Bre (Ag): old: code Q35 ) 33847 Set No. 1 170/ 102/25 Question Booklet No. {To be filled up by the candidate by blue/ black ball-point pen) Roll No sp Iv (Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Shect Day and Date .. "(Signature of Invigilator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Shect] 6. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13, 14. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/ question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet, Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Curd without its envelope. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shaft not be prouded. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roli No., Question Booktet No. and Set No. (if any) on OMR sheet and also Rol! No, and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet. ‘Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet, For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet, Ifyou darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. Ifa candidate attempts to use eny form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/her. [sedis Be ed a ar segs a PA Bl [No. of Printed Pages : 0042 16.wiBee U) ald Ole U55) 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Time /ANa : 2 Hours /a2 Full Marks/qaits : 300 Rote /Atz: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Rech question carries 3 marks. an @) (3) One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. aireien eet a er a A RL WI TE 8 ie A 81 Ve ea oe fie ee sie rer sre | set ae ea Te Ie Hf more then one alternative answera neem to be approximate to the Correct answer, choose the closest one. Zh ort Stee am a oe & Ae ache a, at seme at ae This paper comprises of Five Sections. Sections I and II are compulsory whereas only one Section out of Ill, IV and Vis to be attempted. ae seer ota oat wt) as Tw aan & wate .1V wie ee ee a . we nw (PTO)17U/102/25 Sct No. 1 am (17) Section—I we MENTAL AGILITY (Compulsory for all) Term ‘Grey Revolution’ is concerned with (1) milk production (2) wool production (3) fish production (4) horticultural crops eg ‘ag an Ps a are arate A? Q) GF seret (2) St TeTET (3) se A (4) GT ATA A certain number of halls can be divided equally among 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 players. What will be the least such number? as Ta oh 2, 3, 4,5, 0 G7 Racnheat F wuae-aem alarm vem 8) HS A fran den an ehh? (1) 400 (2) 840 (3) 420 {4] 12 In which of the following sectors, the maximum quantity of water is consumed in India? (1) Domestic work {2) Agriculture (3) Industry (4) Hydroelectric projects ana t fer HS fee Oe Hoek ar wae sare ae F age ahh 2? (a) ate ae # 2) aft a (3) sar 4 (4) sefege oPeberait 2(17) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 125% can also be written as 125% @ fet} 8 fee wer vt ferent aT aaa 8? (1) 125-00 (2) 12-50 (3) 1-250 (4 O125 If CHAIR is coded as XSZRI and ABOVE is coded as ZYLEV, how EVERY will be written in’ above code? aft CHAIR #5 fear stot 8 XSZRI ot ABOVE wR. LRT TTT & ZYLEV @, @ wh als 4 fie A every fre ae @ fret ae? (1) WEVIB (2) VEVIB (3) VEBIB (4) VFVIB In certain code language ‘hot filtered coffee’ is written as ‘1234, ‘very hot day” is written as 386" and day and night’ is. written. as ‘589’, how will ‘ very'be written, in that code? aft fret EE wer a Shot fittered coffer’ B 123" Sal 2, ‘very hot day’ #356! fora arn 2 aet day and night’ # 539° ya at Be MTT 4 ‘very’ Bi fit 3 aa Baron satan (3 (2) 6 a) 5 (4) 1 A person starts walking in the North direction and travels 5 kam, then he turns to his left and walks 10 km and then he turns to his left and ‘vevers a distance of km. How far is he from his starting point? : 3 ore Sar ear aed See Hen ORs tem eau A, ae ae aT a Oe Foe A 10 ton. BBE a 8, ARE ae re al she aE 8 Sh Siem Sam 2 am ae aed wee A ome Fa ge Ae (1) 5 km (2) 20 gn. B10 kn (4) 45 tom 3 @Ta)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 10. 1 = 12, ay In a row of 40 students Mahesh is twentycighth from left and Suresh is twentyfifth from right, If Dinesh is sitting just exactly in betwen them, what will be the position of Dinesh from left? 40 ont a arm & anit am 3 nee A AAR aed wR Kt am gtr A fee ad ae 2 ast era th a Ri A Ras a del} faege aaa et, at fie wa ema Amd a fra ena ae aul? (1) 24 (2) 22 (3) 28 (4) 23 A is mother of B. C is son of A. D is brother of E. E is daughter of B. Who is grandmother of £ ? $B RCA or Ree DEMME Ba Gt 2A ad aR 2 Mya 2B @c (4) D Pointing towards a man another man said “he is the son of my father's sister”, then what is the relationship between them? (1) Pather-Son (2) Brother (3) Cousin (4) Uncle-Nephew wm sre A ott wae aS ER Get are Swat “Cae RR fot wer Be, ye fae F asi nef tof Fer aes 3? (1) fay a (2) (3) Fea wy (4) Bree Which of the following words will come fourth in the English dictionary? Prafefca wat % 9 staat wey aaish wegater Foster eh? (1) Felse (2) Follow (3) Faithfully (4) Pallible In the following questions if the given statement is true, then among the three conclusions which is correct? Statement : FE, ET, () RST, (ll) FE, ET, W) RST, () F< () Fae Gy wee (2) Saat ar at (QT A) ae? (3) Sac a at oT a ee 4) Ha AAR Which of the following words will come second in the English dictionary? Frafhon weet Fa aan wey ait meee A gee a7 (1) Magical (2) Magnify (3) Maternal (4) Magnetic Thete are a sequence of four figures following some pattern‘as given below : Gar Ae fear mere, 4 feeit feet om a RA TE: What will be the fifth figure in that sequence out of the following? sath om 3 si eae wt fet 8 er a? A}® Ow 0 @) ay ey ao @) @ {3} 8 ~ 4 om TQ)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 15. 16. 18, 19, a7 In which of the following animals has teeth in its only one jaw? (1) Elephant (2) Cow (3) Donkey (4) Rat fra fa fee ora & dae HO wad F ct oa oT a? () wee (2) 714 (3) 71 (4) ag Which of the following crops is also a source of edible oil? (1) Pearl millet (2) Wheat (3) Maize (4) Pea fier 4 Ree wae @ are de wr ot ane Fem oT 8? (1) ast (2) 1 (3) 7a (4) Ft ‘ack’ 18 related ta ‘haF’ in the same way us ' MluJ' is sclated to which one of the following? ‘ack’, ‘bdr’ 3 ah we Bae 8 ta hw FS (1) dp (2) fhL. (3) ghK (4) sik Income of A is 25% more than the income of B. Income of B in terms of income of Ais a® om a A ona 8 20% afte do A om A % vide A fer Ham 87 (1) 75% (2) 80% (3) 90% (4) 100% If the radius of the base of a cylinder is halved, keeping the height same, what will be the ratio of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original? af Pa Fame eH fom fone) a ome a Rea are, ger seh Sat ai fads 7 Ta, aw ae Bo Pale & ore ea Peer 3 oT 3 fer wen TE GT? (1) 1:4 (2) 4:4 (3) 2:5 (4) 1:520. 21. (17) 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Find the missing number in the following series : Pe fae tare ears we at wat eh? 5, 9, 17, 33, —, 129 () 53 (2) 59 (3) 92 (4) 65 In the figure (©) represents shopkeepers, A showa customers and [__] represents farmers, how many are all these three? fra Ra FO geen, A ategn oa (_| fren at wtfea wor & we aK we yet fed ot ait TP wa) 1 2 BY 7 6 5 @) 2 » QS @) 4 as . The length of a minute hand of a clock is 14 cm, it will be the by the minute hand if One Witte? oa Wat © Brea covered ust Ht Bie Ft cae WS wert 14 om 81m fre f fhe A af fr Fg (14 cm? Q7 emt gy 105 ox? @) 10! ent (PTO)17U/ 202/25 Set No. 1 23, 24. 26. (a7) If ‘eye’ is called ‘hand’, ‘hand’ is called ‘mouth’, ‘mouth’ is called ‘ear’, ‘ear’ is called ‘nose’ and ‘nose’ is called ‘tongue’. With which of the following would a person hear? (1) Eye (2) Mouth (3) Nose (4) Ear aR ‘ata! ‘ee’ am ar, ‘em! at Ye ae om, Ye’ at an’ ae oR, ‘an’ a Ses! ser ort wer re’ a Prey’ wet a, A ew one flr Fa Rw wm? (1) sake 2) te (3) 7 (4) For sowing of which of the following crops, its stem is generally not used? (1) Potato -(2) Sugarcane (3) Onion (4) Ginger fea 4 a fee ore A gag & fe ame: aah at ar itr ei ater 27 (1) Sq, (2) Tar (3) am (4) eR On the basis of ‘Shak Sambat Panchang’, the third month of the year is (1) Chaitra (2) Paush (3) Falgun (4) Jaisth ‘we wad Tain’ & agen ae a fan adh fer ta atr-ar 27 (1) 3 (2) (3) WET 4) 3B 827, (17) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Section—I wel CHEMISTRY (Compulsory for all} When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the molecules (i) are above the inversion temperature (2) exert no attractive forces on each other (3) do work equal to loss in kinetic energy (4) collide without loss in, energy wa we oned Ae oreia wan a dex qa 8, om sed den a Tn oT R aie agait a (Yana ae Se sar star 2 (2) UR-aRt we arantoy weit oer ferers sat tem & (3) way oat & aan & aan a wae (4) wat & gam & fer card & The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p orbitals respectively are (1) 2 and 0° (2) Oane 2. edema — 4) 2 and 1 3s at 2p Sanat} Ben nit A der ae * (1) 2 ato Dowo saiak2 4) 2a 9 Pray170/102/25 Set No. 1 28. 29, 30. 31. 32. qn The clectronegativity of the following elements increases in the order ar a agi qe fafa wat @ qa sR 2 CNSLP )NSLCP @ SLP,C.N (4) P, SINC Among KO, AIO;, BaQ, and NO}, unpaired electrons are present in (1) NO} and BaO, (2) KO, and AlOZ (3) KO, only (4) BaO, only arafita stagta thag G4 %, Kz, Al0z, BaO, a NO} % aa T (1) No3 aR Bao, (2) KO, HR A103 (3) Bact KO, (4) a7 Bad, The species having bond order different from that in CO is co 4 fra san & fre & ores ga me sit & (2) NO (2) No* (3) CN" (4) No ‘The compound that is not a Lewis acid is aitfies, sit ge ora Heft () BF, (2) AlCl, (3) BeCl, (4) SnCl, For the reaction ©O(g)+H,0(g)= CO2(9)+ Bolg) ata given temperature, the equilibrium amount of CO,(g) can be increased by {1) adding a suitable catalyst (2) adding an inert gas (3) decreasing the volume of the container {@) increasing the amount of CO(g) 1033. 7) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 aftr & fre CO(g)+ H,0(9)=CO2(9)+H,(9) RR WE ATH CO,(g) A aenaen H oer zee aT Tate (1) FRR Fetes SY Prevaz (2) Pree fer a Pree Wa & area at WaT (4) CO(g) 4 Fen wt ea For an endothermic reaction, the minimum value for the activation energy is (1} less than enthalpy change (2) zero {3) more than enthalpy change (4), equal to the enthalpy change we soit often & fe, afrae sat ar ofteon ar eer (1) weir enter & ae (2) I (3) arte MRT softs (4) oefta enter & amar Consider a reaction aG+bH -> products. When the concentration of both the reactants Gand H is doubled, the rate inérai@ewtypeight times. However, when the concentration of Gis doubled keeping the concentration of F fixed, the rate doubled. The overall order of the reaction is afiirn w fran RaG+bH > sari wa G ot HW al after A a apt a ant ¢, wa eet at Se pe apni tewwas. HB aaa a Rr wr G # aa # stn wa aa 2, wwe @ dy a oom t) atin ar wae ae (0 ers. @) 2 (4) 3 ql (Pro)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 3%. 37, 0-004 M Na,SO, is isotonic with 0-01M glucose. Degree of dissociation of Na,80, is 0.004 M Na,S0,, 0-01M "AT * amt wm 8 Naso, % yA Tate (i) 75% (2) 50% (3} 25% {4) 85% Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating ‘Fae 4a fe el we The oetisenes ore et far a aac? @) KNO, (2) PbINO,). (3) Cu(NO,), (4) Agno, B(OH), + NaQH = NaBO, + Na[B(OH\,]+H.0. How can this reaction is made to proceed in forward direction? (1) addition of cis 1,2 diol (2) addition of borax (3) addition of rans 1,2 diol (4) addition of Na,HPO, B(OH), + NaOH = NaBO, + Na[B(OH),]+H,0. 38 afiiear 1 de an) zen wT Wat 3? (1) cis 1,2 spite sig at (2) aites stg at (3) vans 1,2 saile we (4) Na,HPO, @13 The bonds present in N20, are (1) only ionic (2) covalent and coordinate (3) only covalent (4) covalent and ionic NO, % feat wet TafeIe e (i) ae oe 2) Feti G wreG (3) ae eet (4) Sesto ee rents 1241. an 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of the compound Hg[Co(SCN), ] is Hg{Co(SCN},] fe wt -qreha qt (BM ) fact ae yarn a eee 8? a) 43 2) V5 (3) 24 4) 8 Native silver metal forms a soluble metal complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of fram sof HONaCN & yee sete the ae Vi ete ay we a ger ag tif arn ara 2? (1) Ny (2) Og (3) CO, @a When MnO, is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and its colour aré (i) KyMnO,, purple (2) KMn0,, purple (3) Mn,0,, black (4) Maj0>7 Brewer ‘WW MnO, KOM & wm aye se 8, as ote atte om Anfor ger 2, ane ait wa me (1) K,Mn0,, rt @) KMno,,. rf (3) Mn,0,, eT (4) Mn,0,, Among the follwitig,"the-most. basic compound is (1) benzylamine Qj aniline (3) acetanitide (4) p-nitroanitine Prater 3 3 ata Tas ante atte 87 (1) @fartene iia. | OP RGF S (4) poamcha 3 PTO)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 43. 45. {17} 2-hexene gives trans-2-hexene on treatment with fer 4 8 fee are ofiieen a a 2-Raeres, gra-2-amt Bt 37 {) Li/NH, (liquid) (2) Pd/Baso, (3) LiAIH, (4) Pt/Hy The order of reactivity of the following alkyl halides for a S,,. reaction is Frofefea amet tanga a GF S,. aftr & fre aftieertna a A aT an? (1) RF > RCL> RBr > RI (2) RF >RBr>RCl>RI (3) RCI> RBr > RF > Rt (4) Ri> RBr > RCI> RF ‘The hest method to prepare cycloherene from cyclohexanol is by using seria 8 apacigada tae ae at wad shor ater fae oi at a ter 8? {1) cone, HCl + ZnCl, (2) conc. HPO, (3) HBr (4) cone. HCL The compound that will not give iodoform test on treatment with alkali and iodine is (1) acetone Q) ethanol (8) diethyl ketone (4) isopropyl alcohol 14a7 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 amet ait amide et otadhetd utem dattien ee oe etm athe we car Cig (1) eter (2) garter (3), Sree ats (4) saitger areaiteet Benzamide on treatment with POCI, ie (1) aniline (2) benzonitrile (3) chlorobenzene (4) benzylamine Forme @ POC], % ay afiira HA wea ze Q) Wer (2) aaa (3) ae (4) dongerents ‘The compound that is most reactive towards’ dlectrophili suhetitution is (1) toluene (2) benzene (3) benzoic acid (4) nitrobenzene wre fren St sit aad wore ahiihatetier athe & () ae (2) (9) aioe im (4) Teh In the Gannizzaro reaction 2Ph—CHO —*"_ ph—CH,OH + PhCO, The slowest step is (1) the attack of —Oli.ot the carbonyl group (2) the transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group. (3) the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic acid (A) the deprotonation of PhR—CHZOH 15, To)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 50. an Shar after ¥ 2Ph—cHO —28_, ph—CH,OH + PhCO} wee ein are & (1) site gy 4 —on #1 ong (2) Wages @ saber [a ar een (3) selfs are a sitet aT yer (4) Ph—CH,0H a thizi ‘Twn forme of D glucopyranose, are called (1) enantiomers (2) anomers (3) epimers (4) diastereoisomers D-wptra & at eT ee weg (i) aPRetnd (2) inet (3) wierd (4) sraptotargettt 1651. 53. an 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Section—II weil BOTANY and ZOOLOGY (Botany) Which one of the following is a monogenetic parasite? (1) Taenia solium Q) Aararis._ (3) Fasciola hepatica (4) Plasmodium vivax fer #8 ar we aaa sete 87 (0) Rear Se : 0) waite (3) Sfrsiten fete (*) ER aT Which ecological pyramid is always upright? (1) Pyramid of number (2) Pyramid of biomass (3) Pyramid of energy (4} Both pyramid of number and energy a-ar TRARHAA Ake ater eter eat 87 (1) err sar Ries 0) aaa Rte (3) wat ar PRS (4) tor Wi sat Gf & tee Acid rain is caused by . (2) CO and 00, 42)-005-andQ,, (3), $05 and NOt NO, and O, sect amt rats saath Be 5 fe} Qt) co CO, SO. - 8) 80, HB, 4 No, wo, (PTO)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 54, 55. 56. 57. 58. a7 Phyllode is modification of (1) petiole (2) stem (3) petal (4) lamina Reetg Reaat ear 2? (yg (2) aH (3) Es @) een Head or capitulum inflorescence is found in (1) wheat {2) sunflower (3) mustard (4) onion so eren Sige qraen Pret aT TT a (a) te (23) aac (3) Wet (4) ast An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is (1) Azotobacter (2) Azospirillum (3) Rhizobium {4) Nostoc aia A was & feat Me Te & ev Hows ota a sete eer F (2) Wrelraee (2) Wiener = (3) Tater (4) aie Which one of the following is not a micronutrient? (1) Boron (2) Molybdenum (3) Magnesium (4) Zinc fey 3 & ata we qemien wat 8? Q) aR (2) Tifeeer (3) Safar (4) fe Which one of the following insectivorous plants is also Imown as ‘sundew plant’? (i) Nepenthes (2) Drosera (3) Utricularia (4|_ Dionaea fa id fe wm Fert des re A ees ay aa a ft or wat 8? (a) Pea (Q) Fhe at STING (4) stata 1859. 61. a7) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Which group of three micronutrient elements is required for both Photosynthesis and mitochondrial electron transport? fea aye Sr genie aa Sat vik wert oft amteifBerr aziz gree & fq areas 27 (1) Ca, Mn, Fe Q) Co, Ni, Mo (3) Ca, K, Na (4) Mn, Co, Ca . Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricuiture fields is likely to create the problem of (1) acidity (2) aridity G) salinity (4) metal toxicity wea wa ae phy aft ag afte fied se a fe we A wR aaa Bh 87 (1) svete 2) Fer (3) eam (4) erg Frere Which of the following is a saprophytic angiosperm? (0) Neottia (2) Eucalyptus (3) Cuscuta (4) Agaricus for + att we sit anger. 27. Ql) ater (2) aaferer (3) FRET Comme (4) Uitere Sandal wood oil of Santalum album’ is afan (1) edible ot ——(Q) essential ofl (3) liquid oil (4) None of these we 4 oad w te ‘Ser wan! 2 ~ () Ger der Opera m0) EAT (4) wae a 7 Pungent smell of mustandgil is due to presence of compound Pres & sulphur Containing (1) Ally! sulphitie-t2p~Gimgcin (3) Pathegin (4) Resarpine 19 7.0)A7U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 an Fae Tee aa & ta A sole eH aeagw wem zy (1) Wry Fees (2) firata (3) Tafa (4) tau Companion cell is found associated with sieve tube cell of {1) pteridophytes (2) gymnosperms (3) angiosperm (4) Bryophyta HER sifirar aft arent aferer rar gw wT a Te oT t (1) thee FQ) Rete Gy aaa 4) are The osmotic pressure of U'1 M glucose and U:1 M sucrose solution are the sane because (1) both are carbohydrates (2) these are different compound having different molecular weights (3) both are present in the same concentration (4) glucose is reducing sugar while sucrose is non-reducing sugar o1 Mamta faeRA ar ak OF M Bate faeer sr TORT aa wae aah (1) Sat arateregze 2 (0) ae SRST wes TT SRT ARH TE STMT SeeTT g) i @ wn Bie HE (a) ata tegibe @, Sa Gate ahaa ar a 2066. 67. an 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Test cross involves (1) crossing the F, hybrid with a double recessive genotype (2) crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait (3) crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait (4) crossing between two F; hybrids oe wie waft & (1) F, Har? fete owanh sidigay a ate 2) 2 vite @ dt aan & ate aie (3) 3 Sifter 8 oment-wer a ater ete ) OF HS de are Munch’s mass flow hypothesis explain (1) water flow in xylem (2) horizontal flow of water from cortex to xylem (3) translocation of solutes through phloem (4) absorption of water by roots , fe ater wet enehafter Rewer tent () em 7 SL) (2) Qfts sae we at adaa 8 oem F ait (3) vette (heares) gir ert SO (4) at ar eT eee” or PTO)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 68, 69. 70. 71. (17) When stomata open only at night they are called (1) Photoactive (2) Scotoactive (3) Nyctinastic (4) Helioactive va eter (ve) oA A ge wet SS we oT e () Baa (2) aaa) Afeafes 4) Metta According to enzymatic theory to explain stomatal movement, which of the following enzymes is associated with starch = sugar conversion? (1) Phosphorylase (2) Aldolase (3) Amylase (4) Invertase Tas fara & sqer We (cal) Aa Aa Fa Re ca A AEM a ered = who fafan eat 2? Qh) BeBe (2) Ureht (3) Greets @) Fata Which products of Hill reaction are used in Blackman’s reaction? Ree oftiirer & fee seve ar vetr wtate often F feen oar 27 (1) ATP, NADPH (2) ATP, NADH = (3) ADP, NAD (4) ATP, NAD 3PGA js first stable product in (1) carbon-reduction cycle (2) CAM (3) glycolysis (4) Krebs’ cycle SPGA wen vad TeTe Fae 87 (1) FEAR a (2) CAM (3) rgterrefee (4) #% 3m 2274, ‘78. (17) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Spirulina is rich source of (1) protein (2) fat (3) vitamin (4) mineral ameter # firth afte ehh #7 ()) er (2) =a (3) Rata (4) aa Saffron is obtained from (1) Cocos nucifera » Q) Bevis. amare, (3) Crocus sativus (4) Costus speciosa ae ARR re fear wa 8? (1) ahem ae (2) ante omer (3) whew gaee (4) anew eRe Which ermyme is called molecular scissor? (1) Restriction endonuclease (2) Ligasie BO} Protowes (9), Zymase steal cone magen che aan 87 (1) Cigar Fatt (2) ears (3) stig 4) ara Link between glycolysis and Wrahe? necata Q) citric acid (2) umane aciez (3) succinic acid (4) acetyl CoA TUR tH deat At (2) FR set (2) BS cre at () BBR con 23 TO}17U/102/25 Set No. 1 76, 7. 78. am (Zoology) Which one of the following sequences is the correct hierarchy of classification? (1) Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species (2) Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species (3) Genus, Species, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Class, Family (4) Domain, Phylum, Kingdom, Genus, Species, Family, Order, Class Amfitas 32 Sa an after a AG HF a? (1) wirama, sada, wR, 95, wf, wee, ot, TT (2) wads, sifted, aia, 4, WH, RAR, FM, HHT (g) am, van, saftarra, aft, HH, af, vitae @) weds, wa, TRINA, aa, TK, xfer, #4, a ‘The first land vertebrates—the amphibians, developed during the (4) Cambrian period (2) Silurian period (3) Ordovician period (4) Devonian period gem af Feeds fet set A Rafter Gon am? () 2Ber ae (2) arRaheas Ie (gp arenas ret (4) Sata wie Who amongst the following wrote the Essay on the Principle of Population in the year 1798? (1) Charles Darwin (2) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck (@) Hugo de Vries (4) Thomas Malthus 2481. 1] ad 1798 4 Prefefaa 4 a feat Essay on the Principle of Population fret at? (1) sree ert (2) Sami ares @) Wit & eee (4) ofaa are Which one of the following refers to a Chotilate uc det 10 a vermebrexe? (1) Labeo {2) Columba (3) Amphionis, (4) Hemidactyius Frafeftaa & @ fae deed wel ales Chordate He Ta 87 (Bra (2) Sera (3) sifitetemr (a) Rika Malpighian tubule of insects is (1) a digestive ongen 1) a circulatory organ (3) a respiratory organ (4) an exsretony-ongn. He men EE (1) as ain Qshsie wy eet aa) aa iT DNA matching has shown thet humans are-closest #5" ~ (1) Chimpanzees {43 Gorillas {3} Gibbons Bowoys BAT 7, zaladHroe tec t () Rem & (2) sity Bl Pr OT Ae Paedogenesis refers to (1) early: development of gonad _ @) Rhesus monkeys (2) retention of rudimentary characters ip adult form (3} tetention of larval character in sdult form (4) retrogressive metattiorphosis . -* PTO)a7) MStsiee Testshe Bea Ais we ee (1) 608 + 408 sagt (2) 508 + 308 avgargat (3) 408 + 308 saree (4) 50S + 408 sTeHRat ‘The class of proteins that matk the foreign proteins for elimination ere (1) transporters (2) repressors (3) hormones (4) ixtmunoglobulins apm & fe Rota shir ah fetter wet aa aia arf # () wereld (ares) (2) fore (aren) (3) ar (4) RR Minute to minute regulation of Ca** in adult. human is done by {1) calcitonin : (2) parathormone (3) vitamin D, . (4) grucagon wea aa tf Cat? St aR pet faPtens Remi ama Som, sre 87 (1) PRR a) tails (3) faafr D. (4) EBT The carrying, capacity. of8.population is determined by its (1) natality (2) mottality (8) limiting resources (4) growth rate orien & ag, eRe Autor Pek ga de (Ql) wae AAI 0) RE 0 a 4 .T.0.)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 89. Which one of the following statements is correct? qa (2) Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm while oxidative phosphorylation eccurs in the nucleus Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation take place in the cytoplasm (3) Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm while oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the outer mitochondrial membrane (4) Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm while oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the inner mitochondrial matrix Frater aay 4 8 ar ae R7 (ay areata ae aataeRaRea teste erect HF erat 2) ertertia unoran # Ger 8 sais ata steatterm Fas A dat 8 (a) empaterees wreceeron Hae 8 aa teeta siete we mrecarrgaet fest # eran & . (a) patente mredearen Hort wah tetatee testa arate anatantgaet avtere Fete 90. Which one of the following is a terminator codon? Prariea TA ate amas are 8? (1) AG (2) VAC (3) AUG (4) GaU gi. Acid hydrolases are packed in the ql mitochondria (2) nucleolus (3) endoplasmic reticulum (4) tysosomes an 28an 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Baa sea wT et (1) arRengar . (2) =ferstea F 3) werenfars tage F (4) orgs Vitamin B,, deficiency causes {1} pernicious ancmia (2) pellagra (3) beriberi (4) xerophthalmia fer B.. at & am wr ter 8? () Were sfafien (2) ter (3) Sita (4) abweferar Polytene chromosomes are. found in (1) salivary glands of dipteran larvae (2) oocytes of vertebrates (3) bone marrow of mouse (4) liver cells of man Whaat sth oar aren & - () Rete rat & ereey F (2) Arad 3 Rearq arate (3) er & af ayer (4) Sr} aaa Formation of spermatagoa.tsom, spermatide jnshnoma.on (0) spermatogenesis _ ~GLaamgtogenesia jogenesis 4) meiggis (3) spermiogent 29 2:0)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 98. 96. 97. an errr 8 ereretsion a1 mar wt wer STAT eg () were (2) as (3) eee (4) Pretfee The pyramid of biomass is inverted in (1) freshwater ecosystem (2} forest ecosystem (3) grassland ecosystem (4) Tundra arate at ftrftre sere ara & (1) Her set TRARY (2) at uaa # 3) Sra ane a (4) ea Which one of the following interactions will not promote co-evolution? (1) Mutualism (2) Parasitism (3) Interspecific competition (4) Commensalism Prcfeitea Hate wrens Brat wef a aarat ai OT? (yy saan (2) wet (3) Seas wfeetter (4) Biraterr The Watson-Crick DNA structure is also referred to as (1) A form (2) B form (3) Z form (4) D form aaa fee Stoqtolo Aca FFE Te z Q) A aan of g) 8 wath ZARA G4) D aren 30100, (a7) 17U/102/25 Set No, 1 Which one of the following acts as an electron donor to the electron transport chain in mitochondria? x () ATP (2) NADH (3) 0, (4) Pyruvate arhatgnr # git genié as a) ehh & wr a Aotiea Fa at a ara 8? () ATP (2) NADH {3} Og (4) TIRwde . Estradiol is synthesized mainly by the (1) thecal cells (2) granulosa cells (3) luteal cells (#) stromaal cells _ ofthe a are ger oy a fe oe a () flare atfrerst 3 (2) agen Sifters & Sea Hiei a (4) Sire atin + Bilirubin and biliverdin are derived from (1) haemoglobin (2) angiotensinogen (3) globulin @) artin - faftrefia od faaREs oe eter t (1) es a (2) eee a (3) stgiee & (4) Weer & 8d ~ P70)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Section—IV wel MATHEMATICS and PHYSICS (Mathematics) 101. The value of ~a? ab ac ba -b? be | ac be -<| is -a? ab ae ba -b? bel HS | ac be -c? (1) 4abe (2) a?b?c? (3) 4a7b?c? (4) abe 102. IfA is a non-singular matrix of order.3 and | A|=4, then value of [AT is a A we ornts ono bea AR (on) 9B ve [a= 4, FA am 8 ws 2) 16 9 (a) 64 103, If A={123) and B={xy), then total number of relations from A to B is aR Ax{h2.9) MH B=(H yh A Ad BS wart A wept Tene 1) 6 (2) 8 89 @) 64 an 32104. 105. 106. 107, 108. a7) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 The value of tan 75° + cot 75° is tan 75° + cot 75° a AM & a4 (2) 2 @) VB41 {4) 3-1 {sin A+sin Ba and cos A+cosB =B, then the value of tan (A4B) is aR sin A+sin B =a Wat cos.A+cosB =p, @ ten (422) a ot (1) op Q)a+6 @) = (4) a-p 6 The value of ,J 2+ [2+ Ja+2cos8e is 2+ y2+/2+2c0880 Ot (1) cos@ (2) 1+ cos@ (3) 1-cos8 tay 2c089 The least positive integral value of n for wren (8) “wirees 18 fe Fr ere oer wn fe (14) a rr areas een? () 8 Q1 (3) 2 a4 Ta and bare roots of the equation x? +.x+1=0, then the value of a? 4 5? jg Eo Sb MORO TTT Ey WE Pa oe (re =e (4) -2 33 ro)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 109. 110. 111. (17) ‘Three persons enter a railway compartment. If there are § seats vacant, in how many ways can they take these seats? 9 maf we ta & ed Ade we Hl a8 Red Hs ae ret &, a fet ae aw fd w as wat a7 (i) 60 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 5 The sum of the serics 1? +37 +5° + ton terms is aot 2 4324524 nw aT R (yy come @ n(2n-t}{2n-+4) n(2n+1? 2 (an+1)° @ = The value of lim sin x-Cosx wi xk 4 sin x-Ccosx fim SX—O0S% og oe rt xk ‘ 4 ao Qi a) 2 @) 12 3112. 113. 114. (ay The value of k for which the function k® feet oF & fore er ‘Reosx ip yk F(xpa4{t-2x" 2 3 if xf is continuous at x = 27 xed amet? (2 @ + (3) 6 ‘The derivative of tan (24) is 1+sin x tan-'(_£28% | 5 2 1+sinx, a 2) tan x gi sin? x a The derivative of log tan § +2) is 35 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 a6 1 ta) -} “Fy Pro)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 115. 116, 117. 118. an The volume of spherical balloon is increasing at a constant rate 25 cm°/sec. The Tate of change of its surface area when its radius is 5 cm is given by ww nen Jer a1 aA 25 cm/sec | Bn AA ae we, tw BW aaoe & agi Ft a aM 8 wal GARI anfoTa 5 cm 2? (1) 10 cm/sec (2) Sem?/sec (3) 8cm*/sec (4) 12 cm’ sec The maximum value of function f (x) =2x° - 24x +107 on the interval [-3, 3 |is We f(x)-2x? 2404107 wT aE AR BAA [-3,3] A wT 8? (1) 139 (2) 130 (3) 140 (4) 125 The function f (x) =2x° + 9x? +12x+15 is decreasing on OR f (x)=2x9 49x? 412x415 TT BR SRT F () (1,2) (2) [2 ») @) [-2-1] (4) (-«, -2] a, The value of is jam xvx°-1 a deer xte 2) tan? xP +e dy gtx? (4) secbx+e Ltan tx? +e ( & 3 36119. 120. 121, an 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 The value of (2? J2—37 ax is ( O-aw mt () x Q).-s @F 4) bla The area of bounded region between the line x =2 and parabola y? 8x ia 0) 18 oq unite 2) 2 oq units @) S oq units (4) 2 sa units WOR y? = 8x Ten Meta c= 2 & fat ee ameft aw dees 2 a) 2 at we 2 2 wt we 0) 2 at we 9 St ws ‘The degree of differential equation () not defined ee oy = E+ Eh (oi) @ ae ¥ qo eT 8) 2 4) Rohe ae @ 3717U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 122, 123. 124, 126. an ‘The equation of curve passing through the point (1,1) of differential equation x dy =(2x7 +1) dx, x#0 is Beg 1) 2 yet at ata w whe aT Ger ea oes wT x dy =(2x? +1) dx, x#0 8? () y= 2x? +log{x|re (2) y=x? +log |x| (3) y=x2 +logxte (8) 52x? +108) 1 ay Solutions of differential equation ©! + y sec x =tan x is ad ae ATT Sty sec xotanx mW g- (1) yssecx+tanx+xt+e (2) ysecx =secx+tanx+c (Q) ysscox-tanxtxte (4) y(secx + tan x} =secx+ tan x-x+¢ Standard deviation of first n natural numbers is wenn spite dens a wre freed (sp) wwe . Bo I 2 ats @ @ a naenine al ‘the variance of number of heads in two tosses of a coin is wey fag GE THA SH WBS (tel) AH de ay sews a 27 1 1 wi Qo Bs 61126, 127, 128, 129, any 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 (Physics) IfG, cand Ware the fundamental constant, then the unit of time is expressed as AR Gc oft he Fein €, wre A ew 39 fea fe et 8 a fe a fs 8 (E) we nae A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of f= (p24 q j)ma 2. If the range Of the projectile is double the maximum height reached ‘by it, then we veo weft aa d=(pitg jms? & Sar wat 8 ae yay eT yo aire ul a gat, . (1) p=2g (2) q=4p (8) q=2p 4) q-p Three masses are connected as shown in {Me tigure on a horizontal frictionless surface and pulled by a force of 60 N, The tensions fd T, are in ratio Rerger ot pean wifes a eee aft RE # oh GO aE aaa whe wer 8) a orth wae 7 or 7, Bt FR aeaT Be (asa 2) 1s : 4) 4:5 ‘The wave described by y=0-25 sin (JOux-2it), where X and and ¢ in seconds, ds aowayg Havelling along the {)) “ive x direction with amplitude'0’> m ana wa (2) -ive x direction Wittrtreqemeney 1 Hz (3) +ive x direction with. freauency Hz and 4=0-2 m Y are in metre Welength 4.=0.2.m (A) sive x direction with Frequency 4 ise and = p+pan - 39 (Pro)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 130. 131. 132. a7) y=0.25 sin (1Onx-2nt), wet xX THY Het A ait t aang 3 afta 3 se aT mfr & (1) seen x fee orATA 0-25 m wa wae A=0-2m (2) sarees x fet % age 1 Hz (3) were x fee i ang x Hz ak A= 0-2 m (a) ware x fam angi 1 Hz ott A= 0-2 m ‘The coefficient of friction between rubber tyres and the roadway is 0-2. The maximum spevd with which car can drive round a curve of radius 18 ma without skidding (take g =10 m/sec?) OR TR Ta we ate ah Gis 0-2 Be 18 m Ben & a fear Fara RAT Ta | YE AHR & (rey =10 sn/ace?) (1) 960 ka bh? 2) 180 kmh (3) 21-6 km nh? (4) 144 km ‘The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is y. The change in internal energy of one mole of gas when volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P is faa x an fe ae ea oe Sn arog 7 BY SH OT vee are 8, at 1 the tea a arate wal Har a pve oe St vets ev a) PE Oo py me res © aaj The quantities of heat required to raise the temperatures of two copper spheres of radii ry and 7, (7%) =1'5%) through 1 XK are in the ratio of Bo ae Pera BOT Hr, (r =1-5 re) IN LK AGH Re ET aa a SgTe VM @) Gy « (3) at aa ( 40133. 134. 135, an 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 A hollow pipe of length 0-8 m is closed at one end, At its open end a 0:5 m lang uniform string is vibrating in its second harmonic and it resonates with the fundamental frequency of the string. If the tension in the wire is SO N and the speed of sound is 320 m/sec, the mass of the string is B&F 08 m Ghat we we RS we a YT AES OS m ath Ww wT Tt fete wafer @ atk we apnea 8 Tet & am ange ai ak and are 50 .N aor Safi aff 220 m/sco th, at tet ani Geran Re ) Sg (2) 10g (3) 20 g (4) 40g If his the height of capillary rise and r be the radius of the capillary habe, then which one of the fallowing relations, will be.correct? (1) hr = constant (2) hfr? = constant {3) hr? = constant (4) Bfr = constant aR hn wife Serf oer r SHREYA TST, at AGRE 3 a she, rad. wel Bn? . (8) r= PR.) lade? = Frat (9) hy? = Praise (4) tyr = Bees The level of water ina tank is 5 m high, cm? is made in n a S eee ae abana. 10 , par paris the tank. The rate of of water from the hole is (take w Git Aoi wot sm den 4) oe Be 10 cm? aes a ah & arr ten 8) fe 8 Perret gin (eRe g-= 10 ta/g¢¢2) em (1) 10°?m4/sec (ap 40-9 m%/gec (3) 10°* m9 /aeg 4) 10° m3 spe 41 Pro)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 136. 137. (a7) ‘Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. Ifo, and o, are the conductivities of the metals respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is A wife fete org & ae ome Ah am tye Hao, Wo, YF HAT Bl, a $e Aaa BH VOTH arora Fa GIT? ‘O46 —_ 2010 1) (0,4 yy (S282 3 4) 20182 titese,) (22) ess Be ‘Two plane mirrors M, and M, are arranged at right angles to each other as shown in the figures below. A ray of light is incident on the horizontal mirror at an angle 0. For what value of @ the ray emerges parallel to the incoming ray after reflection from the vertical mirror? MLE M (1) 60° (2) 30° (3) 45° (@) All of them aowewe aia a, wen, Baer Pmegere EGR maT faite Ri GF fan fr ai Ad, OC auc. 1 0 fet wre B fee sweater cn BF ee sma Prom 3 wet ehh? M2 1 60° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) ste wh 42188. 140. ay 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 ‘The power of a water pump is 2 kW. If g =10m/sec?, the amount of water it can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m is W& Fa wy A awe 2 kW Bi AR g~10 m/sec? 2, A WW 1 fre ¥ 10m Sard we fern oe a1 aaa 87 {1} 2000 litres (2) 1000 fitres (3) 100 litres (4,120 litres A ring of radius R carries @ charge Q, uniformly distributed along its circumference. What is the ratio of the electric field strength at a distance R to that at a distance 4 along the axis? aT Ow Bee ko fen as mM ey fieka 8 age de dam a R same ove & Reem hl Rom Fw ae 5) 0) (2) @ 2) 8) w() When a current of 2A flows in a Dattely Wot Weyeive to positive terminal, the Potential difference across it is 12 V. Ifa current of 3 A flowing in the opposite direction produces a potential difference of 18°V, the exf. of the battery is watt 2 ah. 3 Fares fd A warts et 8, Aware 12 y We RS Se aga am 2) STU Bits & aoe fe F waite Wo 8, ah femme 16 V gm Aen 2) act a Rate we gor () 126V AIZ2V . @ 1s5V 4) 140¥ 43 ‘ Pra;17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 141. 142. 143. aa Five resistance each of 10 are connected as shown below. The equivalent resistance between points X and Y is Sich ese atthe PE xamry & da ger wide 109 “Ta (ly) 200 (2) 52 (3) Ba (4) 102 A plane electromagnetic wave, E, = 100 cos(6x 10%t+ 4x) Vin, propagating in a medium of dielectric constant is we age facia cream I cH age yea aT EZ, 2100 cos (6x10%t+ 4x)Vm* afer em (1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 35 (4) 40 An equilateral triangular loop is made up of wire of uniform resistance. A current I enters through one of the vertices of triangle and exists from other vertices of the triangle of side @ as shown in figure below. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of the equilateral triangle loop is a a fr pol 3V3uof Sy ato (3) Sot 5 YI ona Oona A sero 44144. 145. rc) 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 we war ately at a a ew aaa Aye aT aT a) we OT ye ow ot 3 sau sor 8 on it @ err ane Parmer 81 aaa ys & Sa K Gee aa wr ofom tr a a T Su ol 3¥Bp of 0 ee @ oa 8 a 4) A beam of natural light falis on @ system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such that the pare axie of each Polareid ie turned Unvugl: GO" with respect to the preceding one. The, frastion of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is 5 Ses & Fiera we UH pte ve suka t at ow & ar wE Auta 8 A wee ees Gov SMART BRT set A Ree a Ae sae Haat a are thn os i ote a Ye Qs *) o56 sp The power factor of the circuit as shown in the figure below is a8 fa we fr eee at ats oie eet X= 1000 © . R= 40 Hz (y02 @) og. ) 08 (4) 06 45 Pro)17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 146. 147, 148. an An NPN transistor having a.c. current gain of 50 is to be used to make an amplifier of power gain of 300. What will be the voltage gain of the amplifier? we NPN ZifRe Pra worl aT A 50 Ht 300 wis aa uteern & eT A sage Bra man i efterern ar fave i eM eT? (1) 8&5 (2) 6 8) 4 A} 3 The following network of gates is equivalent to fai mh te ar teak fra te ar Gee te th? a Y B (a) — 2 @ =p p> Calculate the equivalent capacitance between points A and B of the network for each capacitor is 2 F TTT TT cs adalah hl a 202 BF BAAR BL WSHIF 6) 268-UF 46149. 150, (17) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 () 2(14V3)pp (2) (W3-yF 8) W+yR 4) 2W3~1)F Con MH ah ae ts (oer Reem a 3m) 3 Tr ae . 11) 4-27%10"4 gen 2) 5x10" gee (3) 2-5x10°3 see 4) 3:2 1074 sec A radioactive nucleus Smits 3a-particles And Sf-nartinte~ my, Tatio of number of ‘utron to protons i Prottact wit-ty— Fon per 2 9 OH Sy aay 8 ae ae & sro a HOn Om set & sony ane ae ia (271 A~Z-12 = A~Zm19 Ar2~1) OTe @ Ak Ore Aska 47 Pro)181. 152. 153. 154. an wd Section—V av AGRICULTURE Pomegranate pelongs to farnily (1) Solanaceae (2) Cariaceae (3) Rosaceae percentage of vitamin A is higher in (1) carrot (2) tomato (Q) brinjal fret Reba A A afte at 8? (1). Tt : (2) SR a) a Etawah Pilot Project was started in the Year gear ort feta Pet at OE we 4) 1948 (2) 1950 4a) 1952 4) Lythraceae a) fet @) onion (4) ar (4) 1960 integrated Rural Development Programme (RDP) was jaunched in the year angen we fee aT (arbosmtediette) fa iF? rey) 4979 (2) 1975 (2) 1978 48 (4) 198017U 102/25 Set No. 1 160. 161. 162. 163. an ses gt Recto, wars, age eH SH HT (0) Bo wre Be Tarte 2) ato TH orn Fee (9) io tte Wie SITET (a) ate to tho fee Regional Rural Banik in India was established in the year ere % arate afi ae fa at eaite Fm wat? (iy 1970 (2) 1975 (3) 1980 (4) 1985 Which one of the following crops is suitable for light soils? ) Groundnut (2) Wheat (9) Maize (4) Rice tan aa oi eT RG RT TSE (ay greet 2) (3) 7 (4 TAR Which one of the following crops js not a pulse croP in India? (a) Oram (2) Soyabean (3) Rejmash (4) Pea pean a a STE NA TEA TE HE () = (2) aera @) wt {4) FE which one of the following States is the largest rice producer? a Odieh? (2) West Bengal (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh Pan A ae oe EES (a) site oy Ra at (3) ara (4) ot seu155, 156, 157, 158, 17U/ 102/25 Set No.1 (1) Odisha (2) Punjab (3) MP (4) up nie £9 wen om tt Sey (1). site (2) tore (3) Wests (4) Soe yay Open pollination takes Place in (1) paddy 2) maize (3) wheat (4) pea a weet TEM star 37 () an (2) ag. o 4) mex Which one of the following cropé is Amphidielgy Q) paddy (2) 8) wheat 4) pea Refer 2 3 aaa whore wae R? (1) (2) Re £9). (4) me {1) Dr. Ms. Swaminathan (2) Dr, RamRedan Singh (3) Dr. V. L. Chopra ) Dr. M. P. sinch : 49 Pro)164, 165, 166. 167, (17) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Phosphorus is present in DAP in the form of (1) phosphate (2) phosphoric acid (3) phosphaide (4} All of these Boueto H wea fea wr i omy ae t7 () siete Q) Bieette We 3) stems (4) arthes ant Early blight of potato is caused by (1) fungt (2) bacteria 13) virws —. .. (4) nematode sa, 4 arth sarge (arth seme) feats ara ater 3? (1) we (2) ery, (3) Peary 14) Phas Malformation discase is Cammen in. (1) banana (2) mango (3) guava (4} coconut fag (meetin) thr Ree safes oer wen 8? (1) er 2) 7 (3). 377g, (4) aR Molecular breeding helps Plant breeders ip. (1) improvement i (3) developing transgenter~ (4) None of these Sl (0)17U/ 102/25 Set No, 1 168. 169. 170. (ay saffaes sores (wifergen on) re sare BY Per we Tera wet 8 (1) Stefiva fret & geet (2) Bega ve fet war (3) Gate aA a (4) Ba a BE eT Khaira disease in rice is caused by (i) bacteria (2) zine deficiency (3) boron deficiency (4) fungus am & aq tn Be ae fet 87 (1) ster @ 2) fas ft ol a (3) St A wt a (4) wed a ‘Alternaria blight in mustard is caused by (1) bacteria (2) virus (3) fungus (4) nematode await wt iron (areerifen wae) fae cer aha 8? (1) Ferg 2 (2) Pray & (3) BRE A (4) Pads 8 Food prepared by leaves are transported to all parts of the plant by (1) xylem (2) phloem (3) parenchyma (4) phellogen ao gre ao et TA HA (ay ere (ER) TT (2) ware OT (3) eee GT @) Bete we 52171, 172. 173, 174, (27) 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 Which one of the following. is responsible for ripening of the fruits? {1) Ethylene (2) Ethanol (8) Acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid frafeins % & fara ao wet vet #7 0) Re go (2) ere gre (3) Gates ute ge (4) Refine we ger Golden rice is known for (1) high vitamin A . (2) high protein (3) high calcium (4) high zinc BRET ara (vids en) fw fe wear ara By (1) aren Perth a & fre (2) orton sire Re, (3) afte fre & fo, (4) afte Bas & Re Mallika is a variety of : (1) apple (2) mango. (3) dtehi- 4) papaya, ‘igen Rew wah 2 aA (2) 3m & (3) ahh & (4) Wt & Ifa gene from fisn mtroduced inte Hee, then this rice plant will be known as (9) etna: par: -Q) hybsid plant (3) double haploid plant — _ 4 trapsaenic plant 83 Pro,17U/102/25 Set No. 1 175. 176. 177. a7) a am & 8 # west a oth or fea aT, tae oR aT Sher a CTT? (1) sateifa tn 2) ar to (3) sat terms eT (4) area ter Crop belongs to Brassica juncea is (1) wheat (2) tice (3) mustard (4) yellow Sarson ar-at wae Riva siftar ania aren 8? (yA Qa 9) a (4) siete Which one of the following Indian Scientists was the Director General of “International Rice Research Institute’, Philippines? (1) Dr. B. P. Pal (2) Dr. M. 8. Swaminathan (3) Dr. R. S. Paroda (4) Dr. R. BL Singh. prafeter 7-2 a wete Ane ‘orate aes ogden dear’, Aes & wetaaars G7 (1) sie ate te Wa (2) Sto Wo We AMAET (3) fe aro Wo Teta (4) Sie aire the Re Mutation is: generally (1) recessive and harmful (2) dominant and harmful (@) dominant and useful (@) recessive and useful 54178. 179, 180, an 17U/102/25 Set No, 1 ‘sehada wea: Sen eter 2? (Q) sie ter grmts (2) sar cer yarrte (3) sure wer sett 4) art wr sath Who is regarded as father of hybrid rice? (1) G. J. Mendel (Q) Yuan Longping (3) RH Richheria (4) G. 8. Khush 3h Sa ST aH ATT aT 27 (1) sto Fo Ager (2) dana satin (8) Biko tee Renter (4) We Tito Igy Which one of the following. is known a8, powerhouse of the ceil? (1) Chromosome (2) Mitochondria {3) Ribosomes (4) Chloroplast Goatees 8 a ay site aT mere sete 8? (1) TREE (shia) (2), eng. Ren) (3) UR (4) Fetter Which one of the following is used as biofertilizer? (1) Rhizobium culture ~~ (2) Trichoderma (3) Azola- (4) Add ob-theae, . Reaferaa 3 8 as ie wre & ee a ope ataLfz (1) Tpit fear seat (2) arettent (3) arater 19) STR at 55 : (ro)17U/102/25 Set No. 1 181. 182. 183. 184. (17) Uracil is present in (1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Both (4) None of these waite feet ven wat 8? (1) ARoTHeTe (2) Sorrows @ at 4) a a ae ae Browning symptoms in cauliflower is due to deficiency of (1) boron (2) iron. (3) zine (4) molybdenum qed & yee ar Pest set a at 87 (yy arr (2) de (0) Fae (a) Hires “PGPR’ is concerned with (1) beneficial bacteria in plants (2) harmful bacteria in plants (Q) beneficial fungus in plants (4) harmful fungus in plants Sftosttodtosmne’ Fak wer! tara 27 (a) at 3 areas Stary @) te A geunee shang 3) dat aregas RA 4) thet i qrarte BEA Which one of the following can be grown. suitably as an intercrop with wheat? (1) Sugarcane (2) Pigeon pea (3) Potato (4) Mustard prafetan a ah AL a staat (qeerin) % ea A eT TH THT 27 wt 2) RR (3 STL @ 56185. 186. 187, 188. (a7 - 17U/102/25 Set No. 1 The Indian Agricultural Research Institute is located at (1) New Bethi (2) Hyderabad (3) Bengaluru (4) Lucknow undtt gf agden dem sel 8? (1) 7 Ret & (2) Seung # (3) ange (4) Term # Grasshopper belongs to Order (1) Lepidoptera (2) Orthoptera (3) Isoptera (4) Blattodea Reg fra at&t a sta 87 Q) after (2) aterer Joy ermptber—— py maha ‘SRI’ is a method of (2) paddy cultivation (2) rapesced cultivation (3) wheat cultivation (4) sugarcane cultivation ‘a fh BR RZ a (han a et) der haw A eee oR a at Aphid is a major problem of (1) wheat “ertimsrere— (3) pea (4) berley mel (afte) Pre eer aft ymas aag 87 (ye (2) wet Om 4) a 87 {P.T.G,)17U {102/25 Set No. 1 189. 190. 191. 192. (17) Triticun aestivum is the botanical name of (1) paddy (2) maize (3) wheat (4) jowar Pfam ofan firma arin aH 87 (1) oH (2) Fen @) (4) SR Neelam and Dasheri are the parents of varieties (1) Mallika and Amrapali (2) Mallika and Langra {3) Langra and Alphonso (4) Amrapali and Langra sfcmr wei weet amar fier Preit & weft 7 (1) agar ee are (2) afgan wa srs (3) HT US eTsTA @) Mor cing Ashirwad is the variety of (1) mustard (2) sesame (3} linseed (4) groundnut amfiatg far ware A fier 27 wy (2) fart (3) at (4) dase Which crop is being used as green manuring? (1) Sugarcane (2) Sesbania (3) Rice (4) Maize ack ore Ot ae & fae itr Hae (1) (2) = (3) wt (4) Wer 58193, 194, 195. 196, 197, a7 17U/ 102/25 Set No. 1 Which of the micronutrient is most Useful for enhancing oil content in mustard? (1) Zine (2) Sulphur (3) tron (4) Boron Rerfeea #8 eet qemee aul Fate wm age Hanah 87 (1) fae Q) wR (3) ster (4) aR How much’ percentage of protein is available in wheat grains? AC % wd A stds vita Bert Ba 8? (1) 9 to13 (2) 15 to 20 (3) 22 to 25 (4) 28 to 30 Which one of the following ‘rope helps in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into soils? (0) Maize (2) Rice (3) Rajmash (4) Sugarcane Sefer weet da aa ore Ht mpiecte saga ah went $7 (4) Feat (2) 7a 8) Wer. @\ Tt For reclamation of alkaline soil we use : () gypsum (2) time (3) urea (4) murate of potash anda oa gun 8g fee sein ae 7 . (1) Brom (2) 3) aan (4) "Re sits dem Range of correlation coefficient (r is (1) -c to too Q) -1t0 41 (3) Otol 4) toe ‘59 (Pray17U/102/25 Set No. 1 198. 199, 200, emer qui (r) a tH wR? (1) -0 F +0 (Q -14% 41 goal 4 1a2 ‘Pusa Nanha’ is a variety of which fruit? (1) mango (2) papaya (8) guava (4) coconut ‘gn oat fara we Ft vant 2 (1) oH (2) star (3) 3s (4) safes If number of treatments are 16, then what will be the treatment degree of ficedoin? wa debe A coon 16 8 a Pete fat os set eT ST” 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16 Emacculation in paddy is preferably done in (1) night (2} noon (3) morning (4) afternoon an 4 gegeer 7 afia art am 8? (uy a (2) Fe ) Te (4) aise ae tee 60 D/7(17}-21000aval & fee trea (ge alice sere ares ve Ten as A aE e Seaet tet ar ane aes OF FF fre) 1. ve yf fiat & 90 fre Sore Gta a fe vem a tt pe tag foot HE Te we 01 eer Seger eA Gem wars weft a THC oa RATT A amt yer a at SI a. wien wan 3 frown vita sear & orfifte, Ren ware ae A ge aT TA AA oa 3, BSCE Sem A een eT 1 FR 7 aD ate oP Rieger wR ge oo ae AF er arm, Het TT aa we yealen Pear ade 4, rer ange men sae es ar af em omega we Te Pres wT Cee 5. orem ae A orn agmais felis om we fed om a fea Tt A TH HT af-oct avers Oh add ae yfenar wr awison Ge we aT afer aH we fra 6. Ste Uo ame wa Tags dun, wegen er a Ae ren (ate ae) aH ee em SPAS To AR lo We Ske WA do al vfafist 4 weficrar at arg a Fy 7. canes Tod fad of ofeada ay fates ge oats dr aA ser ae eH oTyfan EH wh arr aM 8 sev-afirar veka wea & aw Safes ae RA WH 1 ede wer & dolore ger # Fe Tes! I om af mratre vir & ard RD Td Tw amy & ve yw we fet we eee gE 7 FH ae ty 9 wis we kaw SA aa a ae ew A ots Gi A Te FFT ae za 8 oi ra 0 ae oe ers aT TT to. cary fe ow we out gra sites sae ween ae a aT By aie ory fh eH aT gee el ot aed 2 a cafes fe amt fa a wh pH A ah ore 21 ta we oe ET oie RT aa Teme Fa wee ghee & gee & ore we we am sia ye aT an HI 12. The & aaa Fae aoyyeate save wie var Aor ae ar ts, veer FA AA A oe wher ae a oe oT aT ae wT eT 14. afe ate seal saa efae wR aT eT we ka ae freafarera oe Fase ee aaa, aver