1. Which of the following statements is false?
s false? (a) statement of changes in equity (c) statement of retained
(a) Financial reporting should provide information which is
relevant to investment, credit and public policy decisions.
(b) Generally speaking, GAAP are those accounting principles
with substantial authoritative support.
(c) GAAP are established to ensure the relevancy of the
general-purpose financial statements to the widespread
uses of the information by external decision makers.
(d) Once established, GAAP should never be changed.
2. A firm signs a major contract in December to construct
custom machinery for a client. No work is begun the current year
yet the footnotes to the firm’s financial statements discuss the
nature and peso amount of the contract. This is an example of
(a) reliability (c) historical cost
(b) full disclosure (d) conservatism
3. A corporation needed a new warehouse; a contractor
quoted a P250,000 prices to construct it. The corporation
believed that it could build the warehouse for P215,000 and
decided to use company employees to construct the warehouse.
The final construction cost incurred by the corporation was
P240,000 but the asset was recorded at P250,000. This is in
violation of the:
(a) time period assumption (c) cost principle
(b) matching principle (d) revenue principle
4. Which of the following accounting concepts best justifies
the use of accruals and deferrals?
(a) Cost/benefit constraint (c) Continuity assumption
(b) Unit-measure assumption (d) Materiality constraint
5. Which of the following most clearly states the most
important quality which an expenditure must have to be
recognized as an asset on the balance sheet?
(a) It must be both material and relevant
(b) It must have reasonably certain future benefit to the
business.
(c) It must be a physical object
(d) It must be used in operation of the business.
6. Which of the following is a current asset?
(a) cash surrender value of a life insurance policy, where the
company is the beneficiary
(b) investment in marketable securities for the purpose of
controlling the issuing company
(c) cash designated for the purchase of tangible fixed assets
(d) trade installments receivable normally collectible in 24 months
7. The basic components of financial statements include
(choose the incorrect one):
(b) When goods are sold by the retailer
earnings
(b) profit (loss) statement (d) statement of cash flow
8. Which of the following reconciling items would require an
adjusting journal entry on the company’s books?
(a) outstanding checks (c) deposits in transit
(b) non-sufficient funds checks (d) cash on hand
9. In recording the bank balance with the book cash balance, which
of the following would not cause the bank balance shown on the
bank statement to be lower than the unadjusted book balance?
(a) cash on hand at the company
(b) NSF checks from a customer, as reported on the bank
statement
(c) interest credited to the account by the bank
(d) deposits in transit
10. In determining the cost of goods sold:
(a) purchase discounts are deducted net purchases
(b) freight out is added to net purchases
(c) purchase returns and allowances are deducted from net
purchases
(d) freight in is added to net purchases
11. Which of these would cause the inventory turnover ratio to
increase the most?
(a) increasing the amount of inventory on hand
(b) keeping the amount of inventory on hand constant but
increasing sales
(c) keeping the amount of inventory on hand constant but
decreasing sales
(d) decreasing the amount of inventory on hand and increasing
sales
12. An entity is a large manufacturer of machines. A major customer
has placed an order for a special machine for which it has given a
deposit to the entity. The parties have agreed on a price for the
machine. As per the terms of the sale agreement, it is FOB (free
on board) contract and the title passes to the buyer when goods
are loaded into the ship at the port. When should the revenue be
recognized by the entity?
(a) When the customer orders the machine
(b) When the deposit is received
(c) When the machine is loaded at the port
(d) When the machine has been received by the customer
13. A large manufacturer of cosmetics sells merchandise to a retailer,
which in turn sells the goods to the public at large through its
chain of retail outlets. The retailer purchases merchandise from
the manufacturer under a consignment contract. When should
revenue from the sale of merchandise to the retailer be
recognized by the manufacturer?
(a) When goods are delivered to the retailer
(c) It will depend on the terms of delivery of the merchandise
(i.e., CIF cost, insurance, and freight or FOB)
(d) It will depend on the terms of payment (i.e., cash or credit)
14. When the allowance method of recognizing bad debt expense is
used, the typical write off of a specific customer’s account:
(a) has no effect on net income (c) decreases current asset
(b) decrease net income (d) decreases working capital
15. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(a) The fair value method of accounting is the most appropriate
method of accounting for short-term investments in
marketable debt securities.
(b) Unrealized holding gains and losses on investments in
trading securities are recognized in income.
(c) All investments in available for sale securities are reported
at fair value.
(d) Only investments in bonds are accounted for by the fair
value method.
16. Which of the following is false?
(a) A debit valuation allowance balance for an investment in
available for sale securities implies a corresponding owners’
equity account with a credit balance of the same amount.
(b) Unrealized holding gains on investments in available for sale
securities may be recognized as a direct increase to owners’
equity.
(c) Investments in trading securities may be classified as current
or long-term.
(d) Investments in available for sale securities may be classified
as current or long-term.
17. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Investments classified as long-term are reclassified as short-
term investments only if it is the intention of the
management to dispose of them in the short term.
(b) If an investor company does not have significant influence in
another company, it must use either the fair value method
or the cost method to account for that investment in equity
securities.
(c) If an investor company has a controlling interest in another
company, it must use either the cost method or the equity
method to account for that investment in equity securities.
(d) The cost method is sometimes applied to investments in
equity securities.
18. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) The cost method of accounting for an investment in a
subsidiary recognizes the legal fact that the parent and
subsidiary are one economic unit.
 (b) Realized gains and losses on investments in equity securities
accounted for under the cost method are usually measured
by the difference between the cost and current selling price.
(c) Under the equity method of accounting for long-term
investments in equity securities, the investor’ investment
account is decreased by all dividends received from the
investee.
(d) The equity method of accounting for long-term investments
in equity securities is based on the presumption that the
investor owns a sufficient number of the outstanding voting
shares of another company to exercise significant influence
over the operating and financing policies of the other
company.
19. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(a) For a long-term equity investment, the investor accounts for
a stock split in the same manner as for a stock dividend.
(b) The relative sales value method is usually used to apportion
the book or carrying value of a long-term equity investment
between the old shares still owned and newly received stock
rights related to those shares.
(c) A stock dividend received on an investment reduces the per
share cost to the investor.
(d) For the equity method to be applicable to equity
investments, it is presumed that the investor owns enough
voting shares of the investee to exercise managing control.
20. An entity shall classify a noncurrent asset or disposal group as
“held for sale” when:
(a) The carrying amount of the asset or disposal group will be
recovered through continuing use.
(b) The carrying amount of the asset or disposal group will be
recovered through a sale transaction.
(c) The noncurrent asset or disposal group is to be abandoned.
(d) The noncurrent asset or disposal group is idle or retired
from active use.
21. Noncurrent asset or disposal group is classified as “held for sale”
when the asset is available for immediate sale and the sale is
highly probable. For the sale to be highly probable, (choose the
incorrect one)
(a) Management must be committed to a plan to sell the asset.
(b) An active program to locate a buyer and complete the plan
must have been initiated.
(c) The asset must be actively marketed for sale at a reasonable
price in relation to its carrying value.
(d) The sale is expected to qualify for recognition as a
completed sale within one year from the date of
classification of the asset as “held for sale”.
22. Which statement is incorrect concerning presentation of
noncurrent asset or disposal group classified as held for sale?
(a) An entity shall present a noncurrent asset held for sale and
the assets of a disposal group classified as held for sale
separately from other assets.
(b) The liabilities of a disposal group classified as held for sale
shall be presented separately from other liabilities.
(c) The assets and liabilities a disposal group classified as held
for sale shall be offset as a single amount.
(d) An entity shall not depreciate a noncurrent asset classified
as held for sale or while it is part of a disposal group
classified as held for sale.
23. What is the treatment of gain on an initial increase in the fair
value less cost to sell of a noncurrent asset classified as held for
sale?
(a) The gain shall be recognized in full.
(b) The gain shall not be recognized.
(c) The gain shall be recognized but not in excess of the
cumulative impairment loss previously recognized.
(d) The gain shall be recognized but only in retained earnings.
24. Noncurrent asset classified as for rental to others shall be
presented in the statement of financial position as:
(a) Current asset
(b) Other noncurrent asset
(c) Noncurrent investment
(d) Property, plant and equipment
25. How should the assets and liabilities of a disposal group classified
as held for sale be shown in the statement of financial position?
(a) The assets and liabilities shall be offset and presented as a
single amount.
(b) The assets of the disposal group shall be shown separately
from other assets in the statement of financial position, and
the liabilities of the disposal group shall be shown
separately from other liabilities in the statement of financial
position.
(c) The assets and liabilities shall be presented as a single
amount and as a deduction from equity.
(d) There should be no separate disclosure of assets and
liabilities that form part of a disposal group.
26. An entity acquires a subsidiary exclusively with a view to selling it.
The subsidiary meets the criteria to be classified as held for sale.
At the end of the reporting period, the subsidiary has not yet
been sold, and six months have passed since its acquisition. How
will the subsidiary be valued in the statement of financial position
at the date of the first financial statements after acquisition?
(a) At fair value
(b) At the lower of its cost and fair value less cost to sell
(c) At carrying amount
(d) In accordance with applicable PFRS
27. An entity classified a noncurrent asset accounted for under the
cost model as held for sale on December 31, 2009. Because no
offers were received at an acceptable price, the entity decided on
July 1, 2010 not to sell the asset but to continue to use it. In
accordance with PFRS 5, the asset shall be measured on July 1,
2010 at:
(a) The lower of its carrying amount and its recoverable amount
(b) The higher of its carrying amount and its recoverable
amount
(c) The higher of its carrying amount on the basis that is had
never been classified as held for sale and its recoverable
amount
(d) The lower of its carrying amount on the basis that it had
never been classified as held for sale and its recoverable
amount
28. The following statements relate to the term “profit”.
Statement 1: Profit is any amount over and above that required to
maintain the capital at the beginning of the period.
Statement 2: Profit is the residual amount that remains after
expenses have been deducted from income.
(a) Both statements are false.
(b) Statement 1 is false.
(c) Statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements are true.
29. Which of the following is not true of a subsidiary ledger?
(a) The purpose of a subsidiary ledger is to store details of certain
general ledger accounts.
(b) The sum of the individual balances in a subsidiary ledger
should equal the balance in the general ledger control
accounts.
(c) Journal entries posted to a subsidiary ledger need not be
posted to the general ledger.
(d) One benefit of a subsidiary ledger is that the number of
general ledger accounts necessary is reduced.
30. The purpose of trial balance is to:
(a) indicate whether total debits equal total credits.
(b) ensure that all transactions have been recorded.
(c) speed the collection of cash receipts from customers.
(d) increase assets and owner’s equity.
31. The closing entry for sales discounts is:
(a) debit sales discounts and credit income summary.
(b) debit sales discounts and credit sales revenue.
(c) debit income summary and credit sales discounts.
(d) not used because sales discount is a real account which is not
closed.
32. Which of the following is not reversed at the start of the new
accounting period?
 (a) expense paid in advance that is debited to the expense
account at the time of payment
(b) doubtful accounts computed using the aging schedule
(c) income earned but not yet recorded because was not yet
received
(d) rent collected in advance and credited to a nominal account
33. In the equation, “Assets + Expenses = Liabilities + Revenue +
Capital”, the expenses and revenues are:
(a) contra asset and contra liability accounts, respectively, that
assist analysis of the financial progress of the firm
(b) incorrectly stated because their signs are reversed, i.e., both
are contra items that should have negative signs in the
formula
(c) adjustments to capital that are postponed until the end of a
specific accounting period to determine their net effect on
capital for that period
(d) incorrectly included in the formula because “Assets =
Liabilities + Capital”
34. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Service companies do not need to prepare financial
statements.
(b) Manufacturing companies maintain the simplest accounting
records.
(c) Merchandising companies purchase goods that are ready for
sale and then sell them to customers.
(d) A drugstore is an example of a service company.
35. Which of the following is not an accurate statement regarding the
rules of debit and credit in recording revenue and expense
transactions?
(a) revenue increases owner’s equity; since increases in owner’s
equity are recorded by credits, revenue is recorded by a
credit
(b) expenses decreases owner’s equity; since decreases in
owner’s equity are recorded by debits, expenses are
recorded by debits
(c) in recording revenue transactions, we debit the assets
received and credit the revenue account
(d) expenses used up assets; since decreases in assets are
recorded by credits, expenses are recorded by credits to
the expense account
36. Consider the following:
I. increase an asset VI. decrease owner’s equity
II. decrease an asset VII. increase a revenue
III. increase a liability VIII. decrease a revenue
IV. decrease a liability IX. increase an expense
V. increase owner’s equity X. decrease an expense
Using the above, if an asset account is debited, what are the five
possible corresponding credits?
(a) I, IV, VI, VIII, IX (c) I, III, V, VII, IX
(b) II, IV, VI, VIII, X (d) II, III, V, VII, X
37. The historical cost concept measures assets on the basis of:
(a) the replacement cost of assets on the balance sheet
(b) the amount of cash for which the assets could be sold
(c) an appraisal by the auditors
(d) the fair market value of assets on the day they were
acquired
38. In financial accounting, gains may be defined as:
(a) total receipts of cash
(b) total receipts of cash in excess of the historical costs of the
assets being sold
(c) total revenues
(d) total increases in net assets other than revenues
39. Under the accrual basis of accounting, if cash is received prior to
the sale, then:
(a) revenue is recognized when the cash is received
(b) a liability is recognized when cash is received
(c) a liability is removed from the system when the cash is
received
(d) revenue is removed from the system when the services have
been performed or the goods have been delivered
40. If there is an objective evidence that AFS is impaired, the
cumulative loss that had been recognized in other comprehensive
income:
(a) Shall be amortized over a reasonable period
(b) Shall remain unpaid until the financial asset is disposed of
(c) Shall be recognized in profit or loss
(d) Shall be recognized as an adjustment of the beginning
balance of retained earnings
41. A net unrealized loss on an entity’s portfolio of AFS equity
securities shall be reflected in the current financial statements as:
(a) Direct reduction of retained earnings
(b) Current loss resulting from holding equity securities
(c) Footnote or parenthetical disclosure only
(d) Component of other comprehensive income
42. What should happen when the financial statements of an
associate are not prepared as of the same date as of the financial
statements of the investor?
(a) The associate shall prepare financial statements for the use
of the investor at the same date as that of the investor.
(b) The financial statements of the associate prepared up to a
different date shall be used as normal.
(c) Any major transactions between the date of the financial
statements of the investor and that of the associate shall be
accounted for.
(d) As long as the gap is not greater than 3 months, there is no
problem.
43. When an investor purchases sufficient ordinary shares to
gain significant influence over the investee, what is the proper
accounting treatment of any excess of cost over book value
acquired?
(a) The excess remains in the investment account until it is sold.
(b) The excess is immediately expensed in the period in which
the investment is made.
(c) The excess is amortized over the time period that is
reasonable in the light of the underlying cause of the excess.
(d) The excess is charged to retained earnings at the time the
investor resells the investment.
44. Land, building and equipment should be reported on the
balance sheet at their cost, less accumulated depreciation, unless:
(a) some obsolescence is known to have occurred
(b) some of the property still on hand were written down
pursuant to a quasi-organization
(c) the amount of insurance carried on the property is well in
excess of its book value
(d) not given
45. Dave started his own cheese factory on March 16, 2003.
Which of the following transactions would not be admissible in
Dave’s accounting system for the month of March?
(a) On March 18, Dave purchased a cow on account for P3,000.
(b) On March 20, Dave sold his cow to a fast food restaurant for
P5,000.
(c) On March 21, Dave contracted with a local radio station to
run several one-minute advertising spots during the month
of April.
(d) All of the above transactions would be admissible for Dave’s
accounting system in the month of March.
46. Jeff purchased a new register system for his grocery store,
paying P1,000 in cash and issuing a P6,000 note payable for the
balance owed. As a result of this transaction, Jeff’s balance sheet
would reflect:
(a) an increase in assets and an increase in liabilities
(b) a decrease in assets and an increase in liabilities
(c) an increase in assets and a decrease in liabilities
(d) an increase in assets and an increase in owner’s equity
47. The double-entry system of accounting means that every
transaction:
(a) is recorded initially on both the journal and the general
ledger
(b) increases one general ledger account while decreasing
another
 (c) affects at least two general ledger accounts and is recorded
by an equal amount of debits and credits
(d) results in changes in accounts on both sides of the balance
sheet
48. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a)debits may increase assets
(b)credits may increase liabilities
(c)debits may increase liabilities
(d)credits may increase owner’s equity
49. Tony owns a store specializing in bags. Tony has just
completed a transaction that caused a P12,000 increase in total
assets and a P12,000 increase in liabilities. This transaction could
have been:
(a) the investment in his business of P12,000 in cash
(b) the purchase of store equipment, paying P9,000 in cash and
issuing a P12,000 note payable for the balance owed
(c) the purchase of bags for his inventory, paying P4,000 in cash
and issuing an P8,000 note payable for the balance owed
(d) none of the above transactions would cause total assets and
total liabilities to increase by P12,000
50. Dean has completed the posting process for the month of
June and has prepared a trial balance in which the debits total
P11,000 and the credits total P11,100. Which of the following
errors would be the most likely candidate in causing the trial
balance not to balance by P100?
(a) a P100 debit was posted as a P100 credit
(b) a P100 debit was posted as a P100 credit and a P100 credit
was posted as a P100 debit
(c) a P50 debit was posted as a P50 credit
(d) the purchase of supplies on account was never posted to
the general ledger
51. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The best way to ascertain whether a marketable security is
short-term or a long-term investment is to check with a
securities dealer.
(b) For balance sheet classification, a security is classified as a
short-term investment if it is readily marketable.
(c) For balance sheet classification, a security is classified as a
short-term investment based on the intended holding
period.
(d) All investments in trading securities are reported at book
values.
53. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?
(a) The fair value method of accounting is the most appropriate
method of accounting for short-term investments in
marketable debt securities.
(b) Unrealized holding gains and losses on investments in
trading securities are recognized in income.
(c) All investments in available for sale securities are reported
at fair value.
(d) Only investments in bonds are accounted for by the fair
value method.
54. Which of the following is true?
(a) The fair value method of accounting is the most appropriate
method of accounting for short-term investments in
marketable equity securities.
(b) All bond investments are accounted for by the amortized
cost method.
(c) The carrying value of an investment in trading securities or
available for sale securities is limited to market value at the
date of acquisition.
(d) The realized gain or loss on a short-term investment in an
equity security is usually equal to the difference between its
cost and its sale price.
55. Which of the following is false?
(a) A debit valuation allowance balance for an investment in
available for sale securities implies a corresponding owners’
equity account with a credit balance of the same amount.
(b) Unrealized holding gains on investments in available for sale
securities may be recognized as a direct increase to owners’
equity.
(c) Investments in trading securities may be classified as current
or long-term.
(d) Investments in available for sale securities may be classified
as current or long-term.
56. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(a) Investments in available for sale securities and trading
securities are classified separately in a balance sheet.
(b) Investments in available for sale securities include only
equity securities.
(c) Investments in trading securities include only debt
securities.
(d) Increases in the market value of trading securities and
available for sale securities investments always cause the
valuation account to decrease. A (b) sales-type lease
57. Tangible goods used in the productive process and directly related
to the products being manufactured are called:
(a) factory supplies. (c) raw materials.
(b) finished goods. (d) goods in process.
58. When a portion of inventories has been pledged as security on a
loan:
(a) the value of the portion pledged should be subtracted form
the debt.
(b) an equal amount of retained earnings should be appropriated.
(c) the fact should be disclosed but the amount of current assets
should not be affected.
(d) the cost of the pledged inventories should be transferred from
current assets to noncurrent assets.
59. Slow-moving and obsolete inventory items should be priced for
balance sheet purposes at:
(a) retail inventory price.
(b) cost or market, whichever is lower.
(c) moving average.
(d) at an amount not in excess of possible realizable value.
60. Subnormal or obsolete goods, either under the cost or the lower
of cost or market basis:
(a) should be taken up an unrealized inventory loss.
(b) should be valued at bona-fide selling price less direct cost of
disposition.
(c) should be valued by applying an inventory method that
uses a constant or nominal value for the normal inventory
level.
(d) should be adjusted in the cost of goods sold.
61. Merchandise which a trader contracted to purchase but which
was not delivered or identified in the year should:
(a) not be included in the inventory.
(b) be included in the inventory at cost.
(c) be included in the inventory at its probable retail value.
(d) be included in the inventory at a normal price.
62. The appropriate valuation of an operating lease on the statement
of financial position of a lessee is:
(a) zero
(b) the absolute sum of the lease payments
(c) the present value of the sum of the lease payments
discounted at an appropriate rate
(d) the market value of the asset at the date of the inception of
the lease
63. When equipment held under an operating lease is subleased by
the original lessee, the original lessee would account for the
sublease as:
(a) operating lease (c) direct financing lease
(d) capital lease
64. Equal monthly rental payments for a particular lease should be
charged to rental expense by the lessee for which of the
following?
Capital lease Operating lease
(a) Yes No (c) No No
(b) Yes Yes (d) No Yes
65. In a lease that is recorded as an operating lease by the lessee, the
equal monthly rental payments should be:
(a) allocated between a reduction in the liability for leased asset
and depreciation expense
 (b) allocated between a reduction in the liability for leased asset
and interest expense
(c) recorded as a reduction in the liability for leased asset
(d) recorded as rental expense
66. Where the balance sheet indicates that a portion of property,
plant and equipment the related accumulated depreciation
pertains to equipment leased to customers, it is evident that the:
(a) operating method of accounting is used for the lease
(b) financing method of accounting is used for the lease
(c) lessor has violated GAAP
(d) lessor is using the income tax method of accounting for the
lease
67. A 20-year property lease, classified as an operating lease,
provides for a 10% increase in annual payments every five years.
In the 6th year compared to the 5th year, the lease will cause the
following expenses to increase:
Rent Interest
(a) Yes No (c) No No
(b) Yes Yes (d) No Yes
68. Which is not an essential characteristic of an accounting liability?
(a) The liability is the present obligation of a particular
enterprise.
(b) The liability arises from past transaction or event.
(c) The settlement of the liability requires an outflow of
resources embodying economic benefits.
(d) The liability is payable to a specifically identified payee.
69. Current liabilities include:
(a) only obligations which are expected to be settled within the
normal operating cycle.
(b) only obligations which are due to be settled within one
year from balance sheet date.
(c) obligations which are expected to be settled within the
normal operating cycle and obligations which are due to be
settled within one year from balance sheet date.
(d) refinanced long-term debt falling due within one year from
balance sheet.
70. A long-term debt falling due within one year should be reported
as noncurrent liability should be reported as noncurrent liability if
the following conditions are met (choose the incorrect one):
(a) The original term is for a period of more than one year.
(b) The enterprise intends to refinance the obligation on a
long-term basis.
(c) The intent to refinance is supported by an agreement to
refinance which is completed before the issuance of the
financial statements.
(d) The intent to refinance is supported by an agreement to
refinance which is completed after the issuance of the
financial statements.
71. Which will demonstrate an agreement to refinance (choose the
incorrect one)?
(a) Long-term obligation has in fact been issued before the
issuance of the financial statements for the purpose of
refinancing.
(b) Equity security has in fact been issued before the issuance
of the financial statements for the purpose of refinancing.
(c) Before the issuance of the financial statements, the
enterprise has in fact entered into a financing agreement
that clearly permits the enterprise to refinance the currently
maturing long-term debt on a long-term basis.
(d) Preferred stock has in fact been issued before the issuance
of financial statements for the purpose of obtaining working
capital.
72. Some obligations that are due to be repaid within the next
operating cycle and expected to be refinanced or “rolled over”
should be classified as noncurrent:
(a) If the refinancing or “rolling over” is at the discretion of the
enterprise and the refinancing agreement has been reached
before the issuance of the statements.
(b) If the refinancing or “rolling over” is at the discretion of the
enterprise regardless of whether a refinancing agreement
has been reached or not before the issuance of the
statements.
(c) If the refinancing or “rolling over” is not at the discretion of
the enterprise.
(d) Subject to no conditions.
73. Which is not a characteristic of an intangible asset?
(e) the asset lacks physical substance
(f) the asset is used in production or supply of goods and
services, for rental to others or for administrative purposes
(g) the asset provides future economic benefits
(h) the asset has indeterminate useful life
74. Which is not unidentifiable intangible asset?
(a) patent (c) copyright
(b) franchise (d) goodwill
75. If the pattern in which the economic benefits from the asset are
consumed cannot be predicted reliably, the method of
amortization for an intangible asset should be:
(a) straight line (c) declining balance
(b) output method (d) sum of years’ digits
76. Intangible assets should be carried (benchmark treatment):
(a) gross cost
(b) fair value on balance sheet date
(c) revalued amount minus accumulated amortization and
accumulated impairment losses
(d) cost minus accumulated impairment losses and
accumulated amortization
77. Which of the following is not considered in estimating the useful
life of intangible assets?
(a) expected usage of the asset by the enterprise
(b) stability of the industry in which the intangible asset
operates
(c) salvage value of the asset
(d) level of maintenance expenditure required to obtain the
future economic benefit from the asset
78. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Financial accounting is a social science and cannot be
influenced by changes in legal, political, business and social
environments.
(b) Financial accounting is an information system designed to
provide information primarily to the internal users.
(c) General-purpose financial statements must be prepared by
a certified public accountant.
(d) The preparation of general-purpose financial statements is
usually based on the assumption that the primary users of
the information are external decision makers.
79. Which of the following statements is false?
(e) Financial reporting should provide information which is
relevant to investment, credit and public policy decisions.
(f) Generally speaking, GAAP are those accounting principles
with substantial authoritative support.
(g) GAAP are established to ensure the relevancy of the
general-purpose financial statements to the widespread
uses of the information by external decision makers.
(h) Once established, GAAP should never be changed.
80. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Managers of an entity are considered to be internal decision
makers.
(b) External decision makers can be obtained whatever financial
data they need whenever they need it.
(c) Accounting information is prepared for and useful to only
outside decision makers.
(d) The members of the Board of Directors are not “internal
users” only.
81. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The objective of the external financial statements is to
communicate the economic effects of completed
transactions and other events on the entity.
(b) The practice of accounting requires considerable
professional judgment.
 (c) Security analysis use information from financial statements
and other sources to project future earnings.
(d) The assessment of earnings quality has become an exact
science.
82. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Certified Public Accountants are not independent for the
benefit of the users of the financial statements, because
they are paid by the client.
(b) Accounting concepts, principles and standards are just as
broad and general today as they were sixty years old.
(c) Due the excellent work of the ASC, there are very few
choices among alternative accounting policies today.
(d) Disclosure notes are an integral part of the financial
statements.
83. Which of the following equations is not true?
(a) Assets + Liabilities = Owner’s Equity
(b) Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity
(c) Assets – Owner’s Equity = Liabilities
(d) Assets – Liabilities = Owner’s Equity
84. Dave started his own cheese factory on March 16, 2003. Which
of the following transactions would not be admissible in Dave’s
accounting system for the month of March?
(e) On March 18, Dave purchased a cow on account for P3,000.
(f) On March 20, Dave sold his cow to a fast food restaurant for
P5,000.
(g) On March 21, Dave contracted with a local radio station to
run several one-minute advertising spots during the month
of April.
(h) All of the above transactions would be admissible for Dave’s
accounting system in the month of March.
85. Jeff purchased a new register system for his grocery store, paying
P1,000 in cash and issuing a P6,000 note payable for the balance
owed. As a result of this transaction, Jeff’s balance sheet would
reflect:
(a) an increase in assets and an increase in liabilities
(b) a decrease in assets and an increase in liabilities
(c) an increase in assets and a decrease in liabilities
(d) an increase in assets and an increase in owner’s equity
86. The double-entry system of accounting means that every
transaction:
(a) is recorded initially on both the journal and the general
ledger
(b) increases one general ledger account while decreasing
another
(c) affects at least two general ledger accounts and is recorded
by an equal amount of debits and credits
(d) results in changes in accounts on both sides of the balance
sheet
87. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) debits may increase assets
(b) credits may increase liabilities
(c) debits may increase liabilities
(d) credits may increase owner’s equity
88. Tony owns a store specializing in bags. Tony has just completed a
transaction that caused a P12,000 increase in total assets and a
P12,000 increase in liabilities. This transaction could have been:
(a) the investment in his business of P12,000 in cash
(b) the purchase of store equipment, paying P9,000 in cash and
issuing a P12,000 note payable for the balance owed
(c) the purchase of bags for his inventory, paying P4,000 in cash
and issuing an P8,000 note payable for the balance owed
(d) none of the above transactions would cause total assets and
total liabilities to increase by P12,000
89. Dean has completed the posting process for the month of June
and has prepared a trial balance in which the debits total P11,000
and the credits total P11,100. Which of the following errors
would be the most likely candidate in causing the trial balance not
to balance by P100?
A. a P100 debit was posted as a P100 credit
B. a P100 debit was posted as a P100 credit and a P100
credit was posted as a P100 debit
C. a P50 debit was posted as a P50 credit
D. the purchase of supplies on account was never posted
to the general ledger
90. Increase in net assets may result from:
(a) revenues
(b) expenses
(c) withdrawals
(d) all of the above are correct
91. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Increases to owner’s capital are recorded with credits.
b) Sales are recorded as debits.
c) Expenses reduce owner’s capital.
d) Expenses and dividends are both recorded as debits.
92. Zinc Company recorded office supplies as an asset account when
the supplies were purchased. Failure to make an adjusting entry
reflecting the use of these supplies will result in:
(a) an understatement of assets
(b) an overstatement of owner’s equity
(c) an understatement of liabilities
(d) an understatement of owner’s equity
BPS/EPS
93) Under PAS 33, EPS disclosures are required for
I. Entities whose ordinary shares or potential ordinary shares
are publicly traded.
II. Entities that are in the process of issuing ordinary shares in
the public market.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
94) Under PAS 33, which of the following statements about an
ordinary share is true?
I. An ordinary share is an equity instrument that is superior to
all other classes of equity instrument.
II. A potential ordinary share is a financial instrument or other
contract that may entitle its holder to ordinary shares.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
subordinate
95) Which of the following statements is true?
I. Earnings per share amounts should not be presented if they
are negative, i.e. loss per share.
II. Earnings per share amounts calculated for discontinued
operations should be presented.
a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
96) When computing diluted EPS for an entity with a complex
capital structure, what is the denominator in the computation?
a. Number of ordinary shares outstanding at year-end
b. Weighted average number of ordinary shares outstanding
c. Weighted number of ordinary shares outstanding plus all other
potentially antidilutive securities.
d. Weighted average number of ordinary shares outstanding plus all
other potentially dilutive securities
97) For purpose of computing the weighted average number of
shares outstanding in EPS calculation, a mid-year that must be
treated as occurring at the beginning oif the year is the
a. Issuance of the share warrants
b. Purchase of treasury shares
c. Issuance of share certificates
d. Issuance of new shares from share split
98) When EPS is computed, dividends on preferred stock are
a. Added because they represent earnings to preferred share
holders
b. Reported separately on the income statement
c. Subtracted they represent earnings to preferred shareholders
d. Ignored because so they do not pertain to the common stock
 valuation techniques should not be used as a measure of fair value
in the first instance?
99) It is reduction in earnings per share or an increase in loss Sharebased a. Black – Scholes model c. Monte – Carlo model
per share resulting from the assumption that convertible 105) The entity has issued a range of share options to employees. b. Binomial model d. Intrinsic value
instruments are converted, that options or warrants are exercised, In accordance with PFRS 2, what type of share-based payment
or that ordinary shares are issued upon the satisfaction of specified transaction does this represent? 112) It is the difference between the fair value of the shares to
conditions. a. Equity-settled share-based payment transaction which the counterparty has the right to subscribe and the price the
a. Dilution c.Either dilution or antidilution b. Asset-settled share-based payment transaction counterparty is required to pay for those shares.
b. Antidilution d.Neither dilution nor antidilution c. Cash-settled share-based payment transaction a. fair value c. Market value
d. Liability-settled share-based payment transaction b. Intrinsic value d. Book value
100) What is the inherent justification underlying the concept of
potential diluters in an earnings per share computation? 106) In accordance with PFRS2, how should an entity recognize 113) These are transactions in which the entity receives goods or
a. form over substance the change in the fair value of the liability in respect of a cash- services as consideration for equity instruments of the entity
b. substance over form settled share-based payment transaction? including shares and share options.
c. form and substance considered equally a. Should not recognize in the financial statements but disclose in a. Equity settled share-based payment transactions
d. substance over form or form over substance depending on the notes thereto b. Cash settled share-based payment transactions
the circumstances b. Should recognize in the statement of changes in equity c. Equity payment transactions
c. Should recognize in profit or loss d. Cash payment transactions
101) In determining earnings per share, interest expense, net of d. Should recognize in other comprehensive income
applicable income taxes, on convertible debt which is dilutive should 114) Compensatory stock options were granted to executives on
be 107) A cash-settled share-based payment shall give rise to an January 1, 2008, for services to be rendered during 2008, 2009, and
a. Added back to net income for diluted earnings per share. increase in which of the following? 2010. The fair value of the option was measured at the grant-date
b. Deducted from net income for basic earnings per share and a. A current asset c. Equity fair value using the observable market price of an option with similar
ignored for diluted earnings per share. b. A noncurrent asset d. A liability terms. The fair value of the options was in excess of the amount the
c. Deducted from net income for both basic earnings per share executives must pay for the stock. The stock options were exercised
and diluted earnings per share. 108) An entity has entered into a contract with another entity. on December 30, 2010 Compensation expense should be recognized
d. Added back to net income for basic earnings per share, and The latter will supply the former with a range of services. The in the income statement in which of the following years?
ignored for diluted earnings per share. payment for those services will be in cash and based upon the
price of former’s ordinary shares on completion of the contract. In 2008 2009 2010 2008 2009 2010
102) Potential ordinary shares do not include accordance with PFRS 2, what type of share-based payment a. No No Yes c. Yes Yes Yes
a. Share warrants transaction does this represent? b. No Yes Yes d. Yes No No
b. Employee share options a. Asset-settled share-based payment transaction
c. Financial liabilities or equity instruments, including b. Cash-settles share-based payment transaction 115) For cash settled share-based payment transactions, an
preference shares, that are not convertible into ordinary c. Liability-settled share-based payment transaction entity shall measure the goods or services received and the liability
shares. d. Equity-settled share-based payment transaction incurred at the
d. Shares which would be issued upon the satsfaction of a. Fair value of the liability
certain conditions resulting from contractual arrangements, such as 109) If share-based payment transaction provides that employees b. Fair value of the goods and services received
the purchase of a business or other assets. have the right to choose the settlement whether in cash or shares, c. Either the fair value of the goods or services received or the
the entity is deemed to have issued fair value of the liability
103) For a company that has only ordinary share outstanding , a. An equity instrument d. Neither the fair value of the goods or services received nor
total shareholder’s equity divided by the number of shares b. A liability instrument the fair value of the liability
outstanding represents the: c. A compound financial instrument
a. return on equity c. stated value per share d. Either an equity instrument or liability instrument but not both 116) Sydney Corporation granted 1,000 stock options to its
b. book value per share d. price-earnings ratio employees on January 1, 2006, for services performed during 2006
110) Under PFRS 2 share – based Payment, the method that must and 2007. At the date of the grant, the fair value of the stock options
104) A company with a simple capital structure for purposes of be used to measure employee stock options and other payments is P6,000. The options are exercisable on January 1, 2008, and expire
computing earnings per share would include which of the following given to employees in the form of equity securities, is: on June 30, 2008. On July 1, 2008, it was determined that none of
in the computation of earnings per share? a. Initial cost c. Fair value the options were exercised. On December 31, 2008, Sydney
a. potentially dilutive securities b. Discounted cash flows d. Selling price Corporation should
b. dividends on ordinary share a. Restate its financial statements for 2006 and 2007 and
c. dividends on nonconvertible cumulative preferred stock 111) Many shares and most share options are not traded in an reduce compensation expense for each year.
d. number of shares of nonconvertible cumulative preferred active market. Therefore, it is often difficult to arrive at a fair value of b. Make a prior period adjustment to retained earnings for
stock the equity instruments being issued. Which of the following option compensation expense recognized in 2006 and 2007.
c. Not adjust or reverse compensation expense. a. Both provide certain amount of payments in the form of interest 129) Justification for the method of determining periodic
d. Record P6,000 of compensation expense in 2008. and dividends respectively based upon written agreements. deferred tax expense is based on the concept of
b. Both provide specific timing of payments as a result of specific a. Matching of periodic expense to periodic revenue
SHE maturity dates. b. Objectivity in the calculation of periodic expense
117) Under IFRIC 17, a property dividend declared before the end c. Both creditors and stockholders are equity holders although they c. Recognition of asset and liability
of the reporting period should be recognized as liability at the end have different rights with respect to income, risk, control d. Consistency of tax expense measurement with the actual tax
of the reporting period at and liquidation. planning strategies.
a. Carrying amount of the asset to be distributed d. Both liabilities and owners equity are ranked equally when the
b. Fair value of the asset on the date of declaration enterprise’s assets are distributed. 130) The deferred tax expense is the
c. Fair value of the asset at the end of reporting period a. Increase in balance of deferred tax asset minus the increase in
d. Fair value of the asset at the date of distribution 124) The declaration of a 10% stock dividend balance of deferred tax liability
a. Would decrease both accumulated profits and total b. Increase in balance of deferred tax liability minus the increase in
118) Which of the following should be reported as a stockholder shareholders’ equity balance of deferred tax asset
equity account? b. Would decrease accumulated profits but would have c. Increase in balance of deferred tax asset plus the increase in
a. Discount on convertible bonds no effect on total shareholders’ total balance of deferred tax liability
b. Premium on convertible bonds c. Would have no effect on accumulated profits but d. Decrease in balance of deferred tax asset minus the increase in
c. Cumulative foreign exchange translation loss would decrease total shareholders’ equity balance of deferred tax liability
d. Organization costs d. Would have no effect both on accumulated profits and
total shareholders’ equity 131) Where a business transaction requires a direct adjustment
119) Gains and losses on the purchase and resale of treasury to an equity account, the tax effect is adjusted against
stock may be only be reflected in 125) What is the most likely effect of a share split down? a. Income c. Equity
a. Paid-in capital accounts Par value PER SHARE Numbers of shares b. Tax expense d. Cash
b. Paid-in capital and retained earnings accounts a. Decrease No effect
c. Income, paid-in capital and retained earnings b. Decrease Increase 132) Under PAS 12 Income Taxes, deferred tax assets and
d. Income and paid-in capital accounts c. Increase Decrease liabilities are measured at the tax rates that:
d. No effect No effect a. Applied at the beginning of the reporting period
120) Deposits on subscriptions to a proposed increase in capital b. At the end of the reporting period
stock are reported on the balance sheet as 126) How would the declaration of a liquidating dividend by a c. At the rates that prevail at the reporting date
a. Unearned revenue corporation affect each of the following? d. Are expected to apply when the asset or liability is settled
b. Advances from subscribers Contributed capital Total shareholders’ equity
c. A separate item in the capital stock section a. Decrease No effect 133) Which of the following could never be subject to interperiod
d. An addition to retained earnings b. No effect Decrease tax allocation?
c. No effect No effect a. Interest revenue on government bonds.
121) Which of the following statements best describes the net d. Decrease Decrease a. Depreciation expense on operational assets.
effect on retained earnings of the purchase and subsequent sale b. Estimated warranty expense.
of treasury stock? 127) An entity issued what is called a “12% stock dividend” on its c. Rent revenue
a. retained earnings may never be increased , but sometimes share capital. At what amount per share, if any, should retained
decreased. earnings be reduced for this transaction? 134) A temporary difference which would result in deferred tax
b. Retained earnings may never be increased or decreased a. Zero because no entry is made asset is
c. Retained earnings may be increased but never be decreased. b. Par value a. Tax, penalty or surcharge
d. Retained earnings account is always affected unless the selling c. Market value at the declaration b. Dividend received on stock investment
price is exactly equal to cost d. Market value at the date of issuance c. Excess tax depreciation over accounting depreciation
d. Rent received in advance included in taxable income at the time
122) When stock rights are exercised, how much should be 128) The peso amount of total shareholders’ equity remains the of receipt but deferred for accounting purposes
treated as total proceeds from the issuance of shares? same when there is
a. only the consideration received a. Issuance of preference share in exchange for convertible 135) Differences between taxable income and pretax accounting
b. The total of the consideration received and the amount previously debentures income arising from transactions that, under applicable tax laws
recorded for the stock rights b. Issuance of nonconvertible bonds with share warrants and regulations, will not be offset by corresponding differences or
c. the amount previously recorded for the stock rights c. Declaration of a stock dividend turn around in future periods is a definition of
d. The total par value of the shares d. Declaration of a cash dividend a. Temporary differences c. Deductible differences
Income taxes b. Permanent differences d. Taxable differences
123) Liabilities and stockholders’ equity are similar in that
136) When a temporary difference will result in taxable amounts c. The pension obligation, computed by the plan formula applied to c. are benefits to be paid to the retired employees in the
in 5 years years of service to date, using existing salary levels. subsequent period.
a. A deferred tax liability is recognized in the current year. d. The pension obligation, computed by the plan formula applied to d. are benefits accumulated in the hands of a trustee.
b. A deferred tax asset is recognized in the current year. year of service to date, assuming future salary levels.
c. A deferred tax liability may be recognized in the current year if 148) Any transition loss on first adopting PAS 19 shall be
certain conditions are met. 143) Under which category should lump sum benefit of 1% of the recognized:
d. A deferred tax asset may be recognized in the current year if final salary for each year of service and actuarial gains be I. as expense immediately
certain conditions are met. accounted for? II. as expense over a maximum of 5 years
a. Lump sum benefits should be accounted for under defined a. I only c. Either I or II irrevocably
137) As a result of differences between depreciation for financial benefit plans. b. II only d. Either I or II revocably
reporting purposes and tax purposes, the financial reporting basis Actuarial gains should be accounted for under defined benefit
of a company's plant assets falls below the tax basis. Assuming plans. 149) An employer’s obligation for postretirement health benefits
the company had no other temporary differences, the company b. Lump sum benefit should be accounted for under short term that are expected to be provided to an employee must be fully
should report a employee benefits accrued by the date the
a. Current tax receivable. c. Deferred tax asset. Actuarial gains should be accounted for under defined benefit a. Employee is fully eligible for benefits
b. Current tax payable. d. Deferred tax liability. plans. b. Employee retires
c. Lump sum benefit should be accounted for under defined benefit c. Benefits are utilized
138) Income tax expense is computed based on plans d. Benefits are paid
a. Taxable income Actuarial gains should be accounted for under defined
b. Total-pretax financial income contribution plans 150) For a defined benefit pension plan, the discount rate used to
c. Accounting income subject to income tax d. Lump sum benefit should be accounted for under short term calculate the projected benefit obligation is determined by the
d. The temporary difference employee benefits Expected return on plan asset Actual return on plan asset
Actuarial gains should be accounted for under defined a. yes yes
139) These are differences between carrying amount of an asset contribution plans b. no no
or liability in the statement of financial position and its tax base. c. yes no
a. Temporary differences c. Permanent differences 144) Investments held by retirement benefit plans should be d. no yes
b. Timing differences d. Accounting differences stated in the statement of net assets at
a. Net realizable value c. Original cost less impairment 151) The present value of pension benefits accrued to date using
140) Which of the following differences would result in future b. Fair value d. Value in use assumptions as to future compensation levels is the
taxable amounts? a. Prior service cost. c. Projected benefit obligation.
a. Expenses or losses that are deductible after they are 145) In a rare circumstance, when a retirement benefit plan has b. Accumulated benefit obligation. d. Accrued pension cost.
recognized in financial income. attributes of both defined contribution and defined benefit plan,
b. Revenue or gains that are taxable before they are it is deemed 152) Interest cost included in the net pension cost recognized by
recognized in financial income. a. Defined contribution plan an employer sponsoring a defined benefit plan represents the:
c. Revenues or gains that are recognized in financial income b. Define benefit plan a. amortization of the discount on unrecognized past service
but are never included in taxable income. c. Neither a defined contribution nor a defined benefit plan cost
d. Expenses and losses that are deductible before they are d. Both defined contribution and defined benefit plan b. increase in the fair value of plan assets due to passage of
recognized in financial income. time
146) Which is incorrect concerning the recognition and c. increase in the projected benefit obligation due to passage
Benefits measurement of a defined benefit plan? of time
141) Which of the following is not one of the six components of a. actuarial assumptions are required to measure the obligation and d. shortage between the expected and actual return on plan
pension expense (or part of a component)? expense and there is a possibility of actuarial gains and assets
a. Initial transition asset losses.
b. Amortization of unrecognized gain or loss b. the obligation is measured at a discounted basis.
c. Expected return on plan assets c. the defined benefit plan must be fully funded
d. Growth (interest cost) in PBO/ABO since the beginning of the d. the expense recognized for a defined benefit plan is not
period necessarily the amount of contribution due for the period

142) What is measured by the accumulated benefit obligation? 147) The vested benefits:
a. The pension expense, computed by the plan formula applied to a. are employee benefits that are not conditional of future
years of service to date, assuming future salary levels employment
b. The pension expense, computed by the plan formula applied to b. are benefits to be paid to the retired employees in the current
years of service to date, using existing salary levels period.