SAT-2 NTSE(I)/19-20 trata vee att wat ( WI FA ) 2019-20 NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION ( Stage-I ) 2019-20 Roll No. wa aR SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST ( For Students of Class X) 120 Minutes Max: Marks © 100 ‘ot Cundidaics with benchmark disabilities, ‘fime:2 Hours 30 Minutes) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet. 1. Answers are to be given on a separate answer sheet (OMR sheet) Write your Roll Number as allotted to you in ge admission card vey clearly on the test jooklet and darken the appropriate circles fon the answer sheet as per instructions ven. ‘There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 13 belong to Physics, 14 to 26 Chemistry, 27 to 33 Botany, 34 16 40 Zoology, 41 to 60 Mathematics, 61 to 71 History, 72 to 82 Geography, 83 to 93 Political Science and 94 to 100.ure on Economies subjects, 4, Please follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for marking the answers, 5: If you do sot know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it-and pass ‘on to the next one, Time permitting, you can ‘come back to the questions, which you have Tell in the first instance and attemp* thera 6. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending (oo much time fon any one question 7. Rough work can be done om the given Blank Pages at the back of the booklet bu not on the answer sheet/loose paper 8. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark, There will be no negative marking. 4 Please return the Answer sheet (OMR Sheet) only to the invigilator after the test. 10. Hindi version of the question paper will be considered as final in case of any dispute arising out of variation in translated version, PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START YOUR WORK. 702-B Bookie Number ea Bem ‘ifare abaar ote (met x & frenfirat a fore ) weet: 120 fee ‘pris - 100 ( fava arasr & fore aya : 2 ue 30 tz ) vedtenfiret 3 feng Prez Bp Se ey a set Pt PRG tt 1 1 BI eR FA TH (sito WO aM she) aae 2 1 eos Ss ent oie em nal &, fatarare tre. yferar 9 ae ere, fotet ON one Re oe a wer 3. FH Wher A 100 mer Br wel wer aed Br et em 1 & 19 tes Pas, 14 & 26 TART FT, 27 & 3-ars fag, 34% 40 a Raa, 41 & 60 Afi, 61. 71 steer, 72 & a2 yer, 83. 8 99 werife faard wet 94 @ 100 sneer oe neh, ra end 4. ye sae fale ct & fore are wae we fet Bacon const oe oper sere 8, aly ae fret wer a ga ath od & at Se ce, argh ike et wT AG care Hore fect at fore meat aT Se Oe aig fear on, se ae arae se 3 Ses 6. ii gamer wera fey freer gut ae aa 8, Fake geen aba avaiT sifAa Ste feet Be We Feo SAT 3 TA . 7. ww ard yaar sia Te ne few ei we fern on aeeat & fey sae-e/areT wT wom 8, weston wel Sere am Ua shes er fever aT eH caer sie Fe ee 9. eat het ae tas saree (ate wo ano site) a Fattera at stare to, argnfer faczor ot ora & 3 fat sf frag a A en & fed ren i Froers arrt sem! rear go wafed site area at sree afer HSER 2019.20 The copyright of the contents ofthis booklet resis with the BSER and no part of it should be used by uunybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the BSER. The items are prepared fon best effort basis. In case of any dispute the opinion ofthe experts appointed by USER wil be final NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B yrs after at ater & fang aet ers at a onto(3) SAT-2 white aberar wher SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST Fa weua A pet 100 wea 21 wed Wes UH ain aT ET THERE ARE 100 QUESTIONS IN THIS PAPER. EACH QUESTION CARRIES ONE MARK. ( vifere fara ) { Physics ) 1 oe ad, as ear He HE A, BHC a sa Fad ad Fl we (A) sefae oT () fren Q a 3) aT 4 If work, force and time are represented by A, B and C respectively then the term (2) sit en (1) displacement (2) velocity (3) acceleration 4) momentum. 2. feat aor ar ofa an 10 m/s t | AE 4 m/s? GUT A Mleeiet B at 2s FEAT wou are aia weet eet ett (1) 6m 2) 18m (3) 22m (4) 28m. The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/s. It is moving with an acceleration of 4 m/s”. The distance covered by the particle after 2s is (1) 6m Q) 18m (3). 22m (4) 28 m. 3. Baber ecaranin Precis (G) era EO Q) Nem? /kg QQ) Nem? ke? (3) N-kg?/m? (4) Netan/kg? Unit of universal gravitational constant is (1) Nem? /icg (2) Nem? /kg? (3) N-kg?/m? (4) N-m/ke? 4, eT BA aye 350 m/s WH AMP 100 om &, ah eT a seg eT (1) 35 Hz (2) 350 Hz (3) 700 Hz (4) 3500 Hz. If the specd of wave is 350 m/s and its wavelength is 100 cm then the frequency of the wave will be (1) 35 Hz (2) 350 Hz (3) 700 Hz (4) 3500 Hz. NTSE(}}/19-20-SAT-702-B [P-T.0.SAT-2 - (4) 8. ae ain fora dines aig fare &, agent & (1) Sep eer (2) Heh ae (3) rT eT (4) FERRE fareot ‘The wave having compression and rarefaction is known as (1) transverse wave (2) jongitudinal wave (3) light wave (4) ultraviolet wave. al sorrel & te at gl gph aed ox sd we ecaractoy aay at aT (ye ater. (2) arr 3) yu apr If the distance between two masses is doubled then the gravitational force between them will be (1) one-fourth (2) half (3) double (4) four times. wp ca ai ae Fl 25 cm @ | a at re Sieainer A abit (i) 004 (2) O4 3) 4 (4) 25 Focal length of a lens is 25 cm. In dioptre power of lens will be (1) + 004 Q) 04 3) 4 25 ew a feor fea Hf eer Fre & fea eh dae & ofr amr 7 fact ' ' a ieee : sina sinb fiacia a sinb (2) sina ein{ 90-0) _ sin(90- a) _ far ©) Faraoroy 7 RRB) SS = fete NTSB(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B‘8) SAT-2 Incident, ray WN’ Refracted ray () $2 = constant 2) SE? ~ constant 6) SRS ET = constant (a). SALE A) constant 9, Bar ug ferge wifes at wera act axe & 2 mn 4 Q) P+ Vv @) P= PR (4) Which term does not represent electric power ? (a) poo Q) 0 PeVW @) P= PR ) ro. fae a afore eet ya Hr eT 30, 10 “a 10 a ote Vov 6 a (4) 1A wa ga (3) 2A 4 Im the given circuit the value of current Iwill be EY @ $a 2A 1A NTSE(l)/ 19-20-SAT-702-B [P-.0.SAT-2 (6) Mi, Waa wees ar os & (1) aiee Q aR (3) et (4) iter | Unit of magnetic flux is (1). volt (2) weber (3) hertz (4) ohm-metre. 12. feral fala oer fein Pacis K= 6 x 109N/mé 1 3a area feat @ 10-2 m eA A () 00030 2) 0039 GB) 030 @ 3a, Spring constant of a spring is K'= 6 x 107N/m. Work done to stretch it 107? m from mean position is. (1) 00034 Q) 0035 @) 030 @) 3u. 13, fing aa firs wat Rea sexta a arg etm A B @ ~ 2m Ua 2 3 Al at a gets a Us 4 3 @ Aas S U, 3 4 Ratio of potential energies of body A and body Bwill be A U, =A = 2 oe: O a3 @ 72 U, U @ s4ei m A=3 Up 3 Us NTSE(I) /19-20-SAT-702-B(7) SAT-2 (tar faa) (Chemistry } 14. svifeian Aa ara an see U) er (2) sire 3) (4) ater Example of an element among the following is. (1) Water (2) Ammonia (3) Salt (4) Iron. 15, siti aay atte st oer & aot (2) 2 3) 3 a 4, Atomicity of oxygen in ozone molecule is aoa 2 B) 3 a 4. 16. 0:36 g Wet 4 safes Aleit st Gert Q) OL 2) 02 (@) “001 (4) 002. Number of moles present in 0:36 gof water is Q) Ol (2) 02 (3) 001 (4) 002. 17, Sart & star 4 agw Yeah went t Q) 0 aratgh-131 2) waez-60 (3) aifeaHog (4) aeild-37. Radioactive isotope used in the treatment of cancer disease is (1). Todine-131 (2) Cobalt-60 (3) Sodium-24 (4) Chlorine-37. 18. ARfen ane at deer A souedatan dul at den & a) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 a 3. ‘The number of coordinate covalent bonds in the structure of nitric acid is a) oO (1 3) 2 3. NTSE(!)/19-20-SAT-702-BSAT-2 (8) 19. 20. 21 22. fea (Sn) ara veld daisimcral wr pe 4 Q 1,2 8) 23 4) 24 ‘The pair of valencies exhibited by tin ( Sn ) is (y)44 Q 1,2 (3) 2,3 4) 2.4 BRET THO WG HCL ay areas sw: (1) OH, orm @ H,0*, cr (3) H,0*, ct (4) OH, cI. ‘The conjugate bases of Brénsted acids HO and HCI are respectively Q) OH, clr (2). H30*, cr (3) HZ0*, cit (4) OHT, cl* Somer site Ofer’ ar carat ae (1) Ca80,. @) Ca80,.2H0 () caS0,. 4,0 (4) caso,. 3 H,0 The chemical formula of ‘Plaster of Paris’ is tl) Cas04. $ Hy (2) Ca80,.2H,0 (3) Cas0,. H,0 (4) caso,. 3 H,0 freien rere oe aire ana & ay) cite > cr (2) Mgt? +207 + Mg (3) MnO; +e" Mn0;? (4) Fe*? > Fet 34 eo ‘The oxidation reaction in the following chemical changes is, a) Cite" > cm 2) Mgt? +2e7 > Mg (3) Mn0z+e7 > Mn0;? (4) Fet? 4 Fe* 340 NTSE(I}/19-20-SAT-702-B23, 24. 25. 26, (9) SAT-2 Fe|Mo — fei... Ny (g}+3H, (g} 2NH, (g) sage after Mo (1) Sora ae (2) 3ahen fay ( fader ) (3) Fasc . (4) Besa Ny (g)+3H, (g) —ElM2, ann, (9) Mo in the above reaction is (1) Catalyst promoter (2) Catalyst poison ( inhibitor ) (3) Bio-catatyst (4) Auto-catalyst sired aol aati fae aor aren aa & aor Q a (3) Br @o4 Element having highest electronegativity in the periodic table is () oF Qc (3) Br ao. “MISIF-12" ram e (1) FCI, Q). CPC, (3) CoF,Cly (4) CaF Clg. The molecular formula of ‘Freon-12’ is (1) CRCLy 2) CFACly (3) CyFCly Cy Cly Stet ager a CH Tae e Q) 2eraferes seat wa weltels vergeiet (2) Ufstte ater ua weltet rergaier (3) ttpifere anc ua taunielicia seer (4) Ufefier steer ed taenteticta sreceia 1 The monomer units of terylene polymer are (1). Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol (2) Adipic acid and ethylene glycol (3) Terephthalic acid and hexamethylene diamine (4) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine. NTSE(!}/19-20-SAT-702-B [ Pro.SAT-2 (10) ( arenfer fas ) ( Botany ) a7. Ufa tot car wa ae & was onera & (1) ete, (2) (3) FeghaR (4) teh virefag ‘The habitat related with presence of sunken stomata in leaves is (1) Hydrophytic (2) (3) Xerophytic 4) 28, Ber tee cat QAR 2) (3) Aehfeery (4) Micronutrient element is (1) Nitrogen (2) (8) Magnesium 4) 29, ware yet oh art & (1) aera (2) (3) araiferar (4) Coralloid root is found in (1) Cycas 2) (3)° Marsilia (4) Mesophytic Cryophytic. fia uidfaar 1 Zine Potassium. wera a wien a Pinus Azolla, 30. fare grey sl Ae a saab sttafa & wa Fade 2 (Rega ater ) (3) tafewar aera (4) Weiter iar afer | ‘The root of which plant is used as medicine ? (1) Curcuma longa (2) (3) Rauwolfia serpentina (4) NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B Aloe vera Papaver Somniferum.31 32. 33. (11) SAT-2 fear dao alr, deal ar cet we srqUI e ay) 3:1 QQ) 9:3:3:1 (3) 1:2:1 @) 2:1 Phenotypic ratio of Fa: generation in dihybrid cross is @ (3a QQ) 9:3:3:1 () 1:2:1 2s fara 9 gar fea Aa fafa ot et F 7 () 28 Q 33 (3) 20 (4) 34, How many biodiversity hotspots are there in the world ? (ly) 25 (2) 33 3) 20 @) 34 favest ander #1 years Tae & aad fit ae 2 (yaa QR 3) RR 4) Fae From which district of Rajasthan did Chipko movement begin ? (1) Jodhpur (2) Jaipur (3) Aimer (4) Jaisalmer. NTSE()/19-20-SAT-702-B [P-7.0.SAT-2 (12) ( mvt faa ) { Zoology } 34. ara uftetes &1 APT, Gil arf fimaait ar rdaor aca &, & (1) wafers Q) antes (3) Heyer aiferitter 4) gate The part of human brain, which controls involuntary actions is (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Optic lobe. 35, Hier a std at ae a a ater are (1) warfraiteate (2) eet (3) Year (a) fee ‘The disease caused by protein deficiency in food is (1) Kwashiorkor (2) Scurvy (3) Pellagra (4) Rickets. 36. al wit & Te (1) sett, aysia, seeta (2) ste, seal, Te (3) aevit, srvgaia, eax (4) saegia, aia, ater | ‘The parts of large intestine are {1) Duodenum, Ileum, Colon (2) Caecum, Colon, Rectum (3) Duedenum, Jejunum, eum (4) Jejunum, Ileum, Caecum. 37. HOSE ERT wala Bia Hele 0) @eRea (2) tes 3) asete 4) evade The hormone, not secreted by ovary is (1) Testosterone (2) Estrogen (3) Progesterone (4) Relaxin. 38. pert wet F (Q) Renderer 2) Sieger (3) areiatga (4) Flere Pseudococlomate animals are (1) Aschelminthes (2) Annelids (3) Arthropods (4) Molluscs. 39, Stetwian aa are a) we 2) Fear (3) Wier (4) -Feifer | Protozoan disease is (1) AIDS (2) Leprosy (3) Jaundice (4) Malaria. 40. faa Kat art a ah aren Te (1) rere Q) aa (3) few (4) eed ‘The disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin K is (1) Haemorrhage (2) Sterility (3) Rickets (4) Scurvy. NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B4. 42. 43, (13) SAT-2 (afer ) ( Mathematics } cafe fare den & gag sia cen erg ais & eI AME a TH b a, ct Ge eet (Il) 10b+a Q 1a+b 8) ato (4) ab. If one’s digit and ten’s digit of a number are a and b respectively, then the number will be (I) 10b+a Q) 10a+b Q) a+b (4) ab. af ABC Feat Va @, at fea wl fea A x ar HF eho 4x 2x 30° A B eC (1) 15° (2) 20° (3) 25° (4) 30°, If ABCis a straight line then value of x, in the given diagram will be 30° A B c ay 1st (2) 20° 3) 25° (4) 30°. ua wary & wh are: soit wr ate eter & (1) 360" (2) 540° (3) 720° (4) 900°. ‘The sum of all interior angles of a Heptagon is (1) 360° (2) 540" (3) 720° (4) 900°. NTSE()/ 19-20-SAT-702-B [P-70.SAT-2 (14) 44, afew A ABCH, AB= ACI 2 A=70°%, IZ BE (50° (2) 55° (3) 60° (4) 65° Ifin a A ABC, AB= ACand Z A= 70° then Z Bis equal to (l) 50° (2) 55° (3) 60° (4) 65°. 45. fe wm waar Bry ar fea 24 Sel al, al sae Samer eT (1) 16 ¥3 at ae (2) 323 ai deh (3) 48/3 vt at (4) 64/3 a4 Set If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm, then its area will be (1) 16¥3 sq.cm (2) 32¥3 sqcm (3) 48,3 sq.cm (4) 64V3 sqcm. 46. ae Wee BATT AT Tee 3000 BH HB site FAH are FT SAE 150 wT THe, atom at Sade uy) 10 at (2) 15 at (3) 20 at (4) 25 at If the volume of a cuboid is 3000 cm® and area of its base is 150 cm”, then the height of the cuboid is Ql) 10cm (2) 15cm (3) 20cm (4) 25em. 47. AR sino= 4 a, at 189-8089 ay a ae 5 sec 0+ 4 cot 0 2 1 mM 5 (2) 3 3 1 BF 4) 3: noed 4tan@-Scosd if sind= 5 then the value of Secs 4coto will be 2 1 a 3 @ 5 3 1 a 2 m 4 NTSE())/19-20-SAT-702-B48. 49, 50. SL (as) SAT-2 feel gh frre at gg) 28 eae ai at coer ae A eal ae ee 2 a) 1s Bre (2) 20 fre (3) 10 frre (4) as fre 1 How much time the minute hand of a clock will take to describe an angle of Qn = radians ? 3 (1) 15 minutes (2). 20 minutes (3) 10 minutes (4) 25 minutes. afe até 510 #1 MYTH AAA ( He Ao Yo ) 23460 e TM a TE S10 HT ETT wanade (Ho Ho Go) 2%, aR ae QQ) 92 (2) 910 @) 52 (4) 500. If Least Common Multiple ( LCM ) of a and 510 is 23460 and Highest Common Factor (HCF ) of aand 510 is 2 then value of ais a 92 2) 910 (3) 52 (4) 500. fare art 2/2x? + 4x + 2 = 0 a fafa (0 Q 1 (3) 2 4) 3. Discriminant of quadratic equation 2Y2x? + 4x + J2 = 0 will be ae @ 1 (3) 2 4) 3. 20 ait 200 & sta A 3 & frat Te 2 (50 (2) 55 (3) 60 (4) 65. How many multiples of 3 are there in between 20 and 200 ? (1) 50 2) 55 (3) 60 (4) 65; NTSE(!)/19-20-SAT-702-BSAT-2 (16) 52. 53. 54. 58, (cos 0° + sin 45° + sin 30° } ( sin 90° ~ cos 45° + cos 60°) #1 AF @T wm 4 a 3 a 2 a + The value of ( cos 0° + sin 45° + sin 30°} ( sin 90°- cos 45° + cos 60° ) will be ay 4 2) 3 @ 3 w 2 ae ca mabe os a overt wen seat wren at ras aT AGUA 1: 1 a, ae a (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°. If the ratio of the length of @ vertical rod and the length of its shadow is 1 : 1 then angle of elevation of sun is (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°. fargat (1, 4), (-5, 4), (- 5,3) AR ( 1-3) are afar a eh ay) #4 Q) 0 ae @) wag waa aiead Quadrilateral formed by the vertices ( 1, 4), (5, 4), (-5,~3) and ( 1,~3) will be (1) Square (2) . Rectangle (3) Rhombus (4) None of these. fare Gasp & diet arc: woth & aaleoret wr dra Fey seca e Raee 2) aeex 8 was 4) ora ‘The point of concurrence of three interior angle bisectors of a triangle is called (Q) Centre of gravity (2) Circumcentre (3) Orthocentre (4) Incentre. NTSE{I}/19-20-SAT-702-B(17) SAT-2 56. 4 aaey fps & dame sm: 36 AH? weg Oh? Safe we ys at aaa 12 dh a, at ag fay at ana ofa & Q) 1284 sah (3) 24 ah (4) 10th 1 2 ‘The areas of two similar triangles are 36 cm? and 81 cm? respectively. If the median of smaller triangle is 12 em then the corresponding median of the larger triangle is (1) 12cm (2) 18cm (3) 24cm (4) 10cm. 57. fea wa fara, pcga a mare & aa 2 BAO= 60° %, Faz ADC ATR & a D (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60 (4) gu. In the given figure, BC is the diameter of a circle and Z BAO = 60° then 2 ADCis equal to 30" (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°. NTSE(l)/19-20-SAT-702-B [P-T.0.SAT-2 (18) 58. 59, 60. fet 7 fea 4 writes a ar dane ae Sify, set apc PT 28 Sh aT eH THE: LA D o (1) 784 Gt? (2)° 616 Sat? (3) 668 ah? (4) 168 Sh? Find the area of shaded portion in the figure given below, where ABCD is a square of side 28 cm : (l) 784 cm? (2) 616 cm? (3) 668 cm? (4) 168 cm? wry g aan doa wt aA e 4) 9625 (2) 8375 (3) 9375 (4) 8-534, The mean of first eight prime numbers is Q) 9625 (2) 8375 (3) 9375 (4) 8534 Uh Ue te ae Sea sen ore oe ee aH eT & AM wT wae 1 1 MQ § Q@ 3 4. 2 8 5 mM A die is thrown once. The probability of getting an even number on the die is 1 1 mM § @ 5 1 2 @ 5 @ 2 NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B61 62, 63, 64, 65. (19) SAT-2 ( fren ) ( History ) Frefaiga a ala afer a ecard at a 2 a) 3 (2) Aerts (3) ARIS (4) sais | Who of the following was not the courtier of Kanishka 2 (1) Charaka (2) Megasthenes (3). Nagarjuna (4) Ashwaghosha “qera’ ar cae wa at 2 a) refer (Q) faeraet (3). 3 fe 4) eer Who was the writer of “Mudrarakshasa’ ?. (1) Kalidasa (2) Vishakhadatta (3) Amar Singh (4) Sudraka, age che dala ar arate fare eras & erent F gar 7 (ae (2) Serr (3) area (4) wepa ‘The fourth Buddhist conference was organized during the reign of which ruler ? () Kanishka (2) Rudradaman (3) Ashoka (4) Chandragupta Maurya. “farsi” wet Reua 8 2. a) aa 2) are (3) FAR (a) dar I Where is the Jantar-Mantar’ situated ? (1) Sikar (2) Ajmer @) Jaipur (4) Bikaner. Srafetiar 4 & staat ue waa vect alec EE 2 Q) fare sean are (2) ARG Bist Tete (3) ae aries (4) afer wear | Which one of the following incidents happened first ? (1) Non-Cooperation movernent (2) Quit India movement (3) Simon Commission, (4) Personal Satyagraha. NTSE{l) /19-20-SAT-702-B [P.T0.SAT-2 (20) 66, Frafefad 4 a aia wn dine fear arte a walter vet en 2 (1) FRE 2) (reRrr (3) ZR (4) ae Which one of the following was not related to the Sikar Peasant Movement ? (1) Chetram (2) Tulchharam (3) Tikuram (4) Devlal, 67, wah ain 8 aes wifay ee Farrier ge ar wan aa ee we SER aT war wii ada wien (a) Fag vee eA @ 9 depres (8) PAF et (i) fea are (c) rex hy (ii) Sea Beton (D) et (vy) SH Re: A B c D ai iii iv (2) ii iv iii i 3) iv ii iii 4) iv iil ii i Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by choosing from the given codes : List-I List (A) Flying Shuttle Loom () Samuel Crompton (B) Spinning Jenny (ii) Richard Arkwright (C) Water frame (ii) James Hargreaves (D) Mule (iv) John Kay. Codes : A B c D ay i i ii iv Q ii wv ih i B wv i i i @ wv ii i NTSE(1)/19-20-SAT-702-B68. 69. 70. mn (21) SAT-2 frafefiga 4 a eran we wet afer aa & 2 q) tg — ie (2) chert — efearr 8) UR — ST (4) aii Te I Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (1) Ropar — Punjab (2) Lothal — Haryana (3) Rangpur — Gujarat (4) Kalibanga — Rajasthan. sreerge 8 Fare area rt ore nr an tet sper orm & 7 (WRT 2) Fer (3) ae fle (4) ERR Which ruler of Bharatpur is called The Plato of the Jat Caste’? (1) Rajaram (2) Surajmal (3) Badan Singh (4) Chudaman. wan fara aq & arg oh are staat seh at ms 2 (1) aata at fr 2) far ah ae (3) =eh at af @) afer at air After the end of First World War, which treaty was made with Germany ? (1) Treaty of Versailles (2) Treaty of Triyana (3) Treaty of Newly (4) Treaty of Berlin. “arg aR wr HERTS BIT aT? Q) aren me fer Q) TTT (3) Tae ae (4) Herat wet 1 Who was the publisher of ‘Samvad Koumudi ? (1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (2) Raja Rammohan Roy (3) Dayanand Saraswati (4) Mahatma Gandhi. NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B [P.7.0.SAT-2 (22) 72. 73. 74 75. Capita ) { Geography ) une & fara qurrat 3 agseeta si shear at arate ara ar fee” aera? () fed serge aret Fes (Qwest (3) sea anit (4) seer fart arte Which Prime Minister of India called multipurpose water projects as “The Temple of Modern India” ? (1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Rajiv Gandhi (3) Indira Gandhi (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee. wah at wae e () Weert (2) 7 (3). HRT (4) arr Rabi crop is Q) Rice (2) Gram (3) Maize (4) Soyabean. frfatiad 9 8 ate-ai war coer F fora ait at art & 7 ()aiestariet (2) Saaet (3) FRR (4) Gaet-faeran Which one of the following is the copper mine situated in Rajasthan ? (1) Morija-Banol (2) Degana-Bhakri (3) Zawar (4) Khetri-Singhana. ata a aphard qifee atte aN hea a gel at oe qe a oR wer ais : a wa ( he sear a) (1) tay tly (wars (B) Use (i) otha (o) farm (ay) Sekar (oy ater tiv) Rah eet x: A B c D rn 2) tw) Gi) 3) Gi) Gi) 4H) GG) NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-D76. 77. 78. (23) SAT-2 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-I List-II (Iron and Steel Industries) {State) (A) Durgapur () Jharkhand (8) Rourkela (i) Chattisgarh () Bhilai (ii) Orissa (0) Bokaro (iv) West Bengal Codes : A B c D Ow Gm & (2) (iy (ii) i) Gi) 8 (i) fill) fi) 4) Gi il). tiv), frafetan 9 & cerar ar waiter srrden oes area fren Bt-aT e 2 a aR 2 WAR 3) aera (4) tar Which of the following is the highest population density district of Rajasthan ? (1) Jaipur Q) Bharatpur (3) Alwar (4) Dausa. “aq anette” gaat wa sig & fea Ter a fers & 2 Q) size (2) atrerig (3) fae et (4) WERT “New Mangalore” seaport is located in which state of India ? (Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) West Bengal (4). Maharashtra. Prafafad 4 @ sta-ar vey Sal aha & 2 Q) #aen (2) eiferr (3) afferar (4) wepfaer ate | Which of the following is an atomic energy mineral ? (1) Coal 2) Petroleum (3) Beryllium (4). Natural Gas. NTSE(I)/19-20-SAT-702-B [P-7.0.SAT-2 (24) 79. 80, 81. 82. Freafertign a rear wy areata fereane & (1) 23°93! welt setiet @ 30° 12! yet sraiet (2) 23°.3! ofgart sierizr & 30° 12! afar searizt (3) 23°.3! seth auerizr & 30° 12! gael ateriet (4) 23° 3! efaroh azerier & 30° 12! efervht sratier 1 Among the following the latitudinal extension of Rajasthan is (1) 23°3! Bast Latitude to 30° 12! East Latitude (2) 23° 3! West Latitude to 30° 12' West Latitude {3) 23° 3! North Latitude to 30° 12' North Latitude (4) 23° 3! South Latitude to 30° 12' South Latitude frafetan #8 atta ad ara ae a fic & 2 (1) are 2 FT 3) ae (4) Fert i Which of the following rivers falls in the Arabian Sea ? (1). Tapti Q) Krishna (3) Kaveri (4) Mahanadi “mas” Fae 2 (Q) ts eq A area ae oR et aret ant Q) tis aq Fare a wert aret tsar (3) via aa 4 rerernta mart 3 eh aretl asl (4) site arr Sarre | What is Mavath’ ? (1) Rainfall near the Malabar Coast in summer season (2) Warm winds which blow in Rajasthan in summer season (3) Rainfall due to Mediterranean cyclones in winter season (4) Cyclones of the Arabian sea. users F fae ge at “aer get" ser GTS ? () Wes 2 B® 4 aa) Which tree is known as ‘Kalpa Vriksha’ in Rajasthan ? (1) Rohira (2) Kair (3) Bair (4) Khejari NTSE{I)/19-20-SAT-702-B83. 84 85. 86, 87, (25) SAT-2 ( teeter fear ) { Political Science } fret a oi ciara aderard fear ar wae @, ae & (1) Se wee Fret (2) de tao aie (3) eee (4) Tao Ho aa | Among the following who is a supporter of the Pluralistic Theory of Democracy ? (1) J. S. Mill (2) T.H. Green (3) Hobbes (4) Hod. Laski aig fade ua fade 2 arr vet geen Fria ata are e 7 (1) Fare (2) ete (3) He aa & area (4) seereafet 1 Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not ? (1) Prime Minister (2) President (3) Speaker of Lok Sabha (4)_—_—‘Vice-President asaaah & fral fasa al acts mera ar alfa aoet ar afore Prd et & 2 Q) ws (2) ate at (3) sa fer war (4) Wa faa ofeae Who has the right to declare a subject of the state list of national importance ? ()_— Rajya Sabha (2) Lok Sabha (3) State Legislative Assembly (4) State Legislative Council. acer & area a aer femert Sea =aerera € 2 (yy) 22 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4°29. At present how many high courts are there in India ? (22 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 29. fred a cer acon Hot afta ¢, ae (1) tea, Beige, Tera 2) eae, arte, pert (3) 7 Rrortise, artafean, =r (4) Sfrise, ws faurtiga, wert 1 Which of the following are included in the State Government ? {1} Governor, Cabinet, Chief Minister (2) Judiciary, Executive, Chief Minister {3} State Legislature, Executive, Judiciary (4) Cabinet, State Legislature, Governor. NTSE(I)/ 19-20-SAT-702-B [P.OSArS (26) 88. 89. 90. a1 dier & fare ards & arctia ves gee eee @ afte wapnes & wT A wears rar are 2 Q) PST 215 Q) aye 216 (3) 9FpSe 221 (4) Sy 222 Under which Article of the Constitution each high court has been established as. a court of records ? (1) Article 215 (2) Article 216 (3) Article 221 (4). Article 222. ence dieu ant ae ae area aifere after 2, oft a) aifea afreni = WR ALA BP (1) Racist ser saftepre Q) Webs scant ar aire (3) vino & faeg afte (4). Barra ar atfeeaTe | Which Fundamental Right is given by the Constitution of India to protect all fundamental rights ? (1) Right to Liberty (2) Right to Constitutional Remedies (3) Right against Exploitation (4) Right to Equality. dare as aera wate wae & Q) Fran afeay (2) dara afafer (3) my tara 4) wa aHr | The highest unit of Panchayati Raj system is (1) Zilla Parishad 2) Panchayat Samiti (3) Gram Panchayat (4) Gram Sabha. ond a nenfien a as ay 18 ah ae eM] Ht aT 7 (1947 (2) 1955 (3) 1987 4) 1989. When was the minimum age of 18 ycars for Franchise implemented in India ? () 1947 (2) 1955 (3) 1987 (4) 1989. NTSB) /19-20-SAT~702-B92. 93. (27) SAT-2 qefartaa ah we are at ea ahd fea anda tert a necaph afer Faure 2 QO) Yo saree ate AR, (2) Frere viel (3). Her weIR BT (4) Wer ae AE Gee Which Indian politician played an important role to make Non-alignment as a movement ? (1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Mahatma Gandhi (3) Lal Bahadur Shastri (4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. wail atin a gies aed aq ad ge we FT wt wt an (a) Ser ear & erg sneer @) toto ta (8) aur aa due acme = iy So TR TE (Cc) area afttfer & area (iy) OReaerre fort (0) Sawer aun a ares seer (ivy. Go tha sets we: A B c D OM @ a) Gi) Gy 2) i) iv) Git) (3) (ii) iv) i) i) (4) (iv) Gi) i) Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code from the given codes List-1 List. (A) Permanent Chairman of the () BLN. Rad Constituent Assembly (B) Legal Adviser of the Constituent Assembly ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C)_ Chairman of the Drafting Committee (iii) Sachchidanand Sinha {D) Temporary Chairman of (iv) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar the Constituent Assembly Codes : A B oc D () (i) Gi) iii) ivy Gy @ -t Gy (3) (ii) ivy fi) (ii) 4) tiv) Gi) fii) i). NTSE(I)/ 19-20-SAT-702-B [P-7.0SAT-2 (28) 94 96. o7, ( arty ) { Economics ) phar adereren aren ae & (Ba (2) aH (3) aH (4) penta The nation with a capitalist economy is {1} Russia (2) China (3) Japan (4) Bulgaria. sae wife Ser Bra & Q) aes} & sere a Q waesaae 3) GAS sae a (4) Wat & sere S The White Revolution is related to (1) Production of eggs (2) Production of milk (3) Production of sugar (4) Production of rice. ured Fats are st oa Bed are Gear e 0) a wifes der @) Pari” (3) Sta ae (4) er areata The institution calculating National Income in India is (1) Central Statistical Organization (2) Finance Commiesion (3) Central Bank (3) NITI Aavog, fey eran Gras Bt waa () 1 sa, 1935 2) 1.387, 1935 (3) 1 sat, 1995 (4) 1 ater, 1995. The World Trade Organization was established on (1) 1st January, 1935 (2) Ist April, 1935 (3) Ist January, 1995 (4) Ist April, 1995. NTSE(l}/19-20-SAT-702-B98. 99, 100. (29) SAT-2 une agrees ar IT & Q) Bit sera Fae afer (3) ateatfins semea F det af (3) arden el a Fe we (4) adsire ore et rer eT | ‘The reason of inflation in India is (1) Rapid growth in agricultural production (2) Rapid growth in industrial production (3) Low level of public expenditure (4) High level of public expenditure. ara SI Beara Gis & (1) BigeRe (2) wa wera BRE (3) atfoae dar 4) arent The institutional source of credit is (1) Money lender 2) Selfhelp group (3) Commercial bank (4) Trader. ona H, saute aa ue aig to @ afte geal at saga ar ag et eee aT wRTe QQ) as aaa 2 Brena a 3) wT are (4) Usha satan dea sar In India, cases of goods more than one crore of rupees can be filed by the consumer in (1) Block Forum (2) District Forum (3). State Commission (4) National Consumer Protection Commission. NTSE(1)/19-20-SAT-702-B [P-7.0.