj¾]sOç
(2) Appointed on the basis of j]pojU
qualification
(3) qLNì}p j]xVkƒf DºLp]q]
(3) Politically not neutral ¨]Š
(4) RfLu]¤ RRjkOe|U DçvqLp]
(4) Skilled in their work
q]¨OU
M-1 -26-
Class – X SAT
98. Few subjects in the Union List, State 98. pPe]p¢ s]ðV, SðãV s]ðV W¦Wr£V
List and Concurrent List are given s]ðV IÐ]vp]¤ D¥R՟]ŸOç
below. Identify the Concurrent \]s v]xp°¥ \OvRa S\¡¾]
subjects q]¨OÐO. Cf]¤ j]ÐV W¦Wr£V
s]ð]¤R՟ v]xp°¥ WRº¾OW.
a. Currency

b. Education
a. jLepU

c. Foreign Affairs
b. v]h|Ln|LyU

d. Forest c. v]ShwWLq|U

(1) (b) and (d) d. vjU

(1) (b) DU (d) DU
(2) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) DU (d) DU
(3) (a) and (c)
(3) (a) DU (c) DU
(4) (b) and (c)
(4) (b) DU (c) DU

99. Apartheid means 99. "AÕL¡¾}cV ' IÐfORWLºV

(1) Religious discrimination A¡ÀoL¨OÐfV ?
(1) ofkqoLp v]Sv\jU
(2) Communal discrimination
(2) v¡«}poLp v]Sv\jU
(3) Caste discrimination
(3) ^Lf}poLp v]Sv\jU
(4) Racial discrimination
(4) vUw}poLp v]Sv\jU
100. Which Part of the Constitution of India 100. CÍ|¢ nqeZajpORa JfO
contains Fundamental Duties ? nLY¾LeV oTs]W W¡¾v|°¥
(1) Part – II
D¥RÕaO¾]q]¨OÐfV ?
(1) nLYU – II
(2) Part – III
(2) nLYU – III
(3) Part – IV
(3) nLYU – IV
(4) Part – IV A
(4) nLYU – IV A

_______________

M-1 -27- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -28-
Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -29- P.T.O.

Class – X SAT
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

M-1 -30-