Reinforcement

SUSHMITA MAE ROSE R. CONTRERAS

#ROADTORMT2018
V7.0
CLINICAL
CHEMISTRY
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
1. Reference method for quantitation of
lipoproteins
a. Ultracentrifugation
b. Abell Kendall
c. Modified Van Handel and Zilversmith
d. Hexokinase
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
2. Process by which the fluorescence of an
analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule
losing some of its energy by interacting with
other substances in solution is known as
a. ionization
b. quenching
c. phosphorescence
d. self-absorption
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
3. Most specific method for ALP measurement
that uses p-nitrophenyl phosphate as substrate
a. Bodansky
b. Bessy, Lowry & Brock
c. Klein, Babson & Read
d. Bowers & McComb

Bow and Beso for PNP

 Methods Substrate End Products
Bodansky
Shinowara
Inorganic phosphate +
Beta-glycerophosphate
Jones glycerol
Reinhart
King & Armstrong Phenylphosphate Phenol
Bessy, Lowry & Brock
p-nitrophenol or yellow
PNPP
Bowers & McComb nitrophenoxide ion

Huggins & Talalay

Phenolphthalein
Phenolphthalein red
diphosphate

Moss Alpha naphthol PO4 Alpha naphthol

Klein, Babson & Read
Buffered phenolphthalein
Free phenolphthalein
PO4
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
4. Direct injection of a sample into a very small
diameter tubing, thus minimizing lateral
diffusion best describes
a. continuous flow analysis
b. flow-injection analysis
c. automatic clinical analysis
d. centrifugal analysis
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
5. Part of a spectrometer that minimizes
unwanted or stray light
a. light source
b. entrance slit
c. exit slit
d. monochromator

Entrance stray
Monochrom WL
Exit bandpass
Test Your Memory:
True/False
F 1. Ultracentrifugation is the reference method for
measurement of cholesterol.
F 2. In quenching, the fluorescence of an analyte is
increased.
T 3. Susbtrate for Bessy, Lowry, Brock method is
PNPP
F 4. In flow-injection analysis, air is injected into
each stream as small air bubbles to prevent
mixing between samples
T 5. Entrance slit minimizes stray light
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
6. The following exciter lamps provide
ultraviolet light except
a. mercury
b. deuterium
c. xenon
d. tungsten

MDX: UV
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
7. Driving force of the bicarbonate buffer
system is
a. bicarbonate
b. carbon dioxide
c. carbonic acid
d. carbonic anhydrase
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
8. Which of the following anticoagulants
inhibits enolase and urease?
a. fluoride
b. EDTA
c. oxalate
d. citrate
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
9. At room temperature, glycolysis decreases
glucose by
a. 7 mg/dL/hour
b. 5 mg/dL/hour
c. 3 mg/dL/hour
d. 2 mg/dL/hour

7 rooms
2 refrigerators
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
10. Which of the following glycogen storage
disease is associated with branching enzyme
deficiency?
a. Pompe
b. Von Gierke
c. Cori Forbes
d. Andersen
Disease Deficient Enzyme Mnemonic

I Von Gierke Glucose-6-phosphatase GG

II Pompe Lysosomal α glucosidase PoLys
III Cori Debranching enzyme CD
IV Andersen Branching enzyme AB
V McArdle Muscle phosphorylase MM
VI Hers Liver phosphorylase LivHer
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
11. Conversion factor from BUN to urea
a. 0.357
b. 0.467
c. 2.14
d. 6.25
Factor Conversion

0.357 BUN CU to SI

0.467 Urea to BUN

2.14 BUN to Urea

6.25 Nitrogen to Protein
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
12. Adsorbent in Fuller’s earth reagent
a. silica gel
b. cellulose
c. sodium aluminum silicate
d. aluminum magnesium silicate

Lloyd’s SAS
Fuller’s earth: AMS
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
13. Serum cholesterol moderate risk for 30-39
years old
a. >200
b. >220
c. >240
d. >260
Age Moderate Risk High Risk

2-19 >170 >185

20-29 >200 >220

30-39 >220 >240

40 and
>240 >260
above
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
14. Which of the following enzymes exhibits
the least tissue specificity
a. ACP
b. AST
c. CK
d. LD
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
15. Which of the following is an antitussive
drug
a. Heroin
b. Morphine
c. Codeine
d. Marijuana
Drug/Hormone Metabolite
Nore/Epinephrine VMA
Dopa HVA
Serotonin 5-HIAA
Heroin Morphine
Cocaine Benzoylecgonine
Marijuana THC
Procainamide NAPA
Amitriptyline Nortryptyline
Primidone Phenobarbital
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
16. Which of the following enzymes has
moderate specificity for the liver, heart and
skeletal muscles
a. CK
b. LD
c. AST
d. ALT
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
17. In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase
activity is
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Variable
d. No change
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
18. Bilirubin fraction that is covalently attached
to albumin and contributes to the conjugated
bilirubin value is:
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Delta
d. None of the above
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
19. Bilirubin disorder characterized by an
inability to transport bilirubin from the
sinusoidal membrane into the hepatocyte
a. Carcinoma of the common bile duct
b. Gilbert syndrome
c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
d. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
20. The most potent and most active androgen
is:
a. Testosterone
b. DHEA
c. Epiandrosterone
d. Androstenedione
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
21. Which condition produces the highest
elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Acute hepatitis
d. Muscular dystrophy
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
22. Apoprotein inversely related to risk for
coronary heart disease?
a. Apo-A1
b. Apo-B100
c. Apo-B48
d. Apo-C
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
23. Ability of a test to detect a given disease or
condition
a. Diagnostic specificity
b. Diagnostic sensitivity
c. Positive predictive value
d. Negative predictive value
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
24. The unit IU for enzyme activity is
expressed as:
a. Moles per liter per second
b. Moles per liter per minutes
c. μmol of substrate per minute per liter
d. µmol of substrate per second per liter
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
25. Bridging effect between beta and gamma
globulin fractions observed on an
electrophoretic pattern
a. Acute inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation
c. Cirrhosis
d. Monoclonal gammopathy
Disease Electrophoretic Pattern
Acute inflammation ↑ alpha-1 alpha-2

Chronic inflammation ↑ alpha-1, alpha-2, gamma

↑ in gamma fraction with beta-

Cirrhosis
gamma bridging

Monoclonal gammopathy Sharp ↑ in 1 immunoglobulin

Polyclonal gammopathy Diffuse ↑ in gamma

Nephrotic syndrome ↓ albumin, ↑ alpha-2

MICRO/PARA
MICRO/PARA
1. CSF transport temperature for bacterial
culture
a. Room temp
Transport Storage
b. -70°C
Bacteria RT 37°C
c. 37°C
Virus -70°C 4°C
d. 4°C
MICRO/PARA
2. Indicator used in XLD agar
a. phenol red
b. methyl red
c. bromthymol blue
d. neutral red
Indicator Culture Media
Neutral red MAC
(MS) SSA
MSA
XLD
Phenol red
CTA
(MXCUT)
Urease
TSI
Citrate
HEA
Bromthymol blue
OF Hugh Leifson
(CHOTS)
TCBS
SCA
MICRO/PARA
3. CMV is best grown in
a. Monkey kidney cells
b. Human embryonic fibroblast
c. HeLa cells
d. A549 cells
MICRO/PARA
4. Smallest but deadliest fluke
a. Heterophyes
b. Hymenolepis
c. Dipylidium
d. Echinococcus
MICRO/PARA
5. Agent of explosive watery diarrhea
a. Shigella dysenteriae Shiga bacillus
b. Shigella flexneri Flexner’s bacilli
c. Shigella boydii Newcastle-Manchester bacilli
d. Shigella sonnei Sonne-duval bacilli
MICRO/PARA
6. Appearance of protozoan cyst cytoplasm in
iodine
a. colorless
b. red-purple
c. blue-black
d. yellow-brown
 Iodine Trichrome
Troph: destroyed Glycogen: colorless

Chromatoidal bodies: Chromatoidal bodies:

unstained bright red

Cyst cytoplasm: yellow Nucleus: red-purple

brown
Charcot-Leyden: bright red
MICRO/PARA
7. Preservative in trichrome staining
a. Polyvinyl alcohol
b. Formalin
c. Ethyl alcohol
d. NSS
MICRO/PARA
8. C. amycolatum isolated in nasopharyngeal
swab in non-immunocompromised host
a. carrier
b. infected
c. normal flora
d. contaminant
MICRO/PARA
9. All are confirmatory medium for water
analysis except
a. Levine EMB
b. Lactose broth
c. BGBL broth
d. Endo agar
MICRO/PARA
10. Agent of nongonococcal urethritis
a. C. trachomatis
b. S. haematobium
c. N. gonorrhoeae
d. E. coli
MICRO/PARA
11. Media for screening suspected cases of
hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain
a. citrate
b. lactose
c. sorbitol
d. indole
MICRO/PARA
12. When culturing Cryptococcus on
Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the
following antibiotics should NOT be in the
medium?
a. trimethoprim
b. vancomycin
c. aminoglycoside
d. cycloheximide
MICRO/PARA
13. Infective stage of Leishmania to man
a. Amastigote
b. Promastigote
c. Epimastigote
d. Trypomastigote
Morphological
Other Name Characteristics
Form
Intracellular
Amastigote Leishmanial
multiplication

Promastigote Leptomonad Anterior KP

Epimastigote Crithidial KP near nucleus

Trypomastigote Trypanosomal Posterior KP

MICRO/PARA
14. Which of the following would have a
double-walled, wrinkled cyst form?
a. Naegleria fowleri
b. Entamoeba hartmanni
c. Acanthamoeba castellanii
d. Dientamoea fragilis
MICRO/PARA
15. What indicates a positive DNase result
after 0.1 N HCl is added to the plate?
a. gels on refrigeration
b. green slant
c. agar becomes cloudy
d. agar clears around the colony
MICRO/PARA
16. The cause of primary amebic
meningoencephalitis is
a. Acanthamoeba
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Balamuthia mandrillaris
d. Trichomonas tenax
MICRO/PARA
17. Organism most often isolated from
pulmonary secretions of cystic fibrosis patients is
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella spp.
c. Enterobacter spp.
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
MICRO/PARA
18. Clue cells are usually present when a
patient has an infection with
a. Group A streptococcus
b. Group B streptococcus
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Lactobacillus spp.
MICRO/PARA
19. Gram positive diplococci, which grew
alpha-hemolytic colonies on blood agar
showing a “Mexican hat” appearance.
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
MICRO/PARA
20. Rust colored sputum in cases of lobar
pneumonia is characteristic of
a. C. jeikeium
b. S. aureus
c. S. pneumoniae
d. S. pyogenes
MICRO/PARA
21. Wayson's stain is a stain for
a. Metachromatic granules
b. Flagella
c. Endospores
d. Bipolar bodies
Negative stain for capsule Endospores
• India ink or Nigrosin • Fulton Schaeffer's
• Anthony's • Dorner's
• Wirtz Conklin
Metachromatic granules
• Albert Spirochetes
• Neisser • Fontana Tribondeau
• Loefflers alkaline methylene blue • Levaditi Silver Impregnation

Bipolar bodies Mycoplasma

• Wayson's • Dienes

Flagella Acid fast bacilli

• Leifson • Ziehl Neelsen
• Gray's • Kinyoun
• Caesares Gil • Pappenheim's
• Baumgarten's
• Wadefite
TIPS
Make it a habit of reviewing ‘weakness areas’ from the
previous day’s lecture.
On weekends, allot time to consolidate everything you
have learned during the weekdays.
3-5 days before the board exam, relax and calmly go
over your notes.
Have 6-8 hours of sleep. Take good care of your brain
if you want it to store and recall long term information.
CLINICAL
MICROSCOPY
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
1. Manner of reporting for abnormal crystals
a. rare, few, moderate, many per HPF
b. rare, few, moderate, many per LPF
c. average # per LPF
d. average # per HPF

Normal crystals: RFMM/HPF

Abnormal crystals: ave #/LPF
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
2. Possible causes of xanthochromia
I. RBC degradation product
II. bilirubin
III. carotene
IV. protein
V. melanoma

a. I, II, III, IV b. II, III, IV

c. I, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV, V
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
4. Yellow brown stones resembling an old
soap, somewhat greasy
a. cystine
b. calcium oxalate
c. phosphate
d. uric acid
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
3. Macrophage that ingested a neutrophil
a. synovial lining cell
b. LE cell
c. Reiter cell
d. rice bodies
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
5. Sperm motility grading: 2.0
a. rapid, straight-line motility
b. slower speed, some lateral movement
c. slow forward progression, noticeable lateral
movement
d. no forward progression
 Grade WHO Criteria
4.0 a Rapid straight-line

3.0 b Slower, some lateral movement

2.0 b Slow forward, noticeable lateral

movement
1.0 c No forward progression

0 d No movement
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
6. Grading: epithelial cell 5-20/LPF
a. rare
b. few
c. moderate
d. many
 Mucus Crystals Epith. cells Bacteria
Reporting
LPF HPF LPF HPF
Rare 0-1 0-2 0-5 0-10

Few 1-3 2-5 5-20 10-50

Moderate 3-10 5-20 20-100 50-200

Many >10 >20 >100 >200

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
7. Degree of hazard: 3 Grading Interpretation
a. Slight 0 No/minimal
b. Moderate 1 Slight
c. Serious 2 Moderate
d. Extreme 3 Serious
4 Extreme
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
8. Crystals insoluble in dilute acetic acid
a. yeast, WBC, bacteria, spermatozoa, protozoan
b. carbonates, RBC, amorphous phosphates
c. lipids, lymphatic fluid, chyle
d. amorphous urates, uric acid
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
9. Characterized by increased retention of
water and solutes in large intestine
a. bloody diarrhea
b. osmotic diarrhea
c. secretory diarrhea
d. explosive diarrhea
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
10. Concentric striations of collagen-like
material seen in benign conditions, also in
ovarian and thyroid carcinoma
a. rice bodies
b. psamomma bodies
c. onchronotic shards
d. meconium
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
11. Measurement of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
glutamine is useful in suspected cases of
a. multiple sclerosis
b. bacterial meningitis
c. Reye's syndrome
d. tertiary syphilis
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
12. The normal brown color of the feces is
produced by?
a. urobilinogen
b. urobilin
c. pancreatic enzymes
d. dietary fiber
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
13. The Amniostat agglutination test is
performed on amniotic fluid from pregnant
women to detect the presence of:
a. lecithin
b. phosphatidyl glycerol
c. sphingomyelin
d. creatinine
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
14. Which of the following reagents below is
used to detect urobilinogen in urine
a. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. p-dinitrobenzene
c. p-aminosalicylate
d. p-dichloroaniline
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
15. When using a polarized light microscopy,
which urinary sediment component exhibits
Maltese cross formation?
a. RBC’s
b. yeasts
c. oval fat bodies
d. WBCs
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
16. Which of the following is an indirect
measure of specific gravity
a. Falling drop method
b. Refractometry
c. Urinometer method
d. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
17. Daily loss of protein in urine does not
exceed
a. 30 mg
b. 50 mg
c. 100 mg
d. 150 mg
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
18. Which ketone is not detected by the
reagent strip test?
a. acetone
b. acetoacetate
c. B-hydroxybutyrate
d. none of the above
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
19. Appearance of glitter cells in Sternheimer-
Malbin stain
a. violet
b. light blue
c. light pink
d. colorless
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
20. Uric acid and urates redissolve on warming
to
a. 20°C
b. 40 °C
c. 50 °C
d. 60 °C
HEMATOLOGY
HEMATOLOGY
1. In the French-American-British (FAB)
classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would
be:
a. M1 and M2
b. M3
c. M4
d. M5
 FAB CLASSIFICATION OF
ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIAS

M0 Acute Myeloid Leukemia, minimally differentiated

M1 Acute Myeloid Leukemia without maturation

M2 Acute Myeloid Leukemia with maturation
M3 Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
M4 Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia
M5a Acute Monocytic Leukemia, poorly differentiated
M5b Acute Monocytic Leukemia, well differentiated
M6 Acute Erythroleukemia
M7 Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia
HEMATOLOGY
2. Normal platelets have a circulating life span
of approximately:
a. 5 days
b. 20 days
c. 10 days
d. 30 days
HEMATOLOGY
3. Approximately _______ of the total number
of platelets circulate in the systemic
circulation?
a. two-thirds
b. one-third
c. one-fourth
d. one-half
HEMATOLOGY
4. What is the FAB Classification of Burkitt
lymphoma?
FAB Classification of ALL
a. L3 L1 Small lymphoblast, homogeneous
b. L2 appearance
L2 Large lymphoblast, heterogenous
c. L1 appearance
d. L0 L3 Large and uniform lymphoblast,
with prominent nucleoli
HEMATOLOGY
5. Two HBs that migrate together on cellulose
acetate electrophoresis at alkaline pH are
a. A1 and A2
Cathode (- Anode
b. A1 and E ) (+)
C S F A H
c. S and C A2 D
E G
d. S and D O
HEMATOLOGY
6. When making a blood film using the
spreader slide technique, a thinner film can be
obtained by
a. increasing the angle of the spreader slide
b. using a larger drop of blood
c. spreading the blood at a slower speed
d. all of the above
HEMATOLOGY
7. The correct maturation order of erythrocyte
morphologic stages is
a. prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte
b. rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte
c. rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte
d. rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
HEMATOLOGY
8. The Hb that is composed of four gamma
chains is
a. Hb H
b. Hb Bart
c. Hb S
d. Hb C
HEMATOLOGY
9. Laboratory test that is abnormal due to
intravascular hemolysis, but usually normal
with extravascular hemolysis is
a. fecal urobilinogen
b. urine urobilinogen
c. reticulocyte count
d. plasma hemoglobin
Intra: Plasma Hb
Extra: urobilinogen
HEMATOLOGY
10. The most immature stage of neutrophil
maturation which is no longer capable of
mitosis is the
a. promyelocyte
b. myelocyte
c. metamyelocyte
d. band
HEMATOLOGY
11. If a manual leukocyte count is anticipated
to be less than 3.0 x 109/L, the recommended
dilution is
a. 1:200 Dilution for Manual WBC Count
1:10 < 3.0 x 109/L
b. 1:100
1:20 Normal count
c. 1:20
1:100 > 30.0 x 109/L
d. 1:10
1:200 > 100 x 109/L
HEMATOLOGY
12. Centrifugation for microhematocrit
a. 5,000 to 10,000g for 5 minutes
b. 5,000 to 10,000g for 30 minutes
c. 10,000 to 15,000g for 5 minutes
d. 10,000 to 15,000g for 30 minutes
HEMATOLOGY
13. Photo-optical detection of fibrin clot
a. Electra
b. Coag-A-Mate
c. Ortho-Koagulab
d. all of the above

Electromechanical: Fibrosystem, Fibrometer, BBL

Manual detection: Tilt tube, wire loop
HEMATOLOGY
14. Specimen for sugar water test for PNH
a. citrated whole blood
b. defibrinated whole blood
c. heparinized whole blood
d. no anticoagulant

SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST: Citrated whole blood

ACID SERUM TEST: Defibrinated whole blood

HEMATOLOGY
15. Hypochromia grading: hemoglobin staining
that appears as thin rim on periphery of the cell
a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+

1+ central pallor occupying 1/3 to 2/3 of cell diameter

2+ to 3+ more than 2/3
4+ Hb staining that appears only thin rim on periphery of the cell
HEMATOLOGY
16. Cutaneous lymphoma that causes skin
itching, leading to ulcerative tumors:
a. Burkitt lymphoma
b. Mycosis fungoides
c. Hairy Cell Leukemia
d. Hodgkin Lymphoma
HEMATOLOGY
17. RBC that is thinner than normal and shows
a peripheral rim of hemoglobin with a dark
central hemoglobin containing area
a. Dacryocyte
b. Leptocyte
c. Microcyte
d. Schistocyte
HEMATOLOGY
18. Diluting fluid used in counting platelets
using phase contrast microscopy is:
a. 1% Ammonium Oxalate
b. Heparin
c. 0.105 M Sodium Citrate
d. None of the above
HEMATOLOGY
19. Lysosomal storage disorder characterized
by enlarged macrophages in the bone marrow
that have a wrinkled-appearing cytoplasm
containing excess glucocerebroside
a. Gaucher disease
b. Niemann-Pick disease
c. Sandhoff's disease
d. Tay-Sachs disease
HEMATOLOGY
20. Which of the following assays is used to
assess the presence of a factor inhibitor?
a. DRVVT
b. APCR
c. Fibrinogen level
d. Bethesda assay
ISBB
ISBB
1. CD marker responsible for E-rosette
formation between T cells and sheep RBCs
a. CD2
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD5
ISBB
2. Hepatitis A family
a. Picornaviridae A
b. Hepadnaviridae B
c. Flaviviridae C
d. Caliciviridae E
ISBB
3. Indicates active replication of hepatitis B and
high infectivity
a. HBeAg Infectivity
b. HBsAg Active infection
c. Anti-HBe Recovery
d. Anti-HBs Immunity
ISBB
4. Most frequently transmitted virus from
mother to fetus
a. HIV
b. HSV
c. CMV
d. EBV
ISBB
5. Process of notifying donors who test positive
for viral markers, and notifying prior recipients
of the possibility of infection, and quarantine or
discarding implicated components in inventory
a. Chain of evidence
b. Look-back
c. Quarantine
d. Donor screening
ISBB
6. Most severe HTR is caused by
a. Rh incompatibility
b. ABO incompatibility
c. Kell antibodies
d. Kidd antibodies
ISBB
7. Gamma irradiation requires a minimum of
_____ to the center of container
a. 25 Gy
b. 15 Gy
c. 10 Gy
d. 5 Gy
ISBB
8. Transfusion reaction characterized by
hypertension and 1°C increase in temperature
a. Anaphylactoid
b. TA-GVHD
c. TRALI
d. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

Anaphylactoid – non-IgE mediated release of mast cell mediators

TRALI – donor anti-HLA vs recipient HLA
TA-GVHD – donor lymphocyte vs recipient immune system
ISBB
9. Shelf-life of blood stored with CPD-A1
a. 21 days
b. 28 days
c. 35 days
d. 42 days
ISBB
10. % RBC viability after leukoreduction
a. 70%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 85%

70 post storage
75 post transfusion
80 deglycerolized (80 Harm 85 Turgeon)
85 leukoreduced
ISBB
11. McLeod phenotype is associated with what
RBC morphology
a. acanthocytes McLeod
b. elliptocytes Leach
c. ovalocytes Diego
d. stomatocytes Rh null
ISBB
12. Blood groups enhanced by enzyme
treatment
a. Kidd, Lewis, I, Rh, P enhanced (KLIRP)
b. MNSs, Duffy, ChRd, Yt, Xg destroyed (MD CRYX)
c. Kell, Lutheran resistant (KeLu)

d. MNSs, Duffy, Lutheran, Kidd, Rh

ISBB
13. Antibody associated with chronic active
hepatitis
a. anti-mitochondrial
b. anti-centromere
c. anti-smooth muscle
d. anti-dsDNA
Autoimmune Disease Antibody
SLE Anti-dsDNA, anti-Sm
RA RF
DM Type I Anti-insulin, anti-beta cells
Pernicious anemia Anti-parietal cells
AIHA Cold/warm autoantibodies
Anti-thyroglobulin, anti-thyroid
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
peroxidase
Grave’s disease Anti-TSH receptor
Autoimmune Disease Antibody
Anti-glomerular basement
Goodpasture syndrome
membrane
Wegener’s Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic
granulomatosis antibody
CREST Anti-centromere
Multiple sclerosis Anti-myelin sheath
Myasthenia gravis Anti-acetylcholine receptor
Primary biliary cirrhosis Anti-mitochondrial
Chronic active hepatitis Anti-smooth muscle
ISBB
14. Serum sickness and Arthus reaction are
examples of what type of hypersensitivity
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
ISBB
15. All of the following diseases are
characteristic of type I hypersensitivity except:
a. Asthma
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Hives
d. Anaphylaxis
 Type I Type II Type III Type IV
A.k.a. Anaphylactic HS Cell-bound/ Immune- Delayed/
Cytotoxic HS complex HS Cell-mediated
Imm. Med. IgE IgM, IgG IgM, IgG T cell
Effector cell Basophil, mast cell RBC, WBC, Plt Host tissue cellAPC,
macrophage, T
cell
Ag inv. Allergen Cell-bound Soluble antigen Sensitized
antigen antigen
C’ inv. No YES YES No
Mech. Release of Cell lysis Deposition of Release of
inflammatory Ag-Ab complex cytokines
mediators
Ex. Anaphylaxis AIHA Serum sickness Contact
Hay fever HDN Arthus reaction dermatitis
Food allergies SLE Tuberculin test
Asthma Poison ivy
ISBB
16. CA 15-3 is a tumor marker for
a. ovarian carcinoma
b. breast carcinoma
c. pancreatic carcinoma
d. gastric carcinoma
Tumor Marker Carcinoma
CA 125 Ovarian carcinoma
CA 15-3 Breast carcinoma
CA 19.9 Pancreatic carcinoma
CA 72-4 Gastric carcinoma
PSA Prostatic carcinoma
ALP Bone carcinoma
Beta-HCG Testicular carcinoma
Calcitonin Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Gastrin Gastric carcinoma
CYFRA Lung carcinoma
ISBB
17. CD markers of early B-cell development
include:
a. CD10
b. CD19
c. Both
d. Neither
ISBB
18. The function of the complement system
includes which of the following?
a. Clearance of cellular debris
b. Chemotaxis
c. Lysis of bacteria
d. All of the above
ISBB
19. Antigens that make very good immunogens
include which of the following?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Both
d. Neither
ISBB
20. Which antibody can cross the placenta and
play a significant role in hemolytic disease of
the newborn?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
ISBB
21. Which of the following features is not
shared between T cells and B cells
a. Antigen Specific Receptors
b. Class I MHC Expression
c. Positive selection during development
d. All of the above
ISBB
22. Function of CD4 is all except
a. Memory
b. Immunoglobulin production
c. Activation of macrophages
d. Cytotoxicity
ISBB
23. All of the following statements about NK
cells are true except
a. They are derived from large granular cells
b. They comprise about 5% of human
peripheral lymphoid cells
c. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells
d. They express IgG Fc receptors
ISBB
24. Most potent stimulator of naive T cell is
a. Mature dendritic cell
b. Follicular dendritic cell
c. Macrophages
d. B cell
ISBB
25. Natural killer cells attack which of the
following cells
a. Cells which express MHC-I
b. Cells which are not able to express MHC-I
c. MHC cells which express MHC-II
d. Cells which are not able to express MHC
ISBB
26. The complement is fixed best by which of
the following immunoglobulins:
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
ISBB
27. IL 1 causes
a. Increased leukocyte adherence
b. Fibroblast proliferation
c. Increased collagen synthesis
d. All of the above
ISBB
28. Plasma cells
a. Contain nucleus
b. Helps in the formation of antibody
c. Are deficient in cytoplasm
d. Are derived from T-cells
ISBB
29. The normal ratio of CD4 to CD8 is
a. 1: 1
b. 2: 1
c. 8: 1
d. 10: 1
ISBB
30. Which of the following is not true about
innate immunity?
a. It is present prior to antigenic exposure
b. It is relatively non-specific
c. Memory is seen
d. It is the first line of defense
INNATE/NATIVE/ ADAPTIVE/ACQUIRED/
NATURAL SPECIFIC
Present intrinsically Inducible
Nonspecific Specific
No memory Memory
Limited diversity Extensive diversity
Self-limiting
Distinction of self vs non-self
ISBB
31. Immunity against cancer cells:
a. Basophils
b. Eosinophils
c. NK cells
d. Neutrophils
ISBB
32. NK cells express:
a. CD15, CD55
b. CD16, CD56
c. CD16, CD57
d. CD21, CD66
ISBB
33. Which of the following immune cells have
the expression of CD8 on their surface?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. Null cells
d. Macrophages
ISBB
34. Kupffer cells are found in the
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Liver
d. Spleen
ISBB
35. Which of the following immunoglobulin
does not fix complement
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE
HISTOPATH /
MTLE
HISTOPATH/MTLE
1. Autopsy technique characterized by in situ
dissection
a. Technique of Virchow
b. Technique of Rokitansky
c. Technique of Ghon
d. Technique of Letulle
Virchow: organ removed one by one
Roki: in situ
Ghon: en bloc
Letulle: en masse
HISTOPATH/MTLE
2. All are secondary signs of death except
a. autolysis
b. livor mortis
c. respiratory failure
d. putrefaction

Primary: circulatory, respi, CNS failure

Secondary: algor, rigor, livor mortis, dessication, putrefaction, autolysis,
postmortem clotting
HISTOPATH/MTLE
3. Microtome knife recommended for frozen
sections or for cutting extremely hard and
tough specimens embedded in paraffin blocks
a. plane-concave knife
b. biconcave knife
c. plane-wedge knife
d. diamond knife
Plane-concave: less concave sides for celloidin-embedded tx
Biconcave: paraffin embedded
Plane-wedge: frozen sx, extremely hard sx
HISTOPATH/MTLE
4. If a laboratory manager wishes to determine the
number of phlebotomists needed to provide
emergency room coverage on Sunday nights during
the night shift. Which one of the decision-making
procedures may prove the most useful?
a. probability analysis
b. queuing theory
c. linear programming
d. simulation
 HISTOPATH/MTLE
5. First phase of the management process
a. setting objectives
b. directing
c. planning
d. gathering feedback
Planning: identifying goals, eval current situation, establish time frame, set obj,
forecast resource needs, implement plan, obtain feedback
Organizing: formal hierarchy, informal relationships
Directing: leadership, time allocation
Controlling: instructions, follow up, modifications
HISTOPATH/MTLE
6. In Pap’s smear, a suggestive but not
conclusive diagnosis of malignancy belongs to:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
 Papanicolaou Classification
Class I Absence of atypical or abnormal cell
Class II Atypical cytology, but no evidence of
malignancy
Class III Suggestive but not conclusive
Class IV Strongly suggestive
Class V Conclusive
HISTOPATH/MTLE
6. Clearing agent recommended for CNS but
becomes milky upon prolonged storage
a. CCl4
b. THF
c. Chloroform
d. Cedarwood oil
HISTOPATH/MTLE
7. Ripening of phosphotungstic acid
hematoxylin is usually accelerated by adding:
a. Dilute nitric acid
b. Gentle heat for 1 hour
c. Potassium permanganate
d. Glacial acetic acid
HISTOPATH/MTLE
8. Von Ebner’s fluid recommended as a good
decalcifying agent for teeth contains this acid
a. HCl
b. H2SO4
c. H3PO4
d. H2CrO4
HISTOPATH/MTLE
9. Rossman’s fluid (picric acid + formaldehyde)
is used as a fixative in what type of special
processing technique?
a. Freeze drying
b. Freeze substitution
c. Fresh frozen section
d. Quenching
HISTOPATH/MTLE
10. Washing out is a process of removing
excess fixative from the tissue after fixation. To
remove excessive mercuric fixative, one would
use:
a. Alcoholic iodine
b. 50-70% alcohol
c. Tap water
d. 70-95% ethanol
HISTOPATH/MTLE
11. Carnoy’s fluid recommended for fixing
chromosome, lymph glands & urgent biopsies
contain all of the following, except
a. Absolute alcohol
b. Chloroform
c. Glacial acetic acid
d. Picric acid
HISTOPATH/MTLE
12. Recommended fixative for
mucopolysaccharide acting as both nuclear
and histochemical fixative
a. Bouin’s
b. Newcomer’s
c. Osmium tetroxide
d. Heidenhain’s susa
HISTOPATH/MTLE
13. This is a semisynthetic wax recommended
for embedding eyes
a. embeddol
b. paraplast
c. ester wax
d. bioloid
HISTOPATH/MTLE
14. Which among the following hematoxylin
solutions are used for the study of
spermatogenesis?
a. alum
b. iron
c. copper
d. sodium
HISTOPATH/MTLE
15. Alum hematoxylin stains are recommended
for what type of staining procedure
a. progressive
b. regressive
c. supravital
d. intravital
HISTOPATH/MTLE
16. The policies on admission of foreigners to
the licensure examination and the practice of
their professions are embodied in PRC
Resolution No.
a. 270
b. 338
c. 323
d. 217
HISTOPATH/MTLE
17. Which section in RA 5527 mentioned about
foreign reciprocity:
a. 25
b. 27
c. 29
d. 31
HISTOPATH/MTLE
18. When was PAMET created?
a. September 20, 1964
b. October 1, 1945
c. September 15, 1963
d. June 21, 1969
HISTOPATH/MTLE
19. According to AO 55 s 1989, all HIV serum
reactive samples in screening tests by private
laboratories shall be referred to:
a. San Lazaro Hospital Laboratory
b. Bureau of Food and Drugs
c. RITM
d. Bureau of Research and Laboratories
HISTOPATH/MTLE
20. The penalty of revocation of a certificate of
registration may be imposed by the board if
there is
a. Chairman’s vote only
b. Majority vote
c. Unanimous vote
d. Secretariat’s vote
Thank You!
TO GOD BE THE GLORY!