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top-production-technology-question-and-answers.pdf 6. Material handling in automobile
180 TOP Production Technology - Mechanical Engineering
Multiple choice Questions and Answers Latest Production
industry is done by
Technology (a) overhead crane
1. Work study is concerned with (b) trolley
(a) improving present method and (c) belt conveyor
finding standard time (d) all of the above
(b) motivation of workers (e) none of the above. Ans: a
(c) improving production
capability 7. String diagram is used when
(d) improving production planning (a) team of workers is working at
and control a place
(e) all of the above. (b) material handling is to be done
Ans: a (c) idle time is to be reduced
(d) all of the above
2. Basic tool in work study is (e) none of the above.
(a) graph paper Ans: a
(b) process chart
(c) planning chart 8. Work study is most useful
(d) stop watch (a) where production activities are
(e) analytical mind. involved
Ans: d (b) in judging the rating of
machines
3. What does symbol 'O' imply in (c) in improving industrial
work study relations
(a) operation (d) in judging the output of a man
(b) inspection and improving it
(c) transport (e) where men are biggest
(d) delay/temporary storage contributor to success of a project.
(e) none of the above. Ans: a
Ans: a
9. Micromotion study is
4. What does symbol 'D' imply in (a) enlarged view of motion study
work study (b) analysis of one stage of motion
(a) inspection study
(b) transport (c) minute and detailed motion
(c) delay/temporary storage study
(d) permanent storage (d) subdivision of an operation into
(e) none of the above. therbligs and their analysis
Ans: (e) motion study of small
5. What does symbol 'V' employ in components upto mirco-seconds.
work study Ans: d
(a) operation
(b) inspection
(c) delay/ temporary Storage
(d) permanent storage
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
10. In micromotion study, therblig
is described by
(a) a symbol
(b) an event
(c) an activity
(d) micro motions
(e) standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e
11. The allowed time for a job
equals standard time plus
(a) policy allowance
(b) interference allowance
(c) process allowance
(d) learning allowance
(e) unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a
12. Micromotion study involves
following number of fundamental
hand motions
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 20
(e) 24
Ans: c
13. The standard time for a job is
(a) total work content
(b) base time + relaxation time
(c) total work content + basic time
(d) total work content + delay
contingency allowance
(e) total work content + relaxation
time.
Ans: d
14. Work study is done with the
help of
(a) process chart
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
15. Scheduling gives information
about
(a) when work should start and
how much work should be
completed during a certain period
(b) when work should complete
(c) that how idle time can be
minimized
(d) proper utilisation of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
16. Expediting function consists in
keeping a watch on
(a) operator's activity
(b) flow of material and in case of
trouble locate source of trouble
(c) minimising the delays
(d) making efficient despatching
17. Choose the wrong statement
Time study is used to
(a) determine overhead expenses
(b) provide a basis for setting
piece prices or incentive wages
(c) determine standard costs
(d) determine the capability of an
operator to handle the number of
machines
(e) compare alternative methods.
Ans: a
18. Job evaluation is the method-
of determining the
(a) relative worth of jobs
(b) skills required by a worker
(c) contribution of a worker
(d) contribution of a job
(e) effectiveness of various
alternatives.
Ans: a
19. Micromotion study is
(a) analysis of a man-work
method by using a motion picture
camera with a timing device in the
field of view
(b) motion study* observed on 24. One time measurement unit
enhanced time intervals (TMU) in method time
(c) motion study of a sequence of measurement system equals
operations conducted (a) 0.0001 minute
systematically (b) 0.0006 minute
Ans: a (c) 0.006 minute
20. Per cent idle time for men or (d) 0.001 minute
machines is found by (e) 0.06 minute.
(a) work sampling Ans: b
(b) time study
(c) method study 25. Basic motion time study gives
(d) work study times for basic motions in ten
(e) ABC analysis. thousandths of
Ans: a (a) second
(b) minute
21. TMU in method time (c) hour
measurement stands for (d) day
(a) time motion unit (e) none of the above.
(b) time measurement unit Ans: b
(c) time movement unit
(d) technique measurement unit 26. Choose the wrong statement.
(e) time method unit. Motion study is used for
Ans: b (a) improving a work method
(b) improvising a work method
22. Time study is (c) designing a work method
(a) the appraisal, in terms of time, (d) providing a schematic
of the value of work involving framework
human effort (e) reducing inventory costs.
(b) machine setting time Ans: e
(c) time taken by workers to do a
job 27. Gantt chart provides
(d) method of fixing time for information about the
workers (a) material handling
(e) method of determining the (b) proper utilisation of manpower
personnel Requirement. (c) production schedule
Ans: a (d) efficient working of machine
(e) all of the above.
23. Work sampling observations Ans: c
are taken on the basis of
(a) detailed calculations 28. ABC analysis deals with
(b) convenience (a) analysis of process chart
(c) table of random numbers (b) flow of material
(d) past experience (c) ordering schedule of job
(e) fixed percentage of daily (d) controlling inventory costs
production. money
Ans: c (e) all of the above.
Ans: d
 33. The most important objective
29. Process layout is employed for behind plant layout is
(a) batch production (a) overall simplification, safety of
(b) continuous type of product integration
(c) effective utilisation of (b) economy in space
machines (c) maximum travel time in plant
(d) all of the above (d) to provide conveniently located
(e) none of the above. shops
Ans: a (e) to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a
30. For a product layout the
material handling equipment must 34. The process layout is best
(a) have full flexibility suited where
(b) employ conveyor belts, trucks, (a) specialisation exists
tractors etc. (b) machines are arranged
(c) be a general purpose type according to sequence of
(d) be designed as special purpose operation
for a particular application (c) few number of non-
(e) arranging shops according to standardised units are to be
specialization of duties. produced
Ans: d (d) mass production is envisaged
(e) bought out items are more.
31. Travel charts provide Ans: c
(a) an idea of the flow of materials
at various stages 35. A low unit cost can be obtained
(b) a compact estimate of the by following
handling which must be done (a) product layout
between various work sections (b) functional layout
(c) the information for changes (c) automatic material handling
required in rearranging material equipment
handling equipment (d) specialisation of operation
(d) an approximate estimate of (e) minimum travel time plan and
the handling which must be done com¬pact layout.
at a particular station Ans: a
(g) solution to handling techniques
to achieve most optimum^ 36. Military organisation is known
results. as
Ans: b (a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
32. Product layout is employed for (c) functional organisation
(a) batch production (d) all of the above
(b) continuous production (e) none of the above.
(c) effective utilization of machine Ans: a
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
37. The main disadvantage of line
organisation is
(a) top level executives have to do
excessive work
(b) structure is rigid
(c) communication delays occur
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
38. The main advantage of line
organisation is its
(a) effective command and control
(b) defined responsibilities at all
levels
(c) rigid discipline in the
organisation
(d) ability of quick decision at all
levels
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
39. Frederick W. Taylor introduced
a system of working known as
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
40. The salient feature of
functional organisation is
(a) strict adherence to
specification
(b) separation of planning and
design part
(c) each individual maintains
functional efficiency
(d) work is properly planned and
distributed
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
41. The most popular type of
organisation used for Civil
Engineering Constructions is
(a) line organisation
(b) line and staff organisation
(c) functional organisation
(d) effective organisation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
42. Templates are used for
(a) a planning layout
(b) flow of material
(c) advancing a programme in
automatic machines
(d) copying complicated profiles
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
43. In steel plant the most
important system for materials
handling is
(a) conveyors
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks
(d) locos
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
44. Routing prescribes the
(a) flow of material in the plant
(b) proper utilization of man power
(c) proper utilization of machines
(d) inspection of final product
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
45. Queuing theory deals with
problems of
(a) material handling
(b) reducing the waiting time or
idle Jajme
(c) better utilization of man
services
(d) effective use of machines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
46. Standard time is defined as
(a) normal time + allowances
(b) normal time + idle time +
allowances
(c) normal time + idle time
(d) only normal time for an
operation
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
47. Father of industrial
engineering is
(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor
(d) Newton
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
48. The grouping of activities into
organisational units is called
(a) corporate plans
(b) higher level management
(c) functional authority
(d) departmentatidn
Ans: d
49. Which of the following
organisation is preferred in
automobile industry
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line and staff organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: d
50. Which of the following
organisations is best suited for
steel plants
(a) functional organisation
(b) line organisation
(c) staff organisation
(d) line, staff and functional
organisations
(e) scalar organisation.
Ans: d
51. The wastage of material in the
store is taken into account by the
following method in the evaluation
of the material
issued from the store
(a) inflated system
(b) primary cost method
(c) current value method
(d) fixed price method
(e) variable price method.
Ans: a
52. Which of the following is
independent of sales forecast
(a) productivity
(b) inventory control
(c) production planning
(d) production control
(e) capital budgeting.
Ans: a
53. Gantt charts are used for
(a) forecasting sales
(b) production schedule
(c) scheduling and routing
(d) linear programming
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
54. Inventory management
consists of
(a) effective running of stores
(b) state of merchandise methods
of stroing and maintenance etc.
(c) stock control system
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
55. Gantt charts provide
information about
(a) break even point analysis
(b) production schedule
(c) material handling layout
(d) determining selling price
(e) value analysis.
Ans: b
56. Inventory control in
production, planning and control
aims at
(a) achieving optimisation
(b) ensuring against market
fluctuations
(c) acceptable customer service at
low capital investment in inventory
(d) discounts allowed in bulk
purchase
(e) regulate supply and demand.
Ans: C
57. In inventory control, the
economic order quantity is the
(a) optimum lot size
(b) highest level of inventory
(c) lot corresponding to break-
even point
(d) capability of a plant to produce
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
58. Statistical quality control
techniques are based on the
theory of
(a) quality
(b) statistics
(c) probability
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
59. The appellate authority for an
industrial dispute is
(a) management
(b) labour court
(c) high court/supreme court
(d) board of directors
(e) president.
Ans: c
(b) industries have to train
apprentices ac-cording to their
requirement
(c) all industries employing more
than 100 workers have to recruit
apprentices
(d) only industries employing
more than 500 workers have to
recruit apprentices
(e) all industries other than small
scale industries have to train
apprentices.
Ans: d
61. Standing orders which are
statutory are applicable to
(a) all industries
(b) all process industries and
thermal power plants
(c) only major industries
(d) only key industries
(e) all industries employing more
than 100 workers.
Ans: e
62. Acceptance sampling is widely
used in
(a) batch production
(b) job production
(c) mass production
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
63. The technique of value
analysis can be applied to
(a) complicated items only
(b) simple items only
(c) crash programmer items only
(d) cost consciousness items only
(e) any item.
Ans: e

60. Under the Apprenticeship Act 64. The term 'value' in value
(a) all industries have to engineering refers to
necessarily train the apprentices (a) total cost of the product
(b) selling price of the product
(c) utility of the product
(d) manufactured cost of the (b) an individual employee
product (c) a particular division in
(e) depreciation value. workshop
Ans: c (d) machine
(e) overall quality.
65. Value engineering aims at Ans: b
finding out the
(a) depreciation value of a product 69. Material handling and plant
(b) resale value of a product location is analysed by
(c) major function of the item and (a) Gnatt chart
accomplishing the same at least (b) bin chart
cost without change in quality (c) Emerson chart
(d) break even point when (d) travel chart
machine re-quires change (e) activity chart.
(e) selling price of an item. Ans: d
Ans: c
70. Works cost implies
66. In the perpetual inventory (a) primary cost
control, the material is checked (b) factory cost
when it reaches its (c) factory expenses
(a) minimum value (d) primary cost + factory
(b) maximum value expenses
(c) average value (e) none of the above.
(d) alarming value Ans: d
(e) original value.
Ans: a 71. Motion study involves analysis
of
(a) actions of operator
(b) layout of work place
(c) tooling and equipment
Ans: a
67. According to MAPI formula, the
old machine should be replaced by 72. Standard time as compared to
new one when normal time is
(a) CAM < DAM (a) greater
(b) CAM > DAM (b) smaller
(c) CAM = DAM (c) equal
(d) there is no such criterion (d) there is no such correlation
(e) none of the above. (e) none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse Ans: a
minimum DAM = Defender's
Adverse minimum) 73. Pick up the incorrect
Ans: a statement about advantages of
work sampling
68. Merit Rating is the method of (a) permits a fine breakdown of
determining worth of activities and delays
(a) a job
(b) simultaneous study of many (c) volunteers
operators may be made by a single (d) the industries notified by
observer Government
(c) calculations are easier, method (e) all major industries.
is economical and less time Ans: d
consuming
(d) no time measuring devices are 78. The amount deducted from the
generally needed salary of workers towards
(e) as operators are not watched employees provident fund is
for long periods, chances of (a) credited into reserves of
obtaining misleading results are company
less. (b) deposited in nationalised bank
Ans: a (c) deposited in post office
(d) deposited in the account of
74. In which of the following worker with employer or Reserve
layouts, the lines need to the Bank of India
balanced (e) deposited in the account of
(a) process layout worker with Provident Fund
(b) product layout Commissioner.
(c) fixed position layout Ans: e
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout. 79. The deductions for, employees
Ans: b provident fund start
(a) immediately on joining the
75. Which of the following layouts service
is suited for mass production (b) after 60 days of joining the
(a) process layout service
(b) product layout (c) after 100 days of joining the
(c) fixed position layout service
(d) plant layout (d) after 240 days of joining the
(e) functional layout. service
Ans: b Ans: d
80. Father of time study was
76. Which of the following layouts (a) F.W. Taylor
is suited to job production (b) H.L. Gantt
(a) process layout (c) F.B. Gilberfh
(b) product layout (d) R.M. Barnes
(c) fixed position layout (e) H.B. Maynord.
(d) plant layout Ans: a
(e) functional layout.
Ans: a 81. Tick the odd man out
(a) Taylor
77. The employees provident fund (b) Drucker
act is applicable to (c) McGregor
(a) all industries (d) Galileo
(b) all industries other than small (e) Parkinson.
and medium industries Ans: d

82. Current assets include
(a) manufacturing plant
(b) manufacturing plant and
equipment
(c) inventories
(d) common stock held by the firm
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
83. The objective of time study is
to determine the time required to
complete a job by
(a) fast worker
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
84. Job enrichment technique is
applied to
(a) reduce labour monotony
(b) overcome boring and
demotivating work
(c) make people happy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
85. For ship vessel industry the
following layout is best suited
(a) process layout
(b) product layout
(c) fixed position layout
(d) plant layout
(e) functional layout.
Ans: c
86. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output
standards are established
(a) by time study
(b) from previous production
records
(c) from one's judgement
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
87. Routing is essential in the
following type of industry
(a) assembly industry
(b) process industry
(c) job order industry
(d) mass production industry
(e) steel industry.
Ans: a
88. An optimum project schedule
implies
(a) optimum utilization of men,
machines and materials
(b) lowest possible cost and
shortest possible time for project
(c) timely execution of project
(d) to produce best results under
given constraints
(e) realistic execution time,
minimum cost and maximum
profits.
Ans: b
89. Graphical method, simplex
method, and transportation
method are concerned with
(a) break-even analysis
(b) value analysis
(c) linear programming
(d) queing theory
(e) tnaterial handling.
Ans: c
90. Which one of the following
represents a group incentive plan
?
(a) Scanlon Plan
(b) Rowan Plan
(c) Bedaux Plan
(d) Taylor Differential Piece Rate
System
(e) Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a
91. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the
following are rewarded more
(a) past good workers
(b) past poor workers
(c) past average workers
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
92. In the Halsey system of wage
incentive plan, a worker is
(a) paid as per efficiency
(b) ensured of minimum wages
(c) not paid any bonus till his
efficiency
(d) never a loser
(e) induced to do more work.
Ans: b
93. 'Value' for value engineering
and analysis purposes is defined
as
(a) purchase value
(b) saleable value
(c) depreciated value
(d) present worth
(e) function/cost.
Ans: e
94. Break-even analysis can be
used for
(a) short run analysis
(b) long run analysis
(c) average of above two run
analysis
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
95. CPM has following time
estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: a
96. PERT has following time
estimate
(a) one time estimate
(b) two time estimate
(c) three time estimate
(d) four time estimate
(e) nil time estimate.
Ans: c
97. In Lincoln plan (one type of
group incentive plan), the amount
of the profit which an .employee
receives in addition to the
guaranteed basic pay/wages, is
based on :
(a) a standard rating system
(b) a merit rating system
Ans: b
98. Which of the following
incentive plansrensures a part of
the swing to the worker and rest
to the employer
(a) Emerson efficiency plan
(b) Taylor plan
(c) Halsey premium plan
(e) Gilberth plan.
Ans: c
99. Which of the following is not
wage incentive plan
(a) differential piece rate system
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Emerson plan
(d) Taylor plan
(e) Halsey plan.
Ans: d
100. Which of the following plans
motivates supervisors by paying a
premium on time saved by
workers
(a) Halsey plan
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan
(d) Emerson's plan 104. According to Rowan plan, if H
(e) Taylor's plan. = hourly rate, A = actual time and
Ans: c S = standard time, then wages will
be
101. The time required to (a) HA
complete a task is established and (b) HA + (S~A) HA
a bonus is paid to the worker for (c) HA + ^^-H
every hour he saves from the (d) HA + ^^-H
established time required. This (e) HA + ^^-HA.
type of incentive plan is known as Ans: b
(a) Rowan Plan
(b) Bedaux Plan 105. If a worker gets a daily wage
(c) Taylor Differential Piece rate of Rs HA, then according to Rowan
system plan, his maximum daily earnings
(d) Halsey Premium plan can be
(e) Day work plan. (a) 2 HA
Ans: d (b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA
(d) 1.15 HA
102. One of the basic essentials of (e) 2.5 HA.
an incentive plan is that Ans: a
(a) a differential piece rate system
should exist 106. In A-B-C control policy,
(b) minimum wages should be maximum attention is given to
guaranteed (a) those items which consume
(c) provide incentive to group money
efficiency performance (b) those items which are not
(d) all standards should be based readily available
on optimum standards of (c) those x items which are in
production more demand
(e) all standards should be based (d) those items which consume
on time studies. more money
Ans: e (e) proper quality assurance
103. In the Emerson efficiency program-mes.
plan, a worker receives only his Ans: d
daily wage and no bonus is paid till
his efficiency reaches 107. Which one of the following
(a) 50% represents a group incentive plan
(b) 661% ?
(c) 75% (a) Halsey Premium Plan
(d) 80% (b) Bedaux Plan
(e) 90%. (c) Lincoln Plan
Ans: b (d) Rowan Plan
(e) Taylor Plan.
Ans: c
108. The mathematical technique
for finding the best use of limited
resources in an optimum manner
is known as
(a) operation research
(b) linear programming
(c) network analysis
(d) queuing theory
(e) break-even analysis.
Ans: b
109. In order that linear
programming techniques provide
valid results
(a) relations between factors must
be linear (positive)
(b) relations between factors must
be linear (negative)
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) only one factor should change
at a time, others remaining
constant
Ans: c
110. The linear programming
techniques can be applied
successfully to industries like
(a) iron and steel
(b) food processing
(c) oil and chemical
(d) banking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
111. The simplex method is the
basic method for
(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c) linear programming
(d) model analysis
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
112. The two-bin system is
concerned with
(a) ordering procedure
(b) forecasting sales
(c) production planning
(d) despatching and expediting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
113. The time required to
complete a job is established and
a bonus is paid to the worker
based on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan
is known as
(a) Dry work Plan
(b) Halsey Premium Plan
(c) Taylor Plan
(d) Bedaux Plan
(e) Rowan Plan.
Ans: e
114. Replacement studies are
made on the fol-lowing basis:
(a) annual cost method
(b) rate of return method
(c) total life average method
(d) present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e
115. String diagram is used
(a) for checking the relative values
of various layouts
(b) when a group of workers are
working at a place
(c) where processes require the
operator to be moved from one
place to another
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
116. Which of the following
depreciation system ensures that
the interest be charged on the cost
of machine asset every year
on the book value, but the rate of
depreciation every year remains
constant
(a) sinking fund method
(b) straight line method
(c) A-B-C charging method
(d) annuity charging method
Ans: d
117. Bin card is used in 121. CPM is the
(a) administrative wing (a) time oriented technique
(b) workshop (b) event oriented technique
(c) foundry shop (c) activity oriented technique
(d) stores (d) target oriented technique
(e) assembly shop. (e) work oriented technique.
Ans: d Ans: c

118. Slack represents the 122. PMTP (predetermined motion

difference between the time systems) include
(a) latest allowable time and the (a) MTM (method time
normal expected time measurement)
(b) latest allowable time and the (b) WFS (work factor systems)
earliest expected time (c) BNTS (basic motion time
(c) proposed allowable time and study)
the earliest expected time (d) all of the above
(d) normal allowable time and the (e) none of the above
latest expected time Ans: d
(e) project initiation tune and
actual starting time. 123. Work study comprises
Ans: b following main techniques
(a) method study and work
119. PERT and CPM are measurement
(a) techniques to determine (b) method study and time study
project status (c) time study and work
(b) decision making techniques measurement
(c) charts which increase aesthetic (d) method study and job
appearance of rooms evaluation
(d) aids to determine cost (e) value analysis and work
implications of project measurement.
(e) aids to the decision maker. Ans: a
Ans: e
124. Which of the following
120. A big advantage of PERT over equations is not in conformity with
Gantt charts is that in the former others
case (a) organisation performance x
(a) activities and events are motivation = profits
clearly shown (b) knowledge x skill = ability
(b) early start and late finish of an (c) ability x motivation =
activity are clearly marked performance
(c) activity times are clear (d) attitude x situation =
(d) critical path can be easily motivation
determined (e) performance x resources
(e) inter-relationship among Ans: a
activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e
125. PERT is the
(a) time oriented technique
(b) event oriented technique
(c) activity oriented technique
(d) target oriented technique
(e) work oriented technique.
Ans: b
126. The basic difference between
PERT and CPM is that
(a) PERT deals with events and
CPM with activities
(b) critical path is determined in
PERT only
(c) costs are considered on CPM
only and not in PERT
(d) guessed times are used in
PERT and evaluated times in CPM
(e) PERT is used in workshops and
CPM in plants.
Ans: d
127. PERT stands for k (fit) project
evaluation and review technique
(b) project examination and
review technique
(c) project evaluation and
reporting technique
(d) process execution and
reporting technology
(e) project execution and results
technique.
Ans: a
128. Queuing theory is used for
(a) inventory problems
(b) traffic congestion studies
(c) job-shop scheduling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
129. In queuing theory, the nature
of the waiting situation can be
studied and analysed
mathematically if
(a) complete details'of items in,
waiting line are known
(b) arrival and waiting times are
known and can be grouped to form
a waiting line model
(c) all variables and constants are
known and form a linear equation
(d) the laws governing arrivals,
service times, and the order in
which the arriving units are taken
into source are known
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
130. Queuing theory is associated
with
(a) sales
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c
131. The reasons which are
basically responsible for the
formation of a queue should be
that
(a) the average service rate Hess
than the average arrival rate
(b) output rate is linearly
proportional to input
(c) output rate is constant and the
input varies in a random manner
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
132. Monte Carlo solutions in
queuing theory are extremely
useful in queuing problems
(a) that can't be analysed
mathematically
(b) involving multistage queuing
(c) to verify mathematical results
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

133. In perpetual inventory
control, the material is checked as
it reaches its
(a) minimum value
(b) maximum value
(c) average value
(d) middle value
(e) alarming value.
Ans: a
134. A milestone chart
(a) shows the inter dependences
of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of
schedule of jobs, if any
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
135. Bar charts are suitable for
(a) minor works
(b) major works
(c) large projects
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
136. The first method invented for
planning projects was
(a) bar chart method
(b) milestone chart
(c) critical path method (CPM)
(d) programme evaluation and
review technique (PERT)
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
137. Pick up the correct statement
from the following
(a) programmer evaluation and
review technique is event oriented
(b) programmer evaluation and
review technique is not event
oriented
(c) critical path method is event
oriented
(d) critical.path method is not
activity oriented
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e
138. Pick up the correct statement
from the following
(a) critical path method is an
improvement upon bar chart
method
(b) critical path method provides a
realistic approach to the daily
problems
(c) critical path method avoids
delays which are very common in
bar chart
(d) critical path method was
invented by Morgan R. Walker of
Dupot and James E. Kelley of
Remington U.S.A in 1957
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
139. Pick up the correct step used
for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a) a project is divided into various
activities
(b) required time for each activity
is established
(c) sequence of various activities is
made according to their
importance
(d) network is drawn by
connecting the activities and the
events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
140. The time of completing a
project in network analysis is
given by following time of the
critical activity meeting at the
finalitiode
(a) early finish
(b) early start
(c) late start
Ans: a
141. The disadvantage of product
layout is
(a) high initial investment for the
specialized facilities
(b) skilled labour to operate
machines
(c) production time is longer,
requiring more goods in inventory
(d) high cost of inspection
(e) costly and complex production
control.
Ans: a
142. Emergency rush order can be
pushed more effectively in
(a) job production
(b) automatic production
(c) continuous production
(d) intermittent production
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
143. Routing assists engineers in
deciding in advance
(a) the flow of material in the plant
(b) the methods of proper
utilization of manpower
(c) the methods of proper
utilization of machines
(d) the layout of factory facilities
(e) normal route of workers
through the plant.
Ans: c
144. The performance of a specific
task in CPM is known as
(a) dummy
(b) event
(c) activity
(d) contract
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
145. Pick up the incorrect
statement from the following
(a) an activity of the project is
denoted by an arrow on the net
work
(b) the tail of the arrow indicates
the start of the activity
(c) the head of the arrow indicates
the end of,the activity!
(d) the arrows are drawn (to scale
from) left to right
(e) each activity consumes a given
time
Ans: d
146. The artificial activity; which
indicates that an activity following
it cannot be started unless, the
preceding activity is
complete, is known as
(a) event
(b) free float
(c) artificial
(d) constraint
(e) dummy.
Ans: e
147. A dummy activity
(a) is artificially introduced
(b) is represented by a dotted line
(c) does not require any time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
148. If E is the duration, ES and EF
are die earliest start and finish
times, LS and LF are latest start
and finish times, then the
following relation holds good
(a) EF=ES+D
(b) LS=LF-D
(c) LF = LS + D
(d) D = EF-ES
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
149. The difference between the (c) zero float,
time available to do the job and (d) average float
the time required to do the job, is (e) none of these.
known as Ans: c
(a) event
(b) float 154. The time by which the activity
(c) duration completion time can be delayed
(d) constraint without affecting the start of
(e) none of the above. succeeding activities, is
Ans: b Known as
(a) duration
150. The probability distribution of (b) total float
activity times in PERT follows (c) free float
following distribution (d) interfering float
(a) normal (e) none of the above.
(b) binomial Ans: c
(c) beta
(d) exponential 155. The critical path of a network
(e) Gaussian. represents
Ans: c (a) the minimum time required for
completion of project
151. The probability distribution of (b) the maximum time required for
project completion in PERT follows completion of project
following distribution (c) maximum cost required for
(a) normal completion of project
(b) binomial (d) minimum cost required for
(c) beta completion of project
(d) exponential (e) none of the above.
(e) Gaussian. Ans: a
Ans: e
156. Pick up the correct statement
152. If TL is the largest allowable from the following
event occurrence time, total (a) the float may be positive, zero
activity slack (s) is equal to or negative
(a) latest start time - earliest start (b) if the float is positive and the
time activity is delayed by a period
(b) latest finish time - earliest equal to its total float, the
finish time (EFT) completion of project in not
(c) TL-EFT delayed
(d) all of the above (c) if the float of an activity is
(e) none of the above. negative, delay in its performance
Ans: d is bound to delay the completion of
project
(d) if the float of an activity is zero,
153. The critical activity has the activity is critical and any delay
(a) maximum float in its performance will delay the
(p) minimum float whole project
(e) all of the above. 161. The technique for
Ans: e establishing and maintaining
priorities among the various jobs
157. Critical path moves along the of any project is known as
activities having total float of (a) event flow scheduling
(a) positive value technique
(b) negative value (b) critical ratio scheduling
(c) zero value (c) slotting technique for
(d) same value scheduling
(e) none of the above. (d) short interval scheduling
Ans: c (e) none of the above.
Ans: b
158. Critical Path Net Work helps
an engineer 162. Pick up the incorrect
(a) to concentrate his attention on statement from the following. A
critical activities critical ratio scheduling
(b) to divert the resources from (a) establishes the relative
non-critical advanced activities to priorities among various activities
critical activities on a common basis
(c) to be cautious for avoiding any (b) determines the status of each
delay in the critical activities to activity
avoid delay of the whole project (c) adjusts automatically changes
(d) all of the above in activity progress
(e) none of the above. (d) is a dynamic system
Ans: d (e) none of the above.
Ans: e
159. Pick up the correct statement
about relationship between 163. PERT is
various floats (a) an analytic tool in concept
(a) free float = total float (b) limit up of event oriented
(b) independent float = total float diagrams
(c) independent float > free float (c) used for research and
(d) free float > total float development projects
(e) independent float < free float. (d) based on three time estimates
Ans: e for activities linking up two events
(e) all of the above.
160. The time which results in the Ans: e
least possible direct cost of an
activity is known as 164. CPM is
(a) normal time (a) synthesising in concepts
(b) slow time (b) is built of activities oriented
(c) crash time program-mes
(d) standard time (c) is, based on one time eytimate
(e) none of the above. (d) is used for repetitive works
Ans: b (e) all of the above.
Ans: e
165. A CPM family includes
(a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(c) MCE (Minimum Cost
Expenditure)
(d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
166. PERT/CPM, techniques can be
used for following applications
(a) once through project
(b) maintenance jobs
(c) research and development
(d) all non-technical jobs
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
167. PERT analysis is based on
(a) optimistic time
(b) pessimistic time
(c) most likely time
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
168. Descripancies of bar chart
techniques are
(a) consequential effects of lack in
one activity on omer
(b) consequential effects of lack in
one activity on the finish date
(c) free time available for an
activity can't be predicted
(d) effective
monitoring/controlling can't be
done
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
169. O on a PERT/CPM chart
represents
(a) an ordinary event
(b) a significant event
representing some mile-stone
(d) dangling event
Ans: a
170. Pick up the correct
statement. Dummy activity on a
PERT/CPM chart means, it
(a) consumes time, but no
resources
(b) consumes resources but no
time
(c) consumes neither time nor
resources
(d) is a dangling event
(e) consumes both resources and
time.
Ans: c
171. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM
chart is obtained by joining the
events having
(a) maximum slack
(b) minimum slack
(c) average slack
(d) no slack
(e) judgement and experience.
Ans: b
172. Slack of various events on
the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease
depending on various factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
173. The assumption in PERT is
(a) a project will always be behind
schedule, if left uncorrected
(b) cost of project will always be
more than the estimated cost, if no
timely corrections are taken
(c) a project can be subdivided
into a set of predictable,
independent activities
(d) activities are fixed and can't be
changed ,
(e) commissioning time can be
changed, if activities are behind
schedule.
Ans: c
174. Activity s,lack or float of any
event on a PERT/CPM chart is
represented by
(a) latest start time of succeeding
event -earliest finish time of
preceding event activity time
(b) latest start time of the event -
earliest start time of the event
(c) latest finish time of event -
earliest finish time of the event
(d) anyone of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
175. The important file in making
a PERT is
(a) an event can't be accomplished
until activities leading to it are
completed
(b) no activity from any event can
be started from preceding event
till it is completed
(c) length of arrow has nothing to
do with time
(d) every activity must be
completed before end point is
reached
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
176. An event is indicated on the
network by
(a) a straight line
(b) a number enclosed in a circle
or a square
(c) a straight line with circles at
the ends
(d) a dotted line
(e) an arrow.
Ans: b
177. In a PERT chart
(a) all activities should be
numbered
(b) only important activities
should be numbered
(c) only critical activities are
numbered
(d) only selected activities are
numbered
(e) no activity is numbered.
Ans: a
178. Positive slack on a PERT
indicates that project is
(a) ahead of schedule
(b) beyond schedule
(c) as per schedule
(d) on critical path
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
179. Pessimistic time is
(a) the maximum time which an
activity might require
(b) the average time required for
a job
(c) the most probable time
considering all conditions
(d) the minimum time in which an
activity can possibly be
accomplished
(e) the earliest finish.
Ans: a
180. In PERT analysis, critical path
is obtained by joining events
having
(a) +ve slack
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero sldck
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c
https://wps.prenhall.com/chet_arnold_materials_6/74/18
954/4852376.cw/-/4852389/index.html ASSEMBLE-TO-ORDER
Introduction to Materials Management
In the _____________
environment, several product
A good planning system must options exist (e.g., automobiles)
consider: and the customer is not willing to
• What are we going to make wait until the product is made.
• What does it take to make it Therefore manufacturers produce
• What do we have and need and stock standard component
parts.
CAPACITY
is the capability of manufacturing PRODUCTION PLANNING
to produce goods and services. is the first step in a manufacturing
planning and control system.
MARKETING
is responsible for analyzing the THE COST OF BACKLOG
marketplace and deciding the that is too large equals the cost of
firm's response, the markets to be turning away business.
served, the products supplied, and
desired levels of customer service.

PRODUCTION
must satisfy the demands of the
marketplace. It does so by using
plants, machinery, equipment,
labor, and materials as efficiently
as possible.

THE MPS
is a plan for the production of
individual end items.

Purchasing and PRODUCTION

ACTIVITY CONTROL (PAC)
represent the implementation and
control phase of the production
planning and control system

A CHASE STRATEGY
means producing the amounts
demanded at any given time.
 4. In break-even analysis,
PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT MCQ SET 3
https://www.objectivebooks.com/2015/08/production- total cost consists of
management-mcq.html?m=1 (A) Fixed cost
1. Critical path method (B) Variable cost
(C) Fixed cost + variable cost
(A) Helps in ascertaining time (D) Fixed cost + variable cost +
schedules overheads
(B) Makes better and detailed
planning possible
(C) Provides a standard method
for communicating project plans
schedules and to time and cost 5. Which one of the following
performance techniques is used for
(D) All of the above determining allowances in
time study?

(A) Acceptance sampling

(B) Linear regression
2. Critical Path Net Work helps (C) Performance rating
an engineer (D) Work sampling
(A) To concentrate his attention
on critical activities
(B) To divert the resources from
noncritical advanced activities to
critical activities 6. Expediting function consists
(C) To be cautious for avoiding in keeping a watch on
any delay in the critical activities (A) Operator's activity
to avoid delay of the whole (B) Flow of material and in case
project of trouble locate source of trouble
(D) All of the above (C) Minimizing the delays
(D) Making efficient dispatching

3. Both Rowan plan and 50-50

Halsey plan will provide the 7. The most popular type of
same earning when the actual organisation used for Civil
time is _________ the Engineering Constructions is
standard time. (A) Line organization
(B) Line and staff organization
(A) One-fourth (C) Functional organization
(B) One-half (D) Effective organization
(C) Equal to
(D) Twice
8. Which one of the following
chart gives simultaneously
information about the
progress of work and machine
loading?
(A) Process chart
(B) Machine load chart
(C) Man-machine chart
(D) Gantt chart
9. Merit Rating is the method
of determining worth of
(A) A job
(B) An individual employee
(C) A particular division in
workshop
(D) Machine
10. Routing is essential in the
following type of industry
(A) Assembly industry
(B) Process industry
(C) Job order industry
(D) Mass production industry
11. The time required to
complete a task is established
and a bonus is paid to the
worker for every hour he
saves from the established
time required. This type of
incentive plan is known as
(A) Rowan Plan
(B) Taylor Differential Piece rate
system
(C) Halsey Premium plan
(D) Day work plan
12. Which of the following
wage incentive plan
guarantees minimum wage to
a worker and bonus is paid for
the fixed percentage of time
saved?
(A) Halsey plan
(B) Gantt plan
(C) Rowan plan
(D) Emerson's efficiency plan
13. Bin card is used in
(A) Administrative wing
(B) Workshop
(C) Foundry shop
(D) Stores
14. The production scheduling
is simpler and high volume of
output and high labour
efficiency are achieved in the
case of
(A) Product layout
(B) Process layout
(C) Fixed position layout
(D) A combination of line and
process layout
15. The disadvantage of
product layout is
(A) High initial investment for the
specialized facilities
(B) Skilled labour to operate
machines
(C) Production time is longer,
requiring more goods in inventory
(D) High cost of inspection
1. Answer: Option D Answer: a
2. Answer: Option D
3. Answer: Option B
Explanation: Oil release sulfur
4. Answer: Option C dioxide gas when they burn. This
5. Answer: Option D sulfur dioxide gas causes
6. Answer: Option B breathing problems for living
7. Answer: Option A
8. Answer: Option C creatures. Along with the health
9. Answer: Option B issue this sulfur dioxide which is
10. Answer: Option A emitted from oil also causes acid
11. Answer: Option C rain.
12. Answer: Option A
13. Answer: Option D 3. The most nuclear fuel used in
14. Answer: Option A
15. Answer: Option A
the world is________________
a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
https://www.sanfoundry.com/energy-management- c) Uranium – 235
questions-answers-energy-resources/
d) Plutonium – 239
View Answer
Energy Management Questions and Answers – Energy

Resources
Answer: c
Explanation: The most used
1. Energy is released from fossil nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is
a radioactive metal. Nuclear fuels
fuels when they
like Uranium do not burnt to
are___________________ release energy. Instead, the fuels
a) Pumped are involved in nuclear reaction in
b) Cooled nuclear reaction in the nuclear
c) Burned reactor.
d) Pressurized 4. The blades in wind turbines are
View Answer connected to________________
a) Nacelle
Answer: c
b) Tower
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels
because they release heat energy c) Foundations
when they are burned. They are d) String
fossil fuels because they were View Answer
formed from the remains of living
organisms billions of years ago. Answer: a
Some of the examples of fossil Explanation: A nacelle is a cover
fuels are coal, oil and natural gas. housing that houses all of the
generating components in a wind
2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas
turbine. Wind turbines have huge
when they burn. blades mounted on a tall tower.
a) True The blades are connected to a
b) False nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind
View Answer turbines helps to work the wind
turbines.
5. In the production of wave wind energy
energy which form of energy is d) Wind energy is transferred to
used? solar energy
a) Potential energy View Answer
b) Kinetic energy Answer: b
c) Solar energy Explanation: Hydroelectricity
d) Wind energy power stations use the kinetic
energy in moving water. But the
View Answer
water comes from behind a dam
Answer: b built across a river valley. The
Explanation: The water in the sea water high up behind the dam
rises and falls because of waves on contains potential energy.
the surface. Wave machines use 8. Solar panels generate
the Kinetic energy in this
electricity.
movement to drive electricity
generators. Wave energy also a) True
known as ocean energy. Wave b) False
energy is essentially power drawn View Answer
from waves.
Answer: b
6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built
Explanation: Solar panels do not
over a___________________ generate electricity. They just heat
a) River bed up water by the external electricity
b) River estuary connection given to them. This
solar panels are often located on
c) River end
the roofs of the building where
d) River starting they can receive heat energy
View Answer directly from the sun.
Answer: b 9. In order to produce solar energy
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a during sunlight, where the energy
barrier built over a river estuary to is stored in the batteries?
make use of the kinetic energy in
a) Nickel Sulfur
the moving water. Huge amounts
of water move in and out of river b) Zinc Cadmium
mouths each day because of the c) Nickel Cadmium
tides. The barrage contains d) Nickel Zinc
electricity generators.
View Answer
7. In hydroelectricity
Answer: c
power_________________
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to offers along service life thereby
potential ensuring a high degree of the
b) Potential energy is transferred economy. In the PV industry,
Nickel Cadmium battery cells are
to kinetic
majorly used for the energy
c) Solar energy is transferred to storage technology from
manufacturers and users of PV of of energy. The Sun’s energy
grid systems. warms the planet’s surface,
10. How many forms of fossil fuels powering titanic transfers of heat
and pressure in weather patterns
are there________________
and ocean currents.
a) One advertisement
b) Two 13. SI unit for energy
c) Three is_____________
d) Four a) Watt
View Answer b) Kilogram
Answer: c c) Newton
Explanation: There are three d) Joule
major forms of fossil fuels they are
View Answer
coal, oil and natural gas. They
formed from organic remains of Answer: d
plants and animals that were Explanation: SI unit for energy is
converted into coal, oil and natural joule. Metric unit of measurement
gas by exposure to heat and the for energy or work equal to a force
pressure of the earth’s crust over of one Newton applied through a
millions of years. distance of one meter. One joule is
11. According to WHO, how many equivalent to 0.737324 ft-lbs.
Joule is a SI unit of work, energy
premature deaths annually linked
and heat.
to air pollution causing by the
14. Trapped heat inside the earth
burning of fossil fuels?
is known as_______________
a) One million
a) Heat energy
b) Three million
b) Kinetic energy
c) Five million
c) Geothermal energy
d) Seven million
d) Thermal energy
View Answer
View Answer
12. Energy in the form of heat and Answer: c
light is obtained Explanation: Geothermal energy is
by________________ the heat from the earth. It’s clean
a) Biomass and sustainable. Resources of
geothermal energy range from the
b) Fossil fuels ground to water and hot rock. The
c) Sun term geothermal originates from
d) Wind the Greek words.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of
heat and light is obtained by sun.
Sunlight contains a large amount
1) Cloud base energy management system provides the ability to

a. Remotely control HVAC

b. Collect real time data
c. Generate intelligent, specific and real time guidance
d. Only b and c
e. All of these
ANSWER: All of these

2) The monitor and control of energy management system is done

by using

a. MATLAB
b. SCADA
c. AUTO - CAED
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: SCADA

3) The energy strategies of companies have the principle of

a. restoring and preserving the environment

b. reducing wastes and pollutants
c. educating the people about energy conservation
d. all of these
e. none of these
ANSWER: all of these

4) In passive potential energy strategies,

a. There is no systematic planning

b. Measures with low profitability is not considered
c. One should have high knowledge of the energy price
d. All of these
ANSWER: There is no systematic planning
5) In Germany, the maximum energy consumption of a low energy
house is

a. 50 kWh / m2a
b. 60 kWh / m2a
c. 70 kWh / m2a
d. 80 kWh / m2a
ANSWER: 70 kWh / m2a

6) IFMA stands for

a. International Facility Management Association

b. Indian Facility Management Association
c. International Facility Management Academy
d. Indian Facility Management Academy
ANSWER: International Facility Management Association

7) Maximum demand charges are given in

a. kWh
b. kVA
c. kVAr
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: kVA

8) Which among the following fuel is not available for thermal

energy supply?

a. LSHS
b. LDO
c. LPG
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: None of these
9) Energy management is a key component of

a. Environmental management
b. Carbon management
c. Nitrogen management
d. Water management
ANSWER: Carbon management

10) The main objective of energy management is to

a. Minimize energy cost

b. Minimum environmental effects
c. Maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization
d. Only A and B
e. All of these
ANSWER: All of these

https://www.careerride.com/mcq-tag-
wise.aspx?Key=Energy%20management&I
d=19

Energy management -
Electrical Engineering
(MCQ)
20 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with Answers 7. Which among the following
on Energy is not an adverse
environmental impact of tidal
http://www.shareyouressays.com/knowledge/20-
power generation?
multiple-choice-questions-mcqs-with-answers-on-

energy/114074
(a) Interference with spawing and
migration of fish
1. Which of the following is a (b) Pollution and health hazard in
non-renewable resource? the estuary due to blockage of
(a) Coal flow of polluted water into the sea
(b) Forests (c) Navigational hazard
(c) Water (d) None of the above
(d) Wildlife 8. Steam reforming is
2. Which among the following currently the least expensive
is not a renewable source of method of producing:
energy? (a) Coal
ADVERTISEMENTS: (b) Biogas
(a) Solar energy (c) Hydrogen
(b) Biomass energy (d) Natural gas
(c) Hydro-power 9. A fuel cell, in order to
(d) Geothermal energy produce electricity, burns:
3. Identify the non-renewable (a) Helium
energy resource from the (b) Nitrogen
following: (c) Hydrogen
(a) Coal (d) None of the above
(b) Fuel cells 10. Fuel cells are:
(c) Wind power (a) Carbon cell
(d) Wave power (b) Hydrogen battery
4. Which of the following is a (c) Nuclear cell
disadvantage of most of the (d) Chromium cell
renewable energy sources? 11. Both power and manure is
(a) Highly polluting provided by:
(b) High waste disposal cost (a) Nuclear plants
(c) Unreliable supply (b) Thermal plants
(d) High running cost (c) Biogas plants
5. Photovoltaic energy is the (d) Hydroelectric plant
conversion of sunlight into: 12. The outermost layer of the
(a) Chemical energy earth is:
(b) Biogas (a) Magma
(c) Electricity (b) Mantle
(d) Geothermal energy (c) Crust
6. Horizontal axis and vertical (d) Solid iron core
axis are the types of: 13. Common energy source in
(a) Nuclear reactor Indian villages is:
(b) Wind mills (a) Electricity
(c) Biogas reactor (b) Coal
(d) Solar cell (c) Sun
(d) Wood and animal dung
14. The one thing that is 20. Boiling water reactor and
common to all fossil fuels is pressurised water reactors
that they: are:
(a) Were originally formed in (a) Nuclear reactor
marine environment
(b) Solar reactor
(b) Contain carbon
(c) Have undergone the same set (c) OTEC
of geological processes during (d) Biogas reactor
their formation
(d) Represent the remains of one ANSWERS
living organisms 1. (a); 2. (b); 3. (a); 4. (c); 5. (a); 6. (b);
15. The process that converts 7. (d); 8. (c); 9. (c); 10. (b); 11. (c); 12.
solid coal into liquid (c); 13. (d); 14. (b); 15. (a); 16. (b); 17.
hydrocarbon fuel is called: (c); 18. (c); 19. (d); 20. (a)
(a) Liquefaction
(b) Carbonation
(c) Catalytic conversion
(d) Cracking
16. Lignite, bituminous and
anthracite are different ranks
of:
(a) Nuclear fuel
(b) Coal
(c) Natural gas
(d) Biogas
17. Cruid oil is:
(a) Colourless
(b) Odourless
(c) Smelly yellow to black liquid
(d) Odourless yellow to black
liquid
18. BTU is measurement of:
(a) Volume
(b) Area
(c) Heat content
(d) Temperature
19. The first controlled fission
of an atom was carried out in
Germany in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1928
(c) 1925
(d) 1938

http://matse1.matse.illinois.edu/energy/qui
z.html
Multiple Choice:
1. Energy efficiency is defined
as:
A. Energy that escapes in an
unusable form.
B. (Energy in bonds broken)
- (energy in bonds formed).
C. The content of energy in
a fossil fuel.
D. The amount of energy
extracted from a system
divided by the total energy
you put into the system.
2. "Fossil fuels" refers to:
A. coal. B. oil. C. natural gas.
D. All of the above.
3. The best type of coal in
terms of purity is:
A. lignite. B. anthracite. C.
bituminous. D.
subbituminous.
4. Coal liquefaction refers to
the process of:
A. Washing coal to remove
impurities. C. Turning coal
into syncrude.
B. Turning coal into natural
gas. D. None of the above.
5. The main method of natural
gas transportation is:
A. tankers. B. truck. C.
pipeline. D. none of the
above.
6. Crude oil is called "sweet" if:
A. It smells good. C. It
removed from oil shale.
B. It is easy to recover. D. It
has <= 1% sulfur.
7. We use most of our oil
products for:
A. transportation. B.
electricity generation. C.
home heating. D. industrial
uses.
8. Effects of acid rain include:
A. Deterioration of
monuments. C. Damage to
lakes and their wildlife.
B. Damage to vegetation. D.
All of the above.
9. Ways we utilize energy from
the sun include:
A. passive solar heating. C.
wind power
B. photovoltaics. D. All of
the above.
10. Types of spontaneous
radioactive decay include:
A. gamma emission. C.
alpha bombardment.
B. transmutation. D. nuclear
fission.
True/False
1. T F Potential energy is really
a type of mechanical energy.
2. T F A BTU is smaller than a
Joule.
3. T F Scientists worry that coal
reserves may run out in the
next 100 years.
4. T F There is only one way to
recover oil--drilling.
5. T F OPEC is an organization
which regulates the solar
power industry.
6. T F The greenhouse effect
refers to global warming due
the burning of fossil fuels
and the subsequent trapping
of the waste heat by the
atmosphere.
7. T F Solar ponds are a neat
idea, but they can't make
the water very hot.
 8. T F The use and production
of biomass is such that
eventually, we'll be able to
use it for all of our energy
needs.
9. T F An accident like the one
at Chernobyl could not
happen in the United States.
10. T F Ordinary objects
are radioactive, and you are
bombarded with radiation
every day.
Multiple Choice:
1. Energy efficiency is defined
as:
D. the amount of energy
extracted from a system
divided by the total
energy you put into the
system.
2. "Fossil fuels" refers to:
A. coal.B. oil. C. natural
gas. D. All of the above.
3. The best type of coal in
terms of purity is:
B. anthracite.
4. Coal liquefaction refers to
the process of:
C. turning coal into
syncrude.
5. The main method of natural
gas transportation is:
C. pipeline
Crude oil is called "sweet" if:
D. it has <= 1% sulfur.
6. We use most of our oil
products for:
A. transportation.
7. Effects of acid rain include:
A. deterioration of
monuments. C. damage to
lakes and their wildlife.
B. damage to vegetation. D.
all of the above.
8. Ways we utilize energy from
the sun include:
A. passive solar heating. C.
wind power
B. photovoltaics. D. All of
the above.
9. Types of spontaneous
radioactive decay include:
A. gamma emission
True/False
1. T Potential energy is really a
type of mechanical energy.
2. T A BTU is smaller than a
Joule.
3. F Scientists worry that coal
reserves may run out in the
next 100 years.
4. F There is only one way to
recover oil--drilling.
5. F OPEC is an organization
which regulates the solar
power industry.
6. T The greenhouse effect
refers to global warming due
the burning of fossil fuels
and the subsequent trapping
of the waste heat by the
atmosphere.
7. F Solar ponds are a neat
idea, but they can't make
the water very hot.
8. F The use and production of
biomass is such that
eventually, we'll be able to
use it for all of our energy
needs.
9. T An accident like the one at
Chernobyl could not happen
in the United States.
10. T Ordinary objects are
radioactive, and you are
bombarded with radiation
every day.