ESE PRELIMS PAPER MOCK-1

PROJECT MANAGEMENT
1. Analytic approach follows which type of process _______.

(a) Working on the whole project

(b) Work break down the system

(c) Understand the whole component of the project at a time.

(d) Consider the environment of the project.

Explanation:

Option(b)

ANALYTIC APPROACH: Analytic approach is the use of an appropriate process to break

down a problem in necessary smaller pieces to solve it. Each piece becomes a smaller and
easier problem to solve.

2. You are the program level manager with several project activities underway. In the
executing process group, you begin to become concerned about the accuracy of progress
reports from the projects. What would BEST support your opinion that there is a problem?
(A) Quality Audits
(B) Risk Quantification Reports
(C) Regression Analysis
(D) Monte Carlo Analysis
EXPLANATION
OPTION (A) quality audits. If you read the second sentence again, it says that you are
concerned about the accuracy of progress reports from the project. In order to check whether
the standards of your organization have been applied in the projects that you are responsible
of, you can conduct a quality audit and find out whether there is really a problem. Therefore,
here the best answer is A, Quality Audits.
3.The earliest date and the latest date of events 3 and 10 are given in the figure below.
Activity E is connecting both the events and its duration is 10 weeks. The independent float
of the activity is

(a) 5 weeks

(b) 10 weeks

(c) 15 weeks

(d) 20 weeks

Explanation:

Option(a)

Independent Float:

4. At what stage in the project life cycle would costs be the lowest?
(a) Concept
(b) Development
(c) Implementation
(d) Close out
Cost and staffing level are low at the start of the project.

5.The qualitative analysis of demand forecasting is-

(a) Jury opinion, Delphi, weighted moving average.
(b) Collective opinion survey, exponential smoothing method, Delphi.
(c) Survey of customer intention, collective opinion survey, moving average.
(d) Jury opinion, Delphi, nominal group techniques.
Explanation:

Option(d)

Qualitative techniques:

1. Jury opinion
2. Delphi technique
3. Nominal group techniques
4. Collective opinion survey
5. Survey of customer intention
Quantitative techniques:

1. Simple average method

2. Moving average method
3. Weighted moving average method
4. Regression

6.If ‘a’ is the optimistic time, ‘b’ is the pessimistic time, and ‘m’ is most likely
time of an activity, then what is the expected time of activity?

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)
Explanation:

Option(c)

7.Consider the following statements associated with the critical path:

1. Critical path is the most important sequence of activities which has no
float and which determines the project completion period.
2. Critical path is the largest path with shortest duration within which the
project can be completed.
3. The difference between early start time and late finish time must be equal
to the activity duration.
Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
Explanation:

Option(a)
In project management, a critical path is the sequence of project network
activities which add up to the longest overall duration, regardless if that longest
duration has a float or not. This determines the shortest time possible to complete
the project.

8.SWOT analysis stands for

(a) Strength, weakness, opportunities, and threats
(b) Strength, weakness, opportunities, and treatment
(c) Strength, weakness, out and threats
(d) Strength, weakness, opportunities and task
Explanation:

Option(a)

Strength, weakness, opportunities and threats

9.What is triple constraints of project according to the Dr. Martin Brane’s

(a) Quality, performance, time

(b) Performance, cost, time

(c) Performance, people, time

(d) Quality, cost, time

Explanation:

Option(d)

Basically, the Triple Constraint states that the success of the project is impacted by its
budget, deadlines and features.

Cost: The financial constraints of a project, also known as the project budget

Quality: The tasks required to fulfill the project’s goals

Time: The schedule for the project to reach completion

Environment

10.Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) in river water

(a) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
(b) Remains unchanged when an algal bloom occurs
(c) Has no relationships with the concentration of oxygen in the water
(d) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water
Explanation:

Option(a)

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) represents the amount of oxygen

consumed by bacteria and other microorganisms while they decompose
organic matter under aerobic (oxygen is present) conditions at a specified
temperature.
When you look at water in a lake the one thing you don't see is oxygen. In a
way, we think that water is the opposite of air, but the common lake or stream
does contain small amounts of oxygen, in the form of dissolved oxygen.

11. Which of the following level possess the greatest amount of free energy?

(a) Decomposers
(b) Secondary Consumers
(c) Producers
(d) Tertiary Consumers
Explanation:

Option(c)

With each successive trophic level energy is being lost. So, at the producer level
the energy is maximum.

12. Consider the following statements with regard to atmospheric humidity:

(1) Absolute humidity is the amount of water vapor per unit volume.

(2)A hygrometer is used to measure relative humidity.

(3) The dew point is the temperature at which the relative humidity is 75%.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 1&3 only
(c) 2&3 only
(d) 1,2,3
Explanation:

Option(a)

Absolute humidity is the measure of the water vapor in the air, regardless of
temperature. It is expressed as grams of moisture per cubic meter of air.

A hygrometer is an instrument that measures relative humidity.

The dew point is the temperature at which a given sample of air will have a
relative humidity of 100 %; hence, the saturation temperature.

13. Which of the following statements regarding Coral Reefs in India is/are
correct?

(1) All three types of coral reefs Atoll, Fringing and Barrier found in India.

(2) Coral reefs are built by and made up of thousands of tiny animals.

(3) Coral reefs formed in segregated forms; they do not combine together.

(a) 1&2
(b) 1&3
(c) 2&3
(d) 1,2,3
Explanation:

Option(a)

Coral reefs are diverse underwater ecosystems held together by Calcium

Carbonate structures secreted by corals.

Coral reefs are built by colonies of tiny animals found in marine water that
contains few nutrients.
Most coral reefs are built from stony corals, which in turn consists of polyps that
cluster in groups.

14. Tropical orchids use trees or their branches for support without harm or
benefit to the tree is an example of:

(a) Commensalism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Ammensalism
(d) Competition
Explanation:

Option(a)

Mutualism { +,+}

Commensalism{+,0}

Ammensalism{-,0}

Parasitism {+, -}

+ indicates benefit

- indicates loss

0 indicates unaffected

15. Which among the following is the coldest layer of Earth’s atmosphere?

(a) Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Ionosphere
Explanation:

Option(a)
Directly above the stratosphere, 50 to 80km above the earth’s surface, the
mesosphere is a cold layer where the temperature generally decreases with
increasing altitude.

16. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ecological Pyramid?
(a) Pyramid of number can be either upright or inverted.

(b) Pyramid of biomass is always upright.

(c) Pyramid of energy can be either upright or inverted.

(d) All of the above

Explanation:

Option(a)

Types of ecological pyramids:

1. Pyramids of number
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy

Pyramid of energy are always upright.

Pyramid of biomass and number can be upright or inverted.

17.

Which waste management technique involves the use of organisms to remove

or neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site?

(a) Bio reduction

(b) Biomagnification

(c) Bioremediation

(d) Bio methanation

Explanation:

Option (c)
Bioremediation: the use of either naturally occurring or deliberately introduced
microorganisms or other forms of life to consume and break down environmental
pollutants, in order to clean up a polluted site.

18. Consider the following statements regarding International Renewable Energy

Agency (IRENA):

1. IRENA promotes the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable
energy, including geothermal energy

2. USA has recently withdrawn its membership from the organization.

3. It is headquartered at Abu Dhabi, UAE

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Option(c)

The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is an intergovernmental

organization that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future,
and serves as the principal platform for international cooperation

The agency is headquartered in Masdar City, Abu Dhabi

19. Which one of the following Greenhouse gases is used to compare Global Warming
Potential (GWP) of other gases?

(a) Methane

(b) Carbon dioxide

(c) Nitrous oxide

(d) Water vapor

Explanation:

Option(B)

The Global Warming Potential (GWP) was developed to allow comparisons of the global
warming impacts of different gases. Specifically, it is a measure of how much energy the
emissions of 1 ton of a gas will absorb over a given period of time, relative to the emissions
of 1 ton of carbon dioxide (CO2).

20. Which of the following fuels is usually produced by Steam Reforming Process?
(a) Uranium

(b) Charcoal

(c) Hydrogen

(d) P-series fuel

Explanation:

Option (c)

Steam methane reforming is the most widely used process for the generation of hydrogen.
This is largely due to its cost-effectiveness in obtaining a high level of purity in its produced
hydrogen. The hydrogen obtained from SMR can be used in industrial processes and in fuel
cells because of its purity.

SAFETY, DESIGN & DRAWING

21.Fault-tree analysis (FTA)

(a) can only provide qualitative results.
(b) is a bottom-up risk analysis tool
(c) is a top-down risk analysis tool.
(d) ensures that all possible failures are considered
Explanation
Option (c)
Fault Tree Analysis is a top-down, deductive analysis which visually depicts a failure
path or failure chain.
 22.A-cylinder rests on H.P. on one of its points of the base which is inclined to HP
and perpendicular to VP. The ends of the cylinder in the top view will appear as
(a) a circle (b) an ellipse
(c) a straight (d) a point
Explanation
Option (b) For vertical cylinder the front and top view: -

23. Which of the following is NOT an element of fire triangle?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Heat

(c) Fuel

(d) Flame

Explanation

Option(d)

Fire Triangle
24.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. Type A is preferred over type B of lettering since no. Of divisions of height in type, A
lettering is more of than that of type B.

II. Vertical letters are preferred over sloped letters because of easy execution.

III. The line width of type A lettering is always less than that of type B lettering.

(a) Only I

(b) II and III

(c) I and III

(d) All

Explanation

Option(b)

Type B is preferred over type A because of the division of height.

Lettering type A: Height of the capital letter is divided into 14 equal parts.

Lettering type B: Height of the capital letter is divided into 10 equal parts.

25. Assertion: Triangulation development is used to develop transition pieces.

Reason: Triangulation development is simply a method of dividing a surface into a number

of triangles and transferring them into the development.
 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation

Option(b) Triangular Development: This is used to develop transition pieces. This is simply a
method of dividing a surface into a number of triangles and transferring them into the
development.

26.The commands Erase, Copy, Mirror, Trim, Extend, Break etc. belongs to which toolbar?
(a)Layer toolbar
(b)Style toolbar
(c) Modify tool bar
(d) Draw tool bar
Explanation

Option(c)
Explanation: The commands Erase, Copy, Mirror, Trim, Extend, Break, Join, Scale, Array etc.
belongs to ‘Modify tool bar’. The commands Donut, Block, Spline, Hatch, Rectangle, Ellipse,
Polygon, and Arc etc. belong to ‘Draw tool bar’.

27.A curve generated by a point fixed to circle (within or outside its circumference, but in the
same plane) rolling on the outside of another circle is
(a) Epicycloid
(b) Hypocycloid
(c) Hypotrochoid
(d) Epitrochoid
Explanation
Option(d)
Epitrochoid is a curve generated by a point fixed to circle (within or outside its circumference,
but in the same plane) rolling on the outside of another circle.
Epicycloid is the curve generated by a point on the circumference of a circle, which rolls
without slipping along another circle outside it.
28. A line segment AB has its end ‘A’ 20 mm above HP and 30 mm in front of VP. This line is
inclined at 60 degree to HP and parallel to VP. If the plan length is 25 mm, the true length of
the line AB is
(a) 25 mm
(b) 30 mm
(c) 50 mm
(d) 75 mm
Explanation

Option(c)

Plan length, PL = 25 mm
Cos 60 = PL / TL = 25/TL
TL = 25/ cos 60 = 25/ (1/2) =50 mm

29.
A cone resting on its base on the H.P. is cut by a section plane parallel to the V.P. and has its
sectional front view as

(a) ellipse

(b) parabola

(c) rectangular hyperbola

(d) semi-circle

Explanation:

Option©

30. One solution to the problem of how you can gain the cost benefits of standardization
without losing the market advantages of product variety is

(a) Design for robustness

(b) Quality Function Deployment

(c) Process Planning

(d) Modular Design

Explanation:

Option(d)

The issue is how can you maintain the benefits of standardized parts without losing flexibility
in larger product variety. Modular design, or "modularity in design", is a design approach that
subdivides a system into smaller parts called modules or skids, that can be independently
created and then used in different systems. Modular design is common in the electronics and
automobile industries as a way of producing a wide variety of products from a set of
standardized modules.

31.. What does EPP stand for?

(a) Employee's Power Parity

(b) Emergency Preparation Planning

(c) Emergency Preparedness Plan

(d) Empowering Physical Power

Explanation:

Option(c)

EPP stands for Emergency Preparedness Plan

STANDARDS & QUALITY

32. Any cost arising out of claim of customer regarding a defective product within
its guarantee period should be included in

(a) Appraisal Cost

(b) Cost of internal failure

(c) Cost of external failure

(d) Calibration cost

Explanation:

Option(c)

Appraisal Cost: these are the cost to determine conformance with quality
standards.

Cost of internal failure: when the results of work fail to reach the required
quality standards and are detected before transfer to the customer takes place.

Cost of external failure: external failure costs include costs associated with
returned products, unhappy customers, warranty claims, processing of
customer complaints.

33. Which is not the main component of Quality Management?

(a) Quality improvement

 (b) Quality assurance
(c) Quality audit
(d) Total quality cost
Explanation:

Option(d)

Total quality cost

34. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. ISO 9000 - Fundamental concepts and road map guideline standard.

2. ISO 9001 - Requirements standard for quality assurance.

3. ISO 9004-Quality management guideline standard.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Option(d)

35. Which of the following will not lead to total productive maintenance?
(a) Planned maintenance (b) Reactive maintenance
(c) Integrated approach (d) Continuous improvement
Explanation
Option(b)

36.
Match the following:
A. Re-inspection and investigation
B. Handling of return items
C. Quality planning
D. Cost of materials and supplies used in the inspection
1. Appraisal cost
2. Internal failure cost
3. External failure cost
4. Prevention cost
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
Explanation
Option(a)
Re-inspection and investigation cost come under the internal failure cost.
When a product is returned because they are not acceptable then in addition to the cost of
the replacement cost of handling comes under external failure cost.
Quality planning cost incurred in pre-production activities comes under prevention cost.
The cost of materials and suppliers used in inspection comes under appraisal cost.

37.Trend analysis is often performed using

(a) Cause and effect diagram (b) Control charts
(c) Pareto charts (d) Run chart
Explanation
Option(d)
The run chart shows the past pattern of variation, trend analysis involves forecasting the
future trend based on past performance.

38.Which of the following are among 14 principles of Deming’s quality concept?

I. Consistency of purpose is a must for continual improvement of the product.
II. Continuous change and innovation is a must for survival.
III. Numerical targets and work standards may affect quality.
IV. Lowest price should not be the criteria for selecting a supplier.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II
(c) II, III (d) I, II, III and IV
Explanation
Option(d)

W. EDWARDS DEMING’S 14 POINTS

1. Create constancy of purpose for improving products and services.

2. Adopt the new philosophy.
3. Cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
4. End the practice of awarding business on price alone; instead, minimize total cost by
working with a single supplier.
5. Improve constantly and forever every process for planning, production and service.
6. Institute training on the job.
7. Adopt and institute leadership.
8. Drive out fear.
9. Break down barriers between staff areas.
10. Eliminate slogans, exhortations and targets for the workforce.
11. Eliminate numerical quotas for the workforce and numerical goals for management.
12. Remove barriers that rob people of pride of workmanship, and eliminate the annual
rating or merit system.
13. Institute a vigorous program of education and self-improvement for everyone.
14. Put everybody in the company to work to accomplish the transformation.

38. Value is usually considered as a relationship between

(a) Utility and cost
(b) Profit and cost
(c) Psychology and reliability
(d) Appearance and utility
Explanation
Option(a)
Value = function/ cost
Function is also the utility of the product.

39.Which of the following methodology was devised in Motorola in the year 1987 to track
and compare performance against customer’s requirements and to achieve near-perfect
quality?
(a) TQM (b) Kaizen
(c) Six Sigma (d) Control Charts
Explanation
Option(c)
The Six Sigma methodology was born in 1987 in Motorola’s communication sector as an
approach to track and compare performance against customer requirements, and to achieve
the ambitious target of near-perfect six sigma quality, in the products produced.

40.Read the following statement and select the correct options.

1. Failure cost increases with a decrease in a number of defective products.
2. Cost of appraisal and prevention increase as the quality improves
3. Cost ratio is defined as the ratio of total quality cost to the overall cost of
operation.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
Explanation
Option (c)
Failure cost increases when increase in number of defective products.
 41. The aims of the quality circle activities are
1. Contribution to improvement and development of the enterprise
2. Respect of human relations and build a happy workshop
3. Partial deployment of human capabilities and draw out finite potential
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Explanation
Option (a)
The aim of quality circle includes the full deployment of human capabilities and
draw out infinite potential.

42. Which of the following is responsible for the management of small six
sigma/quality improvement projects?
(a) Black Belt (b) Green Belt
(c) Yellow Belt (d) None of the above
Explanation
Option (b)
Six sigma green belts are project leaders capable of forming and facilitating Six
Sigma teams and managing Six Sigma projects from concept to completion. The
Six Sigma Green Belt operates in support of or under the supervision of a Six
Sigma Black Belt, analyzes and solves quality problems and is involved in quality
improvement projects.

ETHICS
43. Which of the following are the "ethical" issues related to "Media" in India?
1.Paid News
2.Yellow journalism
3. Media trial
4. Advocacy
Correct Answer Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) All of the above
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Explanation:
Option(a)
Advocacy is the positive work of media, like raising demands of the people who are not able
to do so.

Yellow journalism- newspaper reports that are written in an exaggerated way in

order to shock the readers

44. Consider the following statements.

1. Utilitarianism justifies absence of socially conscious policies for few.
2. Theory of justice believes inequity as a principle
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a)Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) None of the above
Explanation:
Option(a)
Utilitarians believe in “Maximum happiness for the maximum number” so is always leaves out
few people out of the benefit.
Justice believes in serving people according to their needs, hence it is based on equity.

45. What are the ethical issues involved in nuclear proliferation?

(a) It is a threat to human existence.
(b) It diverts a huge amount of money towards non-developmental activity.
(c) It creates inequality in the global order.
(d) It promotes a mad race for more armament.
Explanation:
Option(a)
This is the biggest ethical issue.

46. Plato's virtues can be explained as:

(a) Wisdom, courage, self-control & justice
(b) Confidence, Motivation & control
(c) Happiness, goodness & love
 (d) Wisdom, confidence, happiness and justice
Explanation:
Option(a)

In Plato’s Republic, the four cardinal virtues are wisdom, temperance, courage and justice.
These reflect the nature of the soul.

47. Which of the following is/are a relevant factor (s) in interpersonal skills?
1. Positive attitude
2. Preparedness to listen
3. Ability to manage emotions
Correct Answer Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Explanation:
Option(d)
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Ethics and morality have same meaning.
2. Ethics helps us to decide what is right and wrong.
3. Ethics is just a theoretical aspect of philosophy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
Explanation
Option(D)
Ethics and Morals relate to “right” and “wrong” conduct. While they are sometimes
used interchangeably, they are different: ethics refer to rules provided by an external
source, e.g., codes of conduct in workplaces or principles in religions. Morals refer to an
individual’s own principles regarding right and wrong.

49.Which of the following is not a moral value?

(a) Honestly (b) Fairness
(c) Respect (d) None
Explanation
 Option (d)
These are moral values: Respect, Family, Adjusting and Compromising, Helping
Mentality, Respecting Religion, Justice, Honesty, Never Hurt Anyone, Cultivate Love
for Education

50.Whistle blowing is:

(a) exposure of abuses for personal interests
(b) exposure of abuses for protecting public interest
(c) exposure of abuses for organizational gains
(d) exposure of abuses as an act of vengeance
Explanation
Option(b)
Whistle-blowing is the act of telling the authorities or the public that the organization
you are working for is doing something immoral or illegal.

51. Emotional resonance is feeling the other’s pain.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Option(d)
Compassion literally means “to suffer together.” Among emotion researchers, it is defined
as the feeling that arises when you are confronted with another’s suffering and feel motivated
to relieve that suffering.
Empathy is the capacity to understand or feel what another person is experiencing
from within their frame of reference, that is, the capacity to place oneself in another's
position.
Emotion recognition is the process of identifying human emotion, most typically from
facial expressions as well as from verbal expressions.
Emotion Resonance is “I feel your pain”, and can be of two types: identical resonance –
realizing that someone else is in pain and then actually feeling the pain yourself or
reactive resonance – when you sympathize with someone else’s pain and feel inclined to help
(source: Ekman’s taxonomy of compassion)

52. Trademark
(a) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those
of others
(b) Is represented graphically
(c) May includes shapes of goods or a combination of colors.
(d) All of the above.
Explanation
Option(d)
 A trademark is typically a name, word, phrase, logo, symbol, design, image, or a
combination of these elements. There is also a range of non-conventional
trademarks comprising marks which do not fall into these standard categories, such as those
based on color, smell, or sound.

53. The characteristics of human resources are in nature

(a) homogeneous

(b) heterogeneous

(c) ductile

(d) None of the above

Explanation:

Option(b)

The characteristics of human resources are heterogeneous in nature. Human Resource

Management is a process and philosophy of acquisition, development, utilization, and
maintenance of competent human force to achieve the goals of an organization in an
efficient and effective manner.

54. What is the difference between attitude and aptitude?

(a) Aptitude is the character of a person whereas attitude is related to competence.

(b) Attitude is related to character, whereas aptitude attitude is related to competence.

(c) Attitude is a skill; aptitude is the habit.

(d) None of the above

Explanation:

Option(b)

Difference between attitude & aptitude:

1.While attitude is a positive /negative/indifferent feeling towards a person, object, event or

idea; aptitude is a competency to do certain kinds of work. Both attitude and aptitude can be
nurtured.

2.While attitude is associated with character or virtues; aptitude is associated with

competence.
3.While attitude underpins the character, virtues and moral values; aptitude determines if
the person would develop desired skills to do a task.

4.While attitude is only mental; aptitude is both mental and physical.

55. What is the meaning of "normative ethics"?

(a) It deals with the real-life situations.

(b) It deals with what should be, the ideal norms.

(c) It deals with the meaning of the terms associated with ethics.

(d) It deals with the psychology of the decision-makers.

Explanation:

Option(b)

Normative ethics is the study of ethical action. It is the branch of philosophical ethics that
investigates the set of questions that arise when considering how one ought to act, morally
speaking.

56. Who amongst the following is most corrupt?

(a) One who asks bribe for performing official duties.

(b) One who asks bribe for not performing official duties.

(c) One who provides the wrong information to the public.

(d) One who works for self-interest.

Explanation:

Option(c)

All the first three are current, but providing wrong information will do bigger damage to the
public interest.

57. Consider the following statements with respect to the code of ethics for engineers given
by NSPE (National Society of Professional Engineers).

1. Avoidance of deceptive acts.

2. Act for each employer or client as faithful

agents or trustees.

3. Performing services not only in the areas

of their competence but other areas also.

4. Issue public statements subjectively.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1,2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Option(a)

Code of Ethics for Engineers

Fundamental Canons
Engineers, in the fulfillment of their professional duties, shall:

1. Hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public.

2. Perform services only in areas of their competence.
3. Issue public statements only in an objective and truthful manner.
4. Act for each employer or client as faithful agents or trustees.
5. Avoid deceptive acts.
6. Conduct themselves honorably, responsibly, ethically, and lawfully so as to enhance the
honour, reputation, and usefulness of the profession.

ICT

58. The acronym SMART in the word 'SMART Governance' stands for

(a) Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive and Transparent.

(b) Simple, Moral, Accessible, Responsive and Transparent.

(c) Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive and Transforming.

(d)Simple, Moral, Accountable, Representative and Transparent.

Explanation:

Option (a)

SMART: Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive and Transparent.

Smart governance or good governance are two sides of the same coin. The use of the internet
and digital technology is creating a progressive government- public partnership,
strengthening government institutions and integrating all sections of society.

59. Which one of the following is a cross-platform free and open-source software for the
design of steel structures created under Free and Open Source Software in

Education?

(a) Python

(b) DWSIM

(c) Osdag

(d) OR-TOOLS

Explanation:

Option (c)

Osdag is a cross-platform free and open-source software for the design (and detailing) of steel
structures. It allows the user to design steel connections, members and systems using a
graphical user interface. The interactive GUI provides a 3D visualization of the designed
component and creates images for construction/fabrication drawings. The design is typically
optimized following industry best practices.

60. Government-of India has created a virtual agriculture market because

(a) The Government wants to make a common market at Delhi as centre and

the nodal market for the procurement of 22 food grains

(b) The Government wants to make a common platform to invite digital

innovation applications in the field of agriculture

(c) The Government wants to make a common electronic platform which will

allow farmers to sell their produce to buyers, anywhere in the country

(d)None of the above.

Explanation:

Option (c)

The Government wants to make a common electronic platform which will allow farmers to
sell their produce to buyers, anywhere in the country. The Centre has set aside Rs. 200 Crore
for the creation of this National Agriculture Market online trading portal. The platform was
launched on April 14 and will tackle the problem of distress selling. It aims to connect 585
mandis in the country

61. Which one of the following threats is NOT covered under M-KAVACH?

(a) Mis-utilization of hardware resources

(b) Physical thefts

(c) Malicious applications

(d) Physical damage

Explanation:

Option (d)

M-Kavach is a comprehensive mobile device security solution for Android devices addressing
various threats related to mobile phones. It addresses threats related to misuse of resources
such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, Camera & Mobile Data by preventing unauthorized access to these
resources and protects against JavaScript Malware. Users can restrict access to critical
applications like mobile wallets, media apps, etc. and also block unwanted Calls & SMS. It also
helps the users in tracking SIM card changes on the device in case of device loss/theft and
provides an option to remotely wipe Contacts/Call-Logs & Factory Reset the device

62. Consider the following statements about Optical Mark Recognizer (OMR):

1. It can read marks written in pen or pencil

2. The position of the marks is stored in computer.

Which of the above statements is/are CORRECT?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Option(c)

Short for optical mark reading or optical mark recognition, OMR is the process of gathering
information from human beings by recognizing marks on a document.

Q.63. A computer hardware device much like an ordinary printer that is used for printing
vector graphics is known as

(a) 3-D Printer

(b) Laser Printer

(c) Plotter

(d) None of the above

Explanation:

Option (c)

A plotter is a computer printer for printing vector graphics. Plotters draw pictures on paper
using a pen.

Q.64. Which one of the following is NOT an example of a System Software?

(a) Compiler

(b) Linker

(c) Operating System

(d)Word Processor

Explanation:

Option(d)

Word Processor is an example of Application Software.

Q.65. Which one of the following is a malware detection technique which is used to isolate
malware from critical programs on infected devices and provides an extra layer of security?

(a) Hyper-Threading

(b) Subnet Masking

(c) Erasers

(d) Sandboxing

Explanation:

Option (d)

Sandboxing is a computer security term referring to when a program is set aside from other
programs in a separate environment so that if errors or security issues occur, those issues will
not spread to other areas on the computer.

Q.66. A computer device that captures images from photographic prints, posters,

magazine pages, and similar sources for computer editing and the display is known as

(a) Printer

(b) Scanner

(c) Photocopier

(d) Web-cams

Explanation:

Option (b)

A scanner is a device that captures images from photographic prints, posters, magazine pages,
and similar sources for computer editing and display

Q.67. Consider the following statements about Sugamya Pustakalaya Scheme:

1. It is an online platform that makes accessible content available to print- disabled people.

2. It has been created by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities.

3. It is formed in collaboration with member organizations of the Daisy Forum of India and
powered by TCS Access.

Which of the above statements is CORRECT?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Option (d)

Sugamya Pustakalaya” is an online platform that makes accessible content

available to print-disabled people. The library houses publications across diverse
subjects and languages and multiple accessible formats. It has been created by
the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan),
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in collaboration with member
organizations of Daisy Forum of India and powered by TCS Access.

MATERIAL SCIENCE
68. Consider the following crystallographic planes (shaded) using a cube of size
'an' as shown in the diagram

Which one of the following gives miller indices of the above plane?

(a) (100)

(b) (110)
(c) (101)

(d) (001)

Option(b)

69. A polycrystalline material always contains

(a) Crystals of different chemical composition

(b) Crystallites of the same composition but different structures

(c) Crystallites with different orientations

(d) None

Option(c)

70. Consider the following statements:

In a Hall effect experiment, the sign of Hall voltage will change if:

1. the only direction of the applied current is changed.

2 only direction of the applied magnetic field is changed.

3. direction of both applied electric current and magnetic fields are

changed.

Which of the above statement(s) /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option(c)
71. For a family of directions in the unit cell, which of the following must be
same?

(a) Same planar density

(b) Same linear density

(c) Same planar and linear density

(d) None of the above

Option(b)

Explanation: - same linear density

72. What is the correct composition of German Silver?

(a) 50-60% Copper, 21-30% Nickel and 17-19% Zinc

(b) 50-60% Nickel, 21-30% Copper and 17-19% Zinc

(c) 50-60% Nickel, 21-30% Zinc and 17-19% Copper

(d) 50-60% Zinc, 21-30% Copper and 17-19% Nickel

Option(a)

73.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the ionic bond.

(a) These are directional in nature

(b) These are non-directional in nature

(c) These are not brittle

(d) These are ductile

Option(b)

Explanation: - These are non-directional in nature

74. Which of the statement is/are correct regarding electron affinity of the
atom

1.Inert gases has no affinity for an extra electron

2. Halogens are just one electron short to achieve the stable inert gas
configuration

3. When extra electron added to a neutral atom, there is a weakening of the

repulsion of electrons to the nucleus.

(a) 1,2

(b) 1,3

(c) 2,3

(d) All

Option(a)

Explanation: - Inert gases has no affinity for an extra electron.

75. Which of the following statements are true regarding nimonic alloy?
1. Nimonic alloys consist of nickel more than 50% and chromium 20% with

additives such as titanium and aluminum.

2. These are high-temperature low creep superalloys.

3. These alloys cannot be used in gas turbine components

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Option (a)

Nimonic alloys refer to a family of nickel-based high-temperature low creep superalloys.

Nimonic alloys consist of more than 50% nickel and 20% chromium with additives such as
titanium and aluminum. These alloys are mainly used in gas turbine components and high-
performance reciprocating internal combustion engines.

Q.76. Which of the following steel is used for making bulldozer tip?

(a) High Carbon Steel

(b) Inconel

(c) Rimmed Steel

(d) Hadfield Steel

Explanation:

Option (d)

Steel with 12% manganese is exceptionally very strong and known as Hadfield steel.

Q.77. Which of the following is/are true for fibers in composite material?

1. For most of the materials, a small diameter fiber is weaker than the bulk metal.

2. Materials that are classified as fiber are either polycrystalline or amorphous.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Option(b)
For most materials a small diameter fiber is much stronger than the bulk material. The
probability of the presence of a critical surface flaw that can lead to fracture diminishes with
decreasing specimen volume.

Q.78. What will happen if a fully filled can of soda is placed in the freezer?

(a) The level of fluid in the can after freezing decreases

(b) It may explode in the freezer.

(c) There will be no effect after freezing of fluid in bottle

(d) The can of soda shrinks in the freezer.

Explanation:

Option (b)

After the freezing volume of water increases, around 9%, Hence soda can may explode in
the freezer.

ENGINEERING APTITUDE
79. A boatman can bow certain distance downstream in 2hrs and upstream the
same distance in 3hrs. If the stream flows at the rate of 4km/hr. Find the speed
of the boat in still water?

(a) 35km/hr.
(b) 8km/hr.
(c) 6km/hr.
(d) 20km/hr.
Explanation:

Option(d)

Stream speed =4 km/hr.

Let boat speed = B km/hr.

Downstream speed= B+4

Upstream speed = B-4

Downstream time = 2hr

Upstream time = 3hr

Because distance same for upstream and downstream

(B+4) *2=(B-4) *3

2B+8= 3B-12

B= 20km/hr.

80.Find the no. of sides of polygon in which the no. Of diagonals are 27.

(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 7
Explanation:

Option(b)

For a polygon having ‘n’ no. Of sides,

No. Of diagonal =

27= {n(n-3)}/2

54= n(n-3)

No. Of sides, n =9

81. How many three digits numbers can be generated from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 such that
the digits are in ascending order.

(a) 9

(b)9C3
(c) 9P3

(d) 81

Explanation:

Option(b)

Minimum no. By using three digits in ascending order: 123

Maximum no. By using three digits in ascending order: 789

In this way minimum no. In the ten’s place is 2

maximum no. In the ten’s place is 8

In the given below the underline digits indicates how many ways the particular place can be
filled.

127= 1*7=7

236= 2*6=12

345= 3*5=15

454= 4*4=16

563= 5*3=15

672= 6*2=12

781=7*1=7

Total No. Which one in ascending order are 84.

Q82. The product of three numbers is 1620. If the H.C.F of any two out of three number is 3,

what is their L.C.M?

(a) 180

(b) 240

(c) 360

(d) 480

Explanation:
Option(a)

Let the numbers are 3a,3b,3c

3a*3b*3c= 1620

ABC=1620/27

LCM = 3abc=3*(1620/27)

LCM = 180

Q83. Four milkmen rented a pasture. A grazed 18 Cows for 4 months, and B 25 cows for 2
months, C 28 cows for 5 months and D 21 cows for 3 months. If A's share of rent is Rs. 360,
the total rent of the field (in rupees) is:

(a) 1,500

(b) 1,600

(c) 1,625

(d) 1,650

Explanation:

Option(c)

Ratio of rent shared = 18x4: 25x2 :28x5 :21x3

=72: 50: 140: 63

Let A’s share be 72x,

72x = 360

X= 5

Hence total rent of the field = 72x +50x + 140x + 63x

= 360+250+700+315

= 1,625(in rupees)
84. 8 men and 3 women finished a piece of work in 8 days. 2 men and 12 women can finish
the same work in 8 days. How many days will 6 men and 6 women take to finish the same
work?

(a) 10 days

(b) 6 days

(c) 8 days

(d) 5 days

Explanation:

Option(c)

(8M + 3W)8 = (2M +12W)8 = TOTAL WORK

2M = 3W

TOTAL WORK = (2M + 12W)8

= (3W + 12W)8

= 120W

6M AND 6W ONE DAY WORK = 6M+6W

6(3/2W) +6W=15W

6W AND 6M WILL TAKE =120W/15W =8DAYS

85. A person invested a total of Rs 39000 in their different schemes of Post Office
offering simple interest at 2%, 3% and 4% per annum. At the end of the year, he
received the same interest in all three cases. The money invested at 3% is?
(a) Rs 13000 (b) Rs 12000
(c) Rs 17000 (d) Rs 16000
Explanation
Option (b)
Let the amount invested at 2%, 3%, and 4% be Rs y and Rs z resp.
Now as per question, received the same interest.
(x*2*1)/100 = (y*3*1)/100 = (z*4*1)/100
2x=3y=4z
x: y: z= 6:4:3
 Therefore, money invested at 3% is
(4/13) *39000 = 12000

86. A jar full of whiskey contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whiskey is replaced
by another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found
to be 26%. The quantity of whiskey replaced is:
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3
(c) 2/5 (d) 3/5
Explanation
Option(b)
We have: strength of first jar strength of 2nd jar

So, ratio of 1st and 2nd quantities = 7:14 = 1:2

Required quantity replaced = 2/3

87. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at interval of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
s respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together?
(a) 4 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 16
Explanation
Option(d)
LCM of 2,4, 6,8,10,12 = 120
Bells will toll together after every 120s, i.e., 2minutes
In 30 minutes, they will toll together (30/2) +1 = 16 times.

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

88. Using trapezoidal rule, the area bounded by the x-axis, lines x = 1, x = 5 and
the curve that passes through the following points is

x 1 2 3 4 5

y 10 50 70 80 100
(a) 255

(b) 250

(c) 260

(d) 510

Explanation:

Option(a)

89. Particular integral (PI) solution for differential equation

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
Explanation:

Option(c)

90. In Taylor's series expansion of sins about z= 0, coefficient of z2 is

(a) 1

(b) 2!

(c) 0

(d)1/2!

Explanation:

Option(c)

91. The partial differential equation formed from z=a2x + ay2 +b is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Explanation:
Option(a)

92.Consider the function it has

(a) minima at x = 1.

(b) maxima at x = 1

(c) minima at x = -3

(d)maxima at x=-2

Option(a)

93. In a single throw with two dice, the probability that the sum is a perfect
square is

(a)1/3

(b) 1/8

(c) 2/9

(d) 7/36

Option(d)

CURRENT AFFAIRS

94. Internet intelligence map is recently launched by:

(a) Oracle

(b) Google

(c) Microsoft

(d) Apple
Option(a)

Oracle announced availability of the Internet Intelligence Map, providing users

with a simple, graphical way to track the health of the internet and gain insight
into the impact of events such as natural disasters or state-imposed
interruptions.

95. Consider the following with regards to the "Right Livelihood Award".
1. Widely, it is known as the "alternative Nobel Prize"

2. This award was awarded only to Greta Thunberg in 2019.

(a)only 1

(b)only 2

(c)both

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Option(a)

The Right Livelihood Award, widely known as the ‘Alternative Nobel Prize’, celebrates its 40th
anniversary this year. The 2019 Award goes to Aminata Haidar (Western Sahara), Guo Jaimie
(China), Greta Thunberg (Sweden) and David Konawa / Hutu Kara Yanomami Association
(Brazil).

96. Which Indian institution signed MoUs Carleton University (Canada) and Montpellier
Business School (France) under Student Exchange Program?

(a)IIM Delhi

(b)IIM Mumbai

(c)IIM Chennai

(d)IIM CALCUTTA

Explanation:

Option(d)

97. India decided to not join the RCEP after it failed to address India’s key concern where
RCEP referred to
(a) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
 (b) Regional Competitive Economic Partnership
(c) Real Compensative Economic Partnership
(d) Regional concern economic Partnership
Explanation
Option(a)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi made the announcement while speaking at the 2019 RCEP
Summit in Bangkok on November 4, 2019.

98. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) has introduced which scheme
to ease the lending process and enhance loan availability for exporters.
(a) NIRVIK
(b) ANIRMAL
(c) NIRMAL
(d) NORRA
Explanation
Option(a)
NIRVIK scheme: Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) has introduced
‘NIRVIK’ scheme to ease the lending process and enhance loan availability for exporters.
The scheme was announced by the Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on September
14 as a part of measures to boost exports.

99............. is a general term for extending financial support to a company or a country facing
a potential bankruptcy threat.
(a) Dealout
(b) Darkour
(c) Jail out
(d) Bailout
Explanation
Option(d)
Bailout is a general term for extending financial support to a company or a country facing
a potential bankruptcy threat. It can take the form of loans, cash, bonds, or stock
purchases. A bailout may or may not require reimbursement and is often accompanied by
greater government oversee and regulations.

100.The possibility of Britain withdrawing from the European Union (EU) is known as

(a) Brexit
(b) greeksit
© ulexite
(d) barlin exit
Explanation
Option(a)
Brexit refers to the possibility of Britain withdrawing from the European Union (EU). The
country will hold a referendum on its EU membership on June 23