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Prospectus2019revised PDF
Prospectus2019revised PDF
PROSPECTUS
PU-CET (P.G.) – 2019
1
PANJAB UNIVERSITY ANTHEM
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Mann mein tera aadar maan
Aur mohabbat sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Tu hai apna bhavishya vidhata
Pankh bina parwaaz sikhata
Jeevan pustak roz padha kar
Sahi galat ki samajh badhata
Jeevan pustak roz padha kar
Sahi galat ki samajh badhata
Teri jai ka shankh bajayein
Roshan tare ban jaayein
Vakhari teri shohrat
Teri shohrat sada sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Panjab vishaw vidyalaya
Teri shaan-o-shauqat sada rahe
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
Tamso ma jyotirgamaya
2
PU- CET (P.G.) – 2019
Appendix A: Guidelines for General / Reserved Category/ Additional / NRI Seats 30-35
Appendix B: Guidelines for Admission to the Reserved Category of Sports 36-38
ANNEXURE I: Undertaking for achievements of Sports 39
ANNEXURE II: Undertaking for Attendance in Sports Ground 40
ANNEXURE III: List of Sports Disciplines eligible for admission under Reserved
41
Category of Sports
ANNEXURE IV: Criteria for General Fitness Test, Skill and Game Performance Test
42
for admission under Reserved Category of Sports
ANNEXURE V: Criteria for marking of merit / Participation Sports Certificate out of
43-44
maximum 100 marks
Appendix C: Specimen of Certificate for Reserved and additional category
SUB APPENDIX C1: Schedule Caste / Scheduled Tribe Certificate 45
SUB APPENDIX C 2: Backward Class Certificate 46
SUB APPENDIX C 2 (A): Self declaration proforma to be submitted by the person
47
belonging to backward class at the time of recruitment/ admission
SUB APPENDIX C 3: Certificate for only girl child/ one out of two girl children 48
SUB APPENDIX C 4: Certificate for admission under Defence Category 49
SUB APPENDIX C 5: Certificate from the candidate from Border Area School 50
SUB APPENDIX C 6: Certificate from the candidate from Rural Area School 51
SUB APPENDIX C 7: Certificate of children/ grandchildren of Freedom Fighter 52
Appendix D: Specimen of Forms / Certificates for Medical Records 53-64
General Rules 65-68
Instructions for giving answers on OMR Answer Sheet 69
Sample Questions 70-124
Important Dates/ Information 125
Date sheet 126
3
PANJAB UNIVERSITY, CHANDIGARH
Number of Seats in Various Courses
Sr. Courses Name of the Department/Institution No. of Seats Seats for NRI
No. offering the Course / Foreign
Nationals
*
Candidates
1. LL.M. Department of Laws, 42 4
(One-Year Course) P.U., Chandigarh.
(Semester System)
LL.M. 50 4
(One-Year Course)
(Semester System)
(Self Financing Course)
University Institute of Legal Studies
LL.M. (2-Year Course) a) 25 (for Advocates/ 2
(UILS), P.U., Chandigarh
(Semester System) (Self Judicial/ Officer / Civil
Financing Course) Servants discharging
e
Judicial Duties)
b) 25 (for Fresh Law
Graduates) 2
LL.M. (2-Year Course) UIL, Panjab University Regional Centre, 26 + 9 (Other Additional 2
Ludhiana. Seats)
b
2. i. M.C.A. Department of Computer Science 34+2 5
(3-Year) Course and Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.
(Semester System) b) 20 (for Fresh Law
Graduates) b
P.U., Regional Centre, Muktsar 20+2 3
c
Panjab University Swami Sarvanand 50+3 -
Giri, Regional Centre, Hoshiarpur
b
(Evening) (Self-Financing ) 46 +2 6
Department of Computer Science and
Applications, P.U., Chandigarh.
3. M.A. Journalism and School of Communication Studies P.U., 30 5
Mass Communication Chandigarh.
(2-Year) Course
d
4. Master in Public Health Centre for Public Health 17+5 2
(University Institute for Emerging Areas
in Science & Technology) PU,
Chandigarh.
f
5. M.A. (English) Department of English, P.U. Chandigarh. 95+5 15
Department of Evening Studies-Multi 68
Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U.,
Chandigarh
6. M.A. (Geography) 51 7
g
7. Master in Disaster Department of Geography, P.U., 25+3 3
Management Chandigarh.
g
8. Master in Geo-informatics 25+3 3
9. M.A. (History) Department of History, P.U., 50 5
Chandigarh.
Department of Evening Studies-Multi 68
Disciplinary Research Centre, P.U.,
Chandigarh
10 M.A. (Economics) Department of Economics, P.U., 80 5
Chandigarh
11 M.A. (Social Work) Centre for Social Work, UIEASS 33 4
NOTE: * Eligible NRI/ Foreign Nationals candidates, please consult the guidelines available at Page No.
33-35of the Prospectus.
b
For candidates who have studied computer science as one of the subjects for three Years or the subject as a full course at the under graduate level.
c
Economically weaker section
d
Only regular employees in Government organization and having atleast one Year service experience be admitted under, “In-service” category. The candidate
has to produce “No Objection Certificate” at the time of admission.
e
For preparing merit list of admission, a special weightage of maximum upto 10 marks shall be given to candidates falling under this category i.e. ½ mark for
every completed Year of practice/employment.
f
For students who have passed B.A. with Functional English. 4
g
Sponsored by Govt. / Institutions
12. M.E. (Chemical) 2 +1 Foreign
20
National
13. M.E. (Food Technology) 10 1+1 Foreign
National
University Institute of Chemical Engg. &
14. M.E. (Chemical with 10
Tech., P.U., Chandigarh. 1+1 Foreign
specialization in
National
Environmental Engg.)
15. M.Tech. (Polymer) 15+5 (Part time) 2+1 Foreign
National
16. M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 17 2 +1 Foreign
National
17. ME Electrical Engg. 6 -
(Instrumentation & Control)
(Regular program
me)
18. M.E. (Electronics& 8 -
Communication Engineering)
(Regular Programme)
19. ME Computer Science & Engg. 5 -
(Regular Programme)
20. ME Civil Engineering NITTTR, Sector 26, Chandigarh. 5 -
(Construction Technology &
Management) (Regular
Programme)
21. ME Mechanical Engineering 5 -
(Manufacturing Technology)
(Regular Programme)
h
22 M.E. Electrical Engg. ( Power 20 2+1 Foreign
System) National
h
23 M.Tech. Material Science & University Institute of Engineering & 20 2+1 Foreign
Technology Technology P.U., Chandigarh. National
h
24 M.E. Biotechnology 20 2+1 Foreign
h
National
25 M.E. Computer Science & 20 2+1 Foreign
Engineering National
h
26 M.E. Electronics & 20 2+1 Foreign
Communication Engineering National
h
27 M.E. Information Technology 20 2+1 Foreign
National
h
28 M.E. Mechanical Engineering 20 2+1 Foreign
National
29 M.Tech. Microelectronics 12+3 (SC/ST) 2+1 Foreign
National
30 M.Com (Business Economics) DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 60 -
Guru Nanak Girls College, Model Town, 60 -
Ludhiana.
31 M.Com. ( Master of GGDSD College, Sector – 32, 40 -
Entrepreneurship and Family Chandigarh.
Business) Kamla Lothia S.D. College, Ludhiana. 40 -
32 M. Com. (Hons.) University Business School, P.U., 27 3
(Under Hons. School System Chandigarh.
at UBS w.e.f. 2019-2021)
33 M.Com (Business Innovation) S.C.D. Government College, Ludhiana. 40 -
34 MBA (Commerce & Information MTSM College for Women, Ludhiana. 80 -
Technology) (Only for Girls.)
35 Master of Business University Business School, P.U.,
Administration for Executives Chandigarh. 30 3
(Under Hons. School System (Meant only for working professionals.
at UBS w.e.f. 2019-2021) Classes to be held in the evening).
36 Master of Physical Education
28 2
Department of Physical Education, P.U.,
37 Bachelor of Physical Chandigarh.
Education 34 2
h
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET(PG) will be given admission if some seats will be left vacant after GATE
QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ADMISSIONS.
5
M. Sc. (Hons. School)
38 Biochemistry Department of Biochemistry, 30+4j 4
P.U., Chandigarh.
39 Biophysics Department of Biophysics, 10i 4
P.U., Chandigarh.
40 Computer Science Department of Computer Science & 11 2
Applications P.U., Chandigarh.
41 Mathematics Department of Mathematics 30 5
P.U., Chandigarh.
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering 20 -
&Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
42 Physics (Specialisation in Department of Physics, P.U., Chandigarh. 20 3
Electronicsk)
(Self Financing Course)
43 Geology Department of Geology, P.U., Chandigarh 5 -
i
The total no. of seats may vary depending on how many students of B.Sc. (Hons.) in Biophysics from Panjab University directly seek admission in M.Sc. (Hons.).
j
The data is based on the current strength of the students registered in B.Sc. (Hons.) 3 rd year. However, final number may vary depending upon how many B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry, students qualify and take
admission in M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry.
l
Only those students who have cleared B.Sc. Biotechnology or B.Sc. with Biotechnology as elective / vocational course subject studied for 3 years are eligible.
m
AT THE TIME OF Counselling, the candidates seeking admission in M.Sc. Biotechnology should fill separate admission forms in colleges offering M.Sc. Course in Biotechnology. No Centralised Counselling
will be done by the Department.
6
55 Chemistry Department of Chemistry, P.U., 15 2
Chandigarh, offers Hons. School course
Post Graduate Govt. College, Sector 11, 40 -
Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 11, Chandigarh.
S. Govt. College of Sci, Education & 40 2
Research, Jagraon (Ludhiana).
DAV College, Abohar. 40
Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T. 40
Ludhiana.
GHG Khalsa College, Gurusar Sadhar, 40 -
Ludhiana.
SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur 40
Hoshiarpur.
DAV College, Sector-10, Chandigarh. 40
JCDAV College, Dasuya (Hoshiarpur). 40
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering 20
&Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40
GGN Khalsa College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludhiana
Khalsa College, Garhdiwala 40
Dev Samaj College for Women, 40 -
Ferozepur City
SCD Govt. College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludhiana
A.S. College Khanna, Ludhiana 40 -
G.G.N. Khalsa College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludiana
k
56 Physics Department of Physics, P.U., 40 6
Chandigarh, offers Hons. School course
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -
GGDSD College, Sector 32, 40
Chandigarh.
JCDAV College, Dasuya (HSP). 40 -
DAV College, Abohar. 40 -
Guru Nanak Girls College, M.T., 40 -
Ludhiana.
SGGS Khalsa College, Mahilpur. 40 -
Dev Samaj College for Women, 40 -
Ferozepur City.
GHG Khalsa College, Gurusur Sadhar. 40 -
S.P.M. College, Mukerian. 40 -
Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering & 20 -
Technology, Longowal, Distt. Sangrur.
BAM Khalsa College, Garhshankar, 40 -
Distt. Hoshiarpur.
Guru Nanak National College, Doraha, 40 -
Distt. Ludhiana.
Khalsa College for Women, Sidhwan 40 -
Khurd
SCD Govt. College, Civil Lines, 40 -
Ludhiana
G.N. National College, Doraha, Distt. One Unit -
Ludiana
Khalsa College for Women, Sidhwan One Unit -
khurd, Distt. Ludhiana
S.C.D. Govt. College, Civil Lines, One Unit -
Ludhiana
7
57 Zoology Department of Zoology, P.U., 14 2
Chandigarh, offers Hons. School course
DAV College, Sector 10, Chandigarh. 40 -
JC DAV College, Dasuya, Hoshiarpur. 40 -
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 42, Chandigarh.
Post Graduate Govt. College for Girls, 40 -
Sector 11, Chandigarh.
Sri Guru Gobind Singh College, Sector 40 -
26, Chandigarh.
Dev Samaj College For Women, 40 -
Ferozepur City
DAV College, Abohar 40 -
Faculty members are available in the respective Departments for consultation and
guidance of students from 3:00 P.M to 4:00 P.M on working days.
8
Important Notes Common to all the Courses
1) Fee of Rs. 2175/- (Rs. 1088/- for SC/ST/PwD) is meant for only Online Application Form. A
candidate can apply in more than one course also. However, he/she will have to pay an
additional fee of Rs. 575/- for each additional course.
2) Candidate availing concession in the fee under category SC/ST/PwD OR Class B/C Regular
Employee of PU must send the copy of printout of their Entrance Test Form along with
Performa for claiming 50% concession to P.U. Regular Employees (“B” and “C” Class)
duly signed by Head/Chairperson, to Assistant Registrar, CET Cell, Aruna Ranjit Chandra,
Hall, Panjab University, Chandigarh-160014 by registered post/speed post or by hand
on or before 27.05.2019 upto 4:00 PM
3) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The
candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in and has to meet the eligibility requirements of the
course.
4) The exact number of seats available for various M.Sc. (Hons.) courses may vary depending
upon the number of candidates already studying in Panjab University B.Sc. (Hons.) course
who are eligible for promotion to M.Sc. (Hons.).
5) The result of the Entrance Test will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in. No separate
Result Cards will be issued.
6) The University will publish Merit List of the candidates for all courses on the basis of
attainment of a minimum of 20% (15% in case of candidates belonging to SC/ ST/BC/PwD)
of aggregate of maximum marks in the Entrance Test taken as a whole.
7) The cut-off marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass
Communication) is 40% of the total marks.
8) The pass percentage in case of Entrance Test in MA (English) and MA (History) is 35%
(30% in case of candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD).
9) The Scheme of Test for MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) will be of 85 marks and consists 85
multiple-choice questions of one mark each.
10) Candidates securing equal marks shall be bracketed together. Their inter-se merit will be
determined by the Institution/Department/Centre to which they are seeking admission in
accordance with the following criteria:
a) Candidate getting higher percentage of marks in the qualifying examination shall rank
higher in order of merit.
b) If the marks in qualifying examination are also the same then the candidate obtaining
more marks in the immediate lower examination, shall rank higher in order of merit.
c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) & (b) above, the candidate senior in
age shall rank higher in the order of merit.
11) The final merit for admission shall be made by the concerned Department/Institute/ Center
after taking into account various admission criteria and weightage, if applicable.
12) The date-wise schedule of, Tentative Merit List (which will be updated after seeking
objections, if any); Provisional Merit List; Aptitude Test, Group Discussion, Personnel
Interview etc., (wherever applicable); Counselling shall be put on the Online Notice Board of
the department as well as Physical Notice Board (only for the courses offered in Panjab
University Campus / Regional Centres) and also available at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in
13) Under the Choice-Based Credit System obtaining 24 credits in a Generic Elective Course
(Subject) in the full B.Sc (Hons.) course shall also be deemed sufficient to satisfy a
requirement for admission to the M.Sc. course in the concerned subject. However, the
candidate has to fulfill other requirements as mentioned for respective M.Sc. (Hons.
School) Courses.
9
The weightages as applicable to different courses are as follows:
Weightage (%)
Course Entrance Test Qualifying
Examination
LLM (Master of Laws) 80 20
M.C.A. (Master of Computer Application) 50 50
M.A. (Journalism and Mass Communication) 60 40
Master in Public Health 50 50
M.A. (English) 50 50
M.A. (Geography) 50 50
Master in Disaster Management 50 50
Master in Geo-informatics 50 50
M.A. (Economics) 100 -
**
M.A. (Social Work) 25 40
M.A. (History) 50 50
M.E. (Chemical) 50 50
M.E. (Food Technology) 50 50
M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engg.) 50 50
M.Tech. (Polymer) 50 50
M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 50 50
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) Regular Programme 50 50
M.E. (Electronics and Comm. Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. (Computer Science and Engg.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. Civil Engineering (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) (Regular Programme) 50 50
M.E. Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Tech.) Regular Programme 50 50
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 50 50
M.Tech. Material Science & Technology 50 50
M.E. Biotechnology 50 50
M.E. Computer Science & Engineering 50 50
M.E. Electronics & Communication Engineering 50 50
M.E. Information Technology 50 50
M.E. Mechanical Engineering 50 50
M.Tech. Microelectronics 50 50
M.Com. (Business Economics) 50 50
M.Com. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business) 85 15*
M. Com (Hons.) 85 15*
M.Com (Business Innovation) 50 50
MBACIT 50 50
Master of Business Administration for Executives (MBAfEX) 85 *
15
M.P.Ed (Master of Physical Education) 50 50
B.P.Ed (Bachelor of Physical Education) 50 50
M.Sc. (Hons. School) 60 40
Biochemistry /Biotechnology/ Botany/ Chemistry/ Physics /
Biophysics /Computer Science/ Mathematics/Zoology/ Physics
(Specialisation in Electronics)/ Geology
M.Sc. (Two-Year Course)
Bioinformatics (being offered in the colleges affiliated to P.U.), 50 50
Environment Science/ Human Genomics /Nuclear Medicine/ System
Biology and Bioinformatics/ Forensic Science & Criminology/ Microbial
Biotechnology / Statistics
M.Sc. (Two-Year Course) Medical Physics 60 40
* 7.5% marks Group discussion and 7.5% marks for personal interview.
** 15% marks Group discussion and 20% marks for personal interview.
10
Fake & Derecognized Universities and Institutes
The candidates who have passed/appeared in the qualifying examination from any of the following
Universities (declared as fake by the UGC) are ineligible to appear in the Entrance Tests, as these
institutions have been derecognized by the Panjab University.
11
Eligibility Conditions and Scheme of Test
Master of Laws (L.L.M. One-Year Course and L.L.M. Two Year Course)
Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed one of the following examinations shall be eligible after qualifying the entrance
test to join the first semester class of the LL.M. Course:-
(a) LL.B. 3 Year Degree/ B.A. LL.B. / B.Com. LL.B. 5 Year degree examination of this University with
minimum 55% marks (50% in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD candidates);
OR
(b) Any equivalent examination of another University recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The Entrance Test will be of 100 marks.
The questions will be based upon following four components:
Master of Computer Applications M.C.A. 3-Year Course and M.C.A. (Evening) (Self-
Financing) 3-Year Course
Eligibility Conditions
The minimum qualification for admission to the first Year of the course shall be:
i) A recognized first degree of minimum three Years‟ duration in any discipline from Panjab
University with at least 50% marks and with Mathematics at 10+2 or at graduation level (all three
Years);
Or
Scheme of Test
The test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall contain 75 Objective Type (Multiple choice questions with four
responses i.e. A, B, C, & D) carrying one mark each.
The questions will be based upon following four components:
12
M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication
Eligibility Conditions
Passes one of the following examinations from a recognized University:-
(i) Bachelor‟s degree in any discipline with 50% marks in the aggregate.
OR
(ii) Bachelor‟s degree with at least 45% marks in the subject of Journalism & Mass
Communication.
OR
(iii) Bachelor‟s degree with Hons. In the subject of Journalism & Mass Communication.
OR
(iv) Master‟s degree examination in any other subject.
Scheme of Test
The test of1 hour and 30 minutes duration will comprise of Objective & Subjective Type Questions for 65
marks out of the total 75 marks. The remaining 10 marks would be divided equally between the group
discussion and interview to be held consequent to the entrance test. The test will be divided into five
following components:
Candidates who clear the entrance test have to apply afresh in the School of Communication Studies. The
cutoff marks for passing the Entrance Test for admission to MA (Journalism & Mass Communication) is
40% of total marks.
Eligibility Conditions
Bachelor‟s degree in any discipline with at least 50% marks from recognized University/Institute.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. There will be 25 from Biological Sciences, 10 from Social Sciences, 25 from
Health Sciences and Medical Vocabulary, 15 on Environment Sciences.
M.A. (English)
Eligibility Conditions
A person who has passed one of the following examinations from Panjab University or from any other
University whose examination has been recognized equivalent to the corresponding examination of this
University:
i. Bachelor‟s Degree obtaining at least 45% marks in English Elective or English Compulsory
subject.
ii. Bachelor‟s Degree in any faculty with 50% marks in the aggregate.
iii. B.A. with (Hons.) in English\
iv. B.A./B.Sc. with (Hons.) in subject other than English obtaining at least 50% marks in aggregate.
v. Masters Degree examination in any other subject with 50% marks in aggregate.
The pass percentage in case of entrance test in English stands increased to 35% (30% in case of
candidate belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f the session 2013-2014.
13
Scheme of Test
The written Test will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration and will carry 75 marks. The pattern of the CET
should be as follows:
1. An essay of about 400 words marks 25 marks
2. An unseen poem as a reading comprehension passage. Knowledge of
Literary appreciation will also be tested in this question 20 marks
3. Precis - Writing 15 marks
4. Multiple Choice Questions to check the candidates knowledge of English
Literature and language 15 marks
MA (Geography)
Eligibility Conditions
A person shall be eligible only if:-
1. he/she has a Bachelor‟s Degree with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate.
2. he/she has passed in Geography in the B.A. or B.Sc. examination with at least 45% marks;
OR
has obtained Post-graduate diploma in Cartography with atleast second division.
The Admission to the course shall be through an Entrance Test. The apportioning of weightages for the
purpose of preparing the merit list will be as follows:-
Written Entrance Test: 50%
Qualifying Examination (Bachelor‟s degree): 50%
Academic and other weightage(s), if any, shall be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the
eligible candidates in the Qualifying Examination (Bachelor‟s Degree) as prescribed and admissible under
Panjab University Rules.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.
Academic and other weightage(s), if any, shall be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the
eligible candidates in the Qualifying Examination (Bachelor‟s Degree) as prescribed and admissible under
Panjab University Rules.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.
Master in Geoinformatics
Bachelor‟s Degree with Geography/ Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/Physics/ Botany/ Environment
Science / Computer Science/ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning / B.Tech./ B.C.A. or Master‟s Degree in
Geography / Geology/ Geophysics/ Mathematics/ Physics/Botany/ Environment Science / Computer
Science / M.C.A./ Urban Planning/ Regional Planning with at least 50% marks in aggregate. The admission
to the course shall be through Entrance Test. .
14
All candidates, except those sponsored by the Government / Semi-Government Organizations and
Institutions, will be required to qualify the Entrance Test conducted by the Panjab University, Chandigarh.
The apportioning of Weightages for the purpose of preparing the merit list will be as follows:-
Written Entrance Test: 50%
Qualifying Examination (Bachelor‟s degree): 50%
Students who have studied Geography at the B.A./B.Sc./ M.A./ M.Sc. level shall be given an additional
weightage of 15 per cent of the academic score at Bachelor‟s level.
Academic and other weightage(s), if any, shall be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the
eligible candidates in the Qualifying Examination (Bachelor‟s Degree) as prescribed and admissible under
Panjab University Rules.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each.
M.A. (History)
Eligibility Conditions
B.A. with Honours in History.
Bachelor‟s degree in any faculty with atleast 50% marks in the aggregate.
B.A. (PASS) / B.Sc. (PASS) examination in full subjects obtaining atleast 45% marks in the
subject of History.
Master‟s degree examination in another subject or another faculty.
The pass percentage of entrance test in history is 35% (30% in case of candidates belonging to
SC/ST/BC/PwD) w.e.f. the session 2019-20.
The candidates should have passed the written Entrance Test conducted by Panjab University,
Chandigarh. The merit list will be prepared considering the marks obtained in the Entrance Test and the
Qualifying Examination as per the following criteria:-
Written Entrance Test : 50%
Qualifying Examination : 50%
Academic and other weightages if any will be based on the percentage of marks obtained by the eligible
candidates in the Qualifying examination.
Scheme of Test
Entrance Test to be of 1 hour 30 minutes of duration and of total of 75 marks.
The test is divided into three units, i.e. Unit-I, II and III.
Candidates will attempt 3 questions in all, selecting them from Unit-I, II & III.
Candidates can write answers in English or Hindi or Punjabi languages.
Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. It consists of 08 concept related questions. Out of these
08, candidates will attempt any 05. Each question has to be answered in 80-100 words. Each
question carries 05 marks. Total marks allotted to Question – I under Unit-I are 5x5=25 marks.
Unit-II consists of 04 Essay type Questions, from Question No. II to IV which are related to B.A.
(General) History syllabus. Atleast one question in Unit-II should be set each from Ancient,
Medieval, Modern periods of India History and the History of Punjab. Candidates will attempt any
one question in Unit-II. Each question has to be answered in about 1000 words. Each question
carries 25 marks.
Unit-III contains 02 questions i.e Question No. VI and VII, one from Current Affairs and another
from Significant Contemporary themes in order to test comprehension and communication skills of
the candidates. Candidates will attempt any one question in Unit-III. Each question has to be
answered in about 1000 words. Each question carries 25 marks.
15
M.A. (Economics)
Eligibility Conditions:
The candidates appearing for the Entrance Test for admission to M.A. Economics in the Department of
Economics, Panjab University, Chandigarh from the academic session 2019-20 will be subject to the
following eligibility conditions:
(i) The candidate must have passed B.A. with Honours in Economics, OR
B.A. with Economics as an elective subject with 50% marks in aggregate.
(ii) Candidate having reappear or compartment at the time of first counseling is not eligible
for admission in the course even though he/she clears the reappear or compartment by
the time of subsequent round of counseling.
Scheme of Test:
(i) The duration of the Entrance Test will be one hour and thirty minutes and it will consist of
75 multi-choice questions of one mark each based on the syllabus provided for the
test. There will be negative marking for wrong answers. ¼ marks will be deducted for
wrong answers.
(ii) The Pattern of question paper of the Entrance Test would include questions pertaining to
the various aspects of Economics as per the following scheme:
Admission to M.A. in Economics should be done purely on the basis of Entrance Test only.
Eligibility Conditions
The Entrance Test is open to all such candidates who have any one of the following qualifications:
Bachelor‟s degree in any discipline with at least 50% marks from recognized University/ Institute.
The candidates belonging to the SC/ST/BC/PwD shall be allowed 5% relaxation in the eligibility
requirements.
The candidates who have appeared and are appearing in the final year of the Bachelor‟s degree are also
eligible to apply.
Admission: Admission will be through qualifying the P.U. CET (PG) examination.
All the candidates are required to secure a minimum of 35% marks in the Entrance Test. The Entrance
test will include 75 objective type questions. The duration of the test will be 75 minutes. The medium of
examination will be English only. There will be no negative marking for the wrong answers.
Candidates who qualify the entrance test have to apply afresh for admission in Social Work and will be
called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview as per the schedule approved by the D.U.I.
16
M.E. (Chemical)
&
M.E. (Chemical with specialization in Environmental Engineering)
Eligibility Conditions:
B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA with a CGPA of 6.75 or
at least 60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e.
B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E. (Chemical) with MBA or any other
equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate.
Based on Entrance Test P.U. – CET (P.G.). The merit list of eligible P.U.-CET (P.G.) qualified candidates
shall be as per the following criteria:-
GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.). However, in case of eligible GATE
qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the percentile obtained and shall be offered the seat in the
first instance.
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consists of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.
In case of Objective Type questions papers having OMR sheets, there will be NEGATIVE MARKING FOR
WRONG ANSWERS, i.e. marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is
to be awarded, for wrong answer ¼ marks will be deducted.
B.E./ B.Tech. degree in Food Technology / Dairy Technology/ Agricultural Engineering / Food Engineering
/ Chemical Engineering / Chemical Technology (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA
or any other equivalent qualifying degree as approved by the Syndicate with a CGPA of 6.75 or at least
60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded).
Based on Entrance Test P.U. – CET (P.G.). The merit list of eligible P.U.-CET (P.G.) qualified candidates
shall be as per the following criteria:-
GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.). However, in case of eligible GATE
qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the percentile obtained and shall be offered the seat in the
first instance.
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consists of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.
In case of Objective Type questions papers having OMR sheets, there will be NEGATIVE MARKING FOR
WRONG ANSWERS, i.e. marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is
to be awarded, for wrong answer ¼ marks will be deducted.
M.TECH. (POLYMER)
B.E./B.Tech. (Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year B.E.(Chemical) with MBA with a CGPA of 6.75 or at least
60% marks in the aggregate (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying examination i.e. B.E./B.Tech.
(Chemical) (4-Year) or Five Year Integrated B.E.(Chemical) with MBA or any other equivalent qualifying
degree as approved by the Syndicate.
OR
17
Master‟s degree with at least 55% marks in the aggregate in Technical Chemistry/Applied
Chemistry/Industrial Chemistry/Chemistry (with Mathematics upto graduation) or an equivalent
examination) from Panjab University or any other university.
Based on Entrance Test P.U. – CET (P.G.). The merit list of eligible P.U.-CET (P.G.) qualified candidates
shall be as per the following criteria:-
GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.). However, in case of eligible GATE
qualified candidates the merit list will be as per the percentile obtained and shall be offered the seat in the
first instance.
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consists of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations.
In case of Objective Type questions papers having OMR sheets, there will be NEGATIVE MARKING FOR
WRONG ANSWERS, i.e. marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is
to be awarded, for wrong answer ¼ marks will be deducted.
B.Sc. (Three Year Course) with Mathematics and Chemistry as compulsory subjects / B.Sc. (Hons.)
Chemistry/ B.Sc. (Hons.) Chemistry with Maths as a compulsory subject/ B.Sc.(Three Year Course) with
Industrial Chemistry and Mathematics as compulsory subject or any other equivalent examination as
approved by the syndicate, Panjab University, Chandigarh. A candidate seeking admission must have
obtained a minimum CGPA of 6.25 OR 55% marks (where % marks are awarded) in the qualifying
examination mentioned above.
Based on Entrance Test P.U. – CET (P.G.). The merit list of eligible P.U.-CET (P.G.) qualified candidates
shall be as per the following criteria:-
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes and it will consist of 75 multiple-choice
questions of one mark each consisting of 20 questions in Physics, 20 questions in Chemistry, 20 questions
in Industrial Chemistry & 15 questions in Mathematics. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course
contents generally covered during the qualifying examinations.
In case of Objective Type questions papers having OMR sheets, there will be NEGATIVE MARKING FOR
WRONG ANSWERS, i.e. marks will be deducted for wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is
to be awarded, for wrong answer ¼ marks will be deducted.
Eligibility Conditions
B.E. / B. Tech or equivalent in Instrumentation and Control/ Electronics/Electrical Engineering with atleast
60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University
as equivalent thereto. Admission is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (PG) 2019 to be conducted by the
Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (PG) Test.
However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE Score
obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations.
Each question will be of one mark.
18
M.E. (Electronics and Communication Engineering) (Regular Programme)
Eligibility Conditions
B.E. or B. Tech or equivalent in Electronics /Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronics and
Telecom Engineering with at least 60% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or any other
university recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.)-2019 Test. However, in case of
eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be
offered the seat at the first instance.
Scheme of Test
The duration of the Entrance Test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.
Eligibility Conditions
B.E. or B.Tech or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering/Information Technology with at least
60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University as
equivalent thereto.
GATE qualified candidates shall be exempted from the PU–CET (P.G.) – 2019 Test. However, in case of
eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be
offered the seat in the first instance.
Scheme of Test
The duration of Entrance test will be 1 hour 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75 multiple-
choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered during
qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.
A Bachelor‟s Degree in Civil Engineering from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum
CGPA of 6.75 of 60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance
test PU-CET (P.G.)-2019 to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview. GATE qualified
candidates will be exempted from the PU-CET (P.G.)-2019 Test. However, in case eligible GATE qualified
candidates, the merit list will be as per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first
instance.
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consist of 75
multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.
Eligibility Conditions:
A Bachelor‟ Degree in Mechanical Engg./ Production Engg./ Industrial Engg./ Automobile engineering/
Manufacturing Technology from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum CGPA of 6.75 or
60% marks in aggregate. Admission (against vacant seats) is on the basis of entrance test PU-CET (P.G.)
to be conducted by the Panjab University and interview, GATE qualified candidates will be exempted from
the PU-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE qualified candidates, the merit list will be as
per the GATE score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the first instance.
Scheme of Test:
The duration of the Entrance Test shall be of 1 hour and 30 minutes. The question paper will consists of 75
multiple choice questions. The syllabus will be based broadly on the course contents generally covered
during qualifying examinations. Each question will be of one mark.
19
M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System)
Eligibility Conditions:
Any candidate who has completed B.E./B.Tech. in Electrical/Electrical & Electronics Engineering with at
least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab
University as equivalent thereto.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electrical and Electronics Engineering taught at
undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions
(Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A ,B C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will
be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Material Science taught at
undergraduate engineering level in Panjab University, Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type
questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The
question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.
M.E. (Biotechnology)
Eligibility Conditions:
B.E . / B.Tech. Biotechnology Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or
any other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Biotechnology Engineering taught at undergraduate
level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with
four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30
minutes duration.
B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent in Computer Science and Engineering / Information Technology with at least
60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University
as equivalent thereto.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.
20
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Computer Science and Engineering taught at
undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions
(Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will
be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.
B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Electronics / Electronics & Communication Engineering / Electronic
and Telecommunication Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any
other University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electronics / Electronics & Communication
Engineering / Electronic and Telecommunication Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab
University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses
i.e. A, B, C, and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes
duration.
B.E. or B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Information Technology / Computer Science & Engineering / Electronics
& Communication Engineering / Electrical & Electronics Engineering / Computer Science & Electronics
Engineering / Software Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other
University recognized by Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given to GATE qualified candidates. Candidate appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if some seats will be left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates admissions‟and according to the
following criteria:-
Academic weightage: 50%
Entrance Test: 50%
Scheme of Test:
There will be no separate test. However, admission will be based on PU-CET (PG) in CSE/ ECE/ EEE. The order
of preference will be (i) PU-CET (P.G.) in CSE (ii) PU-CET (P.G.) in ECE (iii) PU-CET (P.G.) in EEE.
B.E./ B.Tech. in Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering with at least 60% marks in aggregate from
Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab University or any other University recognized by
Panjab University as equivalent thereto.
The admission shall be made on the basis of Entrance Test P.U. CET (PG) to be conducted by the Panjab
University.
GATE qualified candidates shall be exempted from the P.U.-CET (P.G.) Test. However, in case of eligible GATE
qualified candidates, the merit list shall be as per the GATE Score obtained and shall be offered the seat at the
first instance.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Mechanical Engineering / Production Engineering / taught at
undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple
choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour and
30 minutes duration.
21
M.Tech. (Microelectronics)
Eligibility Conditions:
B.E. / B.Tech. or equivalent degree in Computer Science and Engineering / Electrical / Electrical & Electronics /
Electronics / Microelectronics / Electronics & Electrical Communications / Electronics & Telecommunication /
Electronics & Communication / Information Technology / Instrumentation Engineering/ M.Sc. Applied Physics /
M.Sc. Physics with specialization in Electronics or M.Sc. in Electronics (as approved by AICTE) with minimum
60% marks in aggregate from Panjab University or any other University recognized by Panjab as equivalent
thereto.
Mode of admission:
Preference will be given GATE qualified candidates. Candidates appearing for PU-CET (PG) will be given
admission if seats are left vacant after the GATE qualified candidates‟ admissions.
Scheme of Test:
The question paper will be based on the syllabus of Electronics / Electronics & Communication Engineering /
Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering taught at undergraduate level in Panjab University Chandigarh. It
will consist of 75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four response i.e. A, B, C and D) carrying a total
75 Objective type questions (Multiple choice with four response i.e. A,B, C and D) carrying a total 75 marks. The
questions paper will be of 1 hour and 30 minutes duration.
The scheme of test for M.Tech. (Microelectronics) should be same as that of M.E. (ECE) and Entrance Test for
both should be one and common.
(i) A Bachelor‟s/ Master‟s degree in any discipline of the University or a Degree of any other University
which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto, with not less than 50% marks in
the aggregate.
Or
(ii) Pass in the final examination conducted by (a) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, (b)
The Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India and (c) the Institute of Company Secretaries
of India.
Scheme of Test
The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice)
with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The standard of the question paper shall be
based on the latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‟s degree in Economics/Commerce of Panjab University (1 st,
2nd and 3rd Year together).
22
M.Com. (Honours)
(Under Hons. School System at UBS w.e.f. 2019-2021)
Eligibility Conditions
a) B. Com. / B. Com. (Hons.) / BBA with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate.
Or
b) A graduate with Honours in Economics or Mathematics or Statistics or Commerce with not less than
45% marks in the aggregate;
Or
c) A graduate with 50% marks in the aggregate having offered either Economics, Mathematics, Statistics,
Commerce, Computer Application, Information Technology or Computer Science as a subject in the
examination. Provided that in case of candidates having Bachelors degree of the University through
Modern Indian Languages [Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi (Gurmukhi Script)] and/or in a classical language
(Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or degree of any other University obtained in the same manner recognized by
the Syndicate; 50% marks in the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into account full percentage of
marks in all the papers in Language excluding the additional optional papers, English and Elective
subject taken together.
Or
d) A pass of the Final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or
England/Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India or England/ Institute Company Secretaries of
India;
Or
e) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise of one paper of 85 multiple choice (having four
responses A, B, C & D) objective type questions of one mark each in the area of Accounting, Management, Laws
and Economics.
Merit list
The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5% weight
age) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be sent to the
candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who will compile
comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.
Note:
(a) The number of candidates to be called for Group Discussion and Personal Interview will be equal to
eight times the total number of seats of the course in each category or the actual number of eligible
candidates whichever is lower;
(b) Attendance in Group Discussion and Personal Interview is a must. If any candidate does not attend any
one of the components, GD or PI, his / her candidature shall stand cancelled.
The Entrance Test for M.Com (Business Innovations) shall be open to all such candidates who possess the
qualifications as mentioned below:
(a) A Bachelor‟s degree in Commerce (B.Com) or Business Administration (B.B.A) with not less than 45%
marks in the aggregate; OR
(b) B.Com (Hons.) Degree with not less than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR
(c) A graduation with Honours in Economics OR Mathematics OR Statistics OR Commerce with not less
than 45% marks in the aggregate; OR
(d) A graduation with 50% marks in the aggregate in any other discipline of the University or a degree of any
other University which has been recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto. Provided that in
case of candidates having Bachelor‟s degree of the University through Modern Indian Languages
(Hindi/Urdu/Punjabi/Gurumukhi script) and / or in a classical language (Sanskrit/Persian/ Arabic) or
degree of any other University obtained in the same manner recognized by the Syndicate. 50% marks in
the aggregate shall be calculated by taking into account full percentage of marks in all the papers in
Language excluding the additional optional paper, English and the elective subject taken together;
(e) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or England/
Institute of Cost Accountants of India or England;
(f) A pass in the final examination conducted by the Institute of Company Secretaries of India; OR
(g) Any other qualification recognized by the Syndicate for this purpose.
23
Scheme of Test:
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75 Objective
Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each.
The Breakup of questions shall be as follows:
1. General Knowledge 15 Questions
2. Business Aptitude 20 Questions
3. Quantitative Aptitude 20 Questions
4. Test of Reasoning 20 Questions
Merit
Admission to M.Com (Business Innovation) shall be on the basis of the Entrance Test (Weightage 50%), and
qualifying examination (Weightage 50%).
Scheme of Test
The question paper of 1 hour 30 minutes duration will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice)
with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will include 15 questions
each on subject knowledge of Commerce, Economics, IT, Verbal ability/Reasoning and General awareness.
24
Merit List
The admission will be made on the basis of the Entrance Test (85% weightage), Group Discussion (7.5%
weightage) and Personal Interview (7.5% weightage). The result of the Entrance Test, however, will not be sent to
the candidates but will be conveyed confidentially to the Chairman, University Business (UBS) who will compile
comprehensive result after the Group Discussion and Interview.
Admission Procedure
Admission shall be made on merit on the basis of marks obtained in the entrance examination (written test, fitness
test, interview and percentage of qualifying examination) as per the policy of Panjab University.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks, containing 75 Objective
Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each. Questions will be
based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b) General Knowledge (c)
Reasoning Ability.
a) Bachelor‟s Degree in any discipline with 50% marks and having at least participation in the Inter-
College/Inter-Zonal District/ School competition in sports and games as recognized by the
AIU/IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
Bachelor‟s Degree in physical education with 45% marks;
OR
Bachelor‟s Degree in any discipline with 45% marks and studied physical education as compulsory
elective subjects;
OR
Bachelor‟s Degree with 45% marks and having participated in National / Inter University / State
competitions or secured 1st, 2nd or 3rd position in Inter College / Inter-Zonal /District / School competition
in sports and games as recognized by the AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
Bachelor‟s degree with participation in International competitions or secured 1 st, 2nd or 3rd position in
National / Inter-University competition in sports and games as recognized by respective federations /
AIU/ IOA/SGFI/Govt. of India;
OR
Graduation with 45% marks and at least three Years of teaching experience (for deputed in-service
candidates i.e. trained physical education teachers / coaches)
b) The relaxation in the percentage of marks in the qualifying examination and in the reservation of seats
for SC/ST/BC/PwD and other categories shall be as per the rules of the Central Government / State
Government, whichever is applicable.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test of 1 hour 30 minutes duration shall comprise one paper of 75 marks containing 75 Objective
Type questions of multiple choices (having four responses A, B, C & D) carrying one mark each. Questions will be
based on the following three areas of Physical Education and Sports: (a) Aptitude (b) General Knowledge (c)
Reasoning Ability
25
M.Sc. (Hons. School) in Biophysics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry,
Botany, Chemistry, Mathematics, Physics, Physics (Specialization in
Electronics), Zoology and Geology
Important Note: Under the Choice-Based Credit System obtaining 24 credits in a Generic Elective
Course (Subject) in the full B.Sc (Hons.) course shall also be deemed sufficient to satisfy a requirement
for admission to the M.Sc. course in the concerned subject. However, the candidate has to fulfill
other requirements as mentioned for respective M.Sc. (Hons. School) Courses.
Eligibility Conditions
B.A./ B. Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of the Panjab
University or any other examination recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto with the subject
desirous of seeking admission in M.Sc. (Hons. School) Course as an elective subject for three Years.
For Entrance Test to M. Sc. (Hons. School) Mathematics B.A. / B. Sc. (General) with 50% marks (45% marks in
case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) Mathematics from the colleges affiliated to Panjab University or from other Universities
as recognized by the Panjab University. The candidates who are already students of Panjab University Teaching
Department and have passed/appeared/appearing in the B.Sc. (Hons.) final examination of the University during
the current session in the relevant subject are not required to appear in the M.Sc. (Hons. School) Admission
Entrance Test. Their admission to the course shall be governed by the relevant rules and regulations of the
University.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Physics:- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination of P.U. or any other exam. recognized
as equivalent thereto with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) with Physics and Mathematics as
elective subjects.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Physics (Specialisation in Electronics):- B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with
Physics and Mathematics as elective subjects, or B.Sc. (Electronics) or B.Tech. / B.E. (Electronics / Electrical /
Mechanical or equivalent) with 50% marks (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) of P.U. or any other exam.
recognized as equivalent thereto.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Biophysics:- B.Sc.(Hons.) in Biophysics, Panjab University, Chandigarh or any other
University considered equivalent. Bachelor of Science in any other subject (such as B.Sc. Medical, Non-medical,
Biotechnology, Bioinformatics, etc.). Students who have passed B.Sc. (Hons.) in Biophysics from Panjab
University, Chandigarh will be directly promoted to M.Sc. (Hons.) in Biophysics. However, all other applicants
need to qualify the CET-PG in Biophysics conducted by the Panjab University, Chandigarh.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Chemistry:- Passed B.Sc. (Hons.) in Chemistry from department of Chemistry, P.U.
ii)B.Sc. (Pass or Hons.) examination with 50% marks from PU or any other University recognized as equivalent
thereto with (a) Chemistry in all the three years/six semesters and (b) any two science subjects during two
years/four semesters during graduation.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Biotechnology: B.Sc. Biotechnology with 50% marks or B.Sc. (50% marks) with
Biotechnology as Elective/Vocational on subject (studied for 3 Years) are eligible.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Geology: B.Sc. 3 year‟s course with Geology as one of the subjects with 50% marks
in B.Sc. & 50% marks in subject of Geology in B.Sc.
For M.Sc. (Hons. School) Biochemistry:- B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry or its equivalent exam OR B.Sc. (Pass or
Hons.) exam with 50% marks, recognized as equivalent by Panjab University with Biochemistry as one of the
subjects every year of the B.Sc. Course.
Note: B.Sc. (MLT) Course has not been made equivalent to B.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry of Panjab
University.
Scheme of Test
The question paper will be on the concerned subject for which the admission to M.Sc. (Hons.) is being sought by
the candidate. It will consist of 75 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C & D)
carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The standard of the
question paper shall be based on latest syllabus prescribed for Bachelor‟s degree of Panjab University (1st, 2nd
and 3rd Year together) in the relevant subject.
M.Sc. (Hons. School) Computer Science
Eligibility Conditions
BCA/B.Sc. (Hons.) in Computer Science/ B. Tech. / B.E. (Computer Science/ Engineering) or any other
examination recognized as equivalent thereto with 50% marks.
26
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple choice
questions of Computer Science subject at the level of examinations as mentioned in the eligibility conditions.
M.Sc. (Environment Science) (Two-Year Course)
Eligibility Conditions
The candidates with B.Sc. from all streams and any other stream with honours in Geography as one of the subject
and B.E. in any stream.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with only
one right answer) of one mark each from the Botany, Chemistry, Geography, Geology, Mathematics, Physics,
Sociology, Statistics, Zoology and General Awareness subjects of graduation level. It shall attempt to test the
intelligence, comprehension of the scientific principles and general knowledge expected of a science graduate.
B. Sc. (Pass or Honours) under 10+2+3 pattern examination of the Panjab University or any other examination
recognized by the Panjab University as equivalent thereto in Physical, Chemical, Biological, Pharmaceutical
Sciences or Medicine with at least 55% marks.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 75 marks. It will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration consisting of 75 multiple choice
questions (with only one correct answer) of 1 Mark each from six disciplines representing Physics, Chemistry,
Mathematics, Biology, Pharmaceutical Sciences and Medicine.
Candidates with B.Sc. degree in X-Ray / Medical Technology, B.Sc. through correspondence and open University
stream are not eligible.
Bachelor‟s degree in Science (General or Hons.) with Bioinformatics, Biotechnology, Biochemistry, Biology,
Botany, Chemistry, Electronics, Genetics, Life Science, Mathematics, Mathematics & computing, Microbiology,
Physics, Statistics, Zoology, Agriculture, Computer Science, Engineering, Medicine, Pharmacy and Veterinary
Science with at least 50% marks (45% for candidates belonging to SC/ST/BC/PwD category).
Scheme of Test
The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice with four responses i.e. A, B, C &
D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. The syllabi and standard
for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed for Bachelor‟s Degree of Panjab University (1 st, 2nd
and 3rd Year together).
Candidates having Bachelors Degree in any field of Biological Sciences including Biotechnology are eligible.
27
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes duration. It shall comprise 75 multiple-choice questions (with only
one right answer) of one mark each. The questions will be based on fundamentals of Microbiology and
Biotechnology.
Admission to M.Sc. Course in Medical Physics will be B.Sc. (Regular course) first class with Physics as core
subject (studied for three Years) and Mathematics as one of the subjects (studied for minimum two Years) form a
recognized university. The candidates who studied B.Sc. through correspondence and open university stream are
not eligible.
The Entrance Test for Physics, Physics (Specialisation in Electronics) and Medical Physics will be
common.
Admission to M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology shall be through P.U.- CET (P.G.) conducted by Panjab
University. The admission will be on merit, based upon the marks obtained in PU-CET (P.G.) and marks obtained
at undergraduate degree alongwith admissible weightage as per University Rules.
Format for Entrance Test for M.Sc. Forensic Science & Criminology:
The question paper will comprise of Section A and Section B carrying a total of 70 marks. The question paper will
be of 90 minutes duration. Section A will have 20 questions of General Sciences at 10+2 level to test the
knowledge of fundamentals. Section B will have four sub-sections namely, Biology, Chemistry, Forensic Science
and Physics with 25 questions each from graduation level. The candidate has to select ANY TWO of the four sub-
sections from Section B for answering questions.
Scheme of Test
The Entrance Test will be of 1 hour 30 minutes. It shall comprise of 75 multiple-choice questions (with only one
right answer) carrying one mark each. The questions will be based upon two components:
28
Theorem, contour integration. Reduction formulae, Sequences and their limits, Series. Trigonometry, Sets,
sequences of sets and their limits. Differential Equations of first orders, Leibnitz‟s and Clairant differential
equations, Linear Differential Equations.
Biotechnology:
Bachelor‟s degree (under the 10+2+3 pattern of Education) in Physical, Biological, Pharmaceutical, Agricultural,
Veterinary or Fishery Sciences or Bachelor‟s degree in Engineering/ Technology, Home Science, Medicine
(MBBS) from any University/ Institute recognized by the Panjab University. The candidate must have obtained at
least 55% marks at the Bachelor‟s degree level.
Botany:
B.Sc. pass with Botany having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any other
University recognized by Panjab University Syndicate as equivalent thereto.
Physics:
a. B. Sc. Hons. examination of the Panjab University in the subject of M. Sc. Course
b. B. Sc. Examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by Syndicate securing at
least 50% marks in aggregate (45% marks in case of SC/ST/BC/PwD) and with Physics & Mathematics
for M.Sc. Physics Course and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M. Sc. Chemistry course along with
anyone of the following subjects:-
Biochemistry, Botany, Chemistry, Geology, Physics, Statistics, Zoology
Provided that a student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B. Sc. Examination may be
admitted to M.Sc. (2-Year Course) in Chemistry on the condition that he / she passes an additional paper in
Mathematics (50 hour course) in the first Year examination securing at least 40% marks.
c. Awarded B.Sc. Pass degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations by the Syndicate on the
recommendation of the Board of Control:
d. B.Sc. Honours examination in the subject of the M.Sc. From any other University recognized by the
Syndicate as equivalent to (a);
Chemistry:
a. B.Sc. examination of the Panjab University or any other University recognized by the Syndicate securing
at least 50% marks in aggregate and with Chemistry & Mathematics for M.Sc. Chemistry course along
with any Science subject.
Provided that the student who had not taken Mathematics as one of the subjects in B.Sc. examination
may be admitted to M.Sc. ( 2 Year course) in Chemistry on the condition that he/she passes an
additional paper in Mathematics (50 hours course) in the first Year examination securing at least 40%
marks.
b. B.Sc. Pass Degree under the old B.Sc. Honours regulations awarded by the Syndicate on the
recommendation of the Board of Control in the subject of M.Sc. course.
c. B.Sc. examination with 50 per cent marks in aggregate from any other University recognized by the
Syndicate as equivalent to (a).
d. B.Sc. (Honours) examination of Panjab University or of any other University (recognized as equivalent
thereto) in the subject of M.Sc. course.
Zoology:
B.Sc. with Zoology having at least 50% marks in the aggregate from Panjab University or from any other
University recognized by the Syndicate as equivalent thereto.
For M.Sc. Bioinformatics: The question paper will consists of 75 objective type questions (Multiple choice with
four responses i.e. A, B, C & D) carrying a total of 75 marks. The question paper will be of 1 hour 30 minutes
duration. The syllabi and standard for the question paper shall be the one as currently prescribed for Bachelor‟s
Degree of Panjab University (1st , 2nd and 3rd Year together).
29
APPENDIX A
GUIDELINES FOR GENERAL / RESERVED CATEGORY/ ADDITIONAL/NRI SEATS
IMPORTANT NOTE:
Admission in all categories shall be made subject to fulfilment of the eligibility conditions and in accordance
with the provisions contained in the Handbook of Information and Rules for Admission, 2019.
1) Generally 53.5% of the seats in each course shall be treated as belonging to the General Category.
2) 46.5% seats shall be treated as belonging to the Reserved Category, as per details given below:
a. the number of students admitted on merit shall not be included in the number of seats
reserved;
b. members of Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes/ Backward Classes shall be allowed a
concession of 5% marks for admission to the courses in which a certain percentage of
minimum marks has been prescribed provided they have obtained minimum pass marks
prescribed by the regulations;
c. in case the seats earmarked for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes remains unfilled, a
further relaxation in marks may be given, in order of merit inter-se amongst the candidates
themselves, so that all the reserved seats are filled by candidates belonging to these
categories; and
d. a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe person on migration from the State of his origin will
not lose his status as Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe but he/she will be entitled to the
concessions/benefits admissible to the Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes from the
State of his origin and not from the State where he has migrated. [Regulation 29.1, P.U.
Cal. Vol. 1, 2007 (Page 168)].
(iv) 5% seats will be horizontally reserved for persons or class of Persons with Disability (PwD)*
out of which 1% each shall be reserved for persons suffering from the disabilities specified
under the RPWD 2016 Act:
A) Physical Disability
a. Locomotor disability
i) Leprosy cured persons
ii) Cerebral palsy
iv) Dwarfism
v) Muscular dystrophy
vi) Acid attack victims
b. Visual Impairment
i) Blindness
ii) Low Vision
c. Hearing Impairment
i) Deaf
ii) Hard of Hearing
d. Speech and language disability
B) Intellectual disability
i) Specific learning disabilities
ii) Autism spectrum disorder
* Claimant in this category should be capable of pursuing the course for which the admission is sought. The Persons with
Benchmark Disability (as per section 2 (r) of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities [RPWD] Act 2016 should have a minimum of 40%
disability duly certified by the Medical Board of District/State/UT/Medical Institution of National Importance. Such certificate shall be
further certified by the Medical Board of the Panjab University Health Centre.
30
C) Mental behavior (Mental Illness)
31
(vii) 2% for Sons/Grandsons/Daughters /Granddaughters/ Husband / Wife / Brothers /
Sisters of persons killed/incapacitated in November, 1984 riots and of persons killed /
incapacitated in terrorist violence in Punjab and Chandigarh. A Certificate from the
District Magistrate to this effect must be submitted by the candidate. Migrant Card
alone is not enough.
(viii) 2% for the Children/Grand Children of Freedom Fighters who have been sanctioned
pension by Central/State Govt. or awarded Tamra Patra by Government of India
(Syndicate Para 15, dated 30-5-1997) or those who have been certified to be
Freedom Fighters by the Central/State Govts.
(ix) Any other statutory reservation as prescribed by the Govt. of India, if any.
Additional Seats :-
(a) Wards of Kashmiri displaced persons.
(i) Relaxation in cut-off percentage upto 10% Subject to minimum eligibility requirement.
(ii) Increase in intake capacity upto 5% course wise.
(iii) Reservation of at least one seat in merit quota in technical/professional institutions.
(iv) Waiving off domicile requirements.
Documents required:
A candidate seeking admission against this seat is required to produce a certificate from an
authorised Government Officer (i.e. Relief Commissioner / Deputy Commissioner of the
concerned district / area) to the effect that the candidate is a ward of Kashmiri displaced person.
Proof of current residence (such as Ration Card/ Photo Identity Card issued by the Election
Commissioner / Driving License / Aadhaar Card / Passport etc.)
The admission of a candidate against this category shall be provisional subject to verification of
his / her above mentioned certificates by the competent authority.
(c) One Girl Child out of the only two girl Children
1. Two additional seats per unit per course subject to maximum limit of four (4)out of the two girl children
from the session 2015-16 are created for admission to a given course in the Panjab University Teaching
Departments, Regional Centres and its affiliated Colleges provided they are otherwise eligible from all
angles. The additional seats will be only for those girl Children who are either a single girl child of her
parents or one amongst the only two girl Children with no male Child. The additional seat will be available
to only one of the two girl children of a couple.
2. A certificate is to be obtained from the parents of the girl children declaring therein that the benefit of this
scheme is being claimed for only One Girl Child out of the two girl Children and the parent shall not claim
the same for the 2nd girl child elsewhere in future the specimen of the certificate is enclosed.
In case two or more candidate have equal position at equal level then :
i. Position secured in an individual item shall be rated higher as compared to as a team.
ii. The eligibility of the candidate for participation in university youth festivals, in future, may also be
considered.
iii. Academic record may be considered in case of tie between two or more candidate.
In case of any ambiguity, the related certificates be got verified from the Department of Youth Welfare
through the concerned Chairperson / Principal / Head etc.
The candidate admitted on the basis of youth festival additional quota seats shall have to give an
assurance to the university authorities that during the duration of the course the candidate will participate
in the activities associated with his item and will not create any kind of indiscipline. The admission
committee will assess the participation of the candidate and in case the candidate does not fulfill the
requirements, his admission may be cancelled. However, exemption can be given because of a special
reason like sickness or any other unavoidable reason in inter varisty Youth Festivals, National Festivals
and International Festivals.
**
Categorization of International / NRI Students
A foreign national may seek admission in any of the courses being offered by the University through the
International Students Office under any of the following categories-
(i) Candidates with nomination / sponsorship by any foreign State, Embassy or authority in India under a
Study in India / Exchange Programme, etc.
(ii) Foreign nationals or their wards who are self-financed students (not seeking admission through a
mode as mentioned in (i) above).
(iii) Non- resident Indians or their Wards (not seeking admission through a mode as mentioned in (i)
above).
**
Subject to the approval of the Competent Authority.
33
The definition of the terms, “Foreign Nationals, Non-resident Indians and Wards” be considered as under:-
1. Foreign Nationals: Foreign Nationals holding passports issued by foreign countries including people
of Indian origin who have acquired the nationality of foreign countries are included as foreign
students. Provided any subsequent changes in the definition as may be notified by the Government
of India shall have the same latest meaning respectively assigned to them. The other expressions
not defined herein shall have the meaning as may be assigned in any subsequent notification of the
Government of India.
2. Non-resident Indians: A person shall be deemed to be Non-resident Indian for seeking admission in
Panjab University if s/he fulfils the criterion (as amended from time to time) for status of NRI under
Income Tax Act, 1961, in the year in which he/she seeks admission in Panjab University.
As per Income Tax Act, 1961 the present criterion for determination of status of NRI is as follows:-
„Non-resident Indian‟ is an individual who is a citizen of India or a person of Indian origin and who is not a
resident of India. Thus, in order to determine whether an Individual is a non-resident Indian or not, his
residential status is required to be determined under Section 6. As per Section 6 of the Income-tax Act, an
individual is said to be non-resident in India if he is not a resident in India and an individual is deemed to be
resident in India in any previous year if he satisfies any of the following conditions:-
(i) If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year; or
(ii) If he is in India for a period of 60 days or more during the previous year and 365 days or more during
4 years immediately preceding the previous year.
However, condition No. 2 does not apply where an individual being citizen of India or a person of Indian origin,
who being outside India, comes on a visit to India during the previous year.
A person shall be deemed to be of Indian origin if he, or either of his parents or any of his parents or any of his
grand – parents, was born in undivided India.
NOTE:
Specimen of forms of certificates to be attached to admission forms wherever applicable has been
provided in the prospectus (pp. 45-64)
While working out the percentage of seats in the reserved categories, if the number arrived at
contains a fraction, this shall be resolved as follows:
If the fraction is 0.5 or more, it shall be rounded off to 1; if it is less than 0.5, it shall be ignored. This shall,
however, not affect the total number of seats in the open category. To ensure this, if the total number of
seats after making this adjustment exceeds the prescribed number fixed for the course, the necessary
additional seats shall be created with the prior permission of the D.U.I./Vice-Chancellor. Such seats, if
created, shall be treated as additional only for the year in question.
Illustration: In a course which has 35 seats, the distribution of seats among the various
categories will be as under:
General SC ST BC Sports Defence Persons Riot/Terrorist Freedom Total
with Victim Fighter
Disability
53.5% 15% 7.5% 5% 5% 5% 5% 2% 2%
19 5 3 2 2 2 2 1 1 37
th th
It will be seen that this raises the total number of seats to 37. The 36 and 37 seat will be treated as
additional in that course for that year only. The additional seat, if required to be created, shall be created
only for the reserved category and not for the Open category. Such additional seat, if remains unfilled, will
not be converted to open category.
35
APPENDIX B
GUIDELINES FOR ADMISSION TO THE RESERVED CATEGORY OF SPORTS
(Candidates are advised to visit website of Sports Department at www.sports.puchd.ac.in)
Five percent seats of the total number of seats in each course are reserved under this category. No benefit
on the basis of sports shall be given to the candidates not applying for admission in this category.
1. Each candidate applying for admission in this category shall, along with the Admission Form, will
submit following documents to the concerned department and photocopy of one complete set of
Admission Form, along with all relevant documents after paging all the documents, will submit in the
office of Campus Sports, (Gymnasium Building), P.U. Chandigarh before the last date of submission
of form. If the candidate fails to submit the form complete in all respect within stipulated date in the
concerned department or in the Campus Sports Department, his candidature will be rejected
a) Self-attested photocopy of sports certificates with photograph duly attested by the
respective issuing authority / Head of the Institution of last attended / self attested.
th
b) Self attested photocopies of Class 10 and Class 10+2 and Bachelor‟s detailed marks
certificates.
c) Undertaking of the sports achievements (Annexure-I) and attendance in sports
grounds (Annexure-II)
d) List of players/ competitors of the concerned tournament duly attested by the respective
issuing authority or Head of the Institution of last attended.
2. The D.U.I. has the authority to cancel admission at any time, if it is found that the candidate has
obtained such admission on the basis of a false certificate or incorrect statement/record.
3. Candidates seeking admission under Sports category will be considered for admission only in the
games / events / sports which are included in the Olympic Games / Asian Games / Commonwealth
games immediately preceding the year of admission. Along with the games included in the above
said tournaments, four games namely Chess, Cricket, Kho-kho and Yoga will also be considered as
eligible sports disciplines for admission under reserved category of Sports (Annexure-III).
1
4. Reservation under Sports Category is meant only for those active sports-persons who would
participate in the Campus, University, State, National, International level Sports Tournaments. Such
students will be considered for admission only if:
i. Their achievement in sports relates to their activities in any of three years immediately
2
preceding the year of admission (relaxable to 4 years in exceptional cases, on merit, for
3
outstanding sportspersons ).
ii. They are otherwise also eligible for participation in Inter-College, Inter-University
tournaments for at least one year as per Association of Indian Universities rule 2018-19
(http://www.aiu.ac.in)
iii. The Candidate qualifies in the Sports trials i.e. General Fitness test and Skill & Game
th th
Performance Test in the concerned game from 10 to 12 July 2019. It is essential to qualify
the General Fitness Test as per the norms laid in (Annexure – IV) for appearing in Skill &
Game Performance Test and it is essential to qualify the Skill and Game Performance test to
be eligible for verification of original sports certificates for awarding marks. The Sports Merit
will be prepared as per Annexure – V.
iv. No document including undertaking etc. will be accepted after the last date of submission of
Admission Form by the Campus Sports Department. However, in case any sports persons
th
earns any achievement up to 30 June, 2019, he/she may submit supplementary copy of the
document to the Campus Sports Department along with additional Undertaking.
v. Sports Participation in the same game in two different competitions (irrespective of the event)
is essential for the candidates seeking admission under this category within the prescribed
st th
period of three years i.e. from 1 July 2016 to 30 June 2019. The merit for admission in the
1
Means a person attending the grounds regularly so as to appear himself for participation in the Inter-College and Inter-University
Tournaments. However, his/her age falls within the age group which is eligible for participation in Inter-College/Inter-University
Competition.
2
Preceding three years means from 1st July 2016 to 30th June 2019.
3
Securing first three positions in International competitions under senior / junior category in the eligible sports disciplines as per
Annexure III & V.
36
Sports Category will be purely on the basis of criteria given in Annexure-V. However, the
minimum level of sports participation to be considered for supporting certificates will be Inter
school / Inter College /Cluster /District/ State Level Participations.
5. A committee constituted by the Vice-Chancellor shall prepare the sports merit of applicants applying
under reserved category of Sports by screening the applications, conducting General Fitness Test,
Skill & Game Performance Test and verifying the original Merit / Participation Sports Certificates of
the applicants as per norms incorporated in Annexure – V. Only such applicants will be allowed to
appear for the actual sports trials, whose application is found in conformity with the requirement/
qualifications mentioned in the Guidelines by the Campus sports Department. Candidates are to
appear for sports trials in proper sports kit with all the original sports certificates and required
academic certificates.
6. The Campus Sports Department, Panjab University shall take an undertaking (Annexure-II) from the
candidates that they will attend the grounds regularly and must have 75% of attendance in the sports
ground and would also participate in the Inter-College, Inter-University, State, National and
International sports tournaments. Their admission would be liable to be cancelled if the terms of the
undertaking thus given are not adhered to.
7. The order of precedence in the selection of candidates for admission will be as per Annexure-V.
i. Applicant securing higher marks in sports merit will be placed / given higher preference.
ii. If there is a tie within the same category, the tie shall be resolved by considering the
'academic merit‟ i.e. as per admission criteria of the concerned department and even then
if there is tie, it will be resolved by the seniority in age i.e. date of birth of the candidate and
such tie will be resolved by the concerned Department in which an applicant applied for
admission.
8. The inter-se merit of the candidates seeking admission to any course under the reserved category of
Sports shall be determined only on the basis of their merit in Sports as per criteria in Annexure-V.
9. It is mandatory to participate actively in all sports competitions, if selected, and at least 75%
attendance in Panjab University sports grounds is required to enable to sit in the examination for all
the candidates admitted against reserved category of sports. The attendance certificates shall be
issued by the Campus Sports Department in favour of each candidate whose attendance in sports
grounds is at least 75% and admit card for examination shall be issued by the Chairperson only on
the production of such a certificate.
10. When a candidate is required to abstain from the Department for participation in Inter College / Inter
University / National / International / State Sports Tournaments, he/she shall give prior information to
the Chairperson of the concerned Department.
11. If a candidate admitted under the reserved category of Sports, remains absent from the grounds for
regular practice for a continuous period of seven days without leave, his/her names shall be struck off
the rolls by the Chairperson of the concerned Department on the recommendation of the Director
Physical Education & Sports, Panjab University, Chandigarh.
12. Deficiency of equal numbers of lectures (theory, practical, seminars and tutorials etc.) shall be
condoned for sportspersons for attending Coaching Camps and participation in various tournaments
i.e. Inter Hostel and Inter Department (Conducted by P.U. Campus Sports), Inter College, Inter
District, State, Inter State, Inter University, National and International level tournament.
13. In case a candidate does not attend the grounds for practice or does not participate in the P.U.
Campus Sports Activities including Campus Annual Athletic Meet, Inter College Competition, Inter
University Tournaments on medical grounds, the Medical Certificate issued only by the University
Chief Medical Officer will be accepted.
NOTE : In case a student remains present in the concerned Department for classes but absent in the
grounds for sports then his/her Medical Certificate will not be accepted and his/her admission
shall liable to be cancelled.
14. In case there is one association or more than one association or federation in any game the sports
certificates issued by those State Associations will be considered which are recognized by concerned
State Olympic Association and respective National Federation. For Inter state and National level
competitions the certificates issued by only those National Federations will be considered which are
duly recognized by Indian Olympic Association or Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sport. In case of
Cricket, BCCI will be the competent authority. For International level competitions, the certificates
issued by those National Federation will be considered which are duly recognized by concerned
Country‟s Olympic Association, such National Olympic Association should be duly recognized by
International Olympic Committee.
37
15. Certificate on Letter head will not be considered in normal course. However, if the certificates are not
issued by some sports Organization / Association in a particular game, those cases will be looked
after separately by the screening committee on the recommendation of Campus Sports Department.
16. The clause 4 (i) and (ii) will not be applicable for Arjuna Awardeee / Rajiv Khel Ratan Awardee /
Padam Shree Awardee / Olympians in any game/sports with the condition that if such a candidate is
successful in getting admission but barred for participation due to age bar then he/she will coach or
groom a team of his expertise for at least five hours a week without seeking any remuneration.
17. The admission of students under reserved category of sports will be provisional until the verification
of sports certificates from the concerned issuing authority.
18. No invitational / Prize Money / Ranking tournament will be considered for admission under reserved
category of sports. Further, marks will not be given for tournament which are held more than once a
year.
19. The sportspersons who have represented in the recognized competitions recognized by Ministry of
Youth Affairs and Sports, Olympic Games by International Sports Federation, Common wealth
Games by Commonwealth Games Federation, Asian Games by Olympic Council of Asia, Asian
Championships by International Sports Federations, South Asian Federation Games (SAF) by South
Asian Sports Council, Paralympic Games by International Paralympic Committee, World University
Games by FISU/ Asian University Games / Championship by AUSF (Asian University Sports
Federation), University games by AIU, National games and Championships by IOA/NSF/MYAS/SGFI,
State Level Games by State Sports Association / State Directorate of Education/ School Boards and
Inter College by concerned University will only be eligible for admission under reserved category of
sports in Panjab University, Chandigarh.
38
ANNEXURE-I
2. That the certificate(s) mentioned below are produced by me in support of the above are authentic :
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
3. I understand that in case the information/documents supplied by me are found to be false, incorrect
or forged, my admission will stand cancelled and I shall be liable for criminal action.
39
ANNEXURE-II
(ii) That in case I am admitted to the above said department I shall regularly attend the grounds for
practice and I shall also participate in P.U. Campus Sports Activities including P.U. Campus Annual
Athletic Meet/Inter-College/Inter-University/National/International Sports Tournament on behalf of
the P.U. Campus and the Panjab University if selected.
(iii) That in case I fail to regularly attend the Grounds for practice or fail to participate in the tournaments
as and when required, my admission to the Department of____________ shall be liable to be
cancelled.
40
ANNEXURE-III
Sports disciplines to be considered for admission under reserved category of sports will be based on the
following conditions:-
1) The sports disciplines should also be part of proceeding Olympic / Asian Games / Commonwealth
Games immediately preceding the year of admission.
2) Apart from the above the following four sports disciplines are included based on popularity /
indignity.
a) Chess
b) Cricket
c) Kho-kho
d) Yoga
41
ANNEXURE-IV
CRITERIA FOR GENERAL FITNESS TEST, SKILL & GAME PERFORMANCE TEST FOR ADMISSION
UNDER RESERVED CATEGORY OF SPORTS
Note: It is essential to qualify the General Fitness Test for appearing in the Skill & Game
Performance test.
Note: It is essential to qualify the Skill & Game Performance Test for Verification of Original Sports
Certificates for awarding Marks.
Maximum 100 Marks for Merit / Participation Sports Certificate as per the criteria in Annexure-V.
Only the Highest Merit / Participation Sports Certificate will be considered for Marking.
42
ANNEXURE-V
43
CATEGORY 'B' 50 48 46 42
1. Sports performance as a player in National
Games (under senior/ open category)
2. Sports performance as a player in National 48 46 44 40
University Games / Inter Zonal Universities
Games for Universities (under senior / open
category) / Sports performance as a player
in senior National / Inter State
Championships for seniors / Federation
Cup for seniors / khelo India school games
/ Kehlo India University Games (under 21)
// Sports performance as a player in Khelo
India School Games / SGFI National
School Games. Sports performance as a
player in Junior National / Cadet Nationals /
Youth Nationals
3. Sports performance as a player in Zonal 46 44 42 38
University Championships / National Zonal
Championships (under senior and open
category)
CATEGORY 'C' 36 34 32 28
1. Sports performance as a player in A
division Inter College tournaments other
than professional Universities/ Deemed
Universities / Agricultural Universities / Law
Universities / Technical and Management
Universities /Senior State Championship /
Inter District Championships / State School
Games / Junior / Cadet / Youth State
Championship. Position as a player in Inter
University Tournament / Competitions for
professional Universities / Deemed
Universities / Agricultural Universities / Law
Universities / Technical and Management
Universities, School Nationals other than
SGFI
CATEGORY ‘D’
1. Sports performance as a player in inter
college of professional universities / 26 24 22 Not Eligible
residential universities / PU Campus
Championships / B and C division Inter
college.
Note: The certificates not mentioning the level of
tournament i.e. Senior /Junior / Youth /
Schools will be considered as per the
following age criteria:
1. Under 17....... Junior
2. Under 19.......Youth
3. Above 19.......Senior
* BCCI: Board of Control for Cricket
in India
* SGFI: School Games Federation
of India
* MYAS: Ministry of Youth Affairs &
Sports
Note:
1. Sports Certificate of Invitational / Memorial /Open/ Prize Money League/ Ranking
competitions will not be considered for admission under reserved category of sports.
2. Merit / Participation Sports Certificates of preceding three years will be considered from
st th
01 July 2016 to 30 June 2019.
3. Applicants are required to upload Self-Attested copies of two Merit / Participation Sports
Certificates.
4. Only the Highest Merit / Participation Sports Certificates will be considered for Marking.
44
APPENDIX C
Specimen of Certificates for reserved categories and
additional seats (To be attached to admission form
wherever applicable)
SUB APPENDIX C1
SCHEDULED CASTE / SCHEDULED TRIBE CERTIFICATE
The Caste/Tribe Certificate should necessarily contain the following information about:
(a) Name of the person : ________________________________________
(b) Father‟s name : ____________________________________________
(c) Permanent place of residence : _________________________________
(d) Name of the Caste/ Tribe : ____________________________________
(e) Constitutional order under which the caste/ tribe has been notified
(f) Signature of issuing authority along with the designation, seals and date
4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides.
45
Attach
Applicants
SUB APPENDIX C2
Recent
CERTIFICATE FOR BACKWARD CLASS* Passport Size
(Persons belonging to OBC/SBC will not be considered under this category) Attested
Photograph
This is to certify that Shri / Smt/ Kumari ______________ son/daughter of Sh.___________________
village _______________________________________ District / Division ___________________ in the
state of Punjab belongs to ___________________ community which is recognized as a Backward Class
under the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfate of SCs and BCs vide notification No.
__________________________________ dated _________________________ Shri / Smt/ Kumari
______________ and / or his / her family ordinarily reside(s) in the _____________________ District /
Division of the State of Punjab.
This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons / sections (creamy Layer) mentioned in
the column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab, Department of Welfare and SCs and BCs
notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/ dated 17-01-1994, as amended vide Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated
17-08-2005, Notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated 24-02-2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609
dated 24.10.2013.
The term “Ordinarily” used here will have same meaning as in Section 20 of Representative of
People Act, 1950
46
SUB APPENDIX C2 (A)
Self declaration Performa to be submitted by the person belonging to backward class category at
the time of recruitment / admission
I hereby declare that, I do not come under Column-3 of the Schedule to the Government of Punjab,
Department of Welfare of SCs and BCs notification No. 1/41/93-RC-1/459 dated 17.01.94 as amended
vide notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/1597 dated 17-08-1005, notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/209 dated
04.02.2009 and notification No. 1/41/93-RCI/609 dated 24.10.2013.
Declarant
Place: _______________
Date: ________________
Verification:
I hereby declare that the above submitted information is correct as per my understanding and nothing has
been concealed herein. I am well versed with the facts that I would be liable to face any punishment
prescribed by law in case my above information is found to be false and the benefits granted to me (the
applicant) will be withdrawn.
Declarant
Place: _______________
Date: ________________
47
SUB APPENDIX C 3
CERTIFICATE FOR ONLY GIRL CHILD/ ONE OUT OF TWO GIRL
CHILDREN
4. That we have the following only two girls and none else :
5. That none of the above mentioned two girl children has obtained/availed the benefit granted under
this category, in this University/Institute including its affiliated colleges.
Signature
Signature
(Father)
(Mother)
Place:
Dated:
48
SUB APPENDIX C4
CERTIFICATE FOR ADMISSION UNDER DEFENCE CATEGORY
Dispatch No. __________________ Dated ___________________
1. Son/Daughter/Spouse of such Defence and Central Armed Police Force (CAPF)* personnel who died in
action on_____________during__________. (Only those who are wholly dependent on such personnel
shall be considered).
2. Son/Daughter/Spouse who is wholly dependent on such Defence and CAPF personnel who were
incapacitated/died on____________________while in service.
5. Son/daughter/spouse of serving Defence personnel and CAPF who are wholly dependent on them.
6. Ex-servicemen.
____________________________________
Name of the Certifying Officer Signature of authorized Military/Central Armed
Police Forces Officer
Designation _______________ (with official seal)
* CAPF earlier known as Para-military forces, includes Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF),
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo Tibetan Border Police
(ITBP), National Security Guard (NSG), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) etc.
49
SUB APPENDIX C5
CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM BORDER AREA SCHOOL
Place:
Date : Seal and Signature
(Tehsildar / Principal / Headmaster)
50
SUB APPENDIX C6
CERTIFICATE FROM THE CANDIDATE FROM RURAL AREA SCHOOL
Place:
Date : Seal and Signature
(D.E.O. / Principal)
51
SUB APPENDIX C7
CERTIFICATE OF CHILDREN/GRANDCHILDREN OF FREEDOM FIGHTER
Place:
Date:
*Deputy Commissioner
(with Seal of the Court)
52
APPENDIX D
Specimen of Forms/ certificates for Medical records
FORMAT FOR MEDICAL RECORD
Age:
Sex:
Address:
Occupation:
Prov. : Diagnosis :
Advice:
Follow up
Date:
Observations:
Important Note:- Under this category of Physically Challenged, persons only with Permanent
Physical Disability (PPD) will be considered. Candidates with temporary
physical disability will not be eligible for applying under this category.
53
Medical Examination Form
(The Medical Examination will be conducted by any Govt. Gazatted Officer/Medical Officer at BGJIH)
Items Nos. 1 to 8 below to be filled in by the candidate
1. Name of the candidate_______________________
2. Father‟s Name_____________________________
3. Mother‟s Name____________________________
4. Date of Birth______________________________
8. History of any previous or existing illness: Yes/No (If yes mention details)
I. Like Epilepsy (seizures), Hypertension, Bronchitis, Bronchial Asthma,
Tuberculosis, Rheumatic Heart Disease, Diabeties etc: Yes/No
II. History of any operation/Surgery : Yes/No
III. History of any regular medication : Yes/No
IV. History of any kind of allergy : Yes/No
___________________ _______________________
_______________________________
54
FORM OF CERTIFICATE RECOMMENDED FOR LEAVE OR EXTENSION OR
Signature of patient
Or thumb impression __________________________________________
To be filled in by the applicant in the presence of the Government Medical Attendant or Medical
Practitioner. (with qualifications-MBBS or above)
Identification marks:-
a. _______________________
b. _______________________
I, Dr. _________________________________ after careful examination of the case certify hereby that
________________________ whose signature is given above is suffering from___________ and I
consider that a period of absence from duty of _______________________ with effect from
______________ is absolutely necessary for the restoration of his health.
Note:- The nature and probable duration of the illness should also be specified. This certificate must be
accompanied by a brief resume of the case giving the nature of the illness, its symptoms, causes and
duration
55
COPY OF CERTIFICATE OF PERSONS WITH DISABILITY (PwD) CATEGORY FOR APPLYING FOR
ADMISSION
Form-I
12. (i) Did you ever apply for issue of a disability certificate in the past______YES/NO
(ii) If yes, details:
a. Authority to whom and district in which applied
___________________________________________________
b. Result of application
13. Have you ever been issued a disability certificate in the past? If yes, please enclose a true copy.
Declaration: I hereby declare that all particulars stated above are true to the best of my knowledge and
belief, and no material information has been concealed or misstated. I further, state that if any inaccuracy
is detected in the application, I shall be liable to forfeiture of any benefits derived and other action as per
law.
_____________________________
Stamp
57
Form-II
Recent PP
Disability Certificate Size Attested
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs Photograph
Or dwarfism and in case of blindness) (showing face
only of the
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING person with
THE CERTIFICATE) disability
Certificate No. ___________________
Date:____________
• locomotor disability
• dwarfism
• blindness
(C) He/She has _________ % (in figure) ________________ percent (in words) permanent locomotor
disability / dwarfism / blindness in relation to his her _______________ (part of body) as per
guidelines ( …………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).
58
Recent PP Size
Attested
Form-III Photograph
Disability Certificate (showing face only
of the person with
(In case of multiple disabilities)
disability
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)
Permanent physical
Affected Part impairment/mental disability (in
Sr. No. Disability of Body Diagnosis %)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Dwarfism
5. Cerebral Palsy
6. Acid attack Victim
7. Low vision #
8. Blindness Both Eyes
9. Deaf £
10. Hard of Hearing
11 Speech and language disability
12 Intellectual disability X
13 Specific Learning Disability
14 Autism Spectrum Disability
15 Mental-illness X
16 Chronic Neurological conditions
17 Multiple selerosis
18 Parkinson‟s disease
19 Haemophlia
20 Thalassemia
21 Sickle Cell disease
(B) In the Light of the above, his /her over all permanent physical impairment as per
guidelines (………….. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified), is as follows
In figures :- ____________________________percent
In words:_________________________________________ percent
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve.
59
@ - e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs
# - e.g. Single eye/both eyes
£ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears
60
Form-IV
Recent PP Size
Attested
Certificate of Disability
Photograph
(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms II and III)
(showing face only
(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING of the person with
THE CERTIFICATE) disability
Permanent physical
Affected Part impairment/mental disability (in
Sr. No. Disability of Body Diagnosis %)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy Cured
4. Cerebral Palsy
5. Acid attack Victim
6. Low vision #
7. Deaf £
8. Hard of Hearing
9. Speech and language disability
10. Intellectual disability X
11 Specific Learning Disability
12 Autism Spectrum Disability
13 Mental-illness X
14 Chronic Neurological conditions
15 Multiple selerosis
16 Parkinson‟s disease
17 Haemophlia
18 Thalassemia
19 Sickle Cell disease
61
£ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears
Countersigned
Signature /Thumb
impression of the person
in whose favour disability
certificate is issued
Note: 1. “In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant, it shall
be valid only if countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District”
62
Form-V
To
Sir/Madam,
Please refer to your application dated ____________ for issue of a Certificate of Disability for the following
disability: _______________________________________
2. Pursuant to the above application, you have been examined by the undersigned / Medical Authority on
___________, and I regret to inform that, for the reasons mentioned below, it is not possible to issue a
Certificate of Disability in your favour:-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
3. In case you are aggrieved by the rejection of your application, you may represent to ____________,
requesting for review of this decision.
Yours faithfully,
63
Certificate for candidates applying under the reserved category for Cancer / Thalaseemia / AIDS
________________________
(Signature of the Patient)
Attested
_______________________
64
GENERAL RULES
1. The result of the Entrance Test shall, ipso facto, not entitle a candidate to get admission in an
institution/department/centre/college concerned where he/she intends to seek admission. It
will be the responsibility of the candidate to make sure about his/her eligibility and fulfillment
of such other conditions as may be prescribed for admission in the rules and regulations of
University/Institution concerned. Merely because a candidate is allowed to appear in the
Entrance Test does not mean that he/she is eligible and his/ her appearance therein will not
stop or debar the university/ institution concerned from satisfying itself about his/her
eligibility at any subsequent stage.
Notwithstanding anything contained in this prospectus, the eligibility conditions for
admission to any particular course, shall be governed by the respective rules/regulations as
enshrined in the P.U. Calendar, Volumes I, II and III (latest editions) and / or the General
Guidelines for Admissions/ Handbook of Information-2019 issued by the University and / or
decisions of the University senate/ syndicate. In case of any conflict or inconsistency
between the prospectus on one hand and the aforesaid Panjab University rules and
regulations/ guidelines / Handbook of Information-2019 / decisions of Senate/ Syndicate, on
the other, the latter shall prevail.
65
case, a discrepancy is found in the result of the candidate, the result would accordingly be
revised and the fee deposited will be refunded.
19. In case of Objective Type question papers, the candidate must ensure that the answers to the
questions are attempted on the specifically prescribed OMR answer sheet only. No answer
attempted on the question booklet will be considered for evaluation. Only those questions answered
on the OMR sheet shall be taken into account.
20. RESOLVING OF TIES
Candidates securing equal marks in the Final Merit List shall be bracketed together. However, ther
inter-se merit rank shall be determined as under:-
(a) A candidate getting higher percentage of marks in qualifying examination (Bachelors degree)
shall rank higher in order of merit.
(b) If the marks, as mentioned in (a) are also the same then the candidate obtaining higher
th
percentage of marks in 12 class or an equivalent examination shall rank higher in order of
merit.
(c) If two or more candidates secure equal marks in (a) and (b) above, candidate senior in age
shall rank higher in order of merit.
21. For the courses offered by the Panjab University Departments / Centres, the candidate will have to
fill up and submit an online Admission Form at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in on or before the
last date as prescribed by the University.
22. The admission shall be based on the relative merit of the candidates as determined by the marks
obtained in the qualifying degree examination and the result of the Entrance Test being held in the
year of Admission, subject to such reservation and weightage as are prescribed in the Rules of
Admission of the University Department/Centre concerned.
23. Carrying of any communication equipment such as mobile phones / pager/ wireless set, scanner/
pen scanner/ camera or any such electronic / digital gadget etc in the examination hall shall not
be permitted and will lead to disqualification.
24. Candidates should not carry eatables, drinks etc. into the Test Centre. Smoking inside and around
the Centre is not permitted.
25. Any candidate who creates disturbance of any kind during examination or otherwise misbehaves in
or around the examination hall or refuses to obey the Superintendent/Deputy
Superintendent/Assistant Superintendent /any other official on examination duty or changes his/her
seat with any other candidate or occupies any seat, other than the one allotted to him/her shall be
expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would mean cancellation of
the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other authorized University
Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination centre.
26. Any candidate having in his possession or accessible to him/her paper/books or notes which may
possibly be of any assistance to him or is found giving or receiving assistance, or copying from any
paper/book or note or from anywhere else or allowing any other candidate to copy from his/her
answer book or found writing on any other paper, questions set in the question paper, during
examination or using or attempting to use any other unfair means or indulging in any kind of
misconduct shall be expelled from the examination hall. (“Expulsion” for this purpose would
mean cancellation of the Entire Entrance Test). The Centre Superintendent/Observer/any other
authorized University Officer/Official shall be competent to expel a candidate from the examination
centre.
27. If any answer sheet of a candidate shows or it is otherwise established that he/she has received or
attempted to receive help from any source in any manner or has given help or attempted to give help
to any other candidate in any manner, the relevant answer-sheet shall be cancelled. The cancellation
of the answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer- sheets of the Common –Entrance Test.
The decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be
final.
28. If a candidate writes his/her name or puts any kind of identification mark or discloses his/her
identity by any method whatsoever on the cover or anywhere else in the Question
Booklet/Answer Sheet, the same shall be treated as cancelled. The cancellation of the
answer-sheet shall mean cancellation of all answer-sheets of the Entrance Test. The decision
of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, Chandigarh in this regard shall be final.
29. Any person who impersonates a candidate shall be disqualified from appearing in any University
examination including this examination for a period of five years, if that person is a student on the
rolls of a recognized College or University. But if the person is not on the rolls of a recognized
College or University, he/she shall be declared as a person not fit and proper to be admitted to any
examination of the University for a period of five years and the case, if necessary, shall also be
66
reported to the police for further action in the matter. The candidate who is being impersonated shall
also be disqualified for a period of five years from appearing in any examination of this University
apart from any other action which the University may take against him, as deemed fit
30. If it is found that a candidate has knowingly or willfully concealed or suppressed any information/fact
which renders him/her ineligible to take the Entrance Test, his/her result of the Test as also
admission to a Institution/Department/Centre of the University, if granted, shall stand cancelled and
he/she shall have no claim whatsoever against the Institution/Department/Centre concerned and the
case, if necessary shall be reported to the police.
31. In order to avoid bias, the marks of the Entrance Test in case of such course where weightage of
performance in Interview and/ or Group Discussion is to be added shall remain confidential till the
process of compilation is not completed.
32. If a dispute or controversy of any kind arises before, during or after conduct of Entrance Test, the
decision of the Controller of Examinations, Panjab University, in all such cases, shall be final.
33. The candidates shall be allowed to appear in the Entrance Test only on the production of the
Admit Card at the Test Centre. No candidate shall be allowed to take the test without the
Admit Card under any circumstances. The candidates must retain the Admit Card with them
till the admission process is over, since it will be required again at the time of counseling.
34. The Admit Card will be issued to the candidates only provisionally, at his/her sole risk and
responsibility subject to the final confirmation of eligibility at the time of admission. It is
further clarified that the candidates shall be taking the test at his/her own risk and
responsibility as far as their eligibility is concerned and the University shall, in no way, be
responsible if they are found to be ineligible, later, leading to cancellation of their result or
any other consequence(s) emanating from the same.
35. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall/room before the expiry of the time
allotted for the respective paper.
36. The result of the PU-CET (P.G.) 2019 will be available at http://results.puchd.ac.in.
37. On 18-06-2019 (Tuesday) by 1.00 p.m. the question papers and their keys will be put on the
University website. The candidate can file their objections regarding discrepancies and
accuracy of the key, in writing, within 48 hours of this announcement i.e. 20-06-2019
(Thursday) by 1.00 p.m. through e-mail at arcet@pu.ac.in. Objections received will be
published on the website and cross objections will also be invited within a certain timeframe
as mentioned in the Schedule for Entrance Test and Admission PU-CET(PG)-2019 at Page
121. The valid concerns thus expressed will be given due consideration for evaluation.
38. The final date by which Admit Card will be available online is 29.05.2019 (Wednesday). Admit Card
required to be downloaded from the website by the candidates using their own Login and Password
(provided while generating Bank Challan). There will be no physical communication for this
purpose.
39. No separate Result Card will be issued.
40. The following functionaries may be contacted only in case of extremely urgent enquiry from 10.00
a.m. to 4.00 p.m. (on working days only)
1. Assistant Registrar (C.E.T.) 0172-2534829, 9855018541
Mrs. Manorma Chauhan, Sr. Asstt. 9872305760
2. Controller of Examinations 0172-2534811, 2541825
3. P.U., Main Enquiry 0172-2534818, 2534819, 2534866
18001802065, 9988815005
41. Ragging in any form is banned in Panjab University. If a student is found to have indulged in
ragging, strict action including expulsion from the Institution will be taken against that
student as per Rules.
42. Special arrangements for amanuensis (writer of answer):
A candidate may be allowed help of an amanuensis (writer) if he/she is:
(i) Blind OR
(ii) Permanently disabled from writing with his/her own hand.
(iii) Temporarily disabled from writing on account of fracture of the right or left arm, forearm
or dislocation of a shoulder elbow or wrist etc. The candidate shall produce a certificate
from a Professor of the speciality concerned of a Medical College and where there is no
Medical College, from the Chief Medical Officer of the District concerned to the effect
that the candidate is unable to write his/her answer-books because of the temporary
disablement.
67
43. ADMISSION PROCESS
a) Qualifying an Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to seek admission in a course. The
candidate will have to fill up and submit an online Admission Form to be available at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in the first week of June, 2019 and has to meet the eligibility
requirements of the course.
b) Every candidate must apply for the Reserved Category(ies) to which he/she belongs to in the
Admission Form. All candidates will be considered in the General Category irrespective of the
fact that they have claimed for admission under Reserved/Additional Categories subject to the
condition that they must fulfil the minimum eligibility requirement of the course for General
Category. No candidate shall be considered for admission against any Reserved Category(ies)
for which s/he has not applied.
c) Once the candidate has submitted the online Entrance Test Form, any change in the Form
including category once marked shall not be allowed.
d) The candidates who are applying under the Sports Category are required to see Appendix B (pp.
35-44) for further procedures and guidelines.
e) Candidates who wish to claim weightage on the basis of NCC, NSS, Youth Welfare, ADULT
EDUCATION and other activities should follow the guidelines as enshrined in the Handbook of
Information-2019.
a) A candidate, whose name appears in the Merit List will be required to attend counselling
personally according to her/his merit position on the day/s shown in the counselling schedule to
be uploaded on the Online Notice Board and also on the physical notice board of the department
concerned. Physical presence in the counselling is mandatory for all the candidates on the
notified dates. All those candidates who attend the counselling are requested to mark their
attendance. Only those candidates who report and mark their attendance on the day(s) of
counselling shall be considered for admission during the filling up of vacant seats. The candidate
must bring alongwith all the original documents.
b) The candidate shall attend the counselling for admission at her/his own risk, expense and
responsibility.
45. The admission of a candidate shall be PROVISIONAL and subject to approval by the appropriate
authority of Panjab University.
47. For detailed Instructions related to admission, refer to Handbook of Information 2019, likely to be
st
available in the 1 week of June, 2019 at Panjab University website (http://admissions.puchd.ac.in).
68
INSTRUCTIONS FOR GIVING ANSWERS ON OMR ANSWER SHEET
1 All questions are to be attempted on the answer sheet as per instructions printed on the question
booklet and OMR Answer Sheet.
2 The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Please follow the instructions given
on the answer sheet strictly otherwise it may make evaluation by the computer difficult.
Any resultant loss to the candidate on the above account i.e. not following the instructions
completely shall be of candidate only.
3 Each question is followed by four answer choices labeled A, B, C and D. Select the answer you
think is the best response and darken the bubble bearing the correct response label against the
serial number of the question. For example if you think that the answer to question number 2 is D,
then mark as follows:
Q. 2
The Answer marked as under shall be considered as wrong:
or or or or or
4 For marking answers use Black Gel Pen only to darken the corresponding circles.
5 If you do not want to answer any question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question
blank. It will be considered as an unattempted question.
6 Be very careful in filling in the bubble in the first instance since erasing or changing it will spoil the
response and go to the disadvantage of the candidate.
7 In order to open the Question Booklet remove the paper band gently.
8. Write your Roll Number on the answer-sheet as also on the Question Booklet, only in the
space provided for the purpose and at no other place in the question Booklet and Answer
Sheet.
10. Rough work should be done in the space provided for this purpose. No rough work shall be done
on the OMR Answer Sheet under any circumstances.
11. Penalty for wrong answers (Negative marking) will be applied i.e. marks will be deducted for
wrong answers. If for each correct answer 1 mark is to be awarded, for a wrong answer ¼ marks
will be deducted. For example, these marks will be calculated as under:
P = Number of correct answers.
Q = Number of wrong answers
R = Number of unattempted questions
(An unattempted question means all the bubbles corresponding to that question are left blank).
69
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
Sample Questions for LL.M.
Part – I: Constitutional Law and Current Affairs
1. The doctrine of “Basic Structure of the 5. Ordinance can be promulgated by the
Constitution” was propounded by the president of India if,
Supreme Court of India in A) Both the Houses of Parliament are
A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India, in session
AIR 1951 SC 458 B) Both the Houses of Parliament are
B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab, AIR not in session
1967 SC 1643 C) Either of the Houses is not in
C) Kesavananda v. State of Kerala, AIR session.
1973 SC 1461 D) None of the above.
D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR
1980 SC 1789 6. How many amendments have been
2. The President of India may make a carried out in constitution of India?
proclamation under Article 356 as to the A) 109
breakdown of constitutional machinery in B) 106
a State. C) 99
A) When he is personally satisfied as to D) 94
them circumstances. 7. The tenure of Jammu and Kashmir
B) When he is advised by the Prime Assembly is
Minister to do so. A) 5 Years B) 6 Years
C) When he is advised by the Union C) 7 Years D) None of the above
Council of Ministers. 8. The attempt to suicide is no more
D) When he receives a report from the punishable. Which section of the IPC was
Chief Election Commission. declared unconstitutional and hence void
3. The President of India, in the matters of by the Supreme Court in April, 1994?
appointment of Judges of a High Court : A) 302
A) Is not obliged to consult any Judge B) 303
of Supreme Court or High Court. C) 304
B) Is bound by the advice of the D) 309
Governor of a State 9. The newly elected President of USA
C) Must give primacy to the opinion of Barack Obama belongs to which political
the Chief Justice of India. party.
D) Is not bound to consult the Chief A) Republican
Justice of India. B) Democratic.
4. Right to education has been included in C) Communist
the constitution by D) None of the above
th
A) 86 Amendment 10. Since August 1994, the rupee has been
th
B) 100 Amendment made fully convertible in :
th
C) 87 Amendment A) The capital account
th
D) 94 Amendment B) The capital and saving account
C) The saving account
D) The current account
70
Part– II: Substantive Law
Law of Torts
1. The defense of Volenti non fit injuria is 4. Malice/evil motive is relevant in :
available in : A) Negligence
A) Rescue cases B) Defamation
B) Help cases C) Vicarious Liability
C) Negligence cases D) Nuisance
71
D) Unlawful acts 5. Tort is :
2. The test of reasonable foreseeability was A) A wrong against the Society
laid down in : B) Statutorily defined in the Limitation
A) Re Polemis case Act
B) Donoghue v. Stevenson C) A codified branch of law
C) Rylands v. Fletcher D) A civil wrong based on the agreed
D) Ashby v. White obligations
3. There is physical harm to the plaintiff in :
A) Assault B) Defamation
C) Nervous shock D) None of
these
Legal Theory
1. Who observed that International Law is the 4. According to Hohfield, the jural opposite
vanishing point of jurisprudence? of „Power‟ in the context of his analysis of
A) Austin B) Salmond legal right in the wider sense is :
C) Starke D) Holland A) Liability
2. Identify the Jurist who defined Law as “the B) Disability
form of the guarantee of the conditions of C) Duty
life of society, assured by the states‟ D) Immunity
power of constraint”:
A) Roscoe Pound B) 5. Possession is said to be ownership on
Holmes the defensive by :
C) Ihering D) Salmond A) Savingny
3. Realist theory of law emphasizes on: B) Salmond
A) Social function of law C) Ihering
B) Human factors in law D) Gray
C) Social criterion of validity of law
D) Essentiality of law for social life
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Indian Penal Code
1. P, a Pakistani, fires at A, an Indian, A) P is liable for murder
standing on the no-man‟s land. A runs and B) P is liable for culpable homicide
dies on the Indian territory: C) P is liable for grievous hurt
A) P has committed no offence D) P is liable for simple hurt
B) P is liable for murder 4. P, a stoutly built man comes with a lathi
C) P is liable for attempt to culpable in his hand. P picks up the bag of A who
homicide being weak person does not resist :
D) P is liable for attempt to grievous hurt. A) P is liable for theft
2. With an intention to kill B administers B) P is liable for robbery
sugar mistaking it for arsenic : C) P is liable for extortion
A) P has committed no offence D) None of the above
B) P is liable for attempt to murder 5. P threatens A with a pistol and puts his
C) P is liable for culpable homicide hand in A‟s pocket which is empty :
D) P is liable for grievous hurt. A) P has committed no offence
3. P intentionally gives a sword cut to A. A B) P is liable for attempt to theft
subsequently dies of septic meningitis C) P is liable for attempt to robbery
which developed on account of use of D) P is liable for attempt to extortion
wrong remedies and neglect of treatment:
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Sample Questions for Master of Computer Applications (MCA)
1. Which of the following is NOT a language 6. Two persons Ram and Shyam sort the
processor? letters at constant rate. Ram sorts L
A) Compiler letters in 60 minutes while Shyam takes
B) Loader 30 minutes to sort L letters. The total
C) Interpreter time taken by both of them in sorting L
D) Assembler letters working together but
independently is
2. Which of the following is NOT an Internet A) 10 min
protocol? B) 20 min
A) LTP C) 15 min
B) SMTP D) 45 min
C) HTTP
D) ATM 7. The remainder obtained on dividing
1680
3. The sequence that is in ascending order 2 by 1763 is
in size is A) 1
A) bit, word, byte, nibble B) 3
B) nibble, byte, bit, word C) 13
C) nibble, bit, word, byte D) 31
D) bit, nibble, byte, word 8. The area bounded by the curve , y=
2
(x+1) , its tangent at (1, 4) and the x –
4. Total number of ways in which four boys axis is
and three girls can sit in a row so that A) 1/3
boys and girls have alternate seats is B) 2/3
A) 72 C) 1
B) 144 D) 4/3
C) 288 9. The median of 25,13,4,6,3,11,15,10 is
D) 720 A) 4.5
5. If the word MANMOHANWASHERE B) 6.0
corresponds to ZOAABVNBJOFVRFR, C) 10.5
then the word that corresponds to LRF is D) 5.0
A) HEY
B) MAN
C) GOT
D) YES
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Sample Questions for M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication
1. Write about 150 words each on any two of the following: (16 Marks)
a) American Presidential elections
b) Budget 2008-09
c) Patriotism in Indian Cinema
d) Beijing Olympics 2008
3. Write about 150 words each on two of the following: (16 Marks)
A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
B) Young Turks in Indian Politics
C) Your role model
D) Sachin Tendulkar
(III). If an underlined word or phrase is incorrect, choose that letter; if the sentence is correct, select No
error. (5 marks)
1. The region has a climate so severe that plants growing there rarely had been more
A B C
than twelve inches high. No error.
D E
2. We admired his many attempts bravely to enter the burning building. No error.
A B C D E
3. We must regard any statement about this controversy, whatever the source, as
A B C
gossip until they are confirmed. No error.
D E
4. She is the only one of the applicants who are fully qualified for the position.
A B C D
No error.
E
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5. That book is liable to become a bestseller because it is well written, full of suspense
A B C
and very entertaining. No error.
D E
(III). Tick one of the options for filling in the blanks in each sentence: (5 marks)
1. In giving a speech, the speaker‟s goal is to communicate ideas clearly and __________, so
that the audience will be in no ________ about the meaning of the speech.
A) effectively … haste
B) indirectly … distress
C) unambiguously … confusion
2. The commission of inquiry censured the minister for his ________ expenditure of public funds,
which they found to be _________.
A) improper … vindicated
B) lavish … unjustifiable
C) arbitrary … critical
3. Pain is the body‟s early warning system: loss of _______ in the extremities leaves a person
__________ injuring himself unwittingly.
A) agony … incapable of
B) feeling … habituated to
C) sensation … vulnerable to
4. Fortunately, she was _________ her accomplishments, properly unwilling to ___________
them before her friends.
A) deprecatory about … flaunt
B) excited by … parade
C) uncertain of … concede
5. Although its publicity has been ________, the film itself is intelligent, well-acted, handsomely
produced and altogether ___________.
A) tasteless … respectable
B) perfect … spectacular
C) sophisticated … amateur
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SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MASTER OF PUBLIC HEALTH
Q2) Among cereals and millets richest Q 7) The incubation period of rabies ranges
source of calcium is: from –
A. Rice A. 1 to 2 days
B. Bajra B. 3 to 4 days
C. Maize C. 5 to 6 days
D. Ragi D. 10 days to 1 Year
Q4) The most populous state in India is: Q9) Anthracosis is caused due to
A. Uttar Pradesh A. Coal Dust
B. Bihar B. Silica
C. Madhya Pradesh C. Fe
D. Kerala D. Tobacco
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SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR M.A. (English)
I. Write an essay within 400 words, taking a position „For‟or „Against‟on the topic given below:
OR
India has a bright future. (25 marks)
II. Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow:
My Heart Leaps Up
A. The poet could have used some other word instead of „behold‟. Why is this word used?
B. Point out any literary device from the poem.
C. Explain the meaning of line seven in your own words.
D. How does the title fit the ideas expressed in the poem? (20 marks)
III. Write a précis of the passage given below, reducing it to one-third of its length. Give a suitable title.
Make sure you write one word in each box in the answer sheet:
Even before Independence, India sustained a small and vibrant scientific community with a
few, but outstanding contributions to its credit. This was managed in spite of the object poverty
and widespread illiteracy that discouraged education of any kind, let alone advanced studies in
science and technology. Out people might have missed the Industrial Revolution and its
economic and social consequences, but not the revolutionary changes that were then taking
place in science. Thus, in August 1947, a newly-independent India inherited a science
community to work with. New laboratories were built; a new science department of the
government formed and also commissions to harness the power of atom and space. The
Government of the day came out with innovations to free science organizations from the rigid
and crippling bureaucratic rules and procedures that were then the norms. As though to
underline the importance of science further, Jawaharlal Nehru kept the portfolio of science with
himself and persuaded Parliament to pass the Science Policy Resolution, a Utopian document
with few parallels in the history of state and science. Much later, his daughter Indira Gandhi
would also release a similar Technology Policy Statement of her government, reiterating the
commitment of the State to the pursuance of indigenous technology. With all this support how
have we done in the past 50 years?
Not bad at all, in technology, though our own assessment of success, at least until recently,
seemed to be influenced more by the Cold War politics and regional geopolitics of the past
decades than by achievements that have helped the country to be economically and politically
independent and technologically relevant. India today is largely free of food imports. Thanks to
the Green Revolution ushered in by agricultural scientists and farmers, the country has turned
the begging bowl into a veritable bread basket. While more needs to be done – our yields are
still some of the lowest in the world – the periodic bouts of scarcity and famine have been
eliminated forever from the Indian landscape. The country has taken this achievement and
similar successes in other areas of agricultural and animal husbandry so much for granted that
we do not recognize how close India came to becoming a “failed State” dependent forever on
food handouts from outside.
There are a few other tales of success, though not of this scale. India today routinely launches
remote sensing satellites and will soon be launching its own geostationary communication and
weather forecasting satellites, integrating India into one national village. The villages and towns
are successfully connected by more than six million indigenously – designed and manufactured
C-DoT telephone exchange lines. Indian chemical and pharmaceutical industries now have
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their own product and process technologies and are becoming globally competitive. An Indian
battle tank – currently rated as one of the best of its class – is entering into production. India
was one of the earliest to build nuclear power reactors and has also an indigenously designed
and successful, surface – to – surface missile. (489 words) (15 marks)
v. Pick the comedy that takes its name from two pieces of wood that produce a crackling sound when
hit against each other.
A. High comedy
B. Drawing room comedy
C. Slapstick
D. Shakespearean comedy
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7. Representative Fraction is a method used for 9. Following is an example of cold desert
showing A) Sahara
A) Scale on the map B) Kalahari
B) Direction on the map C) Gobi
C) Contours on the map D) Mojave
D) Distance on the map
10. Mercator‟s Projection was used primarily for
8. Which of the following is not a method used for drawing
finding north A) Distribution Maps
A) Pole Star method B) Political Maps
B) Similar Triangles method C) Navigational Maps
C) Watch method D) Cadastral Maps
D) Rod method
1. Spread of epidemics is associated with 6. RIO-10 (The World Summit for Sustainable
A) Floods Development) in 2002 was held at
B) Landslides A) Keo Karo (India)
C) Earthquake B) Johannesburg (South Africa)
D) Volcanic Eruption C) New York (USA)
2. The switching over from the use of diesel to D) Melbourne (Australia)
CNG is important because:
A) CNG is cheaper than diesel 7. Approximately 71% surface of earth is covered
B) Diesel is polluting fuel and CNG in non- with water bodies, ice caps and glaciers that is
polluting fuel why earth is also known as:-
C) CNG is easily available A) Blue Planet
D) CNG is a non renewable resource B) Green Planet
3. Which of the following is caused due to water C) White Planet
contamination? D) Yellow Planet
A) Oral Cancer 8. Which of the following is eco-friendly way of
B) Hypertension managing kitchen waste?
C) Gastroenteritis A) Open dumping
D) Tuberculosis B) Land filling
C) Burning
4. Which of the following is a conventional source D) Vermi Composting
of energy? 9. Indian Cheetah and Dodo bird are:
A) Solar Energy A) Vulnerable species
B) Thermal Energy B) Extinct species
C) Tidal Energy C) Threatened species
D) Wind Energy D) Rare species
5. Which of the following is a primary activity? 10. Harike wetland is located on confluence of
A) Teaching which two rivers?
B) Retail trade A) Ganga-Yamuna
C) Mining B) Chandra-Bhaga
D) Tailoring C) Ganga-Brahmaputra
D) Beas-Satluj
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B) 1 : 50 000 B) Principal point
C) 1: 100 000 C) Isocenter
D) 1 : 1000 000 D) Ground nadir point
7. Which of the following is a perspective 12. The term GPS refers to:
projection? A) Global Prevention System
B) Global Protection System
A) Cylindrical Equal Area C) Global Positioning System
B) Bonne‟s Projection D) None of the above.
C) Gnomonic Projection
D) Sinusoidal Projection 13. The term GIS refers to:
A) Geographical Informative System
B) Global Information System
8. The point vertically below the camera lens in a C) Geological Information System
photograph is called: D) Geographical Information System
A) Ground point
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Sample question paper Master of History
Note : 1. Question No. 1 under Unit-I is compulsory. Attempt any 05 Questions in 80-100 words each.
Each question carries 05 marks. (5 x 5 = 25 marks).
2. Attempt any one Question from Unit –II in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.
3. Attempt any One Question from Unit-III in about 1000 words. Each Question carries 25 marks.
UNIT-I
Q-I
i. What is meant by Mahajanpada ?
ii. Explain Dhamma.
iii. Explain Mansabdari System.
iv. What was meant by Sangat ?
v. Who were the Sufis ?
vi. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture ?
vii. Explain Doctrine of Lapse.
viii. Discuss the demand of Punjabi Suba ?
UNIT-II
Q-IV Assess the contribution of the masses in the struggle for Independence.
Q-V How did Maharaja Ranjit Singh establish the kingdom of Lahore ?
UNIT-III
Q-VI What should be the role of the opposition parties in the Parliament ?
82
Sample Question Paper for Entrance Test for Admission to M.A. Economics
83
Sample Question Paper for Entrance Test for Admission to M.A. (Social Work)
Topics: Under Graduate Social Work, Current Social Issues, Education, Health, Terrorism, Environment,
Disability; Election Related, General Knowledge etc.
SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FOR M.E. (CHEMICAL) & M.E. (CHEMICAL)
WITH SPECIALISATION IN ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
1. One mole of Nitrogen at 8 bar and 600K is contained in a piston-cylinder arrangement. It is brought to 1 bar
isothermically against a resisting pressure of 1 bar. The work done (in Joules) by the gas is
(a) 30554
(b) 10373
(c) 4988.4
(d) 4364.9
0
2. For water at 300 C, it has a vapour pressure 8592.7 kPA and fugacity 6738.9 kPa. Under these conditions,
3 3
one mole of water in liquid phase has a volume 25.28 cm , and that in vapour phase 391.1 cm . Fugacity of
water (in kPa) at 9000 kPa will be
(a) 6738.9
(b) 6753.5
(c) 7058.3
(d) 900
3. A dilute aqueous solution is to be concentrated in an evaporator system. High pressure steam is available.
Multiple effect evaporator system is employed because.
(a) total heat transfer area of all the effects is less than that in a single effect evaporator system
(b) total amount of vapour produced per kg of feed steam in a multieffect system is much higher than in a
single effect
(c) boiling point elevation in a single effect system is much higher than that in any effect in a multieffect
system.
(d) heat transfer coefficient in a single effect is much lower than that in any effect in a multieffect system
84
4. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in
(a) Optimum number of trays
(b) Minimum reboiler size
(c) Maximum condenser size
(d) Minimum number of trays
8. The Reynolds Number of the liquid was increased 100 fold for a laminar falling film used for gas-liquid
contacting. Assuming penetration theory is applicable, the fold-increase in the mass transfer coefficient (k c) for
the same system is:
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 1
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11. The order of convergence in Newton-Raphson method is:
i. 2
j. 3
k. 0
l. 1
1. The limiting value of Sherwood number for 6. With increase in concentration of solute in
mass transfer from a spherical object is a solution, boiling point
equal to (A) decreases
(A) 2 (B) increases
(B) 3 (C) remains constant
(C) 4 (D) none of these
(D) 0.5
2. The primary protein in milk is
(A) casein 7. The major forces acting in cyclone
(B) tryptophan separator are
(C) lysine (A) gravity and centrifugal
(D) glutenin (B) gravity and centripetal
3. Percentage of fat in butter is (C) centrifugal and centripetal
(A) 50 (D) None of these
(B) 60
(C) 70 8. Ultra filtration is used for production of
(D) 80 (A) Butter
4. The power consumed by a drum dryer (B) Ghee
depends upon (C) Cheese
(A) Drum speed (D) Ice-cream
(B) Steam Pressure
(C) Pressure exerted by the blade on 9. Vacuum packaging is normally used for
the drums (A) milk powder
(D) Length and diameter of the drum (B) paneer
5. Freeze drying time is directly proportional (C) yoghurt
to the __________of the material being (D) None of these
dried.
(A) thickness 10. The water activity of free water should be
(B) square of the thickness (A) 1
(C) cube of thickness (B) less than one
(D) fourth power of thickness (C) more than one
(D) 0
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5. For an isotherm process, pressure, P and Bulk 12. Grizzlies are used for screening solid particles
modulus, K is related as: of:
a) K = P a) large size
b) K = P b) small size
c) K = P/ c) very small size
d) K = p2 d) any one of the above
PART-A : MATHEMATICS
x 2 342 71
Q.1. If x be real, can have no value between
x 2 2x 7
(a) (3,7)
(b) (4,8)
(c) (5,9)
(d) (10,15)
x4 y4 U U
Q.3. If U = , show that x y is equal to
x y x y
(a) U
(b) 2U
(c) 3U
(d) 5U
PART-B: PHYSICS
Q.4. Out of Fm, V and B in the relation Fm = q (V x B ) which of the following pavis can have any angle
between them.
(a) V and B
(b) F and V
(c) F m and B
(d) None of the above
Q.5. A body under the action of inverse square force will follow and elliptical path, if eccentricity
(a) e=0
(b) e=1
(c) e>1
(d) e<1 (Positive)
Q.6. If B = curl A ,
then
(a) B =0
(b) B =1
(c) B =A
(d) B = -1
PART-C : CHEMISTRY
Q.7. The IUPAC name for CH3CH2 – C – OCH3 is
O
(a) methyl propanoate
(b) Porpanendioic acid
(c) 2-propane-l-ol
(d) 3 oxo-1-methyl butane
88
Q.8. The number of NMR signals for the compound CH3OCH2CH3 is
(a) One signal (singlet)
(b) Two signals (one singlet, one multiple)
(c) Three signals (singlets)
(d) Three signals (singlet, quartet, triplet)
Sample Questions for M.E. (Computer Science & Engineering) Regular Programme
1. Which of the following is the name of the data structure in a compiler that is responsible for managing
information about variables and their attributes?
A) Abstract Syntax tree
B) Symbol Table
C) Variable value stack
D) Parse tree
2. Seven (distinct) car accidents occurred in a week. What is the probability that they all occurred on the
same day?
7 6
A) 1/7 B) 1/7
7 7
C) 1/2 D) 7/2
3. Which of the following statements is false
A) As unambiguous grammar has same leftmost and rightmost derivation
B) An LL (1) parser is top down parser
C) LALR is more powerful than SLR
D) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR (k) for any k
90
void main()
{int var 1 = 10, var2 = 20, var3;
Var3 = var1++ + ++var2;
Printf(“%d%d%d”, var1, var2, var3);}
A) 10 20 30 B) 11 21 31
C) 10 21 30 D) 11 21 30
5. Which of the following data structures will allow mergesort to work in O(nlogn) time?
I. A singly linked list
II. A doubly linked list
III. An array
A) III only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I, II and III
6. In the internet Protocol (IP) suite of protocols, which of the following best describes the purpose of the
Address Resolution Protocol?
A) To translate Web addresses to host names
B) To determine the IP address of a given host name
C) To determine the hardware address of a given host name
D) To determine the hardware address of a given IP address
7. The binary relation R= { (1,1), (2,1),(2,2), (2,3), (2,4),(3,1),(3,2), (3,3), (3,4) } on the set A= {1,2,3,4} is:
A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
B) neither reflexive, nor irreflexive but transitive
C) irreflexive, symmetric and transitive
D) irreflexive and antisymmetric
10. A directed graph with n vertices and e edges are represented by Adjacency matrix. What is the time
required to determine the in-degree of a vertex?
A) O(e)
B) O(n)
2
C) O(n )
D) O (e+n)
91
Sample Questions for
Q.1. Mass moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length (I) about its mid-point and
perpendicular to its length is
2 2 2
(a) 2 MI (b) 1MI (c) 3MI (d) 4MI
3 3 4 3
Q.3. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at throat to
the diameter of pipe should be
(a) 1 to 8 (b) 1 to 1 (c) 1 to 1 (d) 1 to 1
16 8 8 4 4 3 3 2
Q.6. The difference between maximum void ration and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If the
relative density of this sample is 66.6% at a void ration of 0.40 then the void ratio of this sample at its
loosest state will be
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.60 (c) 0.70 (d) 0.75
Q. 10. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs moisture from the air which on drying
(a) Leaves pores and makes the bricks porous
(b) Leaves high powder deposit on the brick
(c) Makes the brick brittle and weak
(d) All of these
92
Sample Questions for ME Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing Technology) Regular Programme
Q.3. Which of the following processes would be best suited for stress relieving, improving
machineability and ductility in casting and deep drawn components
(a) Austempering
(b) Tempering
(c) Normalising
(d) Annealing
Q.4. The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is same in all directions, only when
(a) The fluid is frictionless
(b) The fluid is frictionless and incompressible
(c) The fluid has zero viscosity and is at rest
(a) 90 degree
(b) Less than 90 degree
(c) Between 30 and 45 degrees
(d) Greater than 90 degree
Q.6. In statistical quality control + 3 means the percentage of items within acceptable limits will be:
(a) 68.26
(b) 95.46
(c) 99.73
(d) 50
93
Sample paper M.E. Electrical Engineering (Power System)
Q.1 The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier Q.6 For a two port linear passive bilateral network is
circuit can be (A). AD=BC
(A). 37.2% (B). AD-BC=0
(B). 40.6% (C). AD-BC=1
(C). 53.9% (D). AB-BC=1
(D). 81.2%
Q.2 An overcurrent relay of current 5A and setting Q.7 A distribution station has a peak load of 3000 kW and total
7
150% is connected to the secondary of CT while annual energy of 10 kWh. The peak power loss is 220 kW.
CT ratio is 300:5. The current in the lines for The loss factor is:
which relay picks up is (A). 0.215
(A) 300 A (B). 0.285
(B) 450 A (C). 0.325
(C) 150 A (D). 0.356
(D) 200 A
Q.3 A 100 mA meter has accuracy of ±2%. Its Q.8 The load frequency response in a system
accuracy while reading 50 mA will be (A). Does consider the reactive power flow
(A) ± 1% (B). Does not consider the reactive power flow
(B) ± 2% (C). Does not consider the real power flow
(C) ± 4% (D). Consider Active power
(D) ± 20%
Q.4 A 4-digit DVM(digital voltmeter) with a 100-mV Q.9 For a synchronous phase modifier, the load angle is
0
lowest full scale range would have a sensitivity of (A). 0
0
how much value while resolution of this DVM is (B). 25
0
0.0001 (C ) 30
0
(A). 0.1 mV (D). 50
(B). 0.01 mV
(C). 1.0 mV
(D). 10 mV
Q.5 In a 4-bit weighted resistor D/A converter, the Q.10 A pilot exciter is:
resistor value corresponding to LSB is (A). A level compound small DC generator
32 kΩ .The resistor value corresponding to (B). A small servo type synchronous generator
MSB will be (C). A main synchronous generator
(A). 32Ω (D). A main exciter
(B). 16Ω
(C). 8Ω
(D). 4Ω
94
M.Tech Material Science (Entrance Test)
Q1. In a solid lattice the cation has left a lattice site and Q7. Which of the following is an aromatic amino
is located at an interstitial position, the lattice defect acid
is A) Tyrosine
A) Interstitial defect B) Glutamic acid
B) Frenkel Defect C) Arginine
C) Schottky Defect D) Cystenine
D) Valency Defect
Q2. The existence of energy bands in a solid is a Q8. The region between the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥,
consequence of 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 4, and the x-axis is revolved about the x-
A) Interaction of atoms axis to generate the solid. Find its volume.
B) Interference of electron waves A) 2𝜋 (B) 4 𝜋
C) Random motion of electrons C) 6 𝜋 (D) 8𝜋
D) Effective mass of electron
Q9. Find the flux of 𝐹 = 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑖 + 𝑥𝑗 across the
circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1 in the xy-plane.
95
Sample Questions for M.E. Biotechnology
a) Mean b) Mode
c) Range d) Median
a) Brookhaven Laboratory
b) DNA database of Japan
c) European Molecular Biology Laboratory
d) National Centre for Biotechnology Information
4.Which of the following are similar between transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
7.Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a cryopreservant for mammalian cell cultures because
a) It is organic solvent
b) It easily penetrates cells
c) It protects cells by preventing crystallization of water
d) It is also utilized as a nutrient
a) An infrared spectrometer
b) A fluorescence spectrometer
c) A circular dischroism spectrometer
d) A UV-Visible spectrophotometer
a) Lethal
b) Dominant
c) Recessive
d) Favorably selected
96
10.Km is the substrate concentration at which
a) BLAST
b) PRINT
c) PROSITE
d) PIR
12. Amino acid residue which is most likely to be found in the interior of water-soluble globular proteins is
a) Threonine
b) Aspartic acid
c) Valine
d) Histidine
97
98
99
Sample Questions for M.E. (Mechanical Engineering)
1. Which one of the following is correct? 4. An Orthotropic material under plane stress
In normal shock wave in one dimensional condition will have
flow A) 15 independent elastic constants
A. The entropy remains constant B) 5 independent elastic constants
B. The entropy increases across the C) 6 independent elastic constants
shock
C. The entropy decreases across the 5. When dry bulb and thermodynamic wet
shock bulb temperatures are same
D. The velocity, pressure, and density A) Humidity ratio is 100%
increase across the shock B) Partial pressure of water vapour equal
2. Which of the following are the limitation of total pressure
the powder metallurgy? C) Air is fully saturated
A) High tooling and equipment costs D) Dew point temperature is reached
B) Wastage of material E) All of these
C) It cannot be automated F) None o these
D) Expensive metallic powders 6. In a cooling tower, the minimum
temperature to which water can be cooled
Select the correct answer using the code is equal to the
Code – 1) Only A and B A) Dew point temperature of the air at the
Code – 2) Only B and D inlet
Code – 3) Only A and D B) Dry bulb temperature of the air at the
Code – 4) Only A, B and D inlet
C) Thermodynamic wet bulb temperature
3. Subooling in the condenser of a of the air at the inlet
refrigerator system is advisable when D) Mean of the dew point and dry bulb
A) Expansion system is at a higher temperature of the air at inlet
elevation value is at a higher
B) There is a large pressure drop in the
line connecting condenser to the
expansion valve.
C) The refrigeration effect is to be
increased.
D) The compressor work is to reduced
Code – 1) Only A and B
Code – 2) Only A, C and D
Code – 3) Only B, C and D
Code – 4) A, B and D
101
Sample Questions for M.Com. (Honours)
1. Which of the following presents key aspects 12. When an oligopolist individually chooses
of the process of accounting in the correct its level of production to maximize its
chronological order? profits, it charges a price that is
A) more than the price charges by either
A) Communicating, recording and monopoly or a competitive market
identifying B) less than the price charges by either
B) Recording, identifying and monopoly or a competitive market
communicating C) more than the price charges by a
C) Recording, totaling and identifying monopoly and less than the price
D) Identifying, recording and charges by a competitive market
communicating D) less than the price charges by a
Which of the following is not a function of monopoly and more than the price
2. controller?
charges by a competitive market
A) Financial reporting 13. Suppose that the government increases
B) Managerial reporting its spending by 10 per cent and also
C) Money management increases taxes by 10 per cent. We would
D) Cost management expect this policy to
Ending finished goods inventory is: A) Essentially have no effect on the
3. level of national income
A) Beginning finished goods inventory + B) Have a contractionary effect on
cost of goods completed – cost of national income
goods sold C) Decrease the marginal propensity to
B) Cost of goods completed – cost of save out of each extra pound of
goods sold income
C) Beginning finished goods inventory + D) Have an expansionary effect on
cost of goods completed national income.
D) Beginning finished goods inventory -
cost of goods completed + cost of 14. The Government of India has decided to
goods sold cover all districts of the country in
Which of the following is also known as an National Rural Employment Guarantee
4. inventoriable cost? Programme (NREGP)
A) Period cost A) up to January 1, 2008
B) Fixed cost B) up to March 31, 2008
C) Product cost C) with effect from April 1, 2008
D) Conversion cost D) with effect from April 1, 2009
A cost management tool that brings in its
5. focus the activities performed to produce a 15. Reserve Bank of India calculates four
product is called components of money supply, M1, M2,
A) target costing M3, M4. Which one of the following
B) life cycle costing statement is not correct?
C) ABC A) M1 = currency with public + demand
D) benchmarking deposits with banks
The first Factories Act was enacted in B) M2 = M1 + post office savings
6. A) 1881 deposit
B) 1895 C) M3 = M1 + M2
C) 1897 D) M4 = M3 + total post office deposits
D) 1885 16. What is meant by the term functional
If the date of incorporation of a company is management?
7. 1/01/2005, the first AGM must be held before A) A system of business organization
A) 30/06/2006 that is based on an individual having
B) 31/03/2006 a wide range of skills needed to
C) 31/12/2005 administer a business
D) 31/03/2005 B) A type of management that is based
The „right to information‟ under the RTI Act, more on personality
8. 2005 includes the right to C) A system that groups together
A) Inspect works, documents, records various jobs and is organized by
B) Take notes, extracts or certified departments, sections, or functions
copies of documents or records D) A system that supports a flat form of
C) Obtain information in form of command chain
printouts, diskettes, floppies, tapes 17. Maslow, in his triangle of human needs,
video cassettes or in any other showed that
electronic mode or through printouts A) Having challenging new tasks is a
D) All of the above basic human need
Long term capital asset is an asset (other than B) Money always motivates workers
9. financial securities) which is held by the C) Safety and security is a low order
assessee for more than human need
102
A) 36 months D) Workers will not give of their best
B) 12 months unless they have good social events
C) 24 months provided by the firm
D) 30 months 18. The purpose of the Malcolm Baldrige
The definition of „Goods‟ under the Central National Quality Award is to
10. Sales Tax Act, 1956 does not include A) Stimulate efforts to improve quality
A) Newspapers B) Recognize quality achievements of
B) Standing corps companies
C) Computer software C) Publicize successful quality
D) Animals programs
A rational person does not act unless D) All of the above
11. A) the action is ethical 19. The process of collecting information
B) the action produces marginal costs about the external marketing environment
that exceed marginal benefits is
C) the action produces marginal benefits A) Environmental management
that exceed marginal costs B) Environmental scanning
D) the action makes money for the C) Marketing management
person D) Marketing scanning
20. The correct components of the 7-S
framework are
A) Share values, synergy, systems,
strategy, style, staff and structure
B) Standards, strategy, style, staff skills,
systems and security
C) Structure, strategy, shared values,
style, staff, skills and systems
D) Strategy, synergy, shared value,
standardization, skills staff and
structure
103
A) Birds
B) Plants
C) Insects
D) Snakes
1 C. V. Raman won the Noble Prize for 7. The value of the variable which occurs
3. Bioscience most frequently in a distribution is
4. Chemistry called –
5. Economics A) Mode
6. Physics B) Mean
C) Median
D) All of these
2 A.P.J. Abdul Kalam‟s autobiography is titled 8. The arithmetic mean of a series is the
A) Ignited minds figure obtained by dividing the sum of
B) The Argumentative Indian values all items by
C) The Alchemist E) 2
D) Wings of Fire F) 3
G) 5
3 SEZ Stands for H) Their Number
A) Special economic zone
B) Suez Canal
C) Select enterprise zone 9. Which of the following is Business
D) Specific elite zone Averages?
A) Moving average
B) Progressive average
C) Composite Average
D) All of these
4 A wheel makes 1000 revolutions in covering a 10. Which type of software is focused on
distance of 88 Km. The diameter of the wheel is: supporting communication,
A) 24 meter collaboration and coordination?
B) 40 meter A) Groupware
C) 28 meter B) CRM software
D) 14 meter C) E-business software
D) SCM software
5 The difference between the ages of two
persons is 10 Years. 15 Years ago, if the elder 11. When discussing email security, what
one was twice as old as the younger one, their is a Trojan Horse?
present ages are A) A code hidden in another useful
A) 35, 25 program, which has a destructive
B) 45, 35 function of some sort
C) 33, 23 B) The barrier or firewall through
D) 30, 20 which all incoming email must
pass.
6 The sale of Goods Act came into force from – C) Small computer program
A) July 1, 1932 snippets that are designed to do
B) July 1, 1930 some harm on their host
C) July 1, 1935 D) A destructive program that can
D) July 1, 1940 spread itself automatically from
one computer to the next within
an email
1. In which organ of the human body would you find a cluster of cells which produce insulin?
A) Bile
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Brain
4. Which Olympic did Mikha Singh break the world record in the 400 meters event?
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Beijing
D) None of the above
2. Which of the following internal factors influence the strategy and other decisions of the business?
A) Value System
B) Mission and objective
C) Management structure and nature
D) None of the above
According to the survey of 2000 educated unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800 were women,
the following data were collected.
1. On the basis of above Table, what is the difference between the number of unemployed men and women
doctors?
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
105
D) None of the above
4. In which category, unemployed men are more in percentage than unemployed women
A) Doctors
B) Engineers
C) Post Graduates
D) Graduates
3. The ratio of boys and girls in a is 3:2. 20% of boys and 25% of girls are scholarships holders. The
percentage of students who are scholarship holders are:
A) 45
B) 53
C) 60
D) 22
th th
4. In a class M is 9 from the top, S is 8 from the bottom and R is exactly in between them. If there are three
children between M and R, find out the total students
A) 24
B) 25
C) 23
D) 27
2. If you are going to west in the afternoon, the sun will be visible at your left.
A) Never
B) Always
C) Sometimes
D) Often
106
3. Fill in the blank with the most suitable alternative. He shouted ______________ at the subordinate.
A) Loud
B) Loudily
C) Loudely
D) Loudingly
4. J, F, M, A, M, ?
A) M
B) J
C) D
D) S
5. In a military code CAUTION is coded as VACITNO. How will you uncode MISUNDERSTAND?
A) SIMUNEDSRTAND
B) SIMNUEDSRATDN
C) SMIUNDERSTAND
D) None of the above
The most important reason for this state of affairs, perhaps, is that India was the only country in the world to truly
recognize the achievements of the Soviet-Union-rather than merely focus on the de-bilitating faults that
Communism brought to its people. The people of India realized that the achievement of one hundred per cent
literacy in a country much, much larger than its own and with similarly complicated ethnic and religious groupings,
the rapid industrialization of a nation that was a primarily agrarian society when the Bolshevik revolution took
place in 1917; the attendant revolutionary steps in science and technology, the accessibility of health care
(primeval according to Western standards, perhaps, but not according to India ones) to the general population,
and despite prohibition of the government of the time the vast outpourings in literature, music, art, etc., are
momentous and remarkable feats in any country.
In contrast, all that the West focused on were the massive human rights violations by the Soviet State on its
people, the deliberate uprooting, and mass migrations of ethnic peoples from one part of the country to another in
the name of industrialization, the end of religion in short, all the tools of information were employed to condemn
the ideology of Communism, so much at variance with capitalist thinking.
The difference with the Indian perception, I think here is, that while the Indians reacted as negatively to what the
Soviet governments did to its people in the name of good governance (witness the imprisonment of Boris
Pasternak and the formation of an intentional committee to put pressure for his release with Jawaharlal Nehru at
its head), they took the pain not to condemn the people of that broad country in black and white terms; they
understood that mingled in the shades of gray were grains of uniqueness. (The Russians have never failed that
characteristic in themselves; they have twice experimented with completely different ideologies, Communism and
Capitalism both in the space of century).
4. The passage is
(a) Descriptive
(b) Paradoxical
(c) Analytical
(d) Thought provoking
107
Sample Questions for M.P. Ed.
1. India played hockey for the first time on 6. What is the stick used in snooker called:
Olympic Games in: A) A Cue
A) 1924, Paris (France) B) Heave
B) 1928, Amsterdam C) Paddle
C) 1932, Los Angles (USA) D) Togo
D) 1938, Berlin (Germany) 7. “Shivanthi Gold Cup” is associated with
2. “A state of complete physical mental and the game of:
social wellbeing and not merely the A) Hockey
absence of disease or infirmity”. This B) Football
statement which defines health is given C) Volleyball
by: D) Badminton
A) UNESCO B) UNICEF 8. What is the normal life span of RBC‟s?
C) WHO D) Red Cross A) 60 days
B) 90 days
3. Three of the following are alike in a C) 120 days
certain way and so they form a group. D) 150 days
Which is the one does not belong to the
group? 9. Chronological age is calculated with the
A) Basketball help of
B) Volleyball A) Mental qualities
C) Hockey B) X-rays
D) Table Tennis C) Calendar Years
4. The Sacrum consists of: D) Organs and secretions
A) 3 Vertebraes
B) 4 Vertebraes 10. YMCA College of Physical Education
C) 5 Vertebraes (Madras) was established in:
D) 7 Vertebraes A) 1956
B) 1920
5. The chief sources of vitamin A is: C) 1931
A) Banana D) 1932
B) Egg
C) Carrot
D) Guava
Sample Questions for B.P. Ed.
1. The „Santosh Trophy‟ tournament first 6. Which one of the following is different
began in: from the rest of the three?
A) 1940 B) 1941 A) Footbal
C) 1942 D) 1945 B) Basketball
2. Who is the first teacher of a child? C) Cricket
A) Teacher D) Tennis
B) His Parents 7. The name of „Tiger Woods‟ is
C) His environment associated with:
D) His own conscious mind A) Boxing
3. The first Modern Olympic games were B) B) Tennis
held in the Year: C) Football
A) 1892 D) Golf
B) 1896 8. Thomas Cup‟ is associated with:
C) 1900 A) Badminton (women)
D) 1904 B) Badminton (men)
4. Find the odd personality: C) Table Tennis (women)
A) Baichung Bhutia D) Table Tennis (men)
B) Kapil Dev 9. Most import ant component of level of
C) Pete Sampras living is?
D) Jarnail singh A) Health
B) Occupation
C) Education
5. Which of the following tournaments is not D) Housing
a part of Grand Slam Tennis? 10. Vinay is taller than Manu, but not as tall
A) Australian Open as Yogesh, Karim is taller than Dillip but
B) Wimbledon shorter than Manu, Who is the tallest
C) U.S. Open among them?
D) German Open A) Vinay
B) Yogesh
C) Karim
D) Manu
108
Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Biochemistry
109
Sample Paper of Biophysics
¯ ¯ ¯
1. If A + B = 0 20. Mass spectrometry is an analytical
¯ ¯
A) Vector A and B are technique for the identification of
perpendicular to each other. molecules by way of measuring their:
¯ ¯
B) Vector A and B are necessarily A) mass only B) charge
parallel. only
¯ ¯
C) Vector A and B must be C) mass to charge ratio
antiparallel. B) charge to mass ratio
¯ ¯
D) Vector A and B may be parallel 21. Micro array analysis is used for
or antiparallel. A) quantization of gene expression
2. The minimum charge on a body can be: B) to check the quality of gene
A) one coulomb expression
B) one stat coulomb C) for measuring the copy number
-19
C) 1.6*10 coulomb D) to identity new genes
-19
D) 3.2 x 10 coulomb 22. Component of atom involved in study
3. The potential due to an electric dipole of structure with X-ray crystallography
varies A) Nucleus
A) inversely as the distance B) Electron
B) directly as the distance C) proton
C) inversely as the square of D) Neutrons
distance 23. The radius of an atom is
D) directly as the square of distance approximately
-10
4. Which of these techniques does not give A) 10 m
-12
information about the dimensions of B) 10 m
-13
DNA molecule? C) 10 m
-16
A) Viscosity measurement D) 10 m
B) light scattering 24. Rays similar to x-rays but of smaller
C) flow-birefringence wavelength that are given off by
D) Atomic Absorption spectroscopy radioactive Substances are
5. Fluorescence of a protein can be due to A) alpha rays
A) tryptophan B) beta rays
B) tyrosine C) gamma rays
C) phenylalanine D) cosmic rays
D) all the above 25. Antiparticle of electron is
6. The aromatic amino acids are important A) proton
because: B) Antiproton
A) they are ionized by light of C) Positron
wavelength 280mm. D) Neutron
B) they are actually imino acids that 26. Atomic force microscope was
cannot rotate through the angle phi. invented in which Year:
C) they give proteins their absorbance A) 1972 B) 1986
at 280 nm C) 2001 D) 1980
D) they are source of disulfide bonds 27. Nucleic acid absorption (A260)
within the exported proteins changes in different states. It is
7. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation maximum when it is:
states that: A) Double stranded
k H
A) P = P + log R B) Single stranded
H
B) P = Pk + log R C) All nucleotides are separated
H
C) P = pk –log R D) Fragmented
k H
D) R =p -p 28. Which out of these is not a connective
8. The proteins that run the fastest in SDS- tissue:
PAGE are A) Cartilage
A) Large B) bone
B) Small C) muscle
C) Negatively charged D) blood
D) Positively charged 29 Which of these is not a characteristic
o
9. The auditions a ≠ b≠ c, α = γ=90 β ≠ of the Cardiac muscle:
90- describe the ……Unit cell A) nonstriated
A) tetragonal B) Presence of intercalated disc
B) orthorhombic C) Involuntary
C) monoclinic D) Presence of actin and myosin
D) trigonal filaments.
10. The electromagnetic radiation with 30. Fertilization occurs in which region of
longest wavelength. is: female reproductive part:
A) Visible Light A) Infundibulum
B) Radiowaves B) ampulla
C) Microwaves C) Isthmus
D) IR D) Uterus
110
11. Of the following which has got the 31. Brunner glands are present in:
highest frequency? A) Colon
A) ultraviolet rays B) jejunum
B) gamma rays C) duodenum
C) radio waves D) ileum
D) infrared waves 32. A rickshaw puller remembers a large
12. The value of atomic mass unit is: number of places and has the ability
-27
A) 1.66 x 10 Kg to find shortcuts and new routes
-28
B) 1.66 x 10 Kg between familiar places. Which region
-29
C) 1.66 x 10 Kg of the brain is responsible for this?
-24
D) 1.66 x 10 Kg A) Pituitary
B) Thalamus
13. The peptide bond in protein is C) Hypothalamus
A) Planar, but rotates to three preferred D) Hippocampus
dihedral angles 33. A Ramachandran plot show:-
B)Nonpolar, but rotates to the three A) The angles that are allowed
preferred dihedral angles between the bonds connecting the
C)Nonpolar, and fixed in a trans amide nitrogen in a peptide bond
conformation B) The sterically limited
D)Planar, and usually found in a trans rotational angles where phi and psii
conformation are allowed in the protein backbone.
C) The amino acid residues that
14. The lactoferrin is produced by: have the greatest degrees of
A) Spermatogonia rotational freedom
B) Reticulocytes D) The sterically allowed
C) Amebocytes rotational angles between the side
D) Neutrophils chain groups in a peptide backbone.
34. The most sensitive for the lethal
15. During generation of action potential, effects of radiation is
depolarization is due to A) Preimplantation
+
A) k -efflux B) Early organogensis
+
B) Na -efflux C) Late organogensis
+
C) K -influx D) The fetal period
+
D) Na -infflux 35. Which of the following is the primary
factor regulating normal coronary
16. Which of the following wave is likely to blood flow
be absent in ECG A) Aortic diastolic pressure
A) P B) Coronary perfusion pressure
B) T C) Systolic wall pressure
C) Q D) Myocardial oxygen consumption
D) R 36. The term satellite DNA refers to
A) extrachromosomal DNA
17. Indirect immnuofluorescene involves fragments that are found closed to
fluorescently labeled (orbiting) the full length chromosomes
A) Immunoglobulin-specific B) Mitochondrial DNA, which is
antibodies circular in nature
B) Antigen-specific antibodies C) Long tandem repeats of simple
C) Hapten – specific antibodies DNA sequences
D) Carrier – specific antibodies D) Mobile DNA elements such as
18. Prostaglandins are transposons and insertion
A) C20 unsaturated fatty acids sequences
B) C27 saturated alcohols 37. The number of atoms in a crystal
C) C20 saturated fatty acids which surrounded a particular atom as
D) C27 unsaturated alcohols its nearest neighbours is called
A) Charge number
19. Apart from the proton which other nuclei B) Atomic packing factor
of the following is used for NMR. C) Coordination number
13
A) C D) Lattice
12
B) C 38. EPR spectrum is due to
16
C) O A) Change in mass state of an
32
D) P electron
B) Change in L-K transition of an
electron
C) Change in spin state of an
electron
D) Change in both L-K transition
and mass of an electron
111
Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics
Let G be a group of order 147. For any a G ,
a e , the number of solutions of x 2 a is 6. The integrating factor of the
differential y is
A) 49 2 xy 4 x 3
B) one x
C) three given by
D) zero (A) e y 2
2
(B) e x
In the ring Z i , where Z is the ring of integers, the (C) e x
element 1 i D) e y
A) is both irreducible as well as prime 7. If ( x1 y1 z1 3x 2 y y 3 z 2 , then
B) is neither irreducible nor prime
C) is irreducible but not prime at the point (1,2,1) is
D) is prime but not irreducible (A)
12 i 9 j 16 k
(B) 12 i 9 j 16 k
The equation of the tangent to the curve f ( x, y) =0
(C) 12 i 9 j 16 k
at any point (a, b) is given by
(D) 12 i 9 j 16 k
A) f f
( x a) ( a, b) ( y b) ( a, b) 0
y x
8. If one root of the equation
x 3 13x 2 15x 189 0
B) f f exceeds the other by 2, then all the
( x a) ( a, b) ( y b ) ( a, b) 0
y x roots are
C) f f 6 (A) 7, 9 and 3
( y b) ( a, b) ( x a ) ( a, b) 0
y x (B) -7, -9 and -3
(D) f f (C) 7, 9 and –3
( x a) ( a, b) ( y b ) ( a, b) 0 (D) -7, -9 and 3
x y
Two spheres 9. Two forces 13 kg.wt. and
3 3 kg.wt.
x2 y2 z
2
2u1 x 2v1 y 2w1 z d1 0 act on a particle at an angle
x y
2 2
z 2
2u 2 x 2v 2 y 2w2 z d 2 0 and equal to a resultant force of 14
kg.wt., then the angle between the
forces is
cut each other orthogonally if (A) 45
0
(A) 2u1u 2 2v1v2 2w1 w2 d1 d 2 (B) 30
0
0
(B) u1u 2 v1v2 w1 w2 0 (C) 60
0
u1 v w d (D) 90
(C) 1 1 1
u2 v2 w2 d2 10. Let
W1 and W2 be subspaces of
(D) 2(u1 u 2 ) 2(v1 v2 ) 2(w1 w2 ) (d1 d 2 )
dimensions 5 and 4 respectively of a
vector space V of dimension 6.
The series 1 is
n(log n) p Then dim (W1 W2 ) is
(A) convergent if p 0 (A) Zero
(B) one
(B) convergent if p 1 (C) at most two
(C) divergent if p 1 (D) at least three
(D) convergent if 0 p 1
112
Sample Questions for M.Sc. 2-Year Course Bioinformatics/ System Biology and
Bioinformatics
1. Which are the repositories for raw 6. Which of the following sequence is
sequence data correct:
A) Gen Bank A) DNA, RNA, Protein
B) EMBL B) DNA, Protein, RNA
C) DDBJ C) RNA, DNA, Protein
D) GGPP D) Protein, DNA, RNA
7. Which is not the method of protein/DNA
2. Which of the following annotation is not sequence alignment
provided by SWISS-PROT A) Matrix
A) Protein function B) Brute force
B) Domain structure C) Dynamic programming
C) Post translation modification D) Heuristic methods
D) Crystal formations 8. The method not used in NSA
programming is
3. Which is the most important computer A) Sum of pairs methods
language used in Bioinformatics B) Spare alignment
A) Pascal C) Two step method
B) Perl D) Fitch/Margoliosh method
C) Java 9. Distance matrix method are used for
D) C++ A) Carbohydrate structure prediction
B) Proteins structure prediction
4. Which type of analysis cannot be C) Phylogenetic analysis
performed on raw DNA sequence using D) Primer design
Bioinformatics tools 10. FASTA-BLAST, WU-BLAST are
A) Identifying coding regions programmes used for determining
B) Identification of introns and exons A) Sequence similarity of Protein only
C) Gene product prediction B) Sequence similarity of DNA only
D) Identifying cis and trans regions C) Sequence similarity of Carbohydrate
only
5. OMIM is engaged in study of D) Sequence similarity of Protein and
A) Human molecular Biology DNA
B) Plant molecular biology
C) Bacterial molecular biology
D) Yeast Molecular biology
113
5. Zero error of an instrument introduces: 15. The structure of protoplasm is:
A) Systematic error A) Granular
B) Random error B) Fibrillar
C) Per cent error C) Reticular
D) Means no error D) Colloidal Matrix
6. The Science of surveying and mapping the 16. Which of the following could be „cancer‟
earth‟s surface is known as: of the lymph nodes and spleen?
A) Cartography A) Carcinoma
B) Geodesy B) Sarcoma
C) Topography C) Leukemia
D) Scienodsy D) Lymphoma
17. The major component of Bacterial cell
7. The gravitational force with which a body is
wall is
attracted towards the earth is
A) Xylan
A) Maximum at the equator and minimum
B) Chitin
at the poles
C) Peptidoglycan
B) Minimum at the equator and maximum
D) Cellulose
at the poles
C) The same at the equator and the poles 18. How many bones does the Cranium of
D) Depends on the altitude at the given man have?
point A) 8 B) 12
C) 16 D) 20
8. Which of the following is used as an
antiseptic? 19. When is the world Population day
A) Iodine celebrated?
B) Bromine A) August 3
C) Chlorine B) April 16
D) Fluorine C) October 18
9. Washing soaps produces a scum with hard
D) July 11
water and not much of foam, because the
hard water contains: 20. In a Nuclear Reactor the heavy water is
A) Many suspended particles used to :
B) Many dissolved inorganic salts A) cool the neutrons
C) Chalk and sulphur B) slow down the neutrons
D) Dissolved organic matter C) absorb the neutrons
D) control the number of neutrons
1. Which one of the following is an essential 5. Signaling between cells usually results
component of DNA? in the activation of protein
A) Protein A) lipase
B) Carbohydrate B) kinases
C) Lipids C) proteases
D) Vitamins D) nuclease
1. We can‟t produce colors with white light 6. Macrophage – like cells in the
through: connective tissue are
A) Interference A) Osteoclasts
B) Polarization B) Mesanglial cells
C) Diffraction C) Histiocytes
D) Dispersion D) Microglial cells
2. Methods of Fourier Transformation are 7. Zinc finger proteins and helix-turn-helix
applied in proteins are:
A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance A) Types of DNA-binding proteins
B) X-ray crystallography B) Involved in the control of translation
C) Medical Imaging C) Components of ribosomes
D) All of the above D) Part of the hemoglobin in blood
3. Which one of the following is correctly cells
matched? 8. Transcription of DNA into mRNA is
A) Chloroplast – storage of enzymes catalyzed by
B) Lysosome – powerhouse of cell A) DNA polymerase
C) Nucleolus – stie of ribosomal B) RNA synthetase
synthesis C) RNA polymerase
D) Glyoxysome – structural support of D) Rnase
cell 9. Which nitrogenous bases is NOT found
4. Which amino acid can stabilize protein in DNA?
structure by forming covalent cross links A) Thymine
between polypeptide chins? B) Uracil
A) Ser C) Adenine
B) Gly D) gunanine
C) Glu 10. How would the complementary strand of
D) Cys DNA appear if the original strand of DNA
5. In CT imaging the phenomenon used is contained the bases T-A-G-C in the
A) Radiation absorption order?
B) Radiation damage A) U-A-C-G
C) Free radical formation B) G-C-A-T
D) Radiation fluorescence C) T-A-C-G
D) A-T-C-G
2
3. The value of −1 𝑥 − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥, where
𝑥 is the greatest integer less then or
equal to x and 𝑥 is the fractional part
of x is
(a) 7/2
(b) 5/2
(c) 1/2
(d) 3/2
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2 2
7. The function 13. The particular integral of (D + D)y = x + 2x
sin 𝑥 +4 is
3 2 3 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑥 ≠ 0 A. 4x+c B. x + 2x +4x C. x /3 + 2x
3
1 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑥 = 0 +4x D. x /3 +4x
𝑍−3
14. The value of 𝐶 2 𝑑𝑧, where C: |Z+1-i|=
is 𝑍 +2𝑍+5
(a) continuous at x = 0 2 is:
(b) not continuous at x = 0 A. 0 B (i-2) C. π ((i-2) D. π/2
(c) not differentiable at x = 0
(d) nowhere differentiable at x = 0 𝑍2
15. The residue of f(Z) = at pole 1 is :
𝑍−1 2 (𝑍+2)
A. 1/3 B. 5/9 C. 2/3 D. 0
11. The system AX = O in „n‟ unknowns has only 21. Random variable X follows Poisson distribution
trivial solution if: such that 3 P[ X = 1] = 2 p[ X = 2]. The
(a) ρ(A) >𝑛 mean of X is:
(b) ρ(A) <𝑛 A. 2 B. 3 C. 3/2 D. 1
(c) ρ(A)=n
(d) ρ(A)≥n
117
Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. School) Geology
1.A Sandstonde containing of at least 25% 4. Mica Plate gives the retardation of:
Feldspar is : A) 1 Lameda
A) Orthoquarzite B) ½ Lameda
B) Arkose C) ¼ Lameda
C) Graywacke D) Variable retardation
D) Sublithic Wacke
5. Which of the following mineral is
2. An intergrowth texture in which Aluminosilicate:
plagioclase contains inclusion of potash A) Quartz
feldspar is known as : B) Garnet
A) Perthite C) Biotite
B) Antiperthite D) Sillimanite, Robins, Crows
C) Graphic
D) Seriate
118
Sample Question Paper for M.Sc. (2 Year Course) Microbial Biotechnology
1. ‘Phycobilins’ are
A. light-capturing bilins found in cyanobacteria and red algae
B. light-capturing bilins found in brown algae
C. Pigments produced in bile that helps in lipid absorption
D. Photosynthetic pigments found in Chlorela
2. The first immunoglobulin heavy chain class to be expressed on the surface of a newly produced B-cell is
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
3. Ebola is a
A. Hemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by ebolaviruses
B. Prion disease of primates and humans
C. Equine bolus Aswan syndrome caused by unknown aetiological agent
D. Bacterial febrile illness that leads to sudden death
4. The N2 fixation reaction catalysed by the enzyme nitrogenase is a high energy demanding reaction that requires
approximately
A. 12 ATP
B. 25 ATP
C. 18 ATP
D. 7 ATP
5. In light microscopy, if the wavelength of the light illuminating a sample is increased the resolving limit and the
resolving power of the microscope will______________ and_________________, respectively.
A. Increase; increase
B. Increase; Decrease
C. Decrease; Increase
D. Decrease; Decrease
6. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate, when the enzyme has a Km of 0.50 mM will be __________ than the
affinity of an enzyme for its substrate when the enzyme has a Km of 0.05 mM.
A. Half
B. Greater
C. Lesser
D. Equal
7. Separation of charged molecules based on their varying rates of migration through a solid porous matrix when
subjected to an electric field is popularly known as
A. Photoreactivation
B. Blotting
C. Autoradiography
D. Gel electrophoresis
8. For recovering citric acid from culture medium after the fermentation, Ca(OH)2 is added to the slurry to
A. Precipitate calcium carbonate
B. Precipitate calcium sulphate
C. Precipitate calcium phosphate
D. Precipitate calcium citrate
9. The X-gal routinely used in the biotechnology laboratories for clone identification by Blue-white assay is chemically
A. 5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside
B. 5-chroro-4-bromo-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside
C. 4-bromo-5-chloro-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside
D. 4-chloro-5-bromo-3-indolyl-β-D-galactopyranoside
10. During protein synthesis, the amino acid charged tRNA __________comes and binds to the initiator (or start)
codon present on ___________________site of prokaryotic Ribosome
A. Met-tRNAMet; A-site
B. fMet-tRNAfMet ; P- site
C. fMet-tRNAfMet ; A site
D. Met-tRNAMet; P-site
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Sample Questions for M.Sc. in Biotechnology
1. Correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is 7. The smallest unit of DNA capable
A) G1, S, G2, M of coding for the synthesis of a
B) S, G2, M, G1 polypeptide is the
C) G1, G2, M, S A) Operon
D) G1, G2, S, M B) cistron
C) promoter
2. Which of the following does not contain both D) replicon
DNA and RNA?
8. Exonuclease is an enzyme, which
A) Yeast cleaves DNA from
B) Bacteria A) 3‟ end
C) Mycoplasma B) 5‟ end
D) Virus C) both 3‟ and 5‟ end
D) internal bonds in DNA
1. 3. Which of the following is not an antibacterial 9. Which of the following is not part of
antibiotic the lac operon of E. coli?
A) Tetracyclin A) genes for inducible enzymes of
B) Ampicillin lactose metabolism
C) Nystatin B) genes for the repressor, a
D) Nalidixic acid regulatory protein
C) gene for RNA polymerase
2. The development of egg without fertilization is D) a promoter, the RNA
called polymerase binding site
A) Blastgenesis
B) Parthenogenesis 10. Which of the following primers
C) Cogenesis would allow copying of the single-
D) Gametogenesis stranded DNA sequence
E) 5' ATGCCTAGGTC?
3. TATA box and Pribnow box are components of A) 5‟ ATGCC,
A) Operators B) 5‟ TACGG
B) Promoters C) 5‟ CTGGA
C) Enhancers D) 5‟ GACCT
D) Activators
120
Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. ) Botany
1. In C4 plants the first CO2 acceptor is : 7. Most bryophytes are autotrophic but a
A) Ribulose – 1,5-bisphosphate few are more or less saprophytic. Which
B) Phosphenol pyruvate of the following is totally devoid of
C) Pyruvate chlorophyll and depends upon a
D) Ribulose-5-phosphate mycorrhizal association for its growth
2. In majority of angiosperms, the female and development?
gametophyte at the time of fertilization is : A) Cyptothallus mirabilis
A) 8-celled B) Funaria hygromitrica
B) 7-celled C) Concephalum conium
C) 6-celled D) Pellia epiphylla
D) 4-celled 8. Somaclonal variations are:
3. Agar-agar is extracted from which of the A) Variations produced during tissue
following genera culture
A) Gracilaria B) Variations produced during sexual
B) Dictyota reproduction
C) Ectocarpus C) Variations caused by mutagenic
D) Laminaria chemicals
4. Black rust of wheat is caused by : D) Variations caused by Gamma rays
A) Ustilago tritici
B) Puccinia graminis tritici 9. Trisomic condition is expressed as
C) Protomyces macrosporus A) 2n-1
D) Albugo candida B) 2n-2
5. Oomycota is a phylum in kingdom: C) 2n+1
A) Fungi D) 2n+2
B) Chromista
C) Protozoa 10. The functional unit in ecology is the:
D) Mycota A) Organism
6. Cystidium is a B) Biosphere
A) Sterile element occurring in the C) Ecosystem
hymenium of certain Basidiomycetes D) Population
B) Reproductive organ of a green alga
C) Fertile part of lichen thallus
D) Asexual spore
1.Phenolic esters on heating with AlCl3 gives o- and p- acyl phenol. This is termed as:
3. With the molecular formula C9H11Cl assign the plausible structure to the compound from the following
sets of NMR data:
(і) Quintet (δ 2.15) 2H
(іі) Triplet (δ 2.75) 2H
(ііі) Triplet (δ 3.38) 2H
(іv) Singlet (δ 7.22)5H
121
4.Ozonolysis of butan-1-ene followed by reduction with Zn / CH3COOHgives:
5. The equilibrium constant of a reaction doubles on raising the temperature from 25°C to 35°C. Calculate
ΔH° for the reaction( in KJ mol⁻¹):
(A) 52.89 (B) 0
(C) 60.5 (D) 46.3
7. What is the constant volume heat capacity of an ideal monoatomic gas (in unit J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)?
(A) 12.47 (B) 6.1
(C) 0 (D) Infinite
8. Average kinetic energy of the gas molecules at temperature, T is:
(A) 2/3 RT (B) 2/3 N okT
(C) 3/2 NoRT (D) 3/2 NokT
9. (C2H5)₂Zn on reaction with acetyl chloride gives:
(A) Butane (B) Butanoic acid
(C) Butanone (D) Butane
10. Which of the following combination of orbitals is not permissible?
(A) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = -1/2 (B) n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = ½
(C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = 1/2 (D) n = 4, l = 3, m = -3, s = 0
11. Calculate the effective nuclear charge at the outer boundary of copper atom:
(A) 3.85 (B) 4.35
(C) 1.3 (D) 13.05
12. Which of the following has highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
(A) Li⁺ B) Na⁺
(C) K⁺ (D) Cs⁺
1. Two electrons move in opposite directions 6. When the gate voltage becomes more
at 0.70 c as measured in the laboratory. negative in n-channel JFET, the
The speed of one electron as measured channel between depletion layers:
from the other is:- A) Shrinks
A) 0.35c B) Expands
B) 0.70c C) Conducts
C) 0.94c D) Stops conducting
D) 1.00 c
123
Sample Questions for M.Sc. (Hons. / 2-Year Course) Zoology
1. Which of the following types of DNA 6. Which of the following genus is the
replication or repair systems is blood fluke of man and other animals?
dysfuncational in individuals with A) Schistosoma
Xeroderma pigmentosum? B) Ophisthorchis (Clonorchis)
A) Mismatch repair C) Paragonimus
B) Base excision repair D) Diplozoom
C) Nucleotide excision repair
D) DNA helicase 7. Populations that are morphologicaly
similar but do not interbreed for
2 The part of the embryo from which physciological or behavioural reasons
ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are are grouped as
formed in chick is known as A) Races
A) Primitive streak B) Varieties
B) Hypoblast C) Sub-species
C) Cytotrophoblast D) Sibling species
D) Epiblast
8. The cranial capacity of which
3. N- linked obligosaccharides on secreted prehistoric human was almost the
glycoproteins are attached to same as that of the modern man?
A) Nirtogen atoms in the A) Neanderthal man
polypeptide backbone B) Peking man
B) The serine or threonine in the C) Java ape man
sequence Asn-X-Ser/Thr D) Australophithecus man
C) The amino terminus of the
protein 9. An example of competitive inhibition of
D) The asparagines in the sequence an enzyme is the inhibition of
Asn-X-Ser/Thr A) Succinic dehydrogenase by
4. Which of the following in star fish can turn malonic acid
inside out? B) Cytochrome oxidase by
A) Madreporite cyanide
B) Stone canal C) Hexokinase by glucose 6
C) Tube feet phosphate
D) Cardiac stomach D) Carbonic anhydrase by
carbon dioxide
5. Antennae in hymenoptera, dipteral and
odonata are The isoelectric point of a protein is
10.
A) Short & filiform, aristate, defined as
geniculate respectively A) The pH at which the net
B) Short & filiform, geniculate, charge on the molecule is
aristate respectively zero
C) Geniculate, aristate, short & B) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively protonated
D) Aristate, geniculate, short & C) The pH at which all groups are
filiform respectively unprotonated
D) The pH at which each acidic
groups is protonated and each
basic groups is unprotonated.
124
Important Dates and Information for Entrance Test PU-CET (P.G.) – 2019
1. Date of Availability of PU–CET (P.G.) Prospectus and Online Entrance Test 22-04-2019 (Monday)
Form at http://cetpg.puchd.ac.in
2. Last date for submission of information on the website to generate the Bank 17-05-2019 (Friday)
Challan
3. Last date for deposit of fee in any branch of State Bank of India using 20-05-2019 (Monday) upto 4:00 p.m.
website generated Challan
4. Last date for uploading of photograph, signature with rest of the information 23-05-2019 (Thursday)
on the website
5. Availability of Admit Card Online 29-05-2019 (Wednesday)
Admit Card along with Time & Centre of Examination is to be downloaded
from the website by the candidate using his/her own Login ID and Password
provided while generating Bank Challan. The candidates will be
communicated through email only for this purpose.
6. Dates of holding Entrance Test 08-06-2019 & 09-06-2019
(Saturday and Sunday)
7. Centre for Entrance Test Chandigarh, Ludhiana, Muktsar,
Hoshiarpur.
8. Uploading of Answer Key (at http://exams.puchd.ac.in/show- 18-06-2019 (Tuesday)
noticeboard.php) and inviting Objections (through e-mail only to
arcet@pu.ac.in )
9. Last date of submission of objections to the Answer Key 20-06-2019 (Thursday)
10. Uploading of the response to the Objections and inviting Cross-objections 24-06-2019 (Monday)
(through e-mail only)
11. Last day of submission of Cross-objections to the Answer key 26-06-2019 (Wednesday)
12. Date of declaration of result 29-06-2019 to 01-07-2019
(Saturday to Monday)
st
13. Date of availability of online Admission Form for the courses offered by 1 week of June, 2019
University Departments/Centres at http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in
For Enquiries about Test contact (From 10:00 a.m to 04:00 p.m.)
Note: Applying for Entrance Test and taking the Test do not entitle a candidate
for admission. For admission to PU-CETPG based programmes being offered by
various Department/Centre/Institute at Panjab University only, online Admission
Form will have to be submitted by the Candidate separately. Online Admission
Form will be available from 1st week of June, 2019. The candidates are required
to fill up and submit online Admission Form at
http://onlineadmissions.puchd.ac.in before the last date of submission of online
Admission Form even if the result of Entrance Test has not been declared by
then.
125
DATE SHEET PU-CET (P.G.) 2019
Date and Day of Test Course Time of Examination
08-06-2019 (Saturday) M.Sc. (Industrial Chemistry) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Computer Science 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Nuclear Medicine 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. (Computer Science & Engg.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. Civil Engg. (Construction Tech. & Mgt.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.E. (Chemical) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.P.Ed. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
Masters in History 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Statistics) (2 Yr. Course) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Geology 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Masters in Disaster Management 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
MBA for Executive (MBAfEX) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr Course) Human Genomics 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Material Sciences & Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Biochemistry 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Environment Science 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.A. in Geoinformatics 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Biophysics 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Com. (Business Innovation) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Power System) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. Forensic Science (2 Yr. Course) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.A. in English 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Food Technology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Biotechnology) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Microelectronics) / M.E. (Electronics & 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
Communication Engg.)
09-06-2019 (Sunday) LL.M. 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Chemistry) (Hons./ 2 Yr. Course) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m
M.Com. (Hons.) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Microbial Biotechnology 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.A. Journalism and Mass Communication 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.A. (Social Work) 8.30 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
M.Sc. (Hons.) Physics/ Physics (specialization in 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Electronics); M.Sc. (2 Yr. Course) Medical Physics
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Botany 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
MBACIT 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.E. Mechanical Engg. (Manufacturing Technology) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.Tech. (Polymer) 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Masters in Public Health 11.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
M.C.A. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Zoology 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.E. Electrical Engg. (Instrumentation & Control) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
B.P.Ed. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Com. (Business Economics) 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
M.Sc. (System Biology and Bioinformatics) / M.Sc. 1.30 p.m. to 3.00 p.m.
(Bioinformatics) (2 Yr. Course)
M.Sc. (Hons. ) Mathematics 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.A. (Geography) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.A. (Economics) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.Sc. (Hons. / 2 Yr. Course) Biotechnology 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.Com. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Chemical with specialisation in Environmental Engg.) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) 4.00 p.m. to 5.30 p.m.
Chandigarh
Centres for Ludhiana
Examination Muktsar
Hoshiarpur.
NOTE: Candidates desirous to appear in more than one of the above papers, must ensure that there is
no clash of timings in those papers.
126