1. What lung disease may cause the heart and trachea to shift to the A.

Ewings sarcoma
affected side? B. Giant cell tumor
A. Emphysema C. Osteoblastoma
B. Empyema D. Chondrosarcoma
C. Pneumonia 16. What is a malignant tumor of cartilaginous origin?
D. Atelectasis A. Chondrosarcoma
2. What part of the lung is commonly affected with bronchiectasis? B. Osteosarcoma
A. Apices C. Ewing sarcoma
B. Middle lobes D. Osteoblastoma
C. Upper lobes 17. What is the gold standard to demonstrate anencephaly?
D. Lower lobes A. CT-Scan
3. Acute to chronic condition in which excessive mucus is secreted B. MRI
into the bronchi is termed? C. UTZ
D. Nuclear Medicine
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Bronchitis 18. What is the gold standard to demonstrate achondroplasia?
C. Atelectasis A. MRI
D. Pneumonia B. CT-Scan
4. What is an irreversible and chronic lung disease in which air C. X-ray
spaces in the alveoli become greatly enlarged as a result of alveolar D. UTZ
wall destruction and loss of alveolar elasticity? 19. What is the imaging modality of choice to demonstrate
A. Cystic fibrosis osteopetrosis?
B. Empyema A. X-ray
C. Emphysema B. PET
D. Pleurisy C. CT-scan
5. Adverse response to medical reactions is termed: 20. What are the imaging modalities of choice that would best
A. Idiopathic demonstrate osteochondroma?
B. Iatrogenic 1. X-ray
C. Asymptomatic 2. CT-Scan
D. manifestations 3. MRI
6. What is a congenital malformation of the foot that prevents normal
weight bearing? A. 1 and 2 only
A. Talipes B. 1 and 3 only
B. Potts disease C. 2 and 3 only
C. Albers-Schonberg disease D. 1, 2 and 3
D. Osteomyelitis 21. A variant of rheumatoid arthritis associated with bacterial infection
7. The presence of a cervical rib normally occurs at what level? is called:
A. C4
B. C5 A. Osteoarthritis
C. C6 B. Psoriatic arthritis
D. C7 C. Reiter’s syndrome
D. Juvenile arthritis
8. What modality may best demonstrate early stage of Reiter’s
22. Which of the following malignant disease affects children than
syndrome?
adults?
A. X-ray
B. CT A. Ewing sarcoma
C. MRI B. Osteoid osteoma
D. Nuclear Medicine C. Osteochondroma
D. Endochondroma
9. What is the most common type of arthritis?
23. The following are malignant disease of the bone, except?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis A. Ewing sarcoma
C. Gout arthritis B. Osteoma
D. Psoriatic arthritis C. Osteosarcoma
D. Chondosarcoma
10. What is the most common form of benign bone tumor?
24. What is the most common bacterial pneumonia?
A. Osteoma
B. Endochondroma A. Staphylococcal pneumonia
C. Osteoblastoma B. Pneumococcal pneumonia
D. Osteochondroma C. Streptococcal pneumonia
D. Legionnaires disease
11. Osteoma can be commonly found in:
25. What is a permanent and abnormal dilatation of the large
A. Pelvis
B. Skull bronchi?
C. Vertebra A. Bronchitis
D. Extremities B. Pneumonia
12. What is a slow growing benign tumor composed of hyaline C. Bronchiectasis
D. Emphysema
cartilage?
26. What are the most common forms of chronic obstructive
A. Exostosis
B. Osteoid osteoma pulmonary disease?
C. Endochondroma 1. Bronchitis
D. Osteoclastoma 2. Bronchiectasis
13. Giant cell tumor is also called: 3. Emphysema
A. Brights disease
B. Osteoclastoma A. 1 and 2 only
C. Wilms tumor B. 2 and 3 only
D. Osteoblastoma C. 1 and 3 only
14. What imaging modality is frequently used to assess D. 1,2, 3
osteosarcoma? 27. It is the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in tissue
A. CT-Scan spaces and body cavities?
B. MRI A. Gangrene
C. PET B. Edema
D. X-ray C. Hemorrhage
15. What is a primary malignant bone tumor that arises from the D. Effusion
medullary canal and occurs at a younger age between the ages of 5- 28. What is the term that implies a rupture of a blood vessel?
15 years? A. Petechiae
 B. Ecchymosis D. Peripheral gating
C. Hemorrhage 42. What sequence is used to suppress fat signal from the anatomy
D. Purpura of interest?
29. What is the term that describes the loss in the uniformity of A. FLAIR
individual cells and their architectural orientation? B. Spin-Echo
A. Hyperplasia C. STIR
B. Atrophy D. TE
C. Aplasia 43. What are the major imaging modalities use for the studies of the
D. Dysplasia pancreas and biliary tract?
30. What is the term for benign epithelial neoplasm that grow in 1. X-ray
gland-like pattern? 2. CT-scan
A. Adenoma 3. UTZ
B. Cystadenomas
C. Myomas A. 1 and 3 only
D. Angiomas B. 1 and 2 only
31. An epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or C. 1,2, 3
from an inner mucous membrane is termed: D. 2 and 3 only
A. Lipomas 44. What is the most common abnormality detected on upper
B. Adenocarcinoma gastrointestinal series?
C. Papilloma A. Hiatal hernia
D. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Barrett’s esophagus
32. What is the usual location for carcinoma of the breast? C. Cancer of the esophagus
A. Lower outer quadrant D. Esophageal varices
B. Upper outer quadrant 45. What is the major complication of esophageal varices?
C. Lower medial quadrant A. Ulceration
D. Upper medial quadrant B. Obstruction
33. What is the major metastatic route of carcinomas? C. Bleeding
A. Blood circulation D. Vomiting
B. Lymphatic 46. What is the term for the functional obstruction of the distal section
C. To nearby organ of the esophagus with proximal dilation caused by incomplete
D. Systemic relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter?
34. What is a disorder that is characterized by small testes that fails A. Esophageal varices
to mature and produce sperm? B. Achalasia
C. Barrett’s esophagus
A. Klinefelters syndrome
D. Esophageal diverticula
B. Turners syndrome
C. Down syndrome 47. What is the most common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease?
D. Marfan syndrome A. Gastritis
35. A viral infection common in young children that produces B. Gastric ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer
inflammatory obstructive swelling localized to the subglottic portion of
D. Vomiting
the trachea?
48. A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown disease that most
A. Epiglottitis
often involves the terminal area of the ileum but can also affect any
B. Asthma
C. Histoplasmosis part of the gastrointestinal tract?
D. Croup A. Intussuception
36. What disease has the radiographic hallmark sign of flattening of B. Regional enteritis
C. Ulcerative colitis
the domes of the diaphragm?
D. Crohn’s colitis
A. Empyema
49. What structure is seen in patient with pneumoperitoneum?
B. Emphysema
C. Pneumonia A. Hepatic artery
D. Bronchiectasis B. Falciform ligament
C. Common hepatic duct
37. It is a crippling and debilitating condition characterize by
D. Main pancreatic duct
distention of distal air spaces as a result of the destruction of the
50. What is the gold standard for the demonstration of gallstones?
alveolar walls and obstruction of small airways
A. CT-Scan
A. Atelectasis B. X-ray
B. Empyema C. MRI
C. Croup D. UTZ
D. Emphysema
51. What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and
38. What is the most common pathologic process involving the lungs
childhood?
of hospitalized patients?
A. Nephroblastoma
A. Septic embolism B. Neuroblastoma
B. Pneumonia C. Hypernephroma
C. Pulmonary embolism D. Renal carcinoma
D. Empyema
52. What is the most common renal neoplasm affecting in patients 40
39. What disorder is a common cause of respiratory distress in the
years and above?
newborn and premature infants especially those who have diabetic
A. Wilms tumor
mothers or delivered by caesarian section?
B. Hypernephroma
A. Cystic fibrosis
C. Nephroblastoma
B. Hyaline membrane disease
D. Sarcoma
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Histoplasmosis 53. What imaging modality will demonstrate an accurate local and
40. What is the gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen at 1 Tesla? regional spread of renal cell carcinoma?
A. 10.71 MHz A. MRI
B. 42.58 MHz B. UTZ
C. 22.28 MHz C. Nuclear Medicine
D. 63.9 MHz D. CT-Scan
41. What is used in MRI to generate electric signal upon expiration to 54. Wilm’s tumor is also known as:
start data acquisition? A. Nephroblastoma
B. Hypernephroma
A. Respiratory gating
C. Neuroblastoma
B. Respiratory triggering
D. Adenocarcinoma
C. Cardiac gating
55. Pulse radiofrequency techniques that produce medical images D. Crohn’s disease
best describe which of the following imaging modalities? 68. Which abdominal disease will require an increase in exposure
A. MRI factors?
B. CT A. Ulcerative colitis
C. PET B. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Ultrasound C. Intussusceptions
56. Grenz ray is also known as: D. Ascites
A. Gustav rays 69. Which part of the large intestine is commonly affected by
B. Sum rays volvulus?
C. Bucky rays A. Rectum
D. Stray radiation B. Sigmoid
57. What is the material use as tube window for Grenz-ray tube? C. Transverse
A. Aluminum D. Colic flexures
B. Molybdenum 70. A fracture and dislocation of the posterior lip of the distal radius
C. Beryllium involving the wrist joint is termed:
D. Bismuth germinate A. Bennett’s fracture
58. Treatment of cancers using 10-15 kVp best describes what type B. Smith’s fracture
of machine? C. Colle’s fracture
A. Contact therapy D. Barton’s fracture
B. Grenz-ray therapy 71. Reverse Colle’s fracture is also known as:
C. Orthovoltage therapy A. Boxer’s fracture
D. Supervoltage therapy B. Smith’s fracture
58. What is the useful depth dose range of Grenz-ray therapy C. Bennett’s fracture
D. Lisfranc fracture
machines?
72. What is the most common primary cancerous bone tumor?
A. 1 µm A. Ewing’s sarcoma
B. 2 µm B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. 0.5 µm C. Enchondroma
D. 0.25 µm D. Multiple myeloma
59. What machine was primarily used to treat superficial skin 73. What disorder is caused by anterior dislocation of the proximal
lesions? humerus?
A. Orthovoltage therapy A. Tendonitis
B. Contact therapy B. Hill-Sach defect
C. Betatron C. Bankart lesion
D. Microtron D. Shoulder impingement
60. What radiotherapy machine uses 50-150 kV potential range? 74. What type of brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive
A. Superficial therapy sources directly into the tumor?
B. Orthovoltage therapy
A. Plesiotheraphy
C. Contact therapy
B. Intracavitary
D. Supervoltage therapy
C. Intraluminal
61. What device is place between the klystron and the waveguide D. Interstitial
system in a linear accelerator? 75. What is the photon energy of Cesium-137 that is used as a
A. Drive stand radium substitute for brachytherapy of the uterus and cervix/
B. Gantry
A. 662 kev
C. Circulator
B. 380 keV
D. Electron gun
C. 412 keV
62. What radiotherapy machine operates on the principle that an D. 35.5 keV
electron will accelerate in a circular orbit in a changing magnetic 76. What radionuclide is use as replacement for radon-222 in
field? permanent implants?
A. Cyclotron A. Radium-226
B. LINAC B. Iodine-125
C. Betatron C. Cesium-137
D. Microtron D. Gold-198
63. What disorder is commonly caused by staphylococcus and 77. The following radioisotopes are used as permanent implants,
streptococcus bacteria and affects both lungs? except?
A. Lobar pneumonia A. Cesium-137
B. Bronchopneumonia B. Gold-198
C. Aspiration pneumonia C. Palladium-103
D. Bronchitis D. Iodine-125
64. What lung condition is commonly caused by coronary heart 78. What does a klystron or magnetron produce?
disease? A. microwave power
A. Pneumothorax C. accelerated electrons and protons
B. Pleural effusion
B. alternating current
C. Hemartoma
D. Pulmonary edema D. magnetic field used to bend the beam
65. The following lung conditions would require a decrease in 79. What is a radioactive gas that is formed during the decay of
exposure factors, except? radium?
A. Cystic fibrosis A. Radon-222
B. Atelectasis C. Iridium-192
C. Emphysema B. Cesium-137 D.
D. Pleural effusion Palladium-103
66. What modality will best demonstrate acute appendicitis? 80. The pulsed microwave produced by the magnetron and klystron
A. MRI are injected into the accelerator tube via the ___________.
B. CT A. Bending magnet C.
C. UTZ Waveguide system
D. X-ray
B. Switch tube
67. What abdominal disorder will produce an air-filled coiled spring
D. Thyratron
appearance on a radiograph?
81. Electrons produced in the electron gun have an initial energy of
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Volvulus ________?
C. Intussusception
 A. 10 keV C. 50 B. Depressed fracture
keV C. Basal skull fractures
B. 30 keV D. 100 D. Le fort fracture
93. What is the modality of choice to differentiate between epidural
keV
and subdural hemorrhage?
82. Which of the following are the functions of a circulator in LINAC
A. CT-Scan
machine? B. MRI
I. Contains the apparatus that drives the linear C. Nuclear Medicine
accelerator D. UTZ
II. Directs the RF pulses to the waveguide 94. What disorder will produce a cotton-wool appearance on a
III. Prevents microwave pulses from returning to the radiograph?
klystron A. Osteitis deformans
A. I and II C. I and B. Cholesteotoma
III C. Acoustic neuroma
B. II and III D. Otosclerosis
D. I, II and III 95. What bone is commonly affected with multiple myeloma?
83. What radionuclide has replaced radium-226 as the primary A. Pelvis
source for brachytherapy of the uterus and cervix? B. Skull
A. Gold-198 C. Tibia
C. Cesium-137 D. Vertebra
B. Iodine-125 96. What is the gold standard for the demonstration of otosclerosis?
A. CT-Scan
D. Cobalt-60
B. MRI
84. Which is true about dyspnea?
C. Nuclear Medicine
1. Common in older persons D. UTZ
2. Shortness of breath
97. What is the most common cause of hearing loss in adult without
3. Difficulty in breathing
eardrum damage?
4. Chest PA is initial diagnostic procedure
A. Acoustic neuroma
B. Otosclerosis
A. 1,2 3 only C. Pituitary adenoma
B. 1,3 and 4 only D. Multiple myeloma
C. 2,3 and 4 only 98. What is the gold standard that will best demonstrate trauma and
D. 1,2 ,3 4 tumors of the gastrointestinal tract?
85. Radiographic hallmarks sign of emphysema includes: A. MRI
1. Increased lung dimensions B. Nuclear Medicine
2. Barrel chest C. UTZ
3. Flattened diaphragm D. CT
4. Obscured costophrenic angles 99. What disorder is characterized by softening of bone due to
5. Elongated heart shadow vitamin D deficiency is termed?
A. Osteoporosis
A. 1,2,4 and 5 only B. Osteopetrosis
B. 2,3,4 and 5 only C. Osteomyelitis
C. 1,2 and 3 only D. Osteomalacia
D. 1,2,3,4,5 100. What is the imaging modality of choice in evaluating
86. What imaging modality useful for evaluating soft tissue hematomas, suspected aneurysm, stroke and infarcts of the brain?
involvement of lesions or determining the extent of fractures? A. CT-Scan
A. UTZ B. MRI
B. PET Scan C. UTZ
C. X-ray D. PET Scan
D. CT-Scan
87. What modality is useful for evaluating newborns for hip
dislocation and for assessing joint stability during movement of the
lower limbs?
A. MRI
B. UTZ
C. X-ray
D. Nuclear Medicine
88. What imaging modality is best for assessing bony pathologies
such as bone infection, metastatic carcinoma and primary
malignancies?
A. CT
B. MRI
C. Nuclear Medicine
D. Conventional Radiography
89. What part of the body is affected by Legg-Calves Perthes
disease?
A. Knee joint
B. Hip joint
C. Ankle joint
D. Elbow joint
90. What is the gold standard for measuring the degree of
osteoporosis?
A. X-ray
B. CT
C. Bone scan
D. UTZ
91. What imaging modality is superior for the evaluation of soft tissue
structures of the lumbar spine?
A. PET-Scan
B. X-ray
C. CT
D. MRI
92. Ping-pong fractures is also known as:
A. Linear fracture