SHORT COURSE ON ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING 2016

III. ENVIRONMENTAL PLAN IMPLEMENTATION, LEGAL ASPECT AND ADMINISTRATION

Third Mock Exam

1. The use of property bears a social function, and all economic agents shall contribute to the common good.
I. Article 12, 1987 Constitution III. Article 13, 1987 Constitution V. Section 6
II. Section 4 IV. Section 5

A. I and II B. III and IV C. I and V D. III and V E. None of the above

2. Congress shall establish an independent economic and planning agency headed by the President.
I. Article 12, 1987 Constitution III. Article 13, 1987 Constitution V. Section 10
II. Section 8 IV. Section 9

A. I and II B. III and IV C. I and IV D. II and IV E. None of the above

3. To carry out its mandates, the LGUs exercise their inherent powers such as the power of eminent domain and police power
I. Philippine Constitution III. Philippine National Police Code V. 1991
II. Local Government Code IV. 1987

A. I and V B. II and V C. III and IV D. III and V E. None of the above

4. It defines management policy objectives and strategies for water, air, natural resources, land, and waste management, as it also
prescribes environmental quality standards to pursue a comprehensive program on environmental management in the Philippines.

I. Republic Act III. Batas Pambansa V. 1586: Environmental Impact Assessment System
II. Presidential Decree IV. 1152: Environment Code

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV C. III and V D. None of the above

5. Lays down the framework of the Philippine EIA System, and specifies that only project types and geographical areas deemed
environmentally critical would fall within the scope of the EIA.

I. Republic Act III. Batas Pambansa V. 1586: Environmental Impact Assessment System
II. Presidential Decree IV. 1152: Environment Code

A. 1 and IV B. I and V C. II and V D. III and V E. None of the above

6. An Act Authorizing the Ministry of Human Settlements to Establish and Promulgate Different Levels of Standards and Technical
Requirements for Economic and Socialized Housing Projects in Urban and Rural Areas
I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 220 V. 7279

A. I and IV B. II and V C. III and IV D. III and V E. None of the above

7. Urban Development and Housing Act (UDHA) of 1992

I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 220 V. 7279

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. III and IV E. None of the above

8. Clean Water Act: Calls for an integrated, holistic, decentralized and participatory approach to abating, and controlling water
pollution
I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 9275 V. 1067

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above

9. Water Code of the Philippines: It defines the ownership, appropriation, utilization, exploitation, development, conservation, and
protection of water resources, and the rights to land related thereto.
I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 9275 V. 1067

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 A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above

10. Clean Air Act of 1999: Provides for a comprehensive air quality management policy and program which encourages
cooperation and self-regulation; it also lays down pollution standards for different sources.
I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 8749 V. 9211

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above

11. Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003: Bans smoking in public places.

I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 8749 V. 9211

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above

12. National Building Code: Regulates the location and siting of building structures through a permit system in conformity with local
zoning ordinances and land use plan.
I. Republic Act II. Presidential Decree III. Batas Pambansa IV. 1096 V. 9003

A. I and IV B. I and V C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above

13. This Act identifies a system of protected areas in the country composed of any of the following: strict nature reserve, natural
park, natural monument, wildlife sanctuary, protected landscape and seascape, etc.
I. RA 9003 II. RA 7586 III. RA 10875 IV. NIPAS Act V. Forestry Code

A. I and IV B. II and IV C. I and V D. III and V E. None of the above.

14. This Act restores the rights of the indigenous cultural communities over their ancestral lands and ancestral domains; it bestows
them as well the right to: develop and manage their lands and natural resources, stay in territories and not be displaced, regulate
entry of migrants, safe and clean water, claim parts of reservations, and resolve conflicts according to customary law.
I. RA 8371 II. RA 7586 III. PD 1081 IV. IPRA Law V. NIPAS Act

A. I and IV B. II and IV C. I and V D. III and V E. None of the above.

15. This Act establishes a new system of mineral resource exploitation, development, utilization, and conservation.
I. RA 7942: Philippine Mining Act III. 1991 V. 1995
II. RA 7076: People‟s Small-Scale Mining Act IV. 1993

A. I and III B. II and IV C. I and IV D. I and V E. None of the above

16. Philippine Small-scale Mining Act: To promote, develop, protect and rationalize viable small-scale mining activities in order to
generate more employment opportunities and provide an equitable sharing of the nation‟s wealth and natural resources.
I. RA 7942 II. RA 7076 III. 1991 IV. 1993 V. 1995

A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. II and IV E. None of the above

17. This Act authorizes the financing, construction, operation and maintenance of infrastructure projects by the private sector.
I. RA 6957: BOT Law II. RA 7916: Special Economic Zone Act III. 1990 IV. 1991 V. 1992

A. I and III B. II and III C. II and IV D. II and V E. None of the above.

18. This Act encourages the development of utilization of renewable energy resources and to accelerate the exploration and
development of renewable energy resources.
I. RA 9513: Renewable Energy Act II. 2008 III. 2009 IV. 2010 V. 2012

A. I and II B. I and III C. I and IV D. I and V E. None of the above.

19. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard to optimizing the
use of land as a resource is
A. NEDA B. DAR C. HLURB D. DPWH

20. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is

A. NHA B. HUDCC C. HLURB D. MMDA

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21. This refers to a title formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains
identified in accordance with the law
A. Torrens Title B. Indigenous People Title C. Land Title D. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title

22. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective customary laws and practices, free
from any external manipulation and coercion
A. Indigenous consensus C. Free and informed consent
B. Rights of Indigenous people D. All of the above

23. RA No.8371 is also known as the

A. NIPAS Law C. Agenda 21
B. Conservation and Biodiversity D. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)

24. This Law/s provides a liberalization environment more conductive to private sector investment.
A. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law)
B. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

25. R.A. 9175 is also known as:

A. Chainsaw Act of 2002 C. Clean Air Act of 1999
B. Clean Water Act of 2004 D. Revised Philippine Cooperative code of 2008
26. Which of the following statements about the P.D. 957 are true?
I. It is a policy of the State to afford its inhabitants the requirements of decent human settlements and to provide them
with ample opportunities for improving their quality of life.
II. Reports reveal that many real estate subdivision owners, developers, operators, and/or sellers have reneged on
their representations and obligations to provide and maintain the subdivision‟s basic requirements
A. I only C. I & II
B. II only D. None of the above
27. A law that transfers to LGUs the primary responsibility for the delivery of major basic services as well as the exercise of certain
regulatory functions
A. RA 7160 C. RA 9272
B. RA 8435 D. RA 6654

28. The following are true about the Philippine Environment Code, except:
I. The broad spectrum of environment has become a matter of vital concern to the government
II. The program can assume tangible and meaningful significance only by establishing specific environment
management policies and prescribing environment quality standards in a Philippine Environment Code
III. One of its purposes is to prevent to the greatest extent practicable, injury and/or damage to plant and animal
life and property, and promote the social economic development of the country
A. I only C. All of the above
B. II only D. None of the above

29. An act mainstreaming climate change into government policy formulations, establishing the framework strategy and program on
climate change
A. RA 9729 B. RA 10121 C. RA 9003 D. RA 7292

30. The law that provides for a comprehensive and continuing urban development and housing program and establishes the
mechanisms for the implementation of socialized housing in the Philippines
A. RA 7279 B. RA 7160 C. RA 1010 D. RA 6969

31. In the Philippines, low density housing development means ______ dwelling units per hectare.
A. 20 and below B. 21 to 65 C. 66 and above D. None of the above

32. As a _________, the LGU represents its residents, the inhabitants within its territory.

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 A. Body corporate C. Local planning structure E. None of the above
B. Body politic D. Technical component

33. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec.2a defines it as referring to „all activities concerned with the management and development of
land, as well as the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment”
A. Urban Planning C. Environmental Management
B. Human Ecology D. Environmental Planning

34. An act providing for the protection and conservation of the national, cultural heritage, strengthening the national commission for
culture and the arts (NCAA) and its affiliated cultural agencies, and for other purposes.
A. RA 9729 B. RA 10121 C. RA 9003 D. RA 10066

35. A system of inputting, collating, and organizing data that would provide selective data and analytic reports to management, to
assist in monitoring and controlling a project‟s organization, resources, activities, and results.
A. EDP – Electronic Data Processing C. PDS – Project Development information Service
B. ICT – Information and Communication Technologies D. MIS – Management Information System

36. The following can be a required project except for:

A. A project that provides an enabling mechanism for another project to product output
B. Can be analyzed as a stand-alone project
C. Can be analyzed as a component of a package of products
D. None of the above

37. Which of the following is (are) source(s) of project ideas:

A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
B. Lessons learned from previous similar project
C. Dialogue and consultation with various interest groups
D. All of the above

38. Which is not included In the pre-investment phase of project development cycle?
A. On-going evaluation
B. Project formulation
C. Project identification
D. Appraisal, negotiation and approval

39. Which of the following illustrates the project development cycle in chronological order:
A. Formulation, conception, implementation, appraisal, operations, ex-post evaluation
B. Identification, preparation, analysis, implementation, operations, evaluation
C. Conception, implementation, formulation, appraisal, implementation, operations
D. None of the above

40. The following is true about project analysis and appraisal EXCEPT:
A. Is the culmination of the project's preparatory work
B. Provides comprehensive review of all aspects of the project
C. Decision for the approval of project is based on overall feasibility and soundness of the project
D. None of the above

41. System that aims to oversee the actual construction/installation operations carried out according to plan specifications, work
programs and schedule
A. Implementation schedule C. Project implementation system
B. Network diagram D. Project execution system

42. Which is TRUE about the planning stage in the project management cycle?
A. Inclusion of motivation of staff
B. Conduct of problem solving activities
C. Definition of project nature and scope
D. Distribution of schedule and execute assignments

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43. The post-investment phase is best described when:
A. Projects are scrutinized and screened
B. Projects are provided with detailed engineering design
C. Project structures are constructed and services are delivered
D. Project progress and performance are supervised

44. Which of the following is/are NOT included in the control phase of the project management cycle?
A. Reporting
B. Comparison with goals and objectives
C. Problem resolution
D. Coordination efforts

45. Evaluation done after the completion of a project to provide policy makers with information for their future planning is:
A. Ex-post evaluation
B. Post evaluation
C. Ex ante evaluation
D. On-going evaluation

46. An effective project monitoring include the following EXCEPT:

A. Identification of problems at project level
B. Comparison between financial and economic analyses
C. Physical progress is checked against the plans and work schedules
D. Financial progress is compared with the target cash flows and budget allocation

47. Which best describes a project work and financial plan:

A. Incorporated in a well-prepared logical framework
B. Contains chronological major activities of a project
C. Basis for financial programming in a particular year of implementation
D. All of the above

48. This is a work and financial plan prepared for a particular time during the implementation of the project
A. Work and Financial Project
B. Annual work and financial plan
C. Global work and financial plan
D. Periodic work and financial plan

49. A curve that represents the cumulative progress of either financial or physical targets against the actual performance of a
project being implemented
A. Gantt chart
B. S-curve
C. D-curve
D. Project performance trend

50. When illustrated in an S-curve, a negative slippage is when:

A. Actual accomplishment is inadequate to meet the target
B. Actual accomplishment is over the scheduled targets
C. Actual accomplishment is able to meet the target
D. Actual accomplishment is similar with the scheduled target

51. In computing project performance, the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. Weights assigned should be used to compute the relative importance of the project components based
on costs and other considerations
B. Averaging project performance is misleading since all activities are treated based on which component is
heavier or more important
C. Average in project performance computation can pull down unsatisfactory level due to high in
accomplishment.
D. None of the above

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 52. It is the process of planning and directing a project from its inception to its completion in a given time, cost and end
product.
A. Project cycle
B. Project management
C. Project implementation
D. Project control
E. Project monitoring

53. Implementation and motivation are integral in project control as reflected in the project management cycle. It identifies
tangible sources of information as a measure if the objectives of a project have been met upon evaluation.
A. Objectively Verifiable Indicator
B. Means of Evaluation
C. Objectively Validated Indicator
D. Means of Verification
E. Objectively Valuated Indicator

54. It is the identification of all problems surrounding the institutions and the given problem condition in the project area and
displaying information as a series of cause and effect relationship.
A. Participation Analysis
B. Stakeholders Analysis
C. Stakeholder diagram
D. Problem Analysis
E. Problem Identification

55. It is a part of project management cycle that deals with the allocation of resources, guiding for execution, coordination of
efforts and motivation of staff.
A. Control Phase
B. Planning Phase
C. Execution Phase
D. Pre-investment Phase
E. Investment Phase

56. It is a type of project indicator that measures the attainment of results.

A. Impact indicator
B. Input indicator
C. Objective indicator
D. Parameter
E. Product Indicator

57. It is the examination and appraisal of how things are going in the project.
A. Monitoring
B. Evaluation
C. Ex-ante evaluation
D. Pre-post evaluation
E. Monitoring and Evaluation

58. These are parameters set for the development goal and purpose levels, it also take into account unintended and side
effects.
A. Impact indicator
B. Input indicator
C. Objective indicator
D. Parameter
E. Product Indicator

59. It is a type of constraint that only affects the project management system.
A. Task Constraint
B. Objective Constraint
C. Environmental Constraint

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 D. Organizational Constraint
E. Project Constraint

60. It helps the project manager develop the skills to evaluate linkages between project and the key elements and to manage these
linkages.
A. Project cycle
B. Project management
C. Project implementation
D. Social Preparation
E. Environmental Scanning

61. The Goals and Objectives have to be specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and ________.
A. Tenable
B. Truthful
C. Time-bound
D. Testable
E. Treatable

62. An analytical, presentational, and management tool that involves problem analysis, stakeholder analysis, developing a ladder-
like chain of objectives, and selecting a preferred implementation strategy, usually taking the form of a four-by-four table that
summarizes what the project intends to do and how, what the key assumptions are, and how outputs and outcomes will be
monitored and evaluated.
A. Primavera
B. Force Field Analysis
C. Logical Framework
D. Logical Decision Window
E. Critical Path Method

63. Which of the following ordered steps of „Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) refers to ascertaining the
difference between expected time and latest time?
A. Define tasks
B. Find slack time
C. Link tasks in sequence
D. Find probability of meeting expected time
E. Estimate time to complete each task

64. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project or undertaking and then
designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and enhancement measures.
A. Environmental Risk Assessment
B. Environmental Accounting and Audit
C. Environmental Impact Assessment
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment
E. none of the above

65. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
A. Indigenous people
B. Stakeholders
C. Squatters
D. Proponent
E. Beneficiaries

66. The Logical Framework tool can be useful for different part of the project development cycle including:
A. Objective Setting
B. Defining the scope of the project
C. Monitoring and Project Evaluation
D. Project Design
E. All of the above

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67. CPM allows project managers to simulate reducing the time duration it takes for the project and its effect on cost, this is called.
A. Slack time
B. Critical path
C. Crashing
D. Network analysis
E. Project Management

68. It is a Network Analysis Tool that was developed to ensure the completion the Polaris program during the Cold War when the
U.S. government was concerned about the Soviet Union‟s growing number of nuclear weapons.
A. Road Analysis
B. PERT
C. CPM
D. Cold war project design
E. Logical Framework

69. The first step to understanding the problem is an analysis of the people, groups, or organizations who may influence or be
influenced by the problem or a potential solution to the problem.
A. Situational Analysis
B. IP studies
C. Community Profiling
D. Stakeholder‟s Analysis
E. Organizational Diagram

70. It is a graphic devise that describes a problem and the hierarchy of factors that are believed to cause and effect of the problem.
A. Problem Tree
B. Fishbone
C. Community Mapping
D. Problem Venn Diagram
E. None of the above

71. Project assumptions that need to be included in the Logical Framework should be.
A. High likelihood of happening
B. External to the project
C. Will not affect the project outcome
D. Entails project cost
E. All of the above

72. The Vertical logic of the LogFrame is

A. The means-and-end relationship of project goals
B. The hierarchy of plans
C. The indicators of project success and assumptions
D. Relationship of project cost and benefits
E. c. none of the above

73. The Horizontal logic of the LogFrame is

A. The means-and-end relationship of project goals
B. The hierarchy of plans
C. The indicators of project success and assumptions
D. Relationship of project cost and benefits
E. c. none of the above

74. The Logical Framework should be done:

A. At the beginning of the project for the design
B. After project approval for the budgeting
C. At the middle of the project of the monitoring
D. At the end of the project for evaluation
E. all of the above

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75. What can a project planner do when facing a “killer” assumption?
A. Abandon the project
B. Modify the project to address it
C. Come up with a new project to address it
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

76. A road rehabilitation project in City A targeted to cover 8 kilometers for 2016. During the first quarter, the following were
provided by the contractor:

Overall Target Quarterly Accomplishment Percent Accomplishment

(2016) Target Actual Target Actual
Road rehabilitation 8 km 2 km 1 km 25% 12.5%
project

The project's quarterly accomplishment is:

A. 12.5% C. 50%
B. 25% D. 70%

77. Referring to the road rehabilitation project, the following are true EXCEPT:
A. Quarterly performance is computed by dividing actual accomplishment over target accomplishment X
100
B. The overall slippage of the project is 12.5%
C. The quarterly accomplishment is 12.5%
D. None of the above

78. In computing for physical performance of several components, which of the following should be considered:
A. Assigning of values to project components relative to their costs
B. Assigning of weights to project components relative to its financial benefits
C. Computation of weighted accomplishment by multiplying percent accomplishment by the project
component's accomplishment
D. None of the above

79. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion when full project benefits and impact are
expected to have been realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation
b. On-going Evaluation
c. Impact Evaluation
d. Pre-Evaluation

80. Which of the statement(s) is(are) FALSE about the aspects of feasibility study?

A. The economic aspect ascertains which options yield positive results to generate sufficient economic and social benefits to
recover costs of the project.
B. The technical study looks into alternative technical schemes to attain the project's objectives at the least possible cost.
C. The social and environmental aspects look into the impacts and risks that the project may bring to the organization and
administrative arrangements.
D. None of the above

81. A project with an acceptable economic rate of return should have:

A. NPV > 0; BCR = 1
B. NPV = 0; BCR = 1
C. IRR is higher than prevailing cost of capital
D. Discount rate used is higher that IRR

82. This indicates the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in he project
A. Payback Period
B. Retention Period

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 C. Return On Investment
D. Profit Margin

83. When the economic and technical soundness of the project turned out to be highly evident during the pre-feasibility study, what
possible decision should be made?
A. Deferment of the project in the future date
B. Proceed to conducting a detailed design and implementation
C. Conduct a detailed feasibility study
D. Reject the project

84. Which of the following are NOT included in the market aspect of feasibility preparation:
A. Current and projected demand
B. Competitiveness of product/service relative to its quality and price
C. Marketing programming and planning
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

85-86. Given two mutually exclusive projects below,

Cost NPV ENPV Cost of Capital FIRR EIRR
Project 1 P 10 M + P 1.2 M + P 1.0 M 15% 15% 16%
Project 2 P 15 M + P 1.0 M + P 1.1 M 13% 18% 17%

85. Which project is the more financial viable?

A. Project 1
B. Project 2
C. Both Projects 1 and 2
D. None of the above

86. Which project is more economically feasible?

A. Project 1
B. Project 2
C. Both Projects 1 and 2
D. None of the above

87. The portion of the feasibility study (FS) that determines the project‟s net contribution to the national economy and social welfare
is
A. Economic study
B. Demand analysis
C. Financial analysis
D. Technical evaluation

88. This represents the ratio of the present value of benefits to the present value of costs:
A. Internal rate of return
B. Net present value
C. Benefit-cost ratio
D. Discounting

89. The process of finding the present value of future amount is called
A. Discounting
B. Acid test
C. Payback
D. Return of investment

90. The hurdle rate used by NEDA is

A. 15%
B. 18%
C. 12%
D. 20%

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91. Costs or benefits felt by entities other than the implementing agency or project management office:
A. Subsidies
B. Incrementality
C. Externalities
D. Social Discount Rate

92. The following is(are) TRUE about projects on environmentally critical areas EXCEPT:
A. Includes prime agricultural lands and water bodies
B. Have adverse environmental impacts less sensitive or diverse than environmentally critical projects
C. Needs an EIS document
D. None of the above

93. It determines the impact of the project to stakeholders by identifying beneficiaries and losers and assessing project's positive or
negative social impact
A. Social impact analysis
B. Gender analysis
C. Institutional analysis
D. Stakeholders analysis

94. A contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent undertakes the financing construction of a given infrastructure or
development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned, which
shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expanded on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return
thereon.
A. Build and transfer
B. Build own and operate
C. Build transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer

95. Analysis that involves varying discount rates, phyisical inputs or outputs or values of benefits or costs to assess
responsiveness to sources of risks
A. Breakeven analysis
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Cost benefit analysis
D. None of the above

96. Which of the following is(are) TRUE about bottom-up budgeting?

A. Line workers who are more familiar with specific activities are requested to provide cost estimates
B. Detailed budget request make use of elemental activities, schedules, and labor skill requirements
C. As the Philippine government strategy, LGUs development needs are being considered with strong
participation of basic sector organizations and civil society organizations
D. All of the above

97. This Law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
A. RA 7718
B. Retail Trade Liberation Act
C. Urban Development and Housing Act
D. None of the above

98. Which among the following is NOT a land-based resource mobilization tool for LGUs?
A. Land transfer tax
B. Tax on sand and gravel
C. Fishery rental and fees
D. Land development permit free

99. These tools are based on the user-pay-principle as cost recovery mechanisms of infrastructure projects
A. Debt-based tools
B. Revenue sharing-based tools
C. Municipal bonds
D. Infrastructure-based tools
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100. The following should be considered in selecting appropriate financing instrument:
A. Adequacy of funds
B. Impact on LGU's budget
C. Legalities of the financing instrument
D. All of the above

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