———-~— (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black ball-point pen) 135 (Signature of tnvigi Roll No. ] | Roll No. (Write the digits in words) . INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page /question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. 2. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blak, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated, A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated, 4 Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No, (if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet, 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. i) 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropnate circle in the corresponding row oF the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. 9 For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet, If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will he treated as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded sere mark). 11.” For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank age at the end of this et. 12. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. 15. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14, Ifacandidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liz ‘ of unfair means, he/she shall be lable as the University may determine and impose on him/her. te such punishment [sme Rite fea a otf rege ae RA TE No. of Printed Pages 484216U/101/15 Set No. 1 No. of Questions/ayii dem : 150 Time AW : 2% Hours/We Bull Marks /qute : 450 Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for cach incorrect answer. Zero mark Will be awarded for each unattempted question. sitet vet at ea act ar was at) wate we 3 ois mh) wae Ted ae & fee ww ais are ome acts oat eT AH IR wm) If more than one alternative answers seem to be a correct answer, choose the closest one. ph Re Ae oe ae om Fm Ho) Bee ae a 2 'PProximate to the 1. The total number of Stock Exchanges in India is wna 4 pet Fey fant A den 8 (2) 21 22 (1) 20 i) (4) 95 (171) 1 PTO)2. On dissolution of a firm, all the assets are transferred to Realisation Account at their (1) written value (2) market value (3) book value (4) cost or market valuc whichever is less vel} gar wy eH oma aah aa aT eeaiatta Ht ae (1) Sa ea ae @) FR ET (8) Farm Fa (4) ere reer are Ae a ot aH a 3. SEBI was established in a4 & wom Fa G of? (1) 1988 (2) 1998 (3) 1992 (4) 2002 4. In India NIFTY and SENSEX are calculated on the basis of (1) market capitalisation (2) paid-up capital @) free-float market capitalisation (4) authorised share capital an Fred 08 HE A or Te 1 an (2) 0a 7 nl (4) sarge iat St a7)5. The financial instrument with shortest maturity period is (1) call money (2) certificate of deposit (3) commercial bill (4) treasury bill waa em afters araft aren facta ava star 8? (1) Att ART Q) 3m wem-ma (3) aa fr (4) Gar faa 6. Commercial banks or Development banks issue this document (1) commercial bill (2) treasury bill (3) certificate of deposit (4) commercial paper safes de an fire de aan siftcea ond ad #7 (1) afters fet (2) Garr far (3) 3 wear-7y7 (4) anes oy 7. When shares are issued at premium, Premium amount may be utilized for (1) issue of bonus shares (2) payment of dividend (3) payment of operating expenses (4) redemption of debentures tS eh ein 5, en oh Ro at aay (1) ae ott & Fria ey (2) ie rare by (8) setae are 3 era 8g (4) Fama % far ay 3. Which one of the following is not the objectives of SPRI > (1) Protection to the investors (2) Control over bruere {3} Protection to the industrialists (4) Checking the insider triting (IM ro,frofafars HA ate ahh at she el? (1) faerat Aer (2) caret oe Paar (3) sarafeat rat (4) artis Zfen at tat 9. Which one of the following is not a part of capital market? (1) Gilt-edged market (2) Commercial paper market (3) New issue market (4) Secondary capital market frafefen H & steer sh arom ar TT ae a? (1) He see ata (2) anes wa aT (3) var Pah ara (4) fects ofsft arene 10. Which one of the following is not a function of the new issue market? (1) Origination of securities (2) Underwriting of securities (4) Administration of securities fen 42 ot eet EA sera (2) stayed a afro 6) val ferret (4) senior STE (3) Distribution of securities securities on the Stock Exchanges does not help the company in () 1 stilin8 ynderwriing costs ie. the marke of securities Q wit guaranteeNB the andness of securities @ 4 a7)12, 13. (171) eeu fiat & sftyitad a quis & aerh fier Ha fred ate aera wel fer? (1) a A ag A (2) afiries oy a a a A (3) sinytet & aor at Rega aa a (4) sage A ggg A mea BH The most important function of a Stock Exchange is to (1) safeguard the interest of investors {2) help in the capital formation in the country (3) provides facilities for speculation (4) provide a ready market for all securities vara fant ar vats meal ari & () Rawat 4 fea A ca aor (2) 3% Pot Prater een ae (3) Reart & foe yaa wR wo (4) wh state & fem tar ara 2a Which one of the following is not a party of depository system (1) The Depository Participant (2) The Investor (3) The Broker | (4) The Issuing Company Frafefaa 4 8 a Pee wey ay Mer a a? (1) fenifred onfefete (2) fra 9 wa (4) 5 STF am 5 Pro)14. Which one of the following is not a method of floating new issues in the ‘Primary Market’? (1) Public issue by Prospectus (2) Offer for sale (3) Making the contract (4) Private placement fofafaa da stam ‘wafie aran’ Hae frina & wada A fate vei 8? (1) saan gra areata Friar (2) fara & fea wera (9) IR) FET (4) Fist tate 15. In which market, old shares are purchased and sold? (1) Capital Market (2) Primary Market (3) Secondary Market (4) Money Market fra ara H got aia A atte we fat ate 27 (1) tt aa (2) swat are (3) Ferra; arene (4) aT STIR 16. Financial Statement Analysis, does not include (1) ‘Trend Analysis (2) Fund Flow Analysis @ Cash Flow Analysis (4) Income Statement a Fen ftw Tt 0) aS Ta eet ee Re (a) ae Ferrer @™ 6 a7)17. Calculate operating profit ratio when net sales are t 20,00,000, gross profit is 20 percent and operating expenses t 40,000 (1) 14 percent. (2) 20 percent (3) 18 percent (4) 16 percent aitaes om agi A wrt AP aa ye fet ¢ 20,00,000, FHA AMT 20% aT ftarer =e 40,000 () 14 fee (2) 20 sfeera (3) 18 sfeera (4) 16 sera 18. Claim not yet acknowledged as debt against the company, is called (1) current liability (2) contingent liability (3) provisions (4) reserve and surplus waa ot anf am sorh & faq am & dew agi 2, weed + (2) area aiea (2) area fea (3), RUT (4) Fea snfirae 19. Sale of fixed assets is to be shown under the head (1) operating activities (2) financing activities (3) investing activities (4) any other activities Far aeafer At fash at fr wives & aes fear ora 2 (1) afters afafath, (2) Fercfie mrfaertey (3) free fafa (4) oa cafe 20, The expenses related w Me Main operations of the dusiness are (1) selling expenses (2) ad-tinistrative Opens05 (3) operating expenses (4) non-administratiye expenses (171) 7 (PTO)a1. (171) waa % yer area 8 wafers oa weed & (1) oA or (2) were ora (3) Faea aa (4) everett ort A Financial Statement that shows both rupees and percentages in the report is referred to as (1) a Common Size Statement (2) a Relative Statement of Equity (0) @ Dalanve Shect (4) @ Proportional Financial Statement wm ter Pinte arr ah ok sen afters St a wftter Haute k, sea eT (1) are omar Pacer (2) Fam a ata fae (9) safe Fa (9), Seqyiies fee eer Net Working Capital is (1) current liabilities less current assets (2) marketable securities and cash (3) the excess of current assets over current liabilities (4) total assets less current assets ae weet ft? = ae aahat (1) aa ae = (oy foot are tS ware wm ad 4 fia amfaed (3) A, (a) ga wert — TA25. 26. (171) While preparing Cash Flow Statement, ‘cash and cash equivalents’ consist of assets which can be converted into cash within (1) 2 months (2) 4 months (3) 3 months (4) 6 months Faq ware fee nfo & er wag we ae Ger’ a amfiat € st wee A Aes safe 3 oftalia A so wat 27 (1) 2 We (2) 498A (3) 3 7ea (4) 6 met The ratio which provide information regarding the long-run operation of the business is ()) activity (2) solvency (3) profitability (4) liquidity aren & darts vtaer @ afta qa Ae agaa 3 wm eet & (2) sfafafes (2) Mta-aren (3) IRR (4) a Amount set aside to meet the losses due to bad debt is a (1) provision (2) reserve (3) liability (4) fund Wt am & aa & fe wh ow af uf a Q) wea Q) aa (3) afirea (4) ae The cost of goods sold is t 10,00,000, Opening stocks t 80,000, Closing stock % 1,20,000. Calculate inventory turnover ratio (1) 40 times (2) 10 times (3) 30 times (4) 20 times fa QE ARI A aT & 10,00,000, srfars wefen © 80,0 © 1,20,000. a orf aga A mT AAD Se eS (1) 40 7A 2) 10 TT (3) 30 (4) 20 PTO)27. Accrued incomes are shown under (1) inventories (2) investment (3) other current assets (4) current investment serfiia ora feng arch & (1) ra (2) Raa. (3) 3 ag waftal (4) are, frat 28. Discount on issue of shares and debentures is (1) fictitious assets (2) current assets (3) current liabilities (4) miscellaneous expenditures rift sigh wd aoe 1 were & (1) area aeaftat (2) aq, aeaferat (3) are aaa (4) fata aa 29, In Balance Sheet, assets are shown in the order of (1) permanence (2) liquidity (3) market value (4) None of these cafes Fa A avatar gor A aut eh @ (1) eer ae (2) eater HH (a) ara Apa HH (4) wa 8 at ae 10 (um)30. 31. (171) In a business, Cash sales are € 7,20,000, Credit sales are € 80,000, Cost of goods sold is t 6,00,000. Find Gross Profit Ratio (1) 15 percent (2) 65 percent (3) 25 percent (4) 35 percent G aaa F wag fesft € 7,20,000, sar fx & 80,000, FTA aA A oT © 6,00,000 %, at aaa aH agia aa AR (1) 15 yfasra (2) 65 sftrere (3) 25. fear (4) 35 after Marginal utility is equal to (1) total utility minus average utility (2) addition to total utility {3) total utility divided by the number of units consumed (4) total utility plus average utility vara setter aera ah & (1) Fa sei — sited saat (2) Fa setter F gy (3) Fa sri am aq A oni A nf eareat (4) Bea seafitn + staat svete The second glass of water happen because of generally gives less utility to a thirsty person. This (1) law of diminishing marginal utility (2) law of diminishing returns (3) law of equi-marginal utility (4) law of demand fro,33. (a7) We Od af a eet frera wwe ama: we seat Na ae ti tar fe wre ere 8? (1) 3aMa setter gra fram % FT (2) Fara wftra ora Fae a FT (3) Baars seein Fra wT (4) ait & faq & are Demand curve for a Giffen Good will be (1) horizontal (2) vertical (3) slopping downward to the right (4) slopping upward to the right Pita aq a at ae eT (1) Stee (2) od (3) ae ait fier Bam (4) wea ait som BT ‘A consumer is in equilibrium, when his budget line is (1) above the indifference curve (2) below the indifference curve {@) tangent to the indifference curve (4) cut the indifference curve cee soir 3 ae Her st se oe (1) wea aR a SH RHE (2) Tea aH a He ae gy wae oat at (4) Tees aH A Heat B 1235. 37. (171) SEE TE ee ER: o For an inferior good, income elasticity of demand is (1) negative (2) positive (3) zero (4) infinity w fe aot A aq & PA, ah A ore ata ehh (1) oe (2) ere (3) [4 (@) aI Average product is maximum when (1) marginal product is greater than the average product (2) marginal product is less than the average product (3) marginal product is equal to the average product (4) marginal product is negative shea seg waits tat % aa (1) Mhit seg staat sere a safe at & (2) ara sere ates seme a am een a (8) Hira seme shea gene aca eat 2 (4) ora sere sores eter & With increase in output, which cost increases continuously? (1) Average cost (2) Marginal cost (3) Fixed cost Seren fg & ara aaah coma ara age 87 (1) tea arr (2) ee ae (3) fx are (4) Variable cost (4) Serta am PTO)1OU/1UL/ 1S set No. 2 38. Which of the following curves is not U-shaped? (1) Average fixed cost curve (2) Average variable cost curve (3) Average total cost curve (4) Marginal cost curve fa 8 S-w aH U-sen HAE thet 2? () stad fee aT a (2) staa stertaetie ara a6 (3) ahaa Ga cos aw (4) tora aera aH 39. The demand curve of a firm under a perfectly competitive market will be (1) vertical (2) horizontal (3) negatively slopped (4) positively slopped qi steht ara A ow oa ar ahr a eT (1) ger (2) aes (3) MEH Bre STE (4) BerTETH STet Te 40. The concept of selling cost was propounded by (1) Alfred Marshall (2) Edward Chamberlain {) Joan Robinson (4) A. C. Pigou aga arr I EA swfarnfea fara Tet aT (1) ake ae (2) wend Bearers rT (3) aa te wm (4) Go-ato A aT 14 (171)41. 42. (71) Ordinal measure of utility is required in (1) Utility Analysis (2) Demand Curve Analysis {3) Indifference Curve Analysis (4) Revealed Preference Analysis seifin & am Hen wa A sTaTEAT & (1) Sree freee (2) ain am faecten F (3) Tee ae feca F (4) see afters fare Hi Under monopolistic competition, a seller gains abnormal profit when wafeaes sftatfie % santa we faka A TAT aM wa eat 2, we (1) MR=MC (2) AR=AC (3) AR > AC (4) AR< AC According to Marshall, the law of diminishing returns applies on (1) agriculture (2) industry {9) neither agriculture nor industry (4) agriculture and industry both unfe & sigan, Jefe ara fem any gat 2 (1) Ba (2) sam (3) 7a Ba a Rin (4) Bf otk sett ae} f According to Keynesian theory of employment, employment depends on (1) ageregate demand (2) aggregate supply (9) effective demand (4) quantity of money 15 TO)47. (171) re & dom fear % agen, dam fee eee (1) Bae Bir a (2) wae af ae (3) sHretenes aft ae (4) aa A a we On which date the Rail Budget for 2016-17 was presented in Parliament? (1) 25th February, 2016 (2) 27th February, 2016 (3) 28th February, 2016 (4) 29th February, 2016 frre fafa at 2016-17 a ta ame Hag A ae fen TH? (1) 25 wad, 2016 (2) 27 Watt, 2016 #1 (3) 28 waa, 2016 # (4) 20 wat, 2016 # A sole proprietor decided to use the business bank account also for his personal affairs. Which of the following accounting principles is violated? (1) Going concern (2) Consistency (3) Entity (4) Dual aspect vee want wae & ae ad at ak oar ard A ot ovaty we & fore foot aa 21 fea dated fart Hage a we? (1) aa, ee (2) GRETT (3) sfeeea (4) fare, fa trader’s sales amount to® 18,000 and his gross profit and net profit are 60% and 40% of sales respectively, then his expenses are we sara a fara 18,000 ait saan Fac GM WH Ye aM fea a HAT: 60% wa 40% & a sae ora t (1) © 7,200 (2) © 2,500 (3) © 3,600 (4) € 2,600 1648. (171) Which one of the following is correct? (1) Gross profit + Sales + Direct expenses + Purchases + Closing stock = Opening stock (2) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Closing stock - Opening stock = Sales (3) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Opening stock ~ Closing stock = Sales (4) Gross profit + Direct expenses + Purchases + Opening stock + Sales = Closing stock Frafefiaa 4 a ata wal 2? (1) Baer are + fara + Wer Oa + a + oi Tefen = oR ERT (2) Fae ae + wag on + wea + afm eT — eRe Toft = fay (3) Fae cH + wear ory + we + ARTE wefan — of Tela = fame (4) Beret aT + weet ora + aa + wR veftar + Rime = ait ceftaT Outstanding expenses appearing in Trial Balance will be shown on (1) Debit side of Profit & Loss Account (2) Debit side of Trading Account (3) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet (4) Assets side of Balance Sheet were 4 sofa aga aaa exer aT ()) ae-e at % See va F (2) UMM & Bike wg (9 sis FRE SA Ea) EB ah cy 7 To)50. Goods of the value of € 500 withdrawn by the i . ia ott tue by the owner of the business for personal (1) Drawing A/c (2) Sales A/c (3) Owner’s A/e (4) Purchase A/c ane & earh ge ee} soit t a whe eon aie fee ¢ 500 % Ara} ae A IM a fare (1) sre wren (2) fase are (3) Fah ar aren (4) A TAT 51. Aand B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. C is admitted with 4 share in the profit. What will be the new profit-loss sharing ratio? Aw Dwi 43:2 % agua Ff am-ae aa €1c aM Ff wm & fac arden sara sat 1 STH-e aie eT eM agua Fat eh? (1) 3:2:3 (2) 6:4:5 (3) 6:4:3 (4) 3:2:5 52. In the event of death of a partner, the accumulated profits and losses are shared by the partners in their (1) old profit sharing ratio (2) new profit sharing ratio (3) capital ratio (4) equally fech ww arbere Ay AL an, Sa eT PA aT eT Tea! ts ae ay 4 aT (1) GA a Pees segs (2) em ai Fan seg ) tt sama (4) SURAT 53, Income & Expenditure Account isa (2) Nominal Account (1) Real Account (4) Stacement (3) Personal Account 18 (171)56. (171) ar ait oy aan tw (1) arate cen (2) safer Aer (3) afore Ara) aT Under Annuity Method, the amount of depreciation (1) fixed for all the years (2) increases every year (3) decreases every year (4) None of these afte afi waft & aria gre A oth (Q) ht aa & fore ox ear (2) sifted meth & (3) sitet wedi & (4) a a ate ae X Co. Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of 10 each on which €5 per share were paid up. The company issued these shares @ € 8 as fully paid up. Amount transfer to capital reserve will be X He fo € 10 aft are 20 sie at faa tS aA of aa an Se et Ste HR 3 88 oS ws Sta wes on waa ¥ fier oft gearatta gett? Q) t40 (2) © 60 (3) & 20 (4) € 100 All adjustment entries in Final A/cs are written at two Places (1) Trading Account and Balance Sheet (2) Profit & Loss Account ang Balance Sheet (3) Trading Account and Profit & Loss Account (4) Trading or Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet 19 TO)57. 58. (171) are warts a af ad aad waa a ome fern oraz (1) aR ard ar ani RE a (2) Wei wie cen snfeia fag H (3) 2mm wrt wer are-wA aT (4) SIAR Gre a aTA-BAL Te Ter ants fay A Profit on cancellation of own debentures is transferred to (1) General Reserve (2) Capital Reserve (3) Secret Reserve (4) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account med omeat 3 Fete I eae aT TAT 2 (1) area aaa (2y oh Far (3) Waa (4) ar-ett Pratt GAT Interest on drawings is (1) an expenditure for business (2) a gain for the business (3) neither expenditure nor gain (4) expenditure and gain both ree HHH ® (a) serena fe (2) sara % ere, sft graeme (4) ae et 2062. 63. Monetary Standard refers to (1) principal method of regulating the quantity of standard money (2) principal method of regulating the exchange value of standard money (3) principal method of regulating the quantity and the exchange value of standard money (4) principal mcthod of regulating the purchasing power of standard money Br & arent & (1) wets gr A) oar & fiat A yer wore (2) smi ap & eRe yea Feo A eH wT (a) ses ap a wee fara er Aes A BOR eT (9) satis apt wrens & Frere A) gor see NABARD has been established on the recommendation of (1) Talwar ‘Committee committee (4) Shivaraman Committee (2) Tandon Committee (3) Narasimhan agar oC Fe seg om? (3) pe oh _—"* Thre afi (4) fra vf " ten val istionsP bel ; value of money and geneal Price-teye] ie am (2) indirect Qo oe eon (4) proporticil a) x? 259. Del Credere Commission is calculated on (1) cash sales (2) credit sales (3) total sales (4) credit sales reduced by cash sales ofthe after A orn A art (1) 7g faa (2) Ton fsa (3) ga faa & (4) San fama 9 8 ya fra oa a 60. The use of FIFO method is suitable (1) at rising prices (2) at falling prices (3) at constant prices (4) at fluctuating prices worm faa an wat sagw wat 2 (1) me BA fear (2) weet ine A AR (3) Fee Fire ot fea (9) SIRE ea A fa 61. Actual money refere to (1) unit of currency (2) money of account (oy on me Roney ea a ait wag om | wae | "a 21 am Pro)62. Monetary Standard refers to (1) principal method of regulating the quantity of standard money (2) principal method of regulating the exchange value of standard money (3) principal method of regulating the quantity and the exchange value of standard money (4) principal mcthod of regulating the purchasing power of standard money aan @ aed & (1) wets apr man 3 flaws A ge wet (2) srenfires an 3 fara ger & Prams A or Tt (a) seer apr wear ae See Fata ea & fem A GoN Te (ay satis tA wes freer A go Toe RD has been established on the recommendation of 63. NABAl (1) Talwar Committee (2) Tandon Committee ) Narasimhan gommittee (4) Shivaraman Committee (3 a i Pees ght Tm A ah? as A a fires BRA (4) fra ae Y vo DEON Value of " mon d . que relat on sv? SY and BENE Drice.fevey ‘ & rect (2) indirect ay airert i : @) invers™ (4) proportiow 22 71)(71) gS yea ott aera Fina EH ata ar Hh area eae e (1) 3a (2) sracae (3) fade args aearT (4) aargart Which of the following is considered as the Economic Evil of Money? {2) Encouragement to borrowing (2) Encouragement to overcapitalisation (3) Encouragement to materialism (4) Encouragement to borrowing and overcapitalisation frafafaa 4 8 aaa ag ai anfiis ae ArT sia 87 (1) Jan yen a siteaTEs (2) sft-afsiter a scare (3) ‘ifterarg a3 steerer (4) San yen aan aaft—fsier aa scares Indian Rupee is (1) standard money (2) token money (3) standard token money (4) optional money wedi erat (2) sens yer t 2) sift (3) wos aires gar & 4) Sy 23 roy67. 68. (171) The prevalent name of Gold Currency Standard is (2) Full Gold Standard (2) Gold Bullion Standard (3) Gold Exchange Standard (4) Gold Parity Standard veut wean a wafers am 2 Q) W ei (2) =f wre (3) =i fafa aR (4) sot aaa a According to transaction approach, which of the following factors determine the general price level? (1) Quantity of money in circulation, its velocity and the volume of trade (2) Volume of credit instrument and its velocity (3) Quantity of money in circulation, volume of credit instrument and volume of trade (4) (1) and (2) above anaes franum & ogan, frafefaa d 2 sem wes aM yea ite amt &? (a) wae gt A a, eA ae aft wer aga Gi dat A ye 8 Fehr (a) Bray A aa, HA Se A (ay see Hage om, ar A aT TT eG eral TB hee @) sate 2469. To reduce the inflationary gap (1) the amount of tax should be increased (2) production of goods and services should be increased (3) (1) and (2) above should be adopted (4) Dear Credit Policy should be adopted PS sen a an sa} fu () a A a F gfe ach afte (2) ART GE tat sore F afe ach ae (3) 3m (1) 3 (2) = arta Ake 4) Heh ara AR smart atte 70. Which of the following is an asset for a bank? (1) Capital (2) Reserve Fund (3) Loans and Advances (4) Bills Payable 5 & fee frafaos F @ ate at ota 87 ) tt (2) atc ate (3) area At ae ar daft (4) 3a fa 71. Of all the assets of a bank, the most non-profitable asset is (1) buildings and furnitures (2) cash (3) call money (4) buildings, furni res _ tures and cash (171) 25 To)aH gat vetted FA rT TA arch ahearath & (1) Far wa wie (2) 3a HH (3) wa (a) re, vette we aH cH 72. Dead Stock of a bank is (1) office, buildings and furnitures (2) money at call and short notice (3) Ueasury bills (4) commercial bills we ae wm aae (1) area, at aa wfiet (2) sea-aerrd THA (9) ator fara (4) saree. fae 73. The issue of curreney notes by the RBI is (ly Proportional Reserve System (2) Minimum Reserve System (a) Fixed Reserve System (4) Maximum Reserve System ara fd aoe A fr A watt (a) sega a ah (2) =a IH SES (a) eta SEE (4) ater as Tae f the following is not a quantitative method of credit control? 14. which of (2) Open market operations (1) Discount rate (2) pel 4) Credit rationin, a variable reserve ratio 4 4 26 (a7)75. 76. 77. 78. (171) Prafefad 4 8 ata—a are Fria At oferonara fier wet 8? (1) ehh Q) A ann F frag (3) Stats sterga . (4) ae # watin Which of the following is used for International Monetary Transfer? (1) RTGS (2) NEET (3) SWIFT (4) None of these orate aa ware & fire fear wit dat 2? (1) sttodtostour. (2) Trozogodto (3) Woseqoamfourodo (4) FA 8 ate aa If Raj sells an iron for € 400 gaining } of its CP, find the gain percent aft wa we Stet ¢ 400 H Bam 8, Ae oe aE aT amt an 2, am afer ara Sif (1) 20% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 75% By selling 100 pens, Mohan gains the SP of 40 pens. Find his gain percent whet 100 t aan, 40.35% Semmens aT wT RL Bee aM Stam aa SRR (1) 40% (2) 662% (3) 333% (4) 4430, What price should Ratan mark on a fan which costs him 3,000 20% after allowing a discount of 10% > wee? $0. as to gain um feof Sma 8 sia at, Beet ame v8 10 afew A alt 83 are 20 share a aH MT ye | 900 TA, fe fy (1) © 5,000 (2) © 6,000 (3) € 3,600 2779. 80. 81. 82. (171) Ravi and Karti borrowed ¥ 3,500 and t 4,000 respectively at the same rate of interest for 2 years. If Karti paid € 150 more than Ravi, find the rate of interest (1) 12% pa. (2) 14% p.a. (3) 11% pa. (4) 10% p.a. fa ate aff 2 sum: t 3,500 aft ¢ 4,000 FHA BI Tw 25 aH fore su fran a a 9 Be 150 sate gram fee, oars x ata AA (1) 12% wferé (2) 14% sft (3) 11% shred (4) 10% safer A certain sum of money amounts tot 1,260 in 2 years and to ® 1,350 in 5 years. Find the rate of interest we yam 2 He 1260 8 werk ate s at He 1950 A a aS aa rt (1) 35% (2) 25% (3) 4% (4) 2% Sudhir and Karim together can complete a work in 15 days. If Sudhir is three times as good a workman as Karim, in how many days will Sudhir alone finish the work? (1) 10 days (2) 25 days (3) 20 days (4) 15 days teas a fret 15 A BE Lee AL ET 9 fe arr 8, Ha oS HR RE A TT ST! (yy 10 (2) 25 fe (9) 20 fea (4) 15 fa A175 metres Jong train crosses a 185 metres long, tunnel in 45 sec. Find speed of the train in km/hr & vg hey 185 Hee wag AS HH Se Be BE A km/or 2 (a) 208 km/hr (2) 288 km/hr (3) 182 km/hr (4) 8 km/hr 2883. Simplify rea FR Sx+2 _2x+5 4x-8 x? - x2 5x+9 2x+5 2x43 4) 5x43 (0 ea ) ax-2 8 ora () axa 84, Simplify ae Aid 4[a-6(a-2(3a-4a 3} () 8a -122 (2) 28a +114 (3) -68a-144 (4) -38a -124 85. A path of uniform width 3 cm runs around the outside of a Square park of side 18 cm. Find the area of the path WS ater ok fier yn 18 cme % are HT 3 3 om URNA Bren Tea wren ti Te a] aaRa oH AA = o (1) 324 cm? (2) 476 cm? (3) 188 cm? (4) 252 om? 86. Determine the area of a triangle whose sides arc 5 cm, W Bye Rew grt 5 om, 42 om aK 12 cm %, 3a (1) 36 cm? (2) 30 cm? (3) 42 cm? 13m and 12 om SR ame cai 4) 38 om? 29 (171) ena)87. 88. 89. (17) A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm’. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, find the area of the circle we aa a an wa ww at eA cig oe 2, we 121 cm? a &a Wem 2 AAR cat are at uw ga & ae A ater aren 8, ah ge a ase as RA (1) 154 cm? (2) 134 cm? (3) 164 cm? (4) 124 cm? Express as a positive power of three (3) at 3) & orem at & er a ome At (9"')x(27)? (g1y?x3° a 1 1 3 Q) 3s @ 3 3 ‘A sum of money is divided among Dev and Deep in the ratio 5:13. If Deep's gharc is t 780, find the sum of money we mah bu hc e512 GN He fate 1 A AT + 780 % a waOR ae FRA (1) €1,140 (2) © 1,260 (3) € 1,090 (4) © 1,080 1g men can repair a road in1 28 days, how long will 35 men take to do so? (1) 18 days (2) 12 days (3) 14 days (4) 16 days va oreh oe 76 9 28 fr seem Tah 35 are wa 8, far Bt OT? 18 2) 12 fa (3) 14 fea (4) 16 fea 3091 93. 95. (171) In Windows Operating System, the type of file with the .mpeg extension indicates (1) audio (2) video (3) temporary (4) system fires stetfin fier mpeg extension @ fea we # Grea vat wer 2? (1) sath (2) fateet (3) tae 4) fea The quality of printer is measured by which unit? Bret FH yore fa ya H anf art 2? (\) CPL (2) MPL (3) RTI (4) DPI Which was the most popular first generation computer? fer i 8 ah waa vite sem ate IA MT? (1) IBM 1650 (2) IBM 360 (3) IBM 1130 (4) IBM 2700 Which will not harm a computer system? (1) Firewall (2) Virus (3) Trojan Horse (4) Worms Reh a wre saa FAR ae aa? (Q) eRe (2) are (3) da ore (4) oat Which type of printer uses ‘tibbon’? (1) Laser Printer (2) Plotter (3) Inkjet Printer (4) Dot Matrix Printer 31 (PTO)96, 98. (171) few are & Bex H ‘faa’ a sit ther 8? (1) Bar fre (2) Sie (3) Faz fire (4) Sie-Bigar fe ‘To join the Internet, the computer is connected to (1) Internet Architecture Board (2) Internet Society (3) Internet Service Provider (4) Cyber Police eee Boge AA} fea eq ATH Gare (1) Fare suet ae (2) Fea ares (3) eee affa saree (4) area gee CPU stands for (1) Cool Processing Unit (2) Computer Processing Unit (@) Central Processing Unit (4) Central Processing United cpu #1 ae a z oy ge a ae ce at ae (a) aa wat whe (4) dea safer ees DTP stands for (1) Data Publishing (2) Data Printing (9) Destop Printing (4) Desktop Publishing ) 32100. 101. (171) DTP I are eat & (1) sre aff = (2) ster Rn (3) em Bn (4) Serer afeefirr Which one of the following does general calculations for CPU? (1) ALU (2) Bus (3) DIMM (4) Control Unit CPU & fed amra wrt at wer 8? (2) WouRTeyS (2) =a (3) Sosnfowroune (4) Hzte APE LAN stands for (1) Local Area Network (2) Live Area Network (3) Lost Area Network (4) Long Area Network LAN #1 amy 2 (1) aiterer efter Fea (2) ome war Fea (3) ike year Seah (4) aig fen Fzaé Linux is a (1) database (2) graphics {3} operating system (4) animation software TIS tH (1) Brera (2) mea (3) afatfer faren (4) Ptr wig 33 roy102. i is 2. Which one is not an example of computer hardware? (1) MS-Word (2) Mouse (3) Printer (4) Monitor fer HS ata aoayee eda a TET FEL 8? (1) Gowo-FS (2) HIG (3) fie (4) ifier 103, To communicate live through Internet, which one is used? (1) Talk (2) Chat (3) Email (4) FTP eatie H wren orga arava eh & fe fear vei fem aren 8? (y a (2) 2 (3) #4 (4) Wedierfe 104. Which of the following is an example of Bluetooth? (1) Personal Arca Network (2) Local Area Network (3) Virtual Private Network (4) Wide Area Network veage fa a Pert oH Sem 8? (ay wea a Fea (a) sew een Fea () Tors eae Fas (ay age oe ea 108, Size of IPv6 address is pve address #1 A whe (ay 32 bits (2) 64 bits (3) 128 bits (4) 265 bits (71)106. 107. 108. (171) “Theory of Exception’ was propounded by (1) Henry Fayol (2) Theo Haiman (3) F. W. Taylor (4) Herbinson and Mayers ‘arama a frgra’ & vfs & (1) Bae Bate (2) fart Br (3) Wo Hye Aer (4) efi a red Selection of best option among available different options is called (1) planning (2) organisation (3) decision making (4) controlling sreren fatter ford 48 adiey feared a1 Gara HoT aRCTT e (1) Prater (2) rea (3) Bota (4) Pes Which is the right sequence of management functions? (2) Planning, Staffing, Organising, Directing, Motivating and Controlling (2) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Motivating, Directing and Controiling (3) Planning, Organising, Staffing, Directing, Motivating and Controlling (4) Planning, Staffing, Organising, Motivating, Directing and Controlling weeréia aril a1 ag) mr ata 87 (1) Pris, rain, aren, figea, sitehor amr fem (2) Prise, ara, ratin, after, Rg aan Aaa (3) Prats, ane, wah, fife, aifiiter ger Reem (4) Frater, wan, ane, ah, fiéea aun Pea 35 (PTO)109. 110. 111. 112. (171) Find the odd from the following (1) speed boss (3) disciplinarian frafafaa 4 a fawn a wr Ae (1) fe ar (2) Wea A “POSDCORB’ word is given by (1) Henry Fayol (3) G. R. Terry “POSDCORB? wee fea ® (1) 3a Beater (3) fo ammo 28 Find the odd from the following (1) wheel (2) probability freafefsa Fa fam a wae fae (1) Wen (2) dare Which is the highest form of Democratic 0 (1) Line Organisation (3) Functional Organisation (2) repairs boss (4) inspector (3) segueratfirendt (4) Fifer (2) F. W. Taylor (4) Urwick and Gulick CR (4) shim ea girs (3) cluster (4) gossip 6) Ta (4) TaRTa ;rganisation from the following? (2) Line & Staff Organisation (4) Committee Organisation 36113. 114, 115. (171) Prafafaa 4a stra wad ates ctaaifs dret a we 8? (1) ta ae (2) Yar an ated aet (3) fares einer (4) BPR area Find out the odd from the following (1) Game Theory (2) Race Theory (3) Queueing Theory (4) Decision-tree Theory Praferen 4 8 fem at wer Aiea 0) Wa Ries 2) te rere 9) ht era) fila ge Regra When the subordinates are disciplined, experienced and qualified, which of the following leadership styles will be more appropriate? (1) Autocratic (2) Free-rein (3) Negative (4) Any style wa anti srgmiea, aretha a, fais Fa teat Igor dat ifs srge th? (1) Pega (2) Praterareh (3) FTE @) @e Mi tet Which of the following is not an element of planning? (1) Objective (2) Policy (3) Principle frafafn 4 a aaa ater aT ag ae #7 (1) 3a (2) ate (3) rare (4) Strategy (4) Try a7 Ta)116. For selection on non-managerial posts, which of the following is useful? (1) Patterned interview (2) Depth interview (3) Non-directive interview (4) Stress interview fener eet oe Ry, Prater A a what aftr seat cea 8? (1) Meena Arar (2) TE Bree (3) satire eran (4) sitar areca 117. A promoter of a business enterprise may be (1) an individual (2) a firm (3) a company (4) All of the above ew Speers sean ar weiss a waa e (1) =a (2) we wt 3) & ert 4) sate att 118, The Purchase Manager talking to Production Manager is a case of (1) upward communication (2) downward communication (3) diagonal communication (4) horizontal communication Fa ere ITH HUG | TT Fe HVT a (1) soem ater (2) sath aster (9) Franti eet (4) Baa BAIT 119. Unity of command is violated under which of the following? (1) Line Organisation (2) Line & Staff Organisation 3) Functional Organisation (4) Project Organisation ( 38 (171)120. 121. 122. (171) frafefer #8 fees omnia onde ft wrat aT TgUr eta 2? (1) tar aret (2) ten wen saferd ate (3) freer drat (4) sfttsrn ret The method through which railway engine drivers are trained is known as (1) Sensitivity Training (2) Vestibule Training (3) Role Playing Training (4) Virtual Training ae Fa ee ge tee For real wt tern fear ate 8, ga aT aT 2 (1) Berereeren wert (2) grorete sféreror (3) safren Frater for (4) aor fier Which of the following is not an economic objective of business? (1) Generation, of employment (2) Earning profit (3) Market standing (4) Innovation freafean § @ @-ar caaeTa ay file eee we 47 (1) Ta aw yA (2) wT BET (3) IER Hw (4) 7a ‘Trade includes (1) selling (2) buying (3) manufacturing (4) buying and selling 39 10)123. 124, 125. (171) arm # after & (2) fash aca (2) atten (3) seme aT (4) atten wa Feat Which of the following is not a feature of sole proprietorship? (1) Risk bearing (2) Agreement (3) Unlimited liability (4) Full control frafafsa # A staan wma eater an cea we 8? (1) Sifter ar (2) ga (3) area afer (4) yor Rear ‘Membership by birth’ is related to (1) Sole Trader (2) Partnership (3) Cooperative Undertaking (4) Joint Hindu Family Business ‘aor & ageran’ rafts & (1) we ward 3 (2) aeart & (3) WERT sR S (4) tae fig vfan eae @ Non-transferability of share is a feature of (1) Public Company (2) Private Company (a) Partnership (4) Holding Company 40126. 127. 128. 171) aie A aecareota G TeT e (1) arate sent a (2) fish ert ar (3) areata (4) Fae art ar ‘Equal Voting Rights’ is related to (1) Cooperative Organisation (2) Public Corporation (3) Private Company (4) Government Company ‘ana naften’ aan @ (1) Bend det a (2) adie fcr 2 (3) Fst ser & (4) Wert aor a Which of the following is not a feature of a company? (1) Mutual Agency (2) Common Seal (3) Artificial Person (4) Perpetual Succession Prafefas 48 am wer ay aa AE 8? (1) Tre Rr (2) area adap (3) fim af (4) aaa seater Which of the following is not a long-term sourcé of business fin, (1) Issue of shares (2|_Issue of debentures (Q) Trade credit (4) Fics institutions 41 PT.0)129, 130. Frfafian 48 ahaa onaanfis fea ar dhdarefin ata wel 2? (1) stat ar fefaa (2) aera at Friar (3) earns are (4) Paeta ear Which of the following is an unincorporated organisation? (1) General Partnership (2) Limited Liability Partnership (3) Public Limited Company (4) Private Limited Company Pratt a & aha en ovata ctor 8? (1) Bre eae (2) sift afr aratardt (3) ere fafige srt (4) sede fetid sort ited Liability Partnership were introduced by which Act of Parliament? Limite (1) Limited partnership Act, 1907 ted Liability Partnership Act, 2000 (2) bien : parinesshiP ‘Act, 2000 8 po tet, 2013 (a) com fit Ba sw ain em eae Ak? a cafafan, 1907 (1) aca mat after, 2000 lat aftr, 2000 ay wet caffe, 2013 42131, 132. 133, (171) The major advantage of a fratiehise is (1) training and managerial assistance (2) national recognition (3) personal ownership (4) All of the above verre a WEE ae (1) fara es srecunte. aera (2). Arr (3) ft safe (4) suite anit “Lack of incentive’ is a limitation of (1) Sole Trading (2) Partnership (3) Company (4) Joint Hindw Family Business Sten er sree erator t (1) Be ear At ey wah (9) wrt S (4) BW fe ote saery 6 ‘Open membership’ is a merit of (1) General Partnership (2) Cooperative Organi; ion (8) Private ‘Company (4) Public Company ‘ai ace’ wm 2 (1) ars arta (2) FETE Te a (3) fist wert a (4) aaRe aon aw 43 7.0)134. 135. Which of the following is not a principal export document? (1) Certificate of origin (2) Bill of lading (3) Mate’s receipt (4) Certificate of inspection frafefaa a aaa yer fata wea we 8? (1) Sa Al ATA (2) faa aie afer (3) Aza whe (4) PrGeror ar aoe The term CIF is used in (1) internal trade (2) external trade (3) wholesale trade (4) retail trade afoarfoume 1 5qH eat e (1) safe sare # (2) are STAR a) te aan A (4) eu eT Fe TT H Who presented the Union Budget 2016-17 on 29th February, 2016? (1) Arun Jaitley (2) Amit Shah (a) Naren Modi (4) Nitin Gadkari mr ae 29 wad) 2016 FT FRAT Aer aT? gata = @ EAT Fe oat qa goie-t al wy we 44 (171)137. 138. 139, 140, (71) Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog? (1) President of India (2) Finance Minister (3) Prime Minister (4) Defence Minister Aft amin er sere ata 87 () Tesfa (2) fare sist (3) FeFR (4) ea ‘The ‘Swéi¢hl-Bharat Abhiyan’ was launched by Prime Minister on which date? () 26th January (2) 15th August (3) 10th September (4) 2nd-Octover ee aT ‘Starr oweeniiemaa. a fe TM? (1) 26 saat (2) 15 art (3) 10 fare (4) 2 Sam Name the 29th State of India which came into existence in Sune, 2014 () Goa (2)"Té¥ingana @) ‘akshaweep Tsland @)-Andasanand Nicobar Islands ANG 3 298 Teaw-M 8, st aq 2014 a aa TAM (1) en (2) acinar (3) Tetree (4) seam i Rati Who coinedsthe term ‘Green Revolution’ in India? (1) Manmohan Singh (2) Dr. M. 8, Stiamaing ergs, (3) Dr. William Gade ° sen 45 (b141, 142. 143. ara # “efta srfa’ weg fart watt fear on? (1) sate fire (2) Bio Wo Wo Taare (2) ete Fifer are (4) sto alo @ftar India’s first Al Women Bank, ‘Bharatiya Mahila Bank’ was opened in which year’ wre een wep afer. ae, "sren ten Ae! A cae fora ad a? (1) 2012 (2) 2013 (3) 2014 (4) 2015 Which of the following will be simplified by the proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST) ? (1) Direct tax (2) Indirect tax {@) Sales tax only (4) Service tax only sen a 2 (GT) ek Sa a be we STE (a) fark drew Baa (4) feeb athe 2a (1) aa (2) Areal FE What is the full form of SEZ? ay Ome eee (0) Smart Economic Zone ci " el wbctricity. Zone (4) Smart Electronic Zone @ 5 1) wo eu aH 8? eta? are 2) wre as By 1 Ne fee (a) wd eit a144, 145. 146. Qn) Which of the following sectors is contributing maximum in GDP of India? (1) Agriculture Sector (2) Service Sector (3) Manufacturing Sector (4) Mining Sector frafetan 4 8 at-ar ar wre & wart vt, sere Haft deer wen 8? (1) BR aa (2) aa aa (3): Rafer aa (4) GH ar When-was ‘Make in India’ launched in India? (0). September 25, 2014 (2) September 25, 2015 (3) April 1, 2015 (4) January 10, 2016 wma 4 ts a afen’ A chen aq Fh af? (1) feerar 25, 2014 (2) famen 25, 2075 (3) ae 1, 207s (4) "78 10, 2016 Wher was “Digital India’ launched in India? CP eEareeR (2) March 1, 2015 (9) January 1, 2016 (4) July 26, 2015 ama “fetter Sf8ar’ Sham ay A ag? (1) Gere 1, 2075 02) 71, 2015 (3) 9 1, 2016 (ar h..26,-2016 47 To)147. 148. 149. 150. Which country is not the member of BRICS ? (1) Brazil (2) Russia (3) India aha ar ‘fae’ ar aera ae 27 (1) arestter (2) Fa (3) AEA UNCTAD was established in the year UNCTAD #) waren fea ad Fe? (1) 1988 (2) 1964 (3) 1956 India’s largest exports are to (1) USA (2) Japan (3) Russia ama 1 ame ats Fiata fa ae ae 2? (1) JouRoue (2) sre (3) 4 In which sector 100% FDI is not allowed in India? (1) Education (2) Tourism (3) Agriculture oma i fea 100% wera Reef Fae etga wee? (a) fren (2) Wea (3) 48 (4) Cuba (4) = (4) 1960 (4) UK (4) yore (4) Insurance (4) ar D/6(171}—11000(em afar & ney reg Te Sawa & oat yw Sac set a eh aa 8 a fers) 1. ve gfe fied % 50 fine & oma ta a fe wea 7 ah ye stys & ok we BMT) ge Segue) wd BA Gon Tree aA el ee SO ee wat yf om | 2. wien wes a fererer tite ndeay & onfafte, fora a aera vt Gen aA we A 7 aa 3. Sea sem fen are Sh we a ab ag othe wo Pages wey Ge gave TAT fear dT, eT TT wow et yeaa fer aT) Ao Ren Sry Ten savy a waa Fe are 97 A auth eee fore 5. SoC B wen EC ATR oe yet Hales ea we fer cn HA RA TT om we F aetoet aneers Oath wer gfe He waPE en Se er wee afr ear ot fer 6, silo Wo So TAH arpa Hem, wegen cen a Ae Tom (aie aE G) Ter wer gers awn Ho BR se THe smo wa do a fatal H anfterer at orga ae t 17, soho ahr ane ow aes we Pheer re er ae ae semen ae Ge safe ee AT aa | a. en gore webs es ae hes ze Ret tL arr eT eto sae ford anv? se” “ea a eatincy far are PDD ew Tro a eT yw ve Ad oe Ake a orga A FT aa ti 9% wae we TRH fed Bae WH GE mg BU GH A stew TT SE eA OT aaa apt wa 1 ae aR eM A AT to, ea & fis ce are eet aro ff were en AY ea at se iret me TTT AT a1 Te fa cates ve Fama RATA wT TD aret wy 21 BA eT ET ain RA TA ue ae ad fet wee gis & goye Fa TS yw oe sie Em eT 12, ater SHI FAI aoTWosITC aaa whe eR HOT A I 13. ten mare @R AeA he we Bee a oo eT HT 4. ae a so he ght HEL wT 4, Be Poe Pua EA, wh event