–the emt-basic Practice exam 1–
Answers 5. c. Fluids containing blood have the highest
1. b. HEPA respirators are worn when in contact
with patients who have airborne infections
such as TB. HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B are
both blood-borne pathogens. Contaminants
from open wounds would also be blood
borne.
2. c. Your first action should be to remove your
crew and the patient from the possible nox-
ious gas and to notify the gas company of the
leak. You may also be required to alert the
hazardous-materials response team. You
should not attempt to locate the gas leak
yourself. Treatment for the patient will begin
with an ABC assessment and management of
any problems you might encounter.
3. b. Because ventricular fibrillation is the most
common cause of sudden cardiac arrest, it is
critical to apply an AED on an unconscious
apneic and pulseless patient as quickly as
possible. The other rhythms can also cause a
patient to be in cardiac arrest, but they do
not occur as frequently as “V-fib.”
4. a. The patient with chest pain and systolic blood
pressure less than 100 is the highest priority
patient of the four. A leg injury may be life
threatening if the femoral artery is injured,
but most often, a single extremity injury is
not a threat to life. The elderly gentleman may
be exhibiting his normal mental status, or he
may be having problems due to an ongoing
health problem. You need more information
before you can make that determination, but
he is not in any imminent danger right now.
Labor with contractions six minutes apart is
not considered imminent delivery. If you have
any questions, however, you should continue
assessing this patient as well by asking perti-
nent questions and checking for crowning.
03_23-52.indd 43
potential for disease transmission.
6. c. An infant who is alert to verbal stimuli will
still try to locate the parents’ voices; choice a
describes an alert infant; choice d describes
an infant who is responsive to painful stim-
uli; choice b is incorrect because infants of
this age are not developed enough to tell you
their age regardless of their mental status.
7. b. Assess circulation in an infant by palpating
the brachial pulse in the upper arm. The
carotid and radial pulses are difficult to locate
in infants. Capillary refill time shows that the
patient has impaired circulation, but it is not
the first tool to use in assessing circulation
because it is affected by external f­ actors (like
the environment) as well as internal factors
like poor perfusion.
8. c. There is no information to indicate that the
patient requires ventilatory support. Any
patient experiencing chest discomfort should
receive the highest possible concentration of
oxygen.
9. a. The rapid trauma survey is used when you
are unsure of the presence of hidden injuries
or if the mechanism of injury (MOI) is
unclear or severe enough to suggest the need
for a rapid assessment. A 2-year-old child
could be severely injured by a medium-speed
collision, even if he or she appears alert and
was properly restrained. The other choices
do not represent MOIs considered to be high
risk for hidden injury.
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10. c. A supine patient may or may not have jugu-
lar veins that are prominent enough to pal-
pate. However, even if the neck veins are
normally present when an individual is
supine, they will not be engorged in blood
and overly firm to the touch. This is what is
meant by the phrase distended neck veins.
Distended neck veins (in any position) are a
sign of increased circulatory pressure. The
carotid pulse should always be palpable. A
decreased radial pulse may indicate hypovo-
lemic shock or an injured extremity.
11. c. The other rhythms do not benefit from an
electrical shock. The purpose of early defi-
brillation is to stop a highly chaotic, disorga-
nized electrical rhythm such as ventricular
fibrillation, with the hope that an organized
rhythm will begin and generate a pulse.
12. b. Assess motor function by asking the patient
to wiggle his toes; moving the leg or having
the patient bend the knee can compromise
spinal stability; option d describes assess-
ment of sensation, not motor function.
13. b. Patient b is the only one both responsive and
who has no significant mechanism of injury.
14. c. The P component of the OPQRST acronym
refers to provocation or palliation, or what
makes the pain feel worse or better.
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03_23-52.indd 44
15. a. You should perform the initial assessment
first, because the unresponsive patient cannot
direct you to the specific complaint. Vital
signs are completed during your second phase
of patient assessment after you determine
treatment priority and have a baseline ABC
assessment. You cannot determine the appro-
priate course of treatment of any airway
problem (including the need for positioning—
choice c) until you have first assessed the
­airway. The SAMPLE history is important
information to gather, but it should never
come before any treatment that may be
needed to correct an ABC abnormality.
16. b. Trauma and medical patients who are unre-
sponsive, and all patients who have altered
­mental status, should receive a detailed phys-
ical assessment. It is easy to overlook some-
thing when the patient is not conscious
enough to tell you what hurts or if the MOI
and nature of illness (NOI) are unclear.
17. c. The detailed physical assessment is usually
performed in the back of the ambulance
during transport; its purpose is to reveal hid-
den injuries that escaped the initial rapid
assessment.
18. c. The purpose of ongoing assessment is to
check the adequacy of your initial interven-
tions. The detailed examination is designed
to find missed injuries.
19. d. Do CPR. American Heart Association guide-
lines advise that even if there is an organized
rhythm, a pulse will not be palpable immedi-
ately after a shock. CPR is crucial to main-
tain blood flow and ventilation during this
time.
20. c. Only those patients who are unresponsive,
pulseless, and apneic should have the AED
applied.
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21. a. You could make the argument that you need
additional help in the management of each
of these situations; however, the one with the
most critical need is when you must care for
more than one critical patient. Both patients
with gunshot wounds need immediate atten-
tion, so you should call for backup. In the
other three situations, you should not
require assistance unless some complicating
factor presents itself. Patient b may or may
not require ALS assistance, but most (over
80%) deliveries are simple and uncompli-
cated and can be easily managed by basic life
support (BLS) providers. Patient c is having
a febrile seizure, which is managed by stabi-
lizing the ABCs and transporting. In patient
d, even if your partner is required to stabilize
the cervical spine, you should be able to
manage the patient for the time being until
other assistance arrives to assist with packag-
ing and moving the patient.
22. c. The epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure
that closes off the trachea during swallowing.
The larynx is the voice box, the structure
that produces speech vibrations; the cricoid
cartilage forms the lower portion of the lar-
ynx; the diaphragm is a large muscle that
contracts to initiate inhalation.
23. d. The alveoli are the numerous minute air sacs
that make up the lungs; bronchioles are
small branches of the bronchi, which are the
two main tubes branching from the trachea;
the epiglottis is the structure that closes off
the trachea during swallowing.
24. a. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema may
include difficulty breathing, excessive sweat-
ing, anxiety, and pale skin.
03_23-52.indd 45
25. c. During capillary–cellular exchange, oxygen
enters the body cells and carbon dioxide
enters the capillaries; choices a and b
describe ­alveolar-capillary exchange; choice
d describes cellular ­digestion.
26. d. Accessory muscles may be seen in use in the
neck and as retractions above the clavicles
and/or between the ribs. These muscles are
used when greater than normal inspiratory
and/or expiratory pressures are needed to
move air. Normal breathing does not pro-
duce any audible sounds, but it will produce
auscultatory sounds (heard with a stetho-
scope). Warm, dry skin and equal chest
expansion are both signs of adequate
breathing.
27. d. Bell’s palsy is the most common form of
facial paralysis. Muscular dystrophy is a
degenerative disease characterized by the
weakening of skeletal muscle fibers. ALS, also
known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, affects the
nerve cells that control voluntary movement.
Dystonia describes repetitive motions or
abnormal posturing.
28. a. A gurgling sound means that the patient
needs to be suctioned immediately; ventila-
tion cannot be adequate when the airway is
blocked from mucous, blood, or other
secretions.
29. b. Correct order of steps would be b, c, a,
and d.
30. b. The seizure event is referred to as ictal, hence
postictal refers to the period after the seizure
wherein a patent is often confused for a
period of time.
31. b. Choice b is the correct procedure. Choice a
is correct for a rigid catheter, choice c is the
correct method for inserting an oropharyn-
geal airway, and choice d is applicable only
to endotracheal intubation.
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32. c. Choice c is the correct procedure for clearing
the airway when simple suctioning is not
working. Choice b is appropriate for a
patient with copious frothy secretions like
the kind produced with pulmonary edema.
Choices a and d are inappropriate without
first clearing the airway.
33. d. The purpose of the head-tilt/chin-lift is to
move the tongue and epiglottis out of the
way of the airway; it is not useful for intuba-
tion (use the sniffing position), to remove
foreign bodies, or to visualize the larynx.
34. b. After opening the airway, the EMT should
assess the rate and depth of ventilations;
choices a, c, and/or d would occur only after
respiratory ­adequacy has been assessed and
they are appropriate to use.
35. d. Cyanosis, or a bluish coloration of the
mucus membranes and skin, is caused by
inadequate oxygen supply to the body tis-
sues; the other choices are unrelated to
oxygen supply.
36. a. Masks come in adult and pediatric sizes. In
order to deliver the highest possible concen-
tration of oxygen to the patient, you must
have a properly fitting mask. Steps d, b, and c
must then be completed (in that order)
before placing the mask on the patient’s face.
37. c. After sealing the mask to the patient’s face,
you should begin mouth-to-mask ventila-
tion with a long, slow breath; steps a, b, and
d should be done before applying the mask.
38. d. The correct rate is 12 ventilations per minute
for an adult (one breath every five seconds),
and the correct rate for a child is 20 ventila-
tions per minute.
39. d. During a two-person bag-valve-mask proce-
dure, one EMT ventilates the patient while
the other maintains the airway and monitors
the patient’s chest rise.
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03_23-52.indd 46
40. a. The cricoid cartilage forms a ring of firm car-
tilage and is located inferior to (below) the
larynx.
41. a. A means alert. The other letters in the acro-
nym stand for verbal, pain, and unrespon-
sive.
42. b. A bulb syringe is used to suction an infant’s
nasal passage or mouth and is generally used
with infants up to age 3–4 months. If you are
using mechanical or hand-powered suction
equipment in infants of this age, be very
careful to use the lowest possible pressures
needed to accomplish the job.
43. c. The right ventricle receives oxygen-poor
blood from the right atrium. It then pumps
the blood to the lungs via the pulmonary
artery, where it receives oxygen and releases
carbon dioxide.
44. c. The role of the EMT-Basic is not to diagnose
the exact cause of the patient’s chief com-
plaint. Maintaining a high suspicion for a
cardiac emergency will guide your next step
in managing this patient appropriately.
45. d. Your first action would be to administer oxy-
gen and place the patient in a comfortable
position; next, if not contraindicated, you
would request permission to administer
nitroglycerin. You should first obtain a set of
vital signs to ensure he is not in cardiogenic
shock. Never put defibrillator pads onto a
conscious patient with a pulse; this proce-
dure is contraindicated. AED pads are not
serving the same function as the electrodes
used by ALS providers to monitor the heart
rhythm.
46. a. Prehospital ACLS provides additional medi-
cations and other therapies that may help
either terminate the cardiac arrest state or
help prevent the patient who has regained a
pulse from going back into cardiac arrest.
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47. a. Although you note several injuries, you still
need to perform a rapid initial assessment to
determine if any problems with the ABCs that
you have not noted may be more life threat-
ening than what you can obviously see. Stop
the bleeding (but do not use a tourniquet)
and treat the patient for shock, but do not ele-
vate the patient’s legs if there is an injury to
the legs, pelvis, head, neck, chest, abdomen, or
spine. There is no indication that this patient
needs ventilation at this time.
48. d. When the SAED is attempting to analyze the
patient’s electrical rhythm, any movement of
the patient or the unit could cause the
machine to misinterpret the signal.
49. c. Safety is critical when performing defibrilla-
tion. Any defibrillation attempt in the rain
may possibly harm anyone near the patient
during the discharge of the unit.
50. c. The pressure point for wounds of the fore-
arm is the brachial artery.
51. a. Kinetic energy is the energy an object has
while in motion. Choice b describes mass,
choice c describes energy, and choice d
describes inertia.
52. c. Having the bystander stop CPR will allow
you to reassess the patient’s ventilatory and
circulatory status. This will tell you whether
you need to continue CPR or whether the
patient has regained a pulse or is breathing.
53. a. Venous bleeding flows in a steady, dark-red
stream. Arterial bleeding is bright red and
spurts from the wound, while capillary
bleeding oozes. Internal bleeding may or
may not present externally recognizable
signs or symptoms.
03_23-52.indd 47
54. d. This patient has the classic signs and symp-
toms of shock. Do not offer anything to eat
or drink to a patient you suspect of being in
shock, since surgery may be necessary later.
55. c. Speed is squared in the calculation of kinetic
energy. A one-pound object traveling at 30
mph is nine times more injurious than a
one-pound object traveling at 10 mph.
56. b. Ventricular tachycardia often converts to
ventricular fibrillation, a life-threatening
heart rhythm that the AED is designed to
correct.
57. c. Stop CPR briefly to verify pulselessness and
apnea. Once you have the leads ready for
placement on the chest wall, you should stop
CPR, clear away from the patient, attach the
AED leads, and perform the initial analysis.
Resume CPR after the first round of shocks
if they were unsuccessful and the patient
persists in ­pulselessness. Stop CPR again
every time you deliver shocks.
58. d. After three consecutive “no shock indicated”
messages, you should make sure to begin
transporting the patient while continuing
CPR. Some jurisdictions may adopt a proto-
col or standing order that requires you to
consider transporting following the first or
second set of AED rounds, regardless of
whether you shock. At the minimum, you
should begin your transport by the third time
you perform an analysis.
59. a. If the patient has been resuscitated but is still
unresponsive, check the pulse every 30 sec-
onds during transport and keep the AED
leads attached to the patient.
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60. c. If it becomes necessary to deliver shocks
while en route with the patient, the proper
procedure is to stop the vehicle before reana-
lyzing the rhythm because the AED has a
motion detector sensor in place that will not
allow the unit to operate in the presence of
motion.
61. d. The primary action of nitroglycerin is to
dilate the myocardial (coronary) arteries,
therefore easing the heart’s workload by
increasing the blood flow. Lowering of blood
pressure is a secondary effect seen with vessel
dilation. Reflex tachycardia, not bradycardia,
may occur as a result of nitroglycerine
administration. It does not have any direct
effects on the muscles of the heart.
62. b. Myocardial pain is often difficult to deter-
mine because it can take on many different
characters; however, patients most com-
monly (over 40% of the time) describe the
pain of a myocardial infarction as a crushing,
squeezing pressure that radiates outward to
the arms and upper back.
63. a. Children often turn toward the impact and
are often thrown down and under the
vehicle.
64. a. The combination of direct pressure, eleva-
tion, pressure dressing, and pressure point
pressure is almost always successful in stop-
ping bleeding in the extremities. Tourniquets
are seldom needed. PASG use is performed
cautiously under direct medical control, and
it is never the first line of t­ reatment.
65. d. Lifting the jaw is necessary to dislodge the
tongue from the back of the throat and pro-
vide a patent airway.
66. b. The head-tilt/chin-lift may jeopardize the
patient’s cervical spine. The other two proce-
dures will not adequately open the airway.
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03_23-52.indd 48
67. c. Tertiary blast injury includes those injuries
resulting from structural collapse.
68. d. Assess pulse, motor function, and sensation
distal to a splint both before and after apply-
ing the splint to ensure that the splint is not
adversely affecting circulation to the limb.
69. c. Tilting the head may compromise the stabili-
zation of the cervical spine when using the
modified jaw thrust.
70. b. The first 60 minutes after the occurrence of
multi­system trauma is the golden hour.
71. a. Blood is too fluid to be cleared adequately by
a finger sweep. The other answers are not
appropriate unless the airway was cleared
first by suction.
72. d. Before transporting a patient without con-
sent, it is best to always seek medical direc-
tion.
73. c. While the other answers may be true, they
may occur regardless of the time interval.
74. c. The one-way valve minimizes potential
cross-exposure of the patient’s secretions
and exhaled breath to the rescuer.
75. a. Administer oral glucose on medical direction
(through protocol or standing order) only to
patients with altered mental status and his-
tory of diabetes. Patient b should be first
treated as a trauma patient, and because
research shows poor outcomes following
brain injuries and glucose administration, it
is best to withhold its use until blood sugar
can be checked (which is an ALS-provider
skill in many areas). Patient c is not appro-
priate because of an inability to swallow
properly; ALS should be called to provide IV
dextrose to this patient. Glucose should be
withheld until you can better determine if
patient d is actually diabetic or not. (A blood
glucose reading would be helpful with this
patient as well.)
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76. c. Common causes of altered mental status
include trauma, diabetes, seizures, and infec-
tious disease. Asking about fever helps deter-
mine if there is a history of recent infection.
77. d. Signs of allergic reactions include increased
heart rate, as the heart attempts to compen-
sate for hypoperfusion. The two primary
life-­threatening events that occur during an
allergic ­reaction are profound vasoconstric-
tion (resulting in shock) and compromised
airway due to swelling, constriction, or
mucous production.
78. c. EMTs can administer epinephrine under
medical direction only if the medication was
previously prescribed for this patient. The
patient will be prescribed the correct dosage
by the physician, and you are only allowed to
administer the patient’s own medication.
79. a. This is the principles of conduct; concerns
for what is right or wrong, good or bad.
Choice b describes morals, choice c is a bet-
ter description of bioethics, and choice d
describes justice for the patient.
80. b. Care for a hypothermic patient with a dimin-
ished level of responsiveness should include
passive rewarming (blankets and heated
room) only; active rewarming should take
place only in the hospital environment, and
hypothermic patients should not be allowed
to exercise or to take stimulants, such as coffee
or tea. However, your proto­cols may allow
you to give warmed liquids that are not alco-
holic or caffeinated to slightly hypothermic
patients with a normal mental ­status.
81. d. Cool skin on the abdomen is a reliable sign
of hypothermia in a patient because the
abdomen is in the central core of the body
and is generally covered under layers of
clothing.
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82. c. The goal of care in cases of localized cold
damage is to prevent further damage by
removing the patient from the cold environ-
ment and protecting the damaged tissues
from further injury. Rewarming is best
accomplished in the hospital setting, where
pain medication can be administered and
the danger of reinjury due to ­recooling is
diminished.
83. a. A hyperthermic patient with hot skin must
be treated aggressively before permanent
organ damage sets in. When the skin is hot
and dry, the normal sweating mechanisms
have stopped functioning and the patient is
in danger of brain damage due to excessive
high body ­temperature.
84. c. Grabbing a stinger with tweezers or your fin-
gers can squeeze more venom into the
wound (also, there is personal risk of acci-
dental exposure to the venom if you use your
hands). Instead, scrape the stinger out of the
skin with a piece of cardboard or rigid plas-
tic (a credit card is ideal). Cutting around
the stinger causes more tissue damage.
85. a. A tort is a civil wrong committed by one
individual against another. Improper or neg-
ligent patient care would be considered a
tort.
86. b. Choice b describes early respiratory distress.
Choice a describes the signs of impending
respiratory arrest from insufficiency, choice c
describes respiratory failure, and choice d
describes airway obstruction.
87. d. For patients who have routine seizures and
whose condition returns to normal quickly
after a seizure, you should request medical
direction about whether to transport.
88. b. Multiple injuries, conflicting stories of the
cause, and repeated calls to the same address
are characteristic of child abuse.
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89. a. Suctioning the baby’s mouth and nose will
help to open the airway while the baby has
not yet begun breathing. You should not
force any part of the delivery process.
90. b. Care for a responsive child consists of stand-
ing behind the child and attempting to
relieve the obstruction with a series of sub-
diaphragmatic thrusts.
91. a. Signs of respiratory failure include altered
mental status and a slow or fast breathing
rate with fatigue. There is not enough infor-
mation to determine if patients b and c are
in respiratory insufficiency, respiratory fail-
ure, or impending respiratory arrest. Patient
d is in impending respiratory arrest.
92. b. Profuse vaginal bleeding may indicate a true
obstetrical emergency such as uterine rup-
ture or torn placenta.
93. b. Select the correct-size oral airway for an
infant or child by measuring from the corner
of the patient’s mouth to the angle of the
jaw.
94. a. Vitreous humor is found behind the lens of
the eye. It is the clear gel that fills the space
between the lens and the retina. Aqueous
humor is a thick, watery substance that fills
the space between the lens and the cornea.
95. c. If the cord is wrapped around the infant’s
neck and you cannot easily loosen and
remove it, you should clamp it in two places
and cut the cord.
96. a. This newborn has a high Apgar score; there
is no need for respiratory support unless the
condition changes. You should always follow
the steps in the inverted pyramid for neona-
tal resuscitation by drying and warming,
positioning the head down for drainage, suc-
tioning the airway and nose as needed, and
providing tactile stimulation to stimulate
breathing.
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03_23-52.indd 50
97. c. The presence of a bloody show (which is the
expulsion of the mucous plug from the
mouth of the cervix) occurs during the first
stage of labor. It is normal and indicates that
the cervix is beginning to open or dilate and
may occur several hours prior to delivery.
The second stage of labor continues until the
baby is born.
98. d. There can be large blood loss suffered by the
mother during a miscarriage. The EMT-
Basic should treat the patient for possible
shock as well as provide emotional care.
99. a. More than 500 mL of blood loss after deliv-
ery is excessive; massage the mother’s abdo-
men by rubbing firmly in one direction from
the symphasis pubis bone toward the umbi-
licus. This will help the uterus contract and
stop the bleeding. Oxygen administration,
shock treatment, and rapid transport will
follow uterine massage.
1
00. d. If meconium is present in the amniotic fluid,
suction the infant before stimulating it to
cry, then notify the hospital of the presence
of meconium. An ALS crew may be able to
perform tracheal suctioning and intubate the
infant. If the lungs are stiff and noncompli-
ant, it may indicate that aspiration of the
meconium has occurred. Aspiration pneu-
monia due to meconium is often fatal.
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101. d. In addition to providing routine emergency
care, care for a rape victim should focus on
preserving evidence and providing comfort
and reassurance. Although you want to pro-
vide comfort to the patient, you should not
allow him or her to shower or change
clothes, as this will destroy evidence. Any
clothing or personal effects that are removed
from the patient should be placed in paper
bags to prevent the growth of bacteria that
might occur if stored in plastic bags. You
should not need to examine the genital or
rectal area unless you note significant
bleeding.
102. a. This condition, called supine hypotension
syndrome, is the result of compression that
the enlarged uterus causes on the vena cava
of the maternal circulatory system. This cor-
rective position, called the left lateral recum-
bent position, is accomplished by placing the
mother on her left side with her legs bent
slightly or kept straight. Maternal positional
changes have no effect on the speed of labor
or the position of the infant in the birth
canal. By assisting in venous blood return in
the mother, you will get the secondary effect
of increasing blood flow to the uterus, but
this is a secondary effect seen in correcting
supine hypotension s­ yndrome.
103. b. The patient is likely to deliver imminently, so
prepare for a normal delivery.
104. c. Never enter a scene where hazardous materi-
als are present until you have verified that
the scene is safe. Use binoculars to survey the
scene from a distance in order to identify
hazardous materials placards. Consider vic-
tims and bystanders contaminated and take
appropriate precautions.
03_23-52.indd 51
105. d. Bleeding control with spurting blood carries
maximum danger of contamination, and
maximum protection is therefore required.
Airway suctioning or intubation does not
generally require the use of a cover gown,
and cleaning contaminated instruments does
not generally require eye/facial protection
unless there is danger of splashing.
106. a. Abandonment occurs when you relinquish
care without a patient’s consent or without
insuring that care is continued by someone
of the same or higher level, such as a para-
medic, ALS unit, or physician.
107. c. EMTs should not enter a crime scene until it
has been secured by police. As you travel to
the scene, you should determine where it is
most appropriate to park your vehicle. Gen-
erally, you want cover (protection from
attack) and concealment (out of direct visual
range) in your staging area.
108. b. To avoid misunderstanding, always repeat
medical orders exactly as you heard them.
Once you have done that, you can question
any order you do not understand or about
which you are unclear. When you complete
your written patient-care report, you should
include the order in your report.
109. b. The sensation of needing to move one’s bow-
els during labor is the result of the head
pressing down on the anal sphincter as the
baby passes through the birth canal. The
head is very close to the opening of the birth
canal, and delivery is imminent.
110. b. An adult of sound mind can refuse treat-
ment, but the EMT should first make an
effort to clearly explain the consequences;
refusal of treatment should be documented
in writing.
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111. a. An emergency move is required in a situation 116. d. Patients with breathing difficulties and seri-
where a patient is in immediate life-­ ous bleeding receive the highest priority in a
threatening danger. Emergency moves require ­multiple-casualty situation.
only cervical spine stabilization (if it is a 117. c. Do not assume that an elderly patient is
trauma situation) and should be performed incompetent, deaf, or confused. Address all
quickly. Once the patient is in a safer location, patients respectfully.
you should begin with your initial assessment 118. d. Patient information can be released only if
as you do in all patient situations. the patient has signed a specific consent
12. c. Bacterial meningitis has an incubation
1 form.
period of 2–10 days. Bacterial infections of 119. a. If you are informed of a do not resuscitate
the meninges are extremely serious illnesses, order but do not actually see it, you must
and may result in death or brain damage still provide all necessary care.
even if treated. 120. c. You are responsible for helping make your
113. b. The uterus is most easily felt just above the patient feel at ease, but you are also responsi-
navel. ble for operating your ambulance in the saf-
14. c. An incident management system is a coor­
1 est possible way.
dinated system of procedures that allows for
smooth operations at the scene of an
­emergency.
15. b. Placing napkins in the birth canal will not
1
stop the source of bleeding. Placing bulky
dressings or sanitary napkins at the vaginal
opening will help prevent the blood from
spreading.

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