A2AS PHYS REVISED Support 28318

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EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
GCE Physics
Introduction
These materials illustrate aspects of performance from the 2018 summer A2

examination series of CCEA’s revised GCE Specification in 2016.
Students’ grade A responses are reproduced verbatim and accompanied by
commentaries written by senior examiners. The commentaries draw attention to the
strengths of the students’ responses and indicate, where appropriate, deficiencies
and how improvements could be made.
It is intended that the materials should provide a benchmark of candidate
performance and help teachers and students to raise standards.
For further details of our support package, please visit our website at
www.ccea.org.uk
Best wishes
Gavin Gray
Education Manager, Physics
Email: ggray@ccea.org.uk
Telephone: 028 9026 1200 ext. 2270
GCE: A2 Physics
APH11: Momentum, Thermal Physics,

Circular Motion, Oscillations and
Atomic and Nuclear Physics
Grade: A Exemplar
CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

2

Q1a The graph in Fig. 1.1 shows how the binding energy per nucleon varies
with the number of nucleons in the nucleus. Complete Fig. 1.1 by adding
appropriate numerical values to the axes of the graph. [2]
Student’s response
Examiner’s comments
The majority of Grade A boundary candidates added the correct numerical values to
the axes.
Mark awarded: 2.

Q1b Describe the principles of fission and fusion. By referring to Fig. 1.1,
explain how each process can lead to energy being released. [5]
Fusion is when two lighter nuclei of less binding energy per nucleus join to form a
heavier nucleus with more binding energy per nucleon. The charge in binding
energy per nuclea releases energy in the process. This occurs on the left side of the
peak valve, 56. To the right side of the peak fission occurs. This is when a larger,
unstable nucleus with less binding energy per nucleon decays into the lighter, more
stable nuclei with more binding energy per nucleon. This change in binding energy
per nucleon causes a release of energy with the process. Both fusion and fission
release energy when the binding energy per nucleon increases.
The majority of Grade A boundary candidates gave correct descriptions of fission

and fusion and explained energy release in terms of binding energy per nucleon.
Reference to the graph was usually there but at times vague.
Mark awarded: 5.
Q1c(i) Equation 1.1 shows an incomplete equation to describe a fission

reaction.
The number of neutrons that are released has been omitted.
How many neutrons are released in the reaction?
Number of neutrons = ______________________ [1]

Q1c(ii) Equation 1.2 is another example of a fission reaction.
The mass of each nucleus and a neutron are given in Table 1.1.
Table 1.1
Nucleus Mass / u
U-235 235.0439
Zr-94 93.9063
Te-139 138.9347
n 1.0086
Calculate the number of U-235 nuclei that need to undergo fission by

the reaction in Equation 1.2 to produce 1 joule of energy.
Number of nuclei = ___________________ [5]
Number of nuclei = 3.60x1010
Grade A boundary candidates had no problem deducing the correct number of
neutrons released in the reaction. The familiar calculation in (ii) was also well done
by Grade A boundary candidates.
Mark awarded: 1, 5.

Q2a Quality of written communication will be assessed in part (a) of this
question.
The control rods and the moderator are two components of a fission
reactor.
State a material from which each component can be made and describe
how they function to produce nuclear power in a safe manner. [6]
The control rods of the rector are made out of boron – coated steel, this is because
boron is efficient at absorbing neutrons. The role of the control rods is to vary the
rate of the fission reactions. To do this the rods are raised or lowered into the rector
at different levels, this varies the number of neutrons which are being absorbed, and
hence the number of neutrons available to carry out further fission reactions with
other fuel particles. They also prevent an uncontrollable chain reaction occurring as
if something goes wrong or is damaged the control rods drop and separate the
sections of the fuel rods, stopping all fission reactions. The moderator, made usually
from graphite, slows down the neutrons released from the fission reactions so that
they have the correct energy to react with more 235 U particles causing further
fission 92
When neutrons are released from fission reactions they are too fast to react further
with U-235 and so during collisions with the graphite some of their kinetic energy is
converted to heat energy and their speed is reduced So they can react with the U-
235 causing fission.
Grade A boundary candidates in general gave detailed answers and knew the theory
of the fission reactor well. They usually worked systematically through the parts of
the question to achieve full marks.
Mark awarded: 6.

Q2b The use of fossil fuels in power stations causes considerable
environmental pollution due to the gases produced. The government is
considering several alternative sources of power.
State one advantage and one disadvantage that nuclear power has over
the other alternatives to fossil fuel power.
Advantage:
Disadvantage: [2]
Advantage: It doesn’t rely on the elements to create power, so electricity can be

generated everyday.
Disadvantage: An accident in a fission reactor could damage the local environment.
Most Grade A boundary candidates scored at least one mark here. Some were
vague in their response, as this candidate, resulting in the loss of one mark.
Mark awarded: 1.

Q3a Gold foil was used in the historic alpha particle scattering experiment
conducted by Geiger and Marsden. Gold has atomic number 79 and mass
number 199.
Calculate the radius of the nucleus of a gold atom.
State your answer in metres.
(r0 = 1.2 fm)
Radius of gold atom = m [2]
Radius of gold atom = 7.01 x 10-15 m
Grade A boundary candidates usually answered this question confidently without the
power error creeping in that was common in candidates below the boundary.
Mark awarded: 2.

Q3b(i) Fig. 3.1 shows an overhead view of part of the apparatus used in the
alpha particle scattering experiment.
Complete Fig. 3.1 by drawing and labelling any additional apparatus

that was used when Geiger and Marsden carried out the experiment.
[2]

Q3b(ii) Indicate, with the letter P, the position in which most alpha particles
were detected in the experiment. [1]
Q3b(iii) Explain why the diameter of the container can be larger than 5 cm even
though the range of alpha particles in air is less than 5 cm [1].
As the alpha particles caused the container walls to light up when they come into
contact it was made of zinc sulfide.
The diagram was completed well by Grade A boundary candidates and most were
awarded full marks here in all parts.
Mark awarded: 1, 1, 1.
10

Q3c Fig. 3.2 shows the path of an alpha particle as it approaches a nucleus.
The nucleus is replaced with one with a larger atomic number. On Fig. 3.2,
sketch the new path taken by the alpha particle. [2]
It was typical of Grade A boundary candidates to realise that the bend would be
greater but the bend was not shown starting earlier along the path.
Mark awarded: 1.
11

Q4a(i) Fig. 4.1 shows a fairground carousel where the horses move in a
horizontal circle at a constant speed.
A 136 kg horse on the outside of the carousel travels in a circle of

diameter 12.0 m. It takes 42 seconds for the horse to complete one full
rotation.
Use the definition of acceleration to explain why there must be a

resultant force on the horse. [3]
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, however since the direction of the
horse is continually changing and so even though it as constant speed, its velocity is
continually changing. This means the acceleration is acting at right angles to the
direction of the linear velocity of the horse and so acts towards the centre of the
circle. This is part of the resultant force on the horse. The force is required to
prevent the horse moving off at a tangent to the circle.
Grade A boundary candidates correctly defined acceleration and then usually

discussed the change in direction causing a velocity change but often didn’t add to
what was given in the stem of the question to achieve the third mark.
Mark awarded: 2.
12

Q4a(ii) Calculate the magnitude of the resultant force on the horse.
Force = ____________________ N [3]
Force = 18.3 N
This calculation was usually correctly answered by Grade A boundary candidates.

Mark awarded: 3.
13

Q4b(i) On another fairground ride, the rollercoaster, a carriage and passengers
of combined mass 1200 kg approaches a vertical circular section as
shown in Fig. 4.2. The diameter of the circle is 38 m.
What is the minimum speed of the rollercoaster carriage for the

passengers to feel weightless at the top of the loop?
Speed = ______________________m s-1 [2]
Speed = 13.7 m s -1
14

Q4b(ii) Describe what happens to the rollercoaster carriage if the speed is less
than that calculated in (i). [1]
The carriage won’t make it round the loop.
Q4b(iii) If the rollercoaster carriage has fewer passengers and therefore less
mass than in (i), how will the speed at which weightlessness is
experienced be affected? [1]
It won’t be affected. It will remain 13.7 ms-1 as mass is indepent to the velocity of the
carriage.
Again, the circular motion calculation was well done by most Grade A boundary
candidates and they achieved full marks in (i). Many confused the minimum speed
to cause weightlessness with the minimum speed to complete the loop and did not
get the mark in (ii). Most answered (iii) well.
15

Q5a(i) Equation 5.1 shows the relationship between the number of radioactive
nuclei N left after time t. λ is the decay constant and N0 is the initial
number of radioactive nuclei.
One isotope of copper, Cu-62, can be used for medical imaging. The
isotope is injected into the bloodstream and then a scan is carried out to
detect the gamma rays emitted.
Fig. 5.1 shows a graph of the natural logarithm, Ln, of the percentage of
radioactive Cu-62 nuclei remaining with time.
What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive source and why is it

important to consider the half-life when a source is used for medical
imaging? [3]
16

the half life of a radioactive source is the time taken for the number of radioactive
nuclei in a sample to decrease to half the original value. This is important in medical
imaging to ensure the patient does not contain a high radioactive source for an
extended time but the source has an appropriate half life to decay quickly and
disintegrate without harming the body with unnecessary radiation levels.
Q5a(ii) Use Fig. 5.1 to calculate the half-life of Cu-62.
Half-life = _______________ minutes [3]
Half-life = 9.6 minutes
Grade A boundary candidates usually correctly explained half-life and considered at

least one of the factors that should be considered when using a source for medical
imaging. The calculation in (ii) was well done by Grade A boundary candidates
using a variety of methods.
Mark awarded: 2, 3.
17

Q5b After two hours the activity of the source has dropped to 0.46 Bq. Calculate
the initial activity of the source.
Initial Activity = __________________ Bq [2]
Initial Activity = 2601 Bq
This calculation was very well done by most Grade A boundary candidates who can
correctly deal with the ln function.
Mark awarded: 2.
18

Q6a The Young modulus is an important property of the material from which
contact lenses are made. Comfortable wearing of a lens is achieved using
a more flexible contact lens that drapes easily over the cornea, but a high
degree of flexibility can be a disadvantage when trying to achieve optimum
vision. The Young modulus of two types of contact lens is shown in Table
6.1.
Table 6.1
Contact Lens Young modulus / MPa
Type 1 1.1
Type 2 0.49
Which contact lens would be most comfortable for the user?
Explain your answer. [1]
Type 2, as it has a lower Young modulus and is therefore described as being less
stiff, and so more flexible.
Grade A boundary candidates correctly identified the correct type of lens and related
the Young modulus to the flexibility.
Mark awarded: 1.
19

Q6b(i) To find a value for the Young modulus of a lens material, lenses made
from the same material with powers ranging from −8.0 D to +4.0 D were
tested.
What was the range of focal lengths of the lenses tested in centimetres?
Focal lengths range from ______________ to cm ______________ [3]
Focal lengths range from 12.5 to -25 cm
Q6b(ii) Complete Table 6.2 for lenses with positive and negative power. [4]
Table 6.2
Defect in vision that the lens is
Power Type of lens
used to correct
negative
positive
20

Q6b(iii) In the test, a sample of the lens material that had a width of 2.5 mm and
length of 12.0 mm, as shown in Fig. 6.1, was used. The Young modulus
of one of the lenses tested was found to be 1.5 MPa. A force F of 4.2
mN in the direction shown produced a strain of 0.04.
Calculate the thickness t of the sample.
Thickness = ______________ m [5]
Thickness = 2.8x10-8 m
Grade A boundary candidates usually correctly quoted the equation for power
though some sign or 10n errors appeared in the answer to part (i). In part (ii) most
scored at least 2 of the available marks. The calculation in part (iii) was very well
done by most grade A boundary candidates who worked methodically through clear
steps to reach the correct answer.
Mark awarded: 1, 2, 2, 5.
21

Q7a Describe an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of a metal
block.
Include in your answer:
• a diagram of the apparatus used that will ensure an accurate result,
• the electrical circuit,
• the measurements taken,
• how the specific heat capacity is determined from the measurements.
[8]
22

Measure the mass of the block. Cover the block with insulation so it is completely
lagged. Measure the initial temperature. Turn on the heater and start the timer.
Once the temperature rises by 20°C, turn off the heater. Record the time and
temperature only when the block reaches the highest temperature. The oil improves
the thermal conductivity between the block and the thermometer. Record values for
Current and Voltage using the ammetre and voltmetre.
Q = McΔθ
Calculate energy transferred using Q = Current x voltage x time
Calculate the temperature change, Δθ, by subtracting the initial temperature from the
final.
Clse C = Q to calculate the specific heat capacity

MΔθ
Grade A boundary candidates drew well labelled diagrams showing the main
apparatus. In their descriptions most key points were included but often the
recording of the highest temperature after the stopclock was stopped was omitted or
their descriptions were confused.
Mark awarded: 7.
23

Q7b A kettle with a 2700 W heating element is used to boil 750 cm3 of water.
The water is initially at a temperature of 18 °C. Calculate the time taken for
the water to boil if the heating element has an efficiency of 75%.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4.187 J g-1 °C-1 and its density is
1 g cm-3.
Time = ________________ s [6]
Time = 95.4 s
Most Grade A boundary candidates coped well with the stages of this calculation but
at times omitted one step, such as the efficiency, or used the 0.75 incorrectly.
Mark awarded: 5.
24

Q8a(i) A 0.25 kg mass on the end of a spring is pulled down a distance of 3 cm
below equilibrium position and released so that it oscillates with simple
harmonic motion.
A graph of how the displacement of the mass varies with time is shown
in Fig. 8.1.
Explain what is meant by simple harmonic motion. [2]
The acceleration of a particle is directly proportional to it displacement from a fixed

point and is directed towards that fixed point.
25

Q8a(ii) Calculate the displacement of the mass at a time of 12.5 seconds and
state whether the mass is above or below the equilibrium position at this
time.
Displacement = _______________ m
Position relative to equilibrium position = ________________ [6]
Displacement = 8.21x10-3 m
Position relative to equilibrium position = above equilibrium position
26

Q8a(iii) Calculate the maximum strain energy stored in the spring.
Energy = _______________ J [4]
Energy = 6.15x10-3 J
Simple harmonic motion was adequately explained by Grade A boundary candidates

and few lost marks in part (i). The calculation in part (ii) was also usually correct with
most boundary candidates also getting the position correct. Grade A boundary
candidates found the calculation in (iii) more challenging, with many achieving 2
marks because they ignored the initial stretching of the spring when the load was
applied. Mark awarded: 2, 6, 2.
27

Q8b Describe how the maximum velocity of the mass could be determined from
Fig. 8.1. [3]
The velocity could be determined from the displacement time graph by taking the
gradient when the displacement is 0, since that is when velocity is greatest during
SHM.
Grade A candidates answered this well, realizing that the gradient was required and
identifying the point at which the velocity is maximum. Some did not mention
drawing a tangent and lost one mark.
Mark awarded: 2.
Q8c(i) Describe how the mass on the spring could be forced to resonate. [1]
If the mass was oscillated at its natural frequency.
Q8c(ii) How can you tell that the mass on the spring is resonating? [1]
The system will have a large amplitude.
Some descriptions of how the system could be forced to resonate from Grade A
boundary candidates were weak and while they knew the term natural frequency
they often ignored the forced oscillation requirement in (i). In part (ii) the idea of
largest was often missing.
Mark awarded: 0, 0.
28

Q9a(i) What is the difference between the internal energy of a real gas and the
internal energy of an ideal gas? [2]
the internal energy of a gas is equal to the sum of the kinetic and potential energies.
However in an ideal gas there are no forces of attraction between the atoms and
therefore there is no kinetic energy so the internal energy of an ideal gas is entirely
kinetic energy.
Q9a(ii) For a real gas to behave more like an ideal gas how should the
pressure of the gas be adjusted? [1]
Pressure should be reduced/decreased
Most Grade A candidates were correctly able to describe the difference between the
internal energy of a real gas and an ideal gas in (i) and understood that the pressure
should be lowered in (ii).
Mark awarded: 2, 1.
29

Q9b(i) Fig. 9.1 shows an airship with an envelope containing helium gas at a
pressure of 1.03 × 105 Pa.
The envelope of the airship has a volume of 8230 m3. If the

temperature of the gas is 14 °C, calculate the mass of helium in the
envelope of the airship.
The molar mass of helium = 4.003 × 10−3 kg mol−1.
Mass of helium = kg [3]
Mass of helium = 1420 kg
30

Q9b(ii) Calculate the root mean square speed of the helium gas atoms in the
envelope of the airship.
Root mean square speed = _________________ m s-1 [3]
Root mean square speed = 1340 m s-1
The calculations in both (i) and (ii) proved straightforward for most Grade A boundary
candidates and many got both parts correct despite their working out showing some
confusion in (ii).
Mark awarded: 3, 3.
31

32

GCE: A2 Physics
APH21: Fields, Capacitors and

Particle Physics
Grade: A Exemplar
33

34

Q1a(i) The time constant of a resistor–capacitor (R–C) circuit can be
determined using the circuit shown in Fig. 1.1.
Define the term time constant. [1]
The time constant of a capacitor is the time taken for the voltage across the plates to
reduce to 1 of its original value.
e
Q1a(ii) Describe how the circuit in Fig. 1.1 could be used to obtain results that
would allow the time constant to be determined. The capacitor is initially
uncharged. [3]
Set the switch to position 1 to charge the capacitor up to the supply voltage. Using a
stop clock set the switch to position 2 and start the clock. Obtain values for the
voltage across the capacitor at 10s intervals. Plot a graph of time (x-axis) against
voltage y-axis. Find 1/e = 0.368 of the intial voltage at this time will be the time
constant τ
The majority of Grade A boundary candidates gave correct definitions of the time
constant in part (i) and in part (ii) were able to correctly describe how the circuit could
be used to obtain the required results.
Mark awarded: 1, 3.
35

Q1b(i) The results obtained in (a) (ii) can be used to plot a non-linear graph
from which the time constant can be obtained. Label the axes on
Fig. 1.2 and sketch the shape of the graph that you would expect to
obtain. [2]
36

Q1b(ii) Explain fully how you would use your graph to obtain a reliable value
for the time constant of the circuit. [3]
Take the initial voltage Vo => y-interupt and find 1/e x Vo. At this voltage v1 this time
on the x-axis is equal to τ Find 1/e2 x Vo and thus 2nd voltage V2 = 2τ. Take one
more reading off the graph at 1/e3 x Vo and this is equal to 3τ for each point and
average the three results.
Grade A boundary candidates usually drew the curve correctly in (i) and used the
word reliable to prompt them to repeat and average readings from the graph to get
the time constant in part (ii). Very few Grade A boundary candidates lost any marks
in this question.
Mark awarded: 2, 3.
Q2a State Newton’s law of universal gravitation in words. [3]
The force between two masses is directly proportional to the product of the masses
and inversely proportional to the square of their separation.
Grade A boundary candidates scored at least 2 marks out of the possible 3 for
stating Newton’s law. Some omitted the attractive nature of the force.
Mark awarded: 2.
37

Q2b(i) CloudSat is a satellite orbiting Earth. It was launched by NASA in April
2006 to study the vertical structure of clouds and quantify their ice and
water content.
Use the information in Table 2.1 to calculate the orbital height h of

CloudSat above the Earth’s surface.
Table 2.1
Mass of Earth / kg 5.98 x 1024
Radius of Earth / km 6.37 x 103
Gravitational field strength at orbital height h / N kg-1 7.97
Orbital height h = _____________________________ m [4]
Orbital height h = 7.07 x 106 m
38

Q2b(ii) Calculate the orbital period of CloudSat at this height.
Give your answer in hours.
Orbital period = ________________________ hours [6]
Orbital period = 1.64 hours
39

Q2b(iii) State, giving a reason, if CloudSat is a geostationary satellite. [1]
No – its orbital period is not equal to the period of rotation of earth (re 1.64 ≠ 24 hrs)
Most Grade A boundary candidates scored at least 3 marks in the calculation in part
(i), often failing to do the subtraction at the end to get the height above the surface of
the earth. Part (ii) was usually very well answered by Grade A boundary candidates,
they had few problems with this calculation. Most got part (iii) correct and included
the 24 hr reference.
40

Q3a(i) The Standard Model of particle physics is a theory concerning the four
fundamental forces in nature and is used to classify all known
subatomic particles that exist.
Complete Table 3.1 by naming the four fundamental forces in nature

and their corresponding exchange particles. [4]
Fundamental force Exchange particle
Fundamental force Exchange particle
Gravitational Graviton
Strong nuclear force Gluon
Weak nuclear force W+, W- or ƻ bosons
Electrostatic Photon
Q3a(ii) Subatomic particles can be classified as hadrons or leptons. State two

differences between hadrons and leptons. [2]
Leptons are fundamental particles with no internal structure whilst hadrons are non-
fundamental with a quark structure. Hadrons experience the strong nuclear force
whilst leptons do not.
41

Q3a(iii) State the quark structure of a neutron. [1]
udd
Q3a(iv) State the equations which describe β− decay in terms of quarks. Include
the virtual exchange particle emitted. [2]
Grade A boundary candidates usually knew the forces and their corresponding
exchange particles in part (i) but some lost a mark for errors in the naming of the
force, using electrostatic in place of electromagnetic for example. In (ii) most
managed to state two correct differences and the quark structure of a neutron was
well known by these candidates inn part (iii). Many lost a mark in (iv) or gained no
credit, the equations were known by some Grade A candidates but many of the
boundary candidates made errors.
42

Q3b Consider two appropriate conservation laws to determine whether the
hadron reaction described in Equation 3.1, which produces a pi-minus
meson, can occur. Show your working clearly in the space below.
Can this reaction occur? _________________________ [3]
Can this reaction occur? No
The correct conservation laws were chosen by most Grade A boundary candidates
and they usually managed to deduce that the reaction would not occur and were
convincing in their explanations.
Mark awarded: 3.
43

Q4a A magnetic field exists around a conductor carrying an electric current.
Sketch the shape of the field and indicate its direction due to the current
carrying conductor shown in Fig. 4.1. The direction of the current is
indicated by the arrow. [2]
Grade A boundary candidates usually correctly drew the shape of the field and
identified the direction to get both marks.
Mark awarded: 2.
44

Q4b Two identical magnets, with opposite poles facing, are placed on a top pan
balance. A wire is fixed so that it is parallel to the magnets and connected
to a circuit as shown in Fig. 4.2a.
On Fig. 4.2a, draw an arrow to show the direction of the force on the wire
when switch S is closed. [1]
Most grade A boundary candidates were able to use FLHR to correctly identify the
direction of the force on the wire.
Mark awarded: 1.
45

Q4c(i) Before the switch was closed, an initial balance reading was taken. The
switch was then closed and the readings on the ammeter and balance
recorded. These readings are shown in Table 4.1.
Table 4.1
I/A m/g F/N
0 76.83
4.24 76.30
Complete the column headed F / N in Table 4.1 to determine the

magnitude of the force exerted on the wire for a current of 4.24 A. [2]
I/A m/g F/N
0 76.83
4.24 76.30 0.7485
Q4c(ii) Determine the flux density of the magnets. The length of the magnets L,
as shown in Fig. 4.2b, is 5.00 cm.
Flux density T _____________________________ [3]
Flux density 3.53 T

46

Q4c(iii) A voltmeter is placed in parallel across the wire between points A and B
and reads 0.41 V when the current through the wire is 4.24 A. Calculate
the resistivity of the wire if its diameter is 0.18 mm.
Resistivity = ____________________________ Ω m [4]
Resistivity = 4.92 x 10-8 Ωm
Some grade A boundary candidates struggled to correctly calculate F, losing at least

one mark for a 10n error or not calculating the difference in the balance readings in
(i). Part (ii) was very well done by grade A boundary candidates using their answer
to (i) and the calculation in (iii) also proved straightforward for most of these
candidates.
47

Q5a(i) Quality of written communication will be assessed in (a)(ii) of this
question.
Fig. 5.1 is a simplified diagram of the National Grid. T1 and T2 are

transformers.
What type of transformers are T1 and T2?
Transformer T1:
Transformer T2: [1]
Describe how a transformer is constructed.[2]
Transformer T1: step-up
Transformer T2: step-down
Describe how a transformer is constructed Primary and secondary coils of wire

linked by a soft iron core.
48

Q5a(ii) Explain how transformer T2 works in order to produce an appropriate
output voltage to our homes. [6]
The primary coil in T2 has many more turns in the wire compared to the secondary
coil. The primary and secondary coil are linked by a soft iron core. An a.c. supply is
attached to the primary coil, which produces a constantly alternating magnetic field
where the secondary coil cuts the flux, an electromotive force is induced that goes
on the supply voltage to our homes.
Grade A boundary candidates could correctly identify transformers T1 and T2 and

described the construction of the transformer well to get full marks in part (i). In part
(ii) they often lost some marks in their explanations which were at times vague or
had key points missing.
Q5b Explain why high voltage transmission lines are necessary for energy to be
transmitted across the country efficiently. [2]
Stepping up the voltage means stepping down the current (P = 1V). Lesser current
means less energy loss since energy loss is given by the equation Ploss =12R.
This explanation was well written by most Grade A boundary candidates and the
majority quoted the power lost equation in their answer.
Mark awarded: 2.
49

Q6a Define electric field strength. [2]
Electric field strength is the force acting per unit charge in an electric field.
Grade A boundary candidates knew the definition of electric field strength well and
had no problem being awarded both marks.
Mark awarded: 2
Q6b(i) Fig. 6.1 shows two point charges Q1 and Q2 of +25μC and +15μC
placed a distance of 2 m apart in a vacuum.
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the force exerted on the

+25μC charge.
Force = ____________________ N
Direction = _________________ [3]
Force = 0.84 N
Direction = Left
50

Q6b(ii) The resultant electric field strength is zero at point Z, a distance x from
Q1.
Calculate the magnitude of x.
x = ____________________ m [4]
x = 1.13 m
Grade A boundary candidates usually correctly knew and applied the equation in
part (i) and were able to deduce the direction. The calculation in part (ii) proved
challenging for those below the Grade A boundary but most boundary candidates
managed the mathematics of it to achieve full marks. Mark awarded: 3. 4.
51

Q7a(i) Fig. 7.1 shows the basic structure of a synchrotron. A synchrotron is an
accelerator used to progressively increase the speed of particles as
they travel in a circular path of fixed radius.
Describe how the circular path of fixed radius is achieved. [2]
Electro-Magnets as the outside of the evacuated chamber contain the charged

particles at progressively higher velocities by increasing their strength (voltage
supplied) over time.
Q7a(ii) In this synchrotron the magnetic field is maintained using

superconducting electromagnets.
Explain why superconductors are used to create the magnetic field and
how the superconducting state is achieved. [4]
Superconducters have no resistance of extremely low temperatures. The magnets

are thus cooled to extremely low temperature and then supplied with a high voltage.
As the resistance is negligible the current flow is very high and hence a strong
magnetic field is created which can contain the charged particlars even at very high
velocities.
52

Q7a(iii) The acceleration cavities are connected to a high frequency alternating
voltage. The frequency of this voltage is increased as the speed of the
particles increases. Why is this necessary? [1]
In order to achieve synchronous acceleration the frequency of the AC current

accelerating the particles must equal its frequency travelling from one cavity to the
next. Hence AC current frequency is varied as the particle speeds up.
Q7a(iv) The particles can be accelerated until their speed approaches the
speed of light. Explain how the particles can continue to gain kinetic
energy but no longer increase their speed. [1]
As they approach the speed of light the increase in energy is in the form of an
increase in mass rather than velocity. (Ke = ½ mv2 , ke oc M)
Grade A boundary candidates usually gained at least one mark in part (i) for the idea
that the field strength needed to increase. The centripetal force was often omitted
and the first mark not awarded. In part (ii) Grade A boundary candidates had most
of the points but may have omitted one or two, usually either the method of cooling
or the fact that a large magnetic field was required. The term synchronous
acceleration was often used by Grade A boundary candidates in (iii) rather than
explanations of what synchronous acceleration is. Most boundary candidates
realized that an increase in mass caused the increase in kinetic energy and got part
(iv) correct.
53

Q7b Protons are accelerated through the accelerator complex at CERN in
various stages before being transferred to the synchrotron known as the
Large Hadron Collider (LHC) with an initial energy of 0.45 TeV. The LHC
has 8 cavities each with a potential difference of 2 MV which accelerate the
protons.
How many orbits of the LHC must a proton complete to reach a final
energy of 7 TeV?
Number of orbits = _____________________ [5]
Number of orbits = 4.094 x 105
Grade A boundary candidates coped well with this challenging calculation and many
managed to reach the correct answer although may not have used the steps
described in the mark scheme.
Mark awarded: 5.
54

Q8a(i) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. [1]
The induced emf is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage.
Q8a(ii) A circular coil of wire is placed with its plane perpendicular to a

magnetic field. The magnetic flux φ through the coil changes with time t
as shown in Fig. 8.1.
Draw a graph to show how the e.m.f. E induced in the coil changes with
time on the blank set of axes in Fig. 8.2. [4]
Faraday’s Law was well stated by Grade A boundary candidates and few lost the
mark in part (i). It was common in part (ii) for Grade A boundary candidates to score
3 out of the 4 available marks, often having the e.m.f. reversed in sign or ignoring the
relative amplitudes. Mark awarded: 1, 3.
55

Q8b(i) A coil of wire with 340 turns, each of area 65 cm2, is placed within a
uniform magnetic field of 55 mT. The coil is rotated through 500
revolutions per minute, inducing an alternating e.m.f. within the coils as
shown in Fig. 8.3.
The e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0 V at times t1 and t2. By making

reference to the position of the coil within the field explain why it is zero
at these times. [3]
It is zero at these times as these are points where the coil is parallel to the field and
is therefore producing no flux cutting, so no emf is induced.
Q8b(ii) Calculate the frequency of the alternating output.
Frequency = ___________________ Hz [1]
Frequency = 8.33 Hz
56

Q8b(iii) Calculate the maximum value of e.m.f.
Maximum e.m.f. = ______________________________ V [2]
Maximum e.m.f = 6.36 V
Grade A boundary candidates often lost marks in part (i) and did not seem to
understand the concept well. 1 mark was often awarded for ‘no flux being cut’ but
the position of the coil was incorrect and the detail of the mark scheme missing. The
calculations in parts (ii) and (iii) were very well done by Grade A boundary
candidates.
57

Q9a(i) A beam of electrons travelling horizontally enters a uniform magnetic
field midway between two horizontal metal plates, in a vacuum. The
plates are 175 mm long and have a separation of 30 mm. The potential
difference applied across the plates is increased to 1.5 kV so that the
electron beam just emerges past the end of the lower plate as shown in
Fig. 9.1.
Determine the electric field strength between the plates.
Electric field strength = __________________________ V m−1 [2]
Electric field strength = 50000 V m-1
58

Q9a(ii) Determine the force on the electron beam due to the electric field.
Force = _______________________ N [2]
Force = 8 x 10-15 N
Q9a(iii) Calculate the acceleration of an electron in the beam due to the electric
field.
Acceleration = _______________________ m s−2 [1]
Acceleration = 8.78 x 1015 m s-2
The calculations in this question were very well done by most Grade A boundary
candidates and they no problem achieving full marks in all three parts.
59

Q9b(i) For this electron beam that just emerges past the end of the lower plate,
calculate the time spent by the beam in the electric field.
Time = ______________________ s [3]
Time = 1.85x10-9 s
Q9b(ii) Calculate the initial speed of the electrons as they enter the field.
Initial speed = m s−1 [1]
Initial speed = 9.47 x 107 m s-1
Again, the calculations in both (i) and (ii) proved straightforward for most Grade A
boundary candidates and many got both parts correct. Mark awarded: 3, 1.
60

GCE: A2 Physics
APH31: Practical Techniques and

Data Analysis
Grade: A Exemplar
61

62

Q1a In this experiment you will investigate the oscillation of a bifilar
pendulum. The arrangement consists of a half-metre rule suspended
horizontally and symmetrically by two vertical threads of fixed length.
The rule can be made to oscillate about a vertical axis through the
centre of the rule.
Aims
The aims of the experiment are:

• to measure the time period of the oscillation of the bifilar
arrangement about a vertical axis, for various distances D;
• to analyse the results and plot a linear graph;
• to use the graph to find unknown constants.
Apparatus
You are provided with a bifilar pendulum arrangement, made of two

half-metre rules arranged horizontally, with a fixed vertical separation.
The distance D between the suspension threads can be varied by
moving the loops along the rules. The upper rule should remain
securely clamped.
Fig. 1.1 is a diagram of the arrangement.
The lower rule can be set into oscillation about the vertical axis, as
shown in Fig. 1.2.
63

This is best achieved by holding the rule lightly at its centre between
finger and thumb and twisting gently. When you release the rule, it will
execute horizontal oscillations of small angular amplitude about the
central vertical axis.
Procedure
Use the stop-clock provided to determine an accurate value of the

period T of oscillation of the lower rule. The first distance D has been
set at 14.0 cm, with the thread loops at 18.0 cm from each end of both
upper and lower rules. Repeat the procedure for four further D values to
a maximum of about 38.0 cm. Ensure that the threads are always at
equal distances from each end of the rules, so the arrangement is
symmetrical about the axis of oscillation. Record all your results in
Table 1.1. Label and use the second column as necessary. [4]
Table 1.1
D /cm T /s
14.0
Time taken for 5 oscillations/s

D /cm 1 2 Average T /s log10 (T/S) log10 (Dkm)
14.0 11.03 11.34 11.2 224 0.35 1.15

18.0 8.84 8.69 8.77 1.75 0.24 1.26
24.0 6.57 6.72 6.65 1.33 0.12 1.38
28.0 5.72 5.78 5.75 1.15 0.06 1.45
38.0 4.81 4.78 4.80 0.96 - 0.01 1.58
Grade A boundary candidates usually had an adequate range of values D and were
able to correctly obtain 5 sets of values recorded correctly. Some allowed the total
time to drop to too low a value and lost a mark. Mark awarded: 3
64

Q1b(i) Analysis
The period of this bifilar pendulum is described by Equation 1.1.
T = k D b Equation 1.1
where k and b are constants.
Show that a graph of log10 T against log10 D will result in a straight

line graph from which values of k and b can be determined. [2]
T = k D6
log10 T = log10 k + b log10 D
log10 T = b log10 D + log10 k
y = m x + c
Q1b(ii) State how b may be determined from the graph of log10 T against
log10 D. [1]
B equal the gradient of the line of best fit
In part (i), Grade A boundary candidates had no problem correctly taking logs of the
equation and mapping to the equation of a straight line. This usually lead to a
correct answer in part (ii).
Mark awarded: 2, 1.
65

Q1c To draw the graph, it is necessary to calculate additional quantities from
your results. Complete the final two blank columns of Table 1.1 with
appropriate headings and values recorded to 2 decimal places. [4]
Time taken for 5 oscillations/s

D /cm 1 2 Average T /s Log10 (T/S) Log10 (Dkm)
14.0 11.03 11.34 11.2 224 0.35 1.15

18.0 8.84 8.69 8.77 1.75 0.24 1.26
24.0 6.57 6.72 6.65 1.33 0.12 1.38
28.0 5.72 5.78 5.75 1.15 0.06 1.45
38.0 4.81 4.78 4.80 0.96 -0.01 1.58
Grade A boundary candidates correctly headed the table, calculated the values and
followed the instruction to record the values to 2 decimal places.
Mark awarded: 4.
66

Q1d Plot the graph of log10 T against log10 D on the grid of Fig. 1.3 below and
draw the best fit straight line. [5]
The above question could not be exemplified as the candidate’s permission

could not be obtained.
Q1e Use your graph to determine the value of the constant b.
Value of b: _________________ [4]
grad = _ 0.25 − 0.025 0

1.48 − 1.25
grad = − 0.97826 …
b = gradp
b = −0.98
Value of b: −0.98
Grade A boundary candidates recognized that b was the gradient of the graph. They
used suitable points to calculate the gradient and usually included the negative.
Mark awarded: 4.
67

Q2a In this experiment, you are provided with an illuminated object, a screen
and a converging lens. When the screen and object are a suitable distance
apart, there are two positions of the lens which will produce a sharp image
on the screen. You will locate the two positions of the lens which give sharp
images for different separations between the object and the screen.
Aims
The aims are:

• to adjust the position of the lens so that focussed images are formed;
• to take measurements using the optical bench arrangement;
• to plot an appropriate graph and use it to determine the focal length of a
converging lens.
Apparatus
Fig. 2.1 shows an illuminated object and a screen, separated by a

distance y. The light box and metre rule are secured to the desk, and the
lens holder and screen can be moved along the ruler. The distance x is the
separation of the two positions of the lens at which sharp images are
formed on the screen.
The relationship between x, y and the focal length of the lens f is given by
Equation 2.1.
y2 − x2 = 4fy Equation 2.1
Procedure
Place the screen at a distance of 640 mm from the object, this is the initial
value of y. Place the lens between the object and screen and move it until
a sharp image of the object is seen on the screen. Record this initial
position of the lens (1) in Table 2.1.
Move the lens along the metre rule until a second sharp image of the object
is seen and record this second position of the lens (2) in Table 2.1.
68

Calculate and record the distance x between these two positions.
Repeat for four further values of y between 640 mm and 800 mm. [4]
Table 2.1
Lens position /mm

y /mm x /mm
1 2
640
Lens position /mm

𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙
y /mm x /mm x2/mm2 /mm
𝒚𝒚
1 2
640 279 373 94 8840 13.8
690 255 440 185 34200 49.6
740 232 513 281 79000 107
775 227 555 328 108000 139
800 220 584 364 132000 165
Grade A boundary candidates had no problem achieving full marks in this part. They
correctly recorded the values to the nearest mm throughout.
Mark awarded: 4.
69

Q2b(i) Analysis
Use Equation 2.1 to show that a graph of y against will result

in a straight line graph from which a value of the focal length can
be determined. [2]
y2 – x2 = 4fy
x2 = – (4fy – y2)
x2 = – y2 – 4fy
x2 = – y(y – 4f)
y – 4f =
y= + 4f
y = mx + c
Q2b(ii) State how the value of f can be determined from the graph of
y against [1]
4f = y- intercept of graph so find y- intercept and divide by 4 to get f
70

Q2b(iii) Calculate any additional values needed to allow you to draw the linear
graph described in (b) (i) and record these values in the blank columns
of Table 2.1. Head any columns that you use with the appropriate
quantity and unit. [2]
Lens position /mm

𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙
y /mm x /mm x2/mm2 /mm
𝒚𝒚
1 2
640 279 373 94 8840 13.8
690 255 440 185 34200 49.6
740 232 513 281 79000 107
775 227 555 328 108000 139
800 220 584 364 132000 165
The equation proved difficult to rearrange for many candidates below the boundary
but most Grade A boundary candidates managed to get it correct in part (i) leading to
a correct answer in part (ii) for how the value of f can be determined. In (iii) these
candidates headed the table correctly and usually recorded the values to the correct
significance.
Mark awarded: 2.
71

Q2c(i) Use the grid of Fig. 2.2 to plot the graph of y against .
The vertical axis has been labelled and a scale added for you.
Label the horizontal axis and select a suitable scale starting from zero.
Plot the values from Table 2.1. Draw the best fit straight line for the
points plotted. [5]
The above question could not be exemplified as the candidate’s permission

could not be obtained.
2c(ii) Use your graph to calculate a value for the focal length f of
the lens.
f = _________________ mm [3]
y – intercept = 627.5 = 4f
627.5
f= 4
f = 156.875
= 157 mmp
f = 157 mm
72

Q2c(iii) Use the points on your graph to calculate the percentage uncertainty
in f.
% uncertainty in f = ___________________ % [3]
645 – 627.5 = 17.5 mm
Sf
%f= x 100
f
17.5
= x 100
157
627.5p
= 11.14%
% uncertainty in f = 11.1 %
Some may have lost a mark for a poorly chosen best fit line. The value of the focal
length was usually correct and within the acceptable range to be awarded the quality
mark in part (ii). There was sometimes confusion in calculating the percentage
uncertainty between using the intercept values and the focal length values.
Mark awarded: 3, 2.
73

74

GCE: A2 Physics
APH32: Practical Techniques and

Data Analysis
Grade: A Exemplar
75

76

Q1a(i) The electrical resistance R of a component may be determined by
measuring the potential difference across the component and the
current flowing through it. In one experiment, the component was
connected across a fixed 4.5 V d.c. supply, and an ammeter and a
voltmeter were placed in the circuit, as in Fig. 1.1 below.
The analogue voltmeter display is shown in Fig. 1.2 below. It has a dual
scale facility, which means that by connecting across one pair of
terminals, the meter reads up to a maximum of 10 volts (the upper
scale) and by connecting across the other pair of terminals, the meter
reads up to a maximum of 5 volts (the lower scale). The correct scale
must be chosen before deciding on the voltage measurement.
Using all the information you have been given, decide which scale was
being used in this case. Give a reason for your choice.
Scale (10 volt or 5 volt): ________________
Reason _____________________________ [1]
77

Scale (10 volt or 5 volt): 5 volt
Reason the supply is fixed 4.5V so using the 5 volt allows for more accurate
readings with smaller 0.1 divisions compared to 10 volt having 0.2 division
Q1a(ii) Using the scale you have chosen, state the voltage reading and the
absolute uncertainty associated with the reading.
Voltage __________ ± __________ V [2]
Voltage 4.0 ± 0.1 V
Grade A boundary candidates often chose the correct scale but did not give the
correct reason, focusing on the accuracy of the scale rather than the values on the
ammeter. Most correctly quoted the voltage to 0.1 V and gave the uncertainty.
Mark awarded: 0, 2.
Q1b(i) A digital ammeter was used, and it gave a reading of 0.23 amps.
What is the absolute uncertainty associated with this reading?
Uncertainty in current = ± __________ A [1]
Uncertainty in current = ± 0.01 A
78

Q1b(ii) Use the voltage and current readings to calculate a value for the
resistance of the component and the absolute uncertainty in this value.
Resistance = ________ ± __________ Ω [4]
Resistance = 17.4 ± 1.2 Ω
Q1b(iii) Why is it better to refer to an ‘uncertainty’ rather than an ‘error’

associated with this reading? [2]
Error implies the value is wrong. Uncertainty implies the value is accurate to with a
certain range.
In part (i), Grade A boundary candidates had no problem stating the uncertainty in
the current. Calculating the resistance was correctly done by these candidates
although answers weren’t always given to the correct number of significant figures.
The uncertainty was also usually correct. In part (iii) most Grade A boundary
candidates correctly identified the difference between an error and an uncertainty.
Mark awarded 1, 4, 2.
79

Q1c The fixed d.c. supply is replaced with a variable d.c. supply. Explain how
you would use this and why it ensures your value for the resistance of the
component is both reliable and accurate. [3]
You would adjust the supply voltage on the variable power pack and record different
I and V values for different supply voltages. By repeating, multiple values of R can
be calculated, and averaged, to find an accurate and reliable value for R.
Grade A boundary candidates usually obtained at least 2 out of the 3 available

marks. They described the use of the variable d.c. supply to obtain a series of
results and averaged but sometimes omitted the identification and discarding of
anomalous results.
Mark awarded: 2.
80

Q2a(i) A pendulum undergoes simple harmonic motion after it has been
displaced to one side and allowed to swing freely. A motion sensor is
used, so that a graph of displacement s against time t for two complete
oscillations can be displayed. An example of such a graph is shown in
Fig. 2.1.
By finding the gradient of a tangent to the curve, use Fig. 2.1 to

determine the size of the maximum velocity of the pendulum. State one
time at which this maximum value of velocity occurs.
Maximum velocity = __________ cm s−1
occurs at s __________ [3]
Maximum velocity = 80 cm s-1
Occurs at 1.5 s
81

Q2a(ii) Determine the minimum velocity of the pendulum. State one time at
which this occurs.
Minimum velocity = __________ cm s−1
occurs at __________ s [2]
Minimum velocity = 0 cm s−1
occurs at 2 s
Most Grade A boundary candidates correctly drew a gradient in part (i) and were
able to calculate the maximum velocity. The time was usually identified correctly. In
part (ii) these candidates usually identified the minimum velocity as zero and knew
when it would occur.
Mark awarded: 3, 2.
82

Q2b(i) The same pendulum is set in motion a second time, with a smaller initial
displacement than before.
On Fig. 2.1, sketch the graph of displacement s against time t for this
new motion. [2]
Q2b(ii) How will the magnitude of maximum velocity for this second motion of
the pendulum compare to the maximum velocity of the original motion
shown in Fig. 2.1? [1]
It will be smaller
The sketch of the graph was correctly done by Grade A boundary candidates in part
(i) and they correctly identified that the maximum velocity would be reduced to
achieve the mark in part (ii).
Mark awarded: 2, 1.
83

Q3(i) A cathode ray oscilloscope, CRO, is used to measure the frequency of
sound waves produced by a vibrating tuning fork. The signal from a
microphone is connected across the y-input of the CRO.
Fig. 3.1 shows the display from the CRO screen while the tuning fork is
sounding.
From the CRO display, determine the frequency of tuning fork being used.
The screen is 10 cm wide. The timebase is set to 1.5 ms cm−1.
Frequency = __________ Hz [4]
Frequency = 0.5 Hz
84

Q3(ii) The y-sensitivity is set at 2 mV cm−1. What is the peak voltage of the
display?
Voltage = __________ mV [1]
Voltage = 7 mV
Q3(iii) How would you expect the display to change over time, as the tuning fork
continues to sound? [1]
The time period would increase, meaning the waves would be more spread out
across the screen.
85

Q3(iv) On Fig. 3.2 sketch the display you would see if the timebase is switched
off. [2]
Grade A boundary candidates were familiar with the calculation in part (i) but often
made a 10n error and lost one mark. Part (ii) was well answered with most boundary
candidates reading the scale correctly. In part (iii) the Grade A boundary candidate
sometimes discussed a changed in period or frequency and were not awarded this
mark. Part (iv) was well answered by Grade A boundary candidates who understood
the function of the timebase.
86

Q4a(i) Geiger and Nuttall proposed a theory relating the half-life t 12 in
seconds of an alpha emitting nuclide to the energy E in MeV of the
emitted alpha particle. The theory is expressed in Equation 4.1.
State what the unit abbreviation MeV stands for. [1]
Mega electron volts
Q4a(ii) State the unit of each of the constants A and B in Equation 4.1. If they
do not have a unit write ‘no unit’.
Unit of A = __________
Unit of B = __________ [2]
rise
E -½ run
0 1 no unit
MeV MeV -½
MeV -½ Ñ MeV -½
Unit of A = MeV ½
Unit of B = no unit
Grade A boundary candidates were usually able to correctly state what MeV stood
for in part (i). Part (ii) proved more challenging, candidates below the Grade A
boundary often included seconds in their answers. The Grade A boundary
candidates usually did manage to get to the correct unit.
Mark awarded: 1, 2.
87

Q4b(i) Table 4.1 gives experimental values of E and t ½ for some alpha
emitting nuclides. Values for E−½/MeV−½ and log10(t½/s) have been
calculated.
Table 4.1
Nuclide E/McV t½/s E-½/MeV-½ log10(t½/s)

238U 4.20 1.4 x 1017 0.488 17.15
234U 4.82 7.7 x 1012 0.455 12.89
229Th 5.42 6.0 x 107 0.430 7.78
208Rn 6.14 1.5 x 103 0.404 3.18
212Po 7.39 1.8 x 10-3 0.368 -2.74
Have the values of E−½/MeV−½ been recorded correctly in Table 4.1?

Explain your answer. [1]
Yes, they have been given to 3 significant figures, the same accuracy as the E/MeV
values.
88

Q4b(ii) On the graph grid of Fig. 4.1 draw a graph of log10(t½/s) against
E−½/MeV−½. Scale the axes appropriately, plot the points and draw the
best fit line. [6]
In part (i) Grade A boundary candidates knew that the number of significant figures
was correct and gave the correct reason. Graphs were usually well drawn in part (ii)
and best fit lines appropriate.
Mark awarded: 1, 6.
89

Q4c(i) Table 4.2 gives two values of E.
Table 4.2
E/MeV E-½ /MeV-½ Log10(t½/s)
4.53
7.20
Enter the corresponding values for E− 12 in the second column of

Table 4.2. [2]
4.53 0.470
7.20 0.373
Q4c(ii) According to the Geiger and Nuttall proposed theory in Equation 4.1,
A = 148 and B = 53.5. Use these values and Equation 4.1 to calculate
the Geiger and Nuttall theoretical values for log10(t½/s).
Enter the values in the third column of Table 4.2. [2]
4.53 16.06
7.20 1.70
90

Q4c(iii) On the graph grid of Fig. 4.1 plot the two theoretical points from
Table 4.2 and join the points by a straight line. Label this line GN. This
line is a graphical representation of the Geiger–Nuttall law. [2]
In part (i) Grade A boundary candidates usually calculated the values correctly and
were awarded both marks. Likewise in part (ii) these candidates had no problems
using the equation to calculate the log t values. Points were plotted correctly in part
(iii) and the GN line drawn accurately.
91

Q4d(i) You should find that your line from the experimental results is not in
very good agreement with the line GN. The values of A and B do not
work well for the nuclides listed.
Use your graph to determine a numerical value for A which corresponds

with the experimental data in Table 4.1.
A = __________ [3]
Student’s response=
A = grad
= 17 – 0 0
0.48 – 0.38
= 170
A = 170
Q4d(ii) Determine the percentage difference in the numerical value for A that
corresponds to the experimental data in Table 4.1 and the numerical
value of 148 proposed by Geiger and Nuttall.
Percentage difference = __________ % [2]
170 – 148 = 22
%A= 22 2
%A= X 100
14.86%
= 14.8649%
Percentage difference = 14.9 %
Grade A boundary candidates correctly identified the gradient as a value for A and
were able to use their graph to get a value within the acceptable range in part (i).
92

These candidates had no problem with part (ii), the percentage difference calculation
being familiar to them and helped by the fact that comparison to either 148 or their
gradient value was acceptable in this case. Mark awarded: 3. 2.
93

95

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These materials illustrate aspects of performance from the 2018 summer A2

APH11: Momentum, Thermal Physics,

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

The majority of Grade A boundary candidates gave correct descriptions of fission

Q1c(i) Equation 1.1 shows an incomplete equation to describe a fission

How many neutrons are released in the reaction?

Number of neutrons = ______________________ [1]

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Calculate the number of U-235 nuclei that need to undergo fission by

Number of nuclei = ___________________ [5]

Number of nuclei = 3.60x1010

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Advantage: It doesn’t rely on the elements to create power, so electricity can be

Disadvantage: An accident in a fission reactor could damage the local environment.

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Radius of gold atom = m [2]

Radius of gold atom = 7.01 x 10-15 m

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Complete Fig. 3.1 by drawing and labelling any additional apparatus

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

A 136 kg horse on the outside of the carousel travels in a circle of

Use the definition of acceleration to explain why there must be a

Grade A boundary candidates correctly defined acceleration and then usually

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Force = ____________________ N [3]

This calculation was usually correctly answered by Grade A boundary candidates.

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

What is the minimum speed of the rollercoaster carriage for the

Speed = ______________________m s-1 [2]

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

The carriage won’t make it round the loop.

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive source and why is it

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Q5a(ii) Use Fig. 5.1 to calculate the half-life of Cu-62.

Half-life = _______________ minutes [3]

Half-life = 9.6 minutes

Grade A boundary candidates usually correctly explained half-life and considered at

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Initial Activity = __________________ Bq [2]

Initial Activity = 2601 Bq

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Which contact lens would be most comfortable for the user?

Explain your answer. [1]

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Focal lengths range from ______________ to cm ______________ [3]

Focal lengths range from 12.5 to -25 cm

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Calculate the thickness t of the sample.

Thickness = ______________ m [5]

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Calculate energy transferred using Q = Current x voltage x time

Clse C = Q to calculate the specific heat capacity

CCEA EXEMPLIFYING EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE

Time = ________________ s [6]

Focal lengths range from to cm [3]