KEY WORD: SISIG Anti-HBc IgM positive*

Anti-HBs negative
KAYANIN NINYO PLEASE! LAPIT NA RMTs! --------
9. CHRONICALLY INFECTED (Larson)
1. Total cholesterol (mg/dL) HBsAg positive*
<200 Desirable Anti-HBc positive*
200–239 Borderline high Anti-HBc IgM negative
≥240 High Anti-HBs negative
------ ---------
2. Triglyceride (mg/dL) 10. Four possibilities: (1) resolved infection (most
<150 Normal common), (2) false positive anti-HBc thus
150–199 Borderline high susceptible, (3) low-level chronic infection, and
200–499 High (4) resolving acute infection:
≥500 Very high HBsAg negative
------ Anti-HBc positive*
3. HDL (mg/dL) Anti-HBs negative
<40 Low; MAJOR RISK FOR HEART DISEASE --------
≥60 High; PROTECTION AGAINST HEART DISEASE 11. PRIMARY MALE HYPOGONADISM
------- Decreased testosterone (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)
4. LDL (mg/dL) Increased LH and FSH
<100 Optimal
100–129 Near optimal/above optimal 12. SECONDARY MALE HYPOGONADISM
130–159 Borderline high Decreased testosterone
160–189 High Decreased LH and FSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)
≥190 Very high ---------
13. PRIMARY FEMALE HYPOGONADISM
PATTERNS OF COMMON LABORATORY TESTS FOR HEPATITIS Decreased estrogen (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)
5. SUSCEPTIBLE Increased LH and FSH
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc negative 14. SECONDARY FEMALE HYPOGONADISM
Anti-HBs negative Decreased estrogen
-------- Decreased LH and FSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)
6. IMMUNE DUE TO NATURAL INFECTION ---------
HBsAg negative 15. ACUTE LEUKEMIA
Anti-HBc positive* FAB 30% BLASTS
Anti-HBs positive* Henry/WHO 20% BLASTS
-------
7. IMMUNE DUE TO HEPATITIS B VACCINE 16. PRIMARY HYPOTHYROIDISM
HBsAg negative Decreased T3 T4 (AFFECTED TARGET GLAND)
Anti-HBc negative Increased TSH
Anti-HBs positive* --------------
------- 17. SECONDARY HYPOTHYROIDISM
8. ACUTELY INFECTED Decreased T3 T4
HBsAg positive* Decreased TSH (AFFECTED PITUITARY GLAND)
Anti-HBc positive* ----------------
18. PRIMARY HYPERTHYROIDISM 42. Deficiency of vitamin C - scurvy
Increased T3 T4 -----------------
Decreased TSH ACCEPTABLE CV
---------------- 43. Cholestero CV ≤3%
19. THYROTOXICOSIS 44. Triglyceride CV ≤5%
Increased either T3 or T4 45. HDL CV ≤4%†
Normal TSH 46. LDL CV ≤4%
---------------- ------------------
20. SUBCLINICAL HYPOTHYROIDISM BODY MASS INDEX (BMI)
Normal T3 T4 47 NORMAL weight (BMI 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2)
Increased TSH (as in primary hypo) 48. Underweight (BMI < 18.5 kg/m2)
49. Overweight (BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/m2)
21. SUBCLINICAL HYPERTHYROIDIM 50. Obese (BMI ≥ 30 kg/m2)
Normal T3 T4
Decreased TSH (as in primary hyper) Serum protein electrophoresis: Serum is applied in
------------- the cathode region of an agarose gel or cellulose
FAT SOLUBLE acetate plate saturated with a buffer of pH 8.6.
22. Vitamin A - Retinol, retinoic acid
23. Vitamin D2, D3 - Ergocalciferol, cholecalciferol Serum proteins have a net negative charge and
24. Vitamin E - Tocopherols migrate toward the anode, with ALBUMIN TRAVELING THE
25. Vitamin K1, K2 - Phylloquinones, menaquinones FARTHEST, followed by alpha1 -globulins, alpha2-
------------- globulins, beta-globulins, and gamma-globulins.
WATER SOLUBLE
26. Vitamin B1 Thiamine The proteins are fixed in the medium, stained, and
27. Vitamin B2 Riboflavin then quantified using a densitometer. Ciulla
28. Vitamin B6 Pyridoxine, pyridoxal
29. Niacin 51. MUDPILES mnemonics for remembering causes of
30. Folic acid INCREASED ANION GAP (Tietz, Larson):
31. Vitamin B12 - Cyanocobalamin M - Methanol
32. Vitamin B 7/ vitamin H - Biotin U - Uremia
33. Pantothenic acid D - Diabetic ketoacidosis
34. Vitamin C - Ascorbic acid P - Paraldehyde
---------------- I - Iron, inhalants (carbon monoxide, cyanide,
35. Deficiency of vitamin A - night blindness, toluene, isoniazid, ibuprofen)
xerophthalmia L - Lactic acidosis
36. Deficiency of vitamin D - rickets (young), E - Ethylene glycol, ethanol ketoacidosis
osteomalacia (adult) S - Salicylates, starvation ketoacidosis,
37. Deficiency of vitamin K - hemorrhagic diseases sympathomimetics
38. Deficiency of Thiamine - Beriberi, Wernicke- ---------------------
Korsakoff syndrome 52. Liver transplants are monitored by liver
39. Deficiency of Niacin - Pellagra enzymes, cholesterol and bilirubin.
40. Deficiency of Folic acid - Megaloblastic anemia 53. Pancreatic transplants are monitored for
and neural tube defects pancreatic enzymes (amylase and lipase) or insulin
41. Deficiency of Cyanocobalamin - pernicious and production (ex. C-peptide levels)
megaloblastic anemia, neuropathy --------------------
54. LABORATORY FINDINGS IN HEMOLYTIC JAUNDICE
a. Increased unconjugated bilirubin
b, Increased AST and LDH
c. Decreased haptoglobin
d. Increased urine urobilinogen
e. Increased reticulocytes, decreased hemoglobin,
positive DAT
--------------------
55. ACUTE INTERSTITIAL NEPHRITIS
Hematuria, possibly macroscopic
Mild to moderate proteinuria
Numerous WBCs, and WBC casts without bacteria.
INCREASED URINARY EOSINOPHILS
56. ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS
Mild proteinuria, microscopic hematuria
RTE CELLS and RTE CELL CASTS
Hyaline, granular, waxy, and broad casts
57. NEPHROTIC SYNDROME
Massive proteinuria ( >3.5 g/d)
Low levels of serum albumin, high levels of serum
lipids, and edema Marked proteinuria
Urinary fat droplets; oval fat bodies; renal tubular
epithelial (RTE) cells; epithelial, fatty, and waxy
casts; and microscopic hematuria
Oval fat bodies
------------------------
58. Anti–double-stranded DNA (ds-DNA) antibodies are
specific for SLE and are observed at a frequency of
75%–90% in SLE patients with active disease. Current
methods used are radioimmunoassay, indirect
immunofluorescence on Crithidia luciliae, and
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. CRITHIDIA
LUCILAE
59. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
a.Early pre-B cell or common ALL accounts for 60 to
70% of all cases (CD 10)
b. T cell leukemias account for 10 to 20% of the
cases
c. Rarest subclass is B-cell leukemia, and it
represents the L3 variant of the FAB classification
(Burkitt’s type)
60. The majority of cases of CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC
LEUKEMIA (CLL) appear to involve the B lymphocyte.
Take note:
a. CLL: most common appear to involve the B
lymphocyte
b. ALL: most common is the early pre-B cell or
common ALL
Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:42 PM, Armeena Rosa
Garcia <armeenagarcia@ymail.com> wrote:
Key word: SPICY
Ang Turn Around Time (TAT)..
Pre-analytical, Analytical or Post-analytical
variable?
-post ana
CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE
PROLONGED APTT OR PT..
Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN
1. From Rodak
a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor
deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin
deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the
fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.
b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are
associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in
prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of
reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;
and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or
less.
2. From Brown
a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen
concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of
dysfibrinogenemia.
b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in
fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or
lower will cause a prolonged APTT.
KEY WORD: SPICY
HEMATOLOGY AND PHLEBOTOMY BOOKS
RODAK, TURGEON OR McCALL TAYO?
1. RODAK: The patient has the right to refuse to
give a blood specimen. If gentle urging does not
persuade the patient to allow blood to be drawn, the
phlebotomist should alert the nurse, who will either
talk to the patient or notify the physician. The
phlebotomist must not try to force an uncooperative
patient to have blood drawn; it can be unsafe for
the phlebotomist and for the patient. In addition,
forcing a patient of legal age and sound mind to
have blood drawn against his or her wishes can
result in charges of assault and battery or unlawful
restraint.
2. TURGEON: Refusal by the patient to have blood
drawn. The response to this problem is to politely
excuse yourself from the patient’s room, note the
refusal on the requisition, and notify the
hematology supervisor.
3. McCALL: There are times when a phlebotomist is
not able to collect a specimen from a patient even
before attempting venipuncture. Occasionally, a
patient will refuse to have blood drawn. Other
times, the patient may be unavailable because he or
she has gone to surgery or for another test, as in
radiology. Whatever the reason, if the specimen
cannot be obtained, notify the patient’s nurse or
physician. You may be required to fill out a form
stating that the specimen was not obtained and the
reason why. The original form is placed in the
patient’s chart and the laboratory retains a
copy. (ANSWER from McCall, Chapter 8, no. 6 is B)
The following are the most common and generally
accepted reasons for inability to obtain a specimen:
• Phlebotomist attempted but was unable to draw
blood.
• Patient refused to have blood drawn.
• Patient was unavailable.
KEY WORD: SPICY
HENRY vs. STRASINGER. Malaki na kayo..
1. HENRY
Urine sediment may be “telescoped,” that is, may
display all types of cells and casts in lupus
nephritis or with a hypersensitivity reaction.
Telescoped Sediment. This term is used to describe
the simultaneous occurrence of elements of
glomerulonephritis and those of nephrotic syndrome
in the same urine specimen. A telescoped sediment
might therefore include red cells, red cell casts,
cellular casts, broad waxy casts, lipid droplets,
oval fat bodies, and fatty casts. Such sediment may
be found in collagen vascular disease (notably lupus
nephritis) and subacute bacterial endocarditis.
2. STRASINGER
An abundance of granular, waxy, and broad casts,
often referred to as a telescoped urine sediment.
KEY WORD: SPICY
CONCENTRATION OF FIBRINOGEN THAT WILL CAUSE
PROLONGED APTT OR PT..
Malaki na kayo.. RODAK OR BROWN
1. From Rodak
a. PT is prolonged in congenital single-factor
deficiencies of factor X, VII, or V; prothrombin
deficiency; and fibrinogen deficiency when the
fibrinogen level is 100 mg/dL or less.
b. PTT/APTT, the factors whose deficiencies are
associated with hemorrhage and are reflected in
prolonged PTT results, taken in the order of
reaction, are XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; prothrombin;
and fibrinogen, when fibrinogen is 100 mg/dL or
less.
2. From Brown
a. PT will also be prolonged when the fibrinogen
concentration is less than 80 mg/dL and in cases of
dysfibrinogenemia.
b. APTT is sometimes insensitive to decreases in
fibrinogen in which only levels of 60 to 80 mg/dL or
lower will cause a prolonged APTT.
KEY WORD: SPICY
From Rodak:
1. PRP: centrifuged at 50 g for 30 minutes
2. PPP: centrifuged at 1500 x g for 15 minutes in a
swinging bucket centrifuge

Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:41 PM, Armeena Rosa
Garcia <armeenagarcia@ymail.com> wrote:
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most
often associated with which of the following types
of acute leukemia?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

KEY WORD PEANUT
D. Acute monocytic leukemia

What is the most abundant amino acid in the body,

Which genera are positive for phenylalanine
being involved in more metabolic processes than any
deaminase?
other amino acid?
A. Enterobacter, Escherichia, and Salmonella
A. Alanine
B. Morganella, Providencia, and Proteus
B. Glutamine
C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
C. Serine
D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Shigella
D. Tyrosine

Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:

Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a
A. All testing done to the patient to save time
screening test for which of the following?
B. All lab testing done in the central lab
A. Breast cancer
C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s
B. Colorectal cancer
bedside
C. Enteric infection of the colon
D. Satellite lab testing
D. Malabsorption syndrome

Which order of events should be followed at the

In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the
conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order
blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after
to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?
carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal
A. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove
level after:
lab coat
A. 30 minutes
B. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat,
B. 45 minutes
wash hands
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes C. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove
lab coat
D. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat,
Pyuria:
disinfect area
A. Protein in urine
B. Glucose in urine
In addition to performing hemoglobin
C. WBCs in urine
electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed
D. Casts in urine
to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?
A. A,
"Suicide sac" within the cell:
B. C
A. Mitochondria
C. F
B. Golgi bodies
D. S
C. Lysosome

D. Nucleus
Which specimen is the sample of choice for lead
screening? What condition is characterized by an elevation of
A. Whole blood total bilirubin primarily due to an increase in the

B. Hair conjugated bilirubin fraction?

C. Serum A. Hemolyticjaundice

D. Urine B. Neonatal jaundice

C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Select the most appropriate single screening test D. Obstructive jaundice

for thyroid disease.

A. Free thyroxine index Which of the following reagent systems contains the
B. Total T3 assay components sulfanilic acid, hydrochloric acid, and
C. Total T4 sodium nitrite?
D. TSH assay A. Jaffe
B. Zimmerman

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid: C. Diazo

A. Phenylalanine D. Lowry
B. Methionine
C. Tyrosine What term is used to describe the accumulation of

D. Histidine bilirubin in the skin?

A. Jaundice

Of the total serum calcium, free ionized calcium B. Hemolysis

normally represents approximately what percent? C. Cholestasis
A. 10 D. Kernicterus
B. 40
C. 50 If elevated, which laboratory test would support a

D. 90 diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

A. Homocysteine

Of the total serum osmolality, sodium, chloride, and B. Troponin

bicarbonate ions normally contribute approximately C. Albumin cobalt binding

what percent? D. B-type natriuretic peptide

A. 8
B. 45 Which of the following enzymes does not belong to
C. 75 the class of enzymes known as the hydrolases?
D. 92 A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Aldolase

Which of the following characterizes Crigler-Najjar C. Amylase

syndrome? D. Lipase
A. Inability to transport bilirubin from the
sinusoidal membrane to the microsomal region To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase
B. Deficiency of the enzyme system required for belong?
conjugation of bilirubin A. Isomerases

C. Inability to transport bilirubin glucuronides to B. Ligases

the bile canaliculi C. Oxidoreductases

D. Severe liver cell damage accompanied by necrosis D. Transferases


Which test may be performed to assess the average
plasma glucose level that an individual maintained
during a previous 2- to 3-month period?
A. Plasma glucose
B. Two-hour postprandial glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance
D. Glycated hemoglobin
In which of the following sets of nematodes can each
organism cause a pneumonia-like syndrome in a person
exposed to heavy infection with any of the three
parasites?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura, or
Onchocerca volvulus
B. Enterobius vermicularis, Dracunculus medinensis,
or Trichuris trichiura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis, Wuchereria bancrofti,

What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield? or Angiostrongylus costaricensis

A. Glucose only D. Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, or

B. Galactose and glucose Strongyloides stercoralis

C. Maltose and glucose

D. Fructose and glucose In the collection and transport of stool specimens
for parasites, which parasitic stage is most

During chemotherapy for leukemia, which of the affected by the length of time from collection to

following analytes would most likely be elevated in examination?

the blood? A. Cysts

A. Uric acid B. Trophozoites

B. Urea C. Oocysts

C. Creatinine D. Helminth larvae

D. Ammonia
Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted

Which of the following red cell precursors is the on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results

last stage to undergo mitosis? in infection with:

A. Pronormoblast A. Clonorchis sinensis

B. Basophilic normoblast B. Fasciola hepatica

C. Polychromatophilic normoblast C. Heterophyes heterophyes

D. Orthochromatophilic normoblast D. Paragonimus westermani

The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is Which of the following can cause toxic shock

the: syndrome?

A. Myeloblast A. C. difficile and C. perfringens

B. Promyelocyte B. M. pneumoniae and M. tuberculosis

C. Myelocyte C. N. gonorrhoeae and E. coli

D. S. aureus and S. pyogenes
D. Metamyelocyte

Paragonimus westermani infection is acquired by: All the following antimicrobial agents work by

A. Drinking contaminated water inhibiting cell wall synthes is except:

B. Eating infected crustacea A. cephalosporins

B. chloramphenicol
C. Eating infected fish
D. Eating infected water chestnuts C. penicillin
D. vancomycin
What components may not be prepared if whole blood A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
is spun at 1-6C? B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs
A. Packed red cells C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs
B. Leukocyte-poor red cells D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae
C. Platelets

D. FFP Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to

be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a
One of these disease-causing organisms is killed by single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The
refrigeration of stored blood. Which one is it? correct identification is:
A. Cytomegalovirus A. Trichomonas tenax
B. Hepatitis B virus B. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar
C. Plasmodium vivax C. Entamoeba gingivalis
D. Treponema spirochete D. Entamoeba polecki

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted
sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)? sexually include:
A. Bacteroides fragilis A. Entamoeba gingivalis
B. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius B. Dientamoeba fragilis

C. Propionibacterium acnes C. Trichomonas vaginalis

D. Veillonella parvula D. Diphyllobothrium latum

The mycobacteria that produce a deep yellow or Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated
orange pigment both in the dark and light are: with an immune response and are thought to be formed
A. Photochromogens from the breakdown products of:
B. Scotochromogens A. Neutrophils

C. Nonchromogens B. Eosinophils

D. Rapid growers C. Monocytes

D. Lymphocytes
The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of
the following? Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be
A. Chickenpox reliably differentiated by the appearance of their
B. Hodgkin lymphoma eggs?
C. Burkitt lymphoma A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator americanus

D. Smallpox B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta

C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale

The examination of sputum may be necessary to D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola hepatica
diagnose infection with:
A. Paragonimus westermani A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a visible

B. Trichinella spiralis parabasal body and "falling leaf" motility in a

C. Wuchereria bancrofti direct saline mount of a diarrheal stool specimen is

D. Fasciola hepatica most probably

A. Balantidium coli

Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is B. Chilomastix mesnili

sometimes helpful in the recovery of: C. Giardia lamblia

D. Trichomonas hominis
Which of the following is the largest intestinal
Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective protozoa infecting humans?
for humans? A. Balantidium coli
A. Cysticercus larva B. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Embryonated egg C. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Filariform larva D. Giardia lamblia
D. Rhabditiform larva
Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for
Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused humans?
by A. Proglottid
A. Tiypanosoma brucei B. Filariform larva
B. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Rhabditiform larva

C. Leishmania braziliensis D. Embryonated ovum

D. Dracunculus medinensis
A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic
Which of the following is the vector for Babesia? meningoencephalitis is
A. Fleas A. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Lice B. Entamoeba coli
C. Ticks C. Entamoeba histolytica

D. Mosquitoes D. Naegleria fowleri

Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection Which species of Plasmodium may readily be
caused by identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are
A. Trypanosoma cruzi found in stained blood films?
B. Trichinella spiralis A. P. falciparum
C. Trichomonas vaginalis B. P. malariae
D. Schistosoma haematobium C. P. ovale
D. P. vivax
Which of the following nematode parasites is
acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected For which of the following diseases is close contact
pork? with an infected human host the most important
A. Strongyloides stercoralis mechanism of transmission?
B. Taenia saginata A. Schistosomiasis
C. Taenia solium B. Toxoplasmosis
D. Trichinella spiralis C. Trichinosis
D. Trichomoniasis

Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic

stages capable of causing relapses months or years This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12
after initial infection? deficiency, and individuals
A. P. falciparum with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more
B. P. ovale severe symptoms.

C. P. malariae A. Diphyllobothrium latum

D. P. cynomolgi B. Echinococcus granidosus

C. Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Taenia saginata Second most prevalent CSF protein:
A. Albumin
Elephantiasis is a complication associated with B. Prealbumin
which of the following? C. Transferrin
A. Cysticercosis D. IgG
B. Guinea worm
C. Hydatid cyst disease Assay for uric acid that requires the use of mercury
D. Filariae vapor lamp and quartz cuvet:
A. Colorimetric
Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal B. Enzymatic: UV
spine? C. Enzymatic: H2O2
A. S. haematobium D. None of these
B. S. japonicum
C. S. mansoni This is used to determine whether there is a
D. S. mekongi statistically significant difference between the
standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. Mean
Sent from Yahoo Mail for iPad B. Median
C. f-test
On Monday, June 19, 2017, 8:40 PM, Armeena Rosa
D. t-test
Garcia <armeenagarcia@ymail.com> wrote:

Convert 0.4 mg/dL urobilinogen to Ehrlich units.

POPCORN
A. 0.4

B. 4
It can be used in the treatment of burn patients to
C. 40
replace colloid pressure:
D. 400
A. Whole blood
B. Packed red blood cells
How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when
C. Cryoprecipitate
the WBC count is below 1.0 x 10 9th/L?
D. Albumin
A. 50

B. 100
45 seconds reading time:
C. 150
A. Glucose
D. 200
B. Ketone
C. Specific gravity
In an automated instrument, this parameter is
D. pH
calculated rather than directly measured:
A. RBC count
Normally, measurable amounts of this substance DO
B. WBC count
NOT appear in the urine:
C. Hemoglobin
A. Ketones
D. Hematocrit
B. Protein
C. Urobilinogen
The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an
D. All of these
acidic environment.
A. Anti-S A. Multiple myeloma
B. Anti-U B. Encephalitis
C. Anti-N C. Neurosyphilis
D. Anti-M D. Guillain-Barre disease

He invented the Cambridge microtome: When encountering a patient with a fistula, the
A. Minot phlebotomist should:
B. Adams A. Apply the tourniquet below the fistula
C. Trefall B. Use the other arm

D. Queckett C. Collect the blood from the fistula

D. Attach a syringe to the T-tube connector
It is a surgical connection between two structures.
It usually means a connection that is created Physician approval is required when collecting blood
between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or from:
loops of intestine. A. Patients with diabetes
A. Anastomosis B. Lower arm veins

B. Network C. Foot and leg veins

C. Matrix D. Pediatric patients

D. Reticulum
Sperm motility grading: "no forward progression"
Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC), which is __________ in A. 0
color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases which B. 1
should be made fresh immediately before use. C. 2
A. Red D. 3
B. Brown
C. Orange Positive control for Simmons Citrate test:
D. Pink A. E. coli
B. K. pneumoniae
Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to C. P. aeruginosa
differentiate: D. S. aureus
A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp. Positive for the cyanide nitroprusside test:
C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp. A. Uric acid crystals
D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp. B. Cystine

C. Tyrosine
Characteristically, species from the genus D. Leucine
Enterococcus are:
A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl In galactosuria:
B. Bile esculin positive A. Positive copper reduction and reagent strip
C. Relatively sensitive to penicillin glucose
D. Sodium hippurate negative B. Negative copper reduction and reagent strip
glucose
Oligoclonal banding in cerebrospinal fluid but not C. Positive copper reduction, negative reagent strip
in serum, except: glucose
D. Negative copper reduction, positive reagent strip
glucose The crystal associated with ethylene oxide poisoning
has which characteristic appearance:
Centrifugation time for microhematocrit: A. Envelope, pyramidal
A. 3 minutes B. Dumbbell
B. 5 minutes C. Coffin lid
C. 10 minutes D. Hexagonal
D. 30 minutes
A laboratory worker splashes concentrated HCl in his
Common among Asians: eyes. The best safety measure is to:
A. dce A. Wash the eye with dilute NaOH and call physician
B. dCe STAT
C. Dce B. Wash the eye with distilled water and call a
D. DCe physician STAT

C. Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a

The presence of distinct "drumstick" appendage on
the nucleus of a mature neutrophil indicates:
A. Reaction to a toxic material
B. Reaction to bacteria in the blood or tissues
C. A genetic defect in nuclear maturation
D. The presence of a second X chromosome (female
sex)
physician STAT
D. Call the physician and wait for his advice.
Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates)
that give colonies of particular organisms
distinctive characteristics are called:
A. Enrichment media.
B. Differential media.

High levels of ketones are usually accompanied by C. Supportive media.

marked: D. Selective media.
A. Albuminuria
B. Glycosuria Colorless dumbbell crystals in an alkaline urine:

C. Cylindruria A. Calcium phosphate

D. Pyuria B. Calcium carbonate

C. Triple phosphate
Decreased production of erythropoietin by the D. Ammonium biurate
damaged kidney:
A. Anemia of chronic disease Absence of Philadelphia chromosome in patients with
B. Anemia of renal insufficiency CML:

C. Anemia in liver disease A. Better prognosis of the disease

D. Anemia in endocrine disease B. Poor prognosis of the disease

C. It varies
It reflects decreased marrow production due to D. No effect
smaller tissue oxygen requirement and subsequent
reduced erythropoietin production: Effect of decreased temperature to fluorescence:
A. Anemia of chronic disorders A. No effect
B. Anemia of renal insufficiency B. Variable
C. Anemia in endocrine disease C. Decreased fluorescence

D. Anemia in liver disease D. Increased fluorescence

 In automated cell counters based on electrical
Mistaken as Blastomyces in sputum: impedance, these parameters are directly measured:
A. Eosinophil A. WBC and RBC
B. Lymphocyte B. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin
C. Myelin globules C. WBC and hemoglobin
D. Pigmented cells D. RBC only

What could be the possible interpretation? A component of acetest tablet:

HBsAg: negative A. Copper sulfate
Anti-HBc: positive B. Sodium hydroxide
Anti-HBs: positive C. Lactose
A. Recovering from acute HBV infection D. Sodium carbonate
B. Immune because of natural infection

C. Immune because of hepatitis B vaccination All are components of CLINITEST tablet, except:
D. Chronically infected A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium hydroxide
For albumin assay, absorbance at 630 nm is less C. Lactose
likely to be affected by bilirubin or hemoglbin in D. Sodium carbonate
the sample. Which dye gives a much greater
absorbance change at 630 nm than it would at 500 Hyperproteinemic or hyperlipidemic specimen:
nm? A. Hyponatremia
A. HABA (Hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid) B. Hypernatremia
B. BCG (Bromcresol green) C. Pseudohyponatremia

D. Pseudohypernatremia
Minor lipoproteins:
A. LpX and HDL Common among Ashkenazi Jews:
B. HDL and LDL A. Parahemophilia
C. VLDL and chylomicrons B. Hemophilia A
D. IDL and Lp(a) C. Hemophilia B
D. Hemophilia C
Dilution for WBC count in automated cell counters:
A. 1: 10,000 A result of 4.5 Ehrlich unit is equivalent to:
B. 1: 100 A. 0.45 mg/dL
C. 1: 50,000 B. 4.5 mg/dL
D. 1: 500
C. 45 mg/dL
D. 450 mg/dL
Disorders involving the macrophages and monocytes,
except: To evaluate urine color and clarity:
A. Gaucher A. Check the urine with a white background
B. Pelger-Huet
B. Check the urine with a newsprint
C. Niemann-Pick C. Check the urine with a black background
D. Alder-Reilly D. Check the urine with a polarizing light
What is the the most widely used sedimentation A. 405 grams
technique? B. 416 grams
Zeibig: Formalin–ethyl acetate sedimentation C. 429 grams
procedure. D. 583 grams

Diluents for synovial fluid cell count: Enzyme with moderate specificity for the heart,
1. Normal saline (0.9%) with methylene blue skeletal muscles, brain:
2. Hyptonic saline (0.3%) CK
3. Saline with saponin
4. Acetic acid Enzyme with moderate specificity for the liver,
A. 1 and 3 heart, skeletal muscles:
B. 2 and 4 AST
C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 What is the substrate used in the classic Cherry-

Crandall method for lipase determination?
Not included in the Code of Ethics: Olive oil
A. Reliability
B. Integrity
Alcohol level: Decreased inhibitions, loss of
C. Honesty
critical judgment, memory impairment, diminished
D. Humility
reaction time:
A. 0.09 – 0.25
WBC casts without bacteria:
B. 0.18 – 0.30
A. Cystitis
C. 0.27 – 0.40
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. 0.35 – 0.50
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute interstitial nephritis
Decreased aldosterone:
A. High serum sodium and potassium
DONOR CRITERIA FOR PLASMAPHERESIS B. Low serum sodium and potassium
Frequent plasma donors have a total serum protein of C. Low serum sodium, high serum potassium
at least ___ g/dL:
D. High serum sodium, low serum potassium
A. 2 g/dL
B. 3 g/dL
A major advantage of POCT is:
C. 6 g/dL
A. Faster turnaround time
D. 10 g/dL
B. Lower cost
C. Ease of use
Rouleaux formation can be observed in all of the
D. Both A and B
following, EXCEPT:
A. Reverse ABO typing
The National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP)
B. Autologous control
has established cutoffs for total cholesterol and
C. AHG phase
LDL cholesterol to define persons at high risk for
D. None of these coronary heart disease later in life. What is the
cutoff for a desirable LDL cholesterol
A unit containing 405 mL blood should weigh: concentration?
(answer, and give us the factor)
A. <130 mg/dL 3. Bacterial and non-bacterial organisms

B. <160 mg/dL A. 1 and 2

C. <200 mg/dL B. 1 and 3

D. >130 mg/dL C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ninety percent (90%) of the carbon

dioxide present in the blood is in the form of: CYTOKINES are produced by many cell populations
A. Bicarbonate ions* (endothelial cells, fibroblasts, epithelial cells,

B. Carbonate and others), they are MAINLY THE PRODUCTS OF:

C. Dissolved CO2. A. B cells

D. Carbonic acid B. Macrophages

C. B cells and macrophages

Calculation of the anion gap is useful for quality D. T cells and macrophages

control for:
A. Calcium Susceptibility to Autoimmune Diseases is usually
B. Tests in the electrolyte profile (sodium, linked to:
potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate)* A. HLA Class I alleles

C. Phosphorus B. HLA Class II alleles

D. Magnesium C. HLA Class III alleles

D. NOTA
All are variables needed in the Cockroft and Gault
formula except: All of the following are metallic mordants, except:
A. Age A. Iron
B. Body weight in kilograms B. Iodine
C. Serum creatinine C. Alum
D. Urine creatinine D. Copper

Proportional systematic error Macrocytes sediment ____ than microcytes

A. t test A. Faster
B. f test B. Slower
C. Y intercept C. Same
D. Slope D. No effect

When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud's dextrose Cortisol level in PM is ______ than in AM

agar, which of the following should not be in the (morning).
medium? A. Higher
A. Trimethoprim B. Lower
B. Cycloheximide C. Same
C. Vancomycin D. Variable
D. Aminoglycoside PEAK 8 am to 9 am
TROUGH (low) 10 pm to 11 pm
Broad-spectrum antibiotics act against:
1. Gram-negative bacteria Urine microscopic examination reveals 4+ bacteria,
2. Gram-positive bacteria but nitrite reagent pad is negative. Culture reveals
growth of E.coli. What is the most probable reason
for the negative nitirite result? The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:
A. E. coli lacks the reductase enzyme a. Using glass tubes only, never plastic
B. Number of bacteria not enough to produce a (+) b. Following thorough mixing of the specimen
nitrite c. After addition of salicylic acid
C. Further reduction of nitrite to nitrogen d. After the specimen cools to room temperature
D. Improperly preserved urine sample
Which of the following locations is not a site of
In the acetamide test, the production of _____ extramedullary hematopoiesis?
results in an alkaline pH, A. Bone marrow
causing the medium to change color from green to B. Liver
royal blue. C. Spleen
A. Acetamide D. Thymus
B. Citrate
C. Urea Laboratory professionals are at special risk for
D. Ammonia disease transmission. The majority of cases of
laboratory-related infections are associated with:
Effect of overanticoagulation on Hemoglobin A. Contamination of abraded skin
(Cyanmethb method) determination: B. Puncture of wounds
A. Increased C. Ingestion of infectious material
B. Decreased D. Infectious areosols
C. No effect E. Bite of a laboratory test animal
D. Variable
Decreased ESR at hematocrit but NOT Hb Association with AIDS is most characteristic of:
A. M. avium-intracellulare
Roundworn that inhabits the small intestines and B. M. marinum
usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in C. M. bovis
stool: D. M. xenopi
A. A. lumbricoides
B. N. americanus Anemia characterized by accumulation of iron in the
C. T. spiralis mitochondria of the eythroid precursors due to a
D. S. stercoralis defect in HEME synthesis:
A. Iron deficiency anemia
Reagent used in APT test: B. Sideroblastic anemia
A. Sulfuric acid C. Aplastic anemia
B. Hydrochloric acid D. Pure red cell aplasia
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Sodium hydroxide The blood bank reports that samples of banked blood
stored at refrigerator temperature have become
Possible problem if sperm clumping was observed: contaminated with a nonfermentative gram-negative
A. Sperm vitality bacillus. The organisms known to be implicated in
B. Lack of support medium such cases are:
C. Male antisperm antibodies A. Pseudomonas fluorescens and Pseudomonas putida

D. Female antisperm antibodies B. Alcaligenes faecalis and Alcalignes odorans

C. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus spp anitratus and B. Decreased serum iron and increased TIBC *
lwoffi C. Increased serum iron and decreased TIBC
D. Pseudomonas cepacia and Pseudomonas stutzeri D. Increased serum iron and increased TIBC

First morning urine, except: KEY WORD: CALBREATH

A. Pregnancy test The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) test is
B. Evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria performed to assess the blood level of:
C. Nitrate determination A. Ferritin
D. Urobilinogen determination B. Hemopexin
C. Iron
A chemical that confirms phosphate stones: D. Transferrin
A. Sodium cyanide
B. Mercuric iodide KEY WORD: CALBREATH
C. Ammonium molybdate Which protein is produced in decreased amount in
D. Neocuproine Wilson's disease?
A. Albumin
Colorless dumbbell and spherical crystals in an B. Ceruloplasmin
alkaline urine: C. Haptoglobin
A. Ammonium biurate D. Hemopexin
B. Calcium carbonate

C. Triple phosphate KEY WORD: CALBREATH

D. Amorphous phosphate Which electrolyte plays a major role in the
regulation of water balance in the body?
All laboratory procedures and policies must be A. Chloride
reviewed and documented at least: B. Phosphorus
a. Monthly or when authorized changes are made C. Potassium
b. Annually or when authorized changes are made D. Sodium

c. Whenever the personnel make changes in procedure

d. Quarterly or when authorized changes are made KEY WORD: CALBREATH
The androgen that is the most biologically active
Indirect cost or overhead: is:
1. Reagents, consumables A. Androstenedione
2. Technologists' time, MT labor cost B. Androsterone
3. QC necessary to ensure test accuracy C. Dehydroepiandrosterone
4. Maintenance and repairs to equipment D. Testosterone
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 KEY WORD: CALBREATH
C. 1, 2 and 4 The physiologically active from of calcium is:
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. Complexed
B. Ionized
KEY WORD: CALBREATH C. Lipid-bound
Which of the following characterize iron-deficiency D. Protein-bound
anemia?
A. Decreased serum iron and decreased TIBC KEY WORD: CALBREATH
Which trace metal accumulates in Wilson's disease?
A. Cobalt
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Zinc
KEY WORD: CALBREATH
An integral part of the transmission of nerve
impulses:
A. Iron
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
Decreased neutral α-glucosidase in seminal fluid
indicates disorder involving the:
A. Testes
B. Epididymis
C. Bulbourethral gland
D. Urethra
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KEYWORD: HASHBROWNS (continuation)
1051. The chief extracellular anions are chloride
and bicarbonate, and there is a RECIPROCAL
relationship between them: A DECREASE IN THE AMOUNT
OF ONE PRODUCES AN INCREASE IN THE AMOUNT OF THE
OTHER.
1052. Serum calcium and phosphorus generally
maintain a reciprocal relationship.
a. Primary hyperparathyroidism or some cases of
malignancy: INCREASED CALCIUM, DECREASED PHOSPHATE
b. BUT if calcium increase is due to renal failure,
phosphate values also rise; both calcium and
phosphate values are elevated in cases of multiple
myeloma and vitamin D overdose, as well as in cases
of cancers that metastasize to bone.
1053. Parathyroid effect on serum calcium: (1) Bone,
(2) Kidney and (3) Intestines
a. Bone: Resorption of calcium and phosphate
b. Kidney: Direct enhancement of calcium and
magnesium tubular reabsorption; direct blockage of
phosphate tubular reabsorption; increased vitamin D
metabolite formation
c. Intestine: Stimulation of vitamin D metabolite
synthesis – leads to enhanced gastrointestinal
uptake of calcium
1054. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
a. This common disorder can present in many ways:
infertility, hirsutism, chronic anovulation, glucose
intolerance, hyperlipidemia or dyslipidemia, and
hypertension.
b. Investigations for this disorder involve
estimation of free testosterone, SHBG, FSH, LH,
fasting glucose, insulin, and lipid levels.
c. Ovarian ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in many
patients (about 30% of patients do not have ovarian
cysts).
d. Most patients with this disorder are overweight;
however, patients with polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS) of eastern Asian or South American descent
are of normal weight.
1055. HIRSUTISM is abnormal, abundant, androgen-
sensitive terminal hair growth in areas in which
terminal hair follicles are sparsely distributed or
not normally found in women. Most commonly,
hirsutism is idiopathic in etiology (60% of cases),
with PCOS the next most common cause (35%).
1056. ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS PATTERN
a. MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION: Low pO2 and metabolic
acidosis.
The drop in PO2 is caused by diminished circulation
times – that is, the rate of oxygenation of venous
blood is reduced. The acidosis is caused by low
perfusion of oxygenated blood due to compromised
cardiac output.
b. In PULMONARY EMPBOLISM: Low pO2 and metabolic
acidosis.
The low pO2 is caused by direct blockage of blood
flow into the pulmonary circuit. The acidosis is
caused by low oxygen saturation in the lungs with
subsequent diminished oxygen delivery to tissues.
c. Both conditions, MI and PE, result in tissue
hypoxia.
1057. Urine specimens with high specific gravity
greater than the refractometer or urinometer scale
can be diluted and retested.
a. Only the decimal portion of the observed SG is
multiplied by the dilution factor.
b. For example, a specimen diluted 1:2 with a
reading of 1.025 would have an actual specific
gravity of 1.050.
c. For example, a specimen diluted 1:5 with a
reading of 1.008 would have an actual specific
gravity of 1.040
1058. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180
mg/dL.
1059. Positive result for ketone (sodium
nitroprusside) pad is PURPLE.
1060. Major ketone body in urine is BHA.
1061. Ketone not detected with sodium nitroprusside
reagent pad is BHA.
1062. Largest cell in the urine sediment is SQUAMOUS
EPITHELIAL CELL.
1063. Lead poisoning – elevated ALA, protoporphyrin
1064. Normal value for CSF protein is 15 to 45
mg/dL.
1065. Gastric Acidity:
a. Parietal cells – produces HCl and intrinsic
factor
b. Chief cells – produces pepsinogen that is
activated by HCl to pepsin
c. Specialized G cells – produces gastrin that
stimulates parietal cells to produce HCl.
1066. Bile solubility test (+S. pneumoniae)
a. Positive: Colony disintegrates; an imprint of the
lysed colony may remain in the zone
b. Negative: Intact colonies
1067. Bile esculin test (+Group D)
a. Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar
slant
b. Negative: no blackening. no growth
1068. Group A / S. pyogenes - Large zone of beta
hemolysis on BAP
1069. Group B / S. agalactiae – Narrow zone of beta
hemolysis on BAP
1070. DCIS and LCIS Breast Cancer STAGE 0
a. DCIS – ductal carcinoma in situ
b. LCIS – lobular carcinoma in situ
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HASHBROWNS
1.Double embedding: Infiltrated with CELLOIDIN then
embedded with PARAFFIN.
2. Flotation waterbath: 45 to 50 C
3. To remove formalin pigments: Picric acid
4. To remove mercurial deposits: Iodine
5. Explosive when dry: Picric acid
6. Function of alum in hematoxylin: Mordant
7. Primary importance of Frozen Sections: RAPID
DIAGNOSIS
8. Enzyme histochemistry: Frozen section
9. Second best choice for routine cytologic
examination after Papanicolau: Phase contrast
microscopy
10. NOT SUITABLE for kidney structures: Bouin's
11. Cell death due to ischemia (loss of blood
supply) is known as infarction, and is manifested by
caharacteristic histologic appearance: COAGULATION
NECROSIS
12. Pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea:
Clostridium difficile
13. Corynebacterium amycolatum: Most frequently
recovered Corynebacterium species from human
clinical material. It is part of the normal skin
microbiota.
14. Primary fungal pathogen in HIV patients: Candida
albicans.
15. Doublewalled, wrinkled cyst form: Acanthamoeba
castellanii
16. Intracellular form of blood and tissue
flagellates: leishmanial form
17. Normal stool pH: pH 7 to 8
18. Stool pH associated with CHO disorders: pH 5.5
or less
19. Microhematocrit: 10,000 g for 5 minutes
20. Standing plasma test: creamy layer
(chylomicrons); turbid (VLDL)
21. Microanatomical fixatives should never contain
osmic acid/osmium tetroxide because it inhibits
hematoxylin.
22. Nuclear fixatives should contain glacial acetic
acid due to its affinity for nuclear chromatin.
23. Cytoplasmic fixatives (Flemming's without HAc,
Regaud's, Orth's, Helly's and formalin with post-
chroming). They should never contain Glacial Acetic
Acid because it destroys the mitochondria and Golgi
bodies.
24. Manual paraffin wax infiltration and embedding:
At least four (4) changes of wax are required at 15
minutes interval to ensure complete removal of the
clearing agent from tissue. The specimen is then
immersed in another fresh solution of melted
paraffin for approximately 3 hours to ensure
complete embedding or casting of tissue.
25. Cambridge/Rocking microtome: invented by
Paldwell Treffall.
26. Bond between Best carmine and glycogen:
Coulombic attraction/electrostatic bonds, hydrogen
bonds
27. Routine H and E: Regressive staining, it
involves a differentiation step
28. Stains for the glomerular basement membrane:
PAS, Azocarmine stain
29. Postmortem clotting: immediately after death,
rubbery consistency
30. Antemortem thrombi: friable, characterized by
fibrin precipitation
31. Leadership: DIRECTING
32. COMPONENTS OF FIBRIN GLUE: cryoprecipitate
(fibrinogen) and topical thrombin
33. Donor deferral, measles (rubeola) vaccination: 2
weeks
34. Donor deferral, German measles (Rubella)
vaccination: 4 weeks
35. When stained with Sternheimer-Malbin stain,
GLITTER CELLS stain LIGHT BLUE as opposed to the
VIOLET COLOR usually seen with NEUTROPHILS.
35. After episodes of hemoglobinuria, yellow-brown
granules may be seen in renal tubular epithelial
cells and casts or free-floating in the urine
sediment. To confirm that these granules are
hemosiderin, the Prussian blue stain for iron is
used and stains the hemosiderin granules a blue
color. (RTE cells with HEMOSIDERIN).
36. Second most prevalent protein in CSF: Prealbumin
(transthyretin)
37. MECONIUM, which is usually defined as a
newborn’s first bowel movement, is formed in the
intestine from fetal intestinal secretions and
swallowed amniotic fluid. It is a dark green, mucus-
like material. It may be present in the amniotic
fluid as a result of fetal distress.
38. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an
arm with a cannula (temporary dialysis access
device) or fistula (a permanent surgical fusion of a
vein and an artery).
39. Adverse reaction of Aminoglycosides:
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
40. TETANY: neuromotor irritability accompanied by
muscular twitching and eventual convulsions;
generally due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia)
41. Reagent for the APT test: 1% NaOH
42. APT test: fetal blood, pink solution
43. APT test: maternal blood, yellow-brown
supernatant
44. Florence test: test for choline
Iodine, KI/ dark brown rhombic crystals
45. Barbiero's test: test for spermine
Picric acid, TCA/ yellow leafshaped crystals,
needles
46. Blondheim's test: test to differentiate
hemoglobin from myoglobin, ammonium sulfate will
precipitate hemoglobin
47. Nanometer is also millimicron
48. Embedding medium for EM is Plastic
49. Best vital stain is neutral red
50. Vital stain for mitochondria is Janus Green
51. Ferning: Early pregnancy
52. Pap's consists of 3 stains: Harris hematoxylin,
OG 6 and EA
53. Total renal BLOOD flow is 1200 mL/min
54. Total renal PLASMA flow is 600 to 700 mL/min
55. Most potent estrogen is Estradiol
56. Most important androgen in terms of potency and
amount secreted is testosterone (Marshall)
57. Conn syndrome: primary aldosteronism
58. Hirsutism: male-pattern hair growth in women;
most common cause is PCOS (polycystic ovary
syndrome, Marshall)
59. Primary male hypogonadism
Decreased testosterone
Increased LH and FSH
60. Secondary male hypogonadism
Decreased testosterone
Decreased LH and FSH
61. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient
has eaten or become physically active. This is a
good time to draw blood specimens because the body
is at rest and food has not been ingested during the
night.
62. ACID: substance than can yield a hydrogen ion or
hydronium ion when dissolved in water
63. BASE: substance than can yield hydroxyl ions
(OH-)
64. COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES: properties of osmotic
pressure, freezing point, boiling point and vapor
pressure
65. t-test: compare accuracy, mean (TAM)
66. f-test: compare precision, SD (SPF)
67. Random error: 1:2SD, 1:3SD, R:4S (ODD NUMBERS)
68. Systematic error: 2:2SD, 4:1SD, 10:x (EVEN
NUMBERS)
69. ZERO-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is dependent
on enzyme concentration only
70. FIRST-ORDER KINETICS: reaction rate is directly
proportional to substrate concentration
71. Arteriosclerosis: thickening or hardening of the
walls of arteries
72. Atherosclerosis: accumulation of lipid in the
veins and arteries
73. Azotemia: elevated urea in blood
74. Addison’s disease: deficiency of adrenocortical
hormones
75. Conn’s syndrome: aldosterone-secreting adrenal
adenoma
76. Cushing’s syndrome: excessive production of
glucocorticoids (cortisol) by adrenal cortex
77. Phaeochromocytoma: tumors of the adrenal medulla
or symphatetic ganglia that produce and release
large quantities of catecholamines
78. Amenorrhea: cessation of menstruation
79. Cirrhosis: Greek work YELLOW; irreversible
scarring process by which normal liver architecture
is transformed into abnormal nodular architecture
80. Gilbert’s syndrome: hereditary disorder in which
there is DECREASED BILIRUBIN TRANSPORT into the
hepatocytes.
81. Crigler-Najjar syndrome: hereditary DEFICIENCY
of the UDPG-TRANSFERASE ENZYME
82. Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with
increased plasma conjugated bilirubin, inborn error
of metabolism
83. Rotor syndrome, possibly of viral origin, where
there is also a block in the excretion of conjugated
bilirubin but without liver pigmentation
84. Wilson’s disease is a defect of copper transport
from the liver resulting in overload of copper in
liver and brain
85. Menkes disease is an X-linked recessive disorder
in which defective transport of copper from mucosal
cells results in copper deficiency.
86. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: chronic autoimmune
thyroiditis; it is the most common cause of primary
hypothyroidism
87. Graves’ disease: diffuse toxic goiter
88. Kwashiorkor: acute protein calories malnutrition
89. Marasmus: caused by caloric insufficiency
without protein insufficiency so that the serum
albumin level remains normal; there is considerable
loss of body weight
90. Leydig cells: cells of the testicles that
produce testosterone
91. CD34: cell membrane marker of stem cells
92. GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing
hemoglobin degradation products such as
methemoglobin: ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS
93. ADSORPTION: Providing an antibody with its
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so
that the antibody will attach to the antigen,
thereby removing the antibody from the serum
94. ELUTION: process whereby cells that are coated
with antibody are treated in such a manner as to
disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody
95. ACID PHOSPHATASE (ACP) and ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
(ALP): red blood cell enzyme used as an
identification marker in paternity testing and
criminal investigation (Harmening)
96. AMORPH: gene that does not appear to produce a
detectable antigen; a silent gene
97. ANASTOMOSIS: connection between two blood
vessels, either direct or through connecting
channels
98. ANTI-A1 LECTIN: DOLICHOS BIFLORUS
99. ANTI-B LECTIN: BANDEIRAEA SIMPLICIFOLIA
100. ANTI-H LECTIN: ULEX EUROPAEUS
101. ANTI-M LECTIN: IBERIS AMARA
102. ANTI-N LECTIN: VICIA GRAMINEA
103. DOSAGE: phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts
more strongly with a red blood cell carrying a
double dose (homozygous inheritance of the
appropriate gene) than with a red blood cell
carrying a single dose (heterozygous inheritance) of
an antigen
104. EPITOPE: portion of the antigen molecule that
is directly involved in the interaction with the
antibody; the ANTIGENIC DETERMINANT
105. PRIVATE ANTIGEN: antigenic characteristic of
the red blood cell membrane that is unique to an
individual or a related family of individuals and
therefore is not commonly found on all cells
(usually less than 1% of the population)
106. PUBLIC ANTIGEN: antigen characteristic of the
red blood cell membrane found commonly among
individuals, usually more than 98% of the population
107. Apoptosis: programmed cell death
108. Ecchymosis: small hemorrhagic spot, LARGER THAN
PETECHIA, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a
rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also
known as bruise
109. Koilonychia: fingernails are thin, flattened
and concave; associated with iron deficiency anemia
110. Leptocyte: thin, flat red cell with hemoglobin
at periphery and increased central pallor;
hypochromic cell
111. Reed-Sternberg cell: presence is definitive
histologic diagnosis of HODGKIN’S DISEASE
112. Alder-Reilly anomaly: leukocytes of the
myelocytic series, and sometimes all leukocytes
contain coarse azurophilic mucopolysccharide
granules
113. Auer rod: needle-shaped or round inclusion in
the cytoplasm of myeloblasts and promyelocytes;
composed of condensed primary granules
114. Chediak-Higashi anomaly: congenital, autosomal
recessive disorder, characterized by partial
albinism, photophobia and the presence of abnormally
large blue granules in leukocytes
115. May-Hegglin anomaly: autosomal dominant
inherited blood cell disorder characterized by
thrombocytopenia and granules containing cytoplasmic
inclusions similar to Dohle bodies
116. Sezary syndrome: cutaneous T CELL LYMPHOMA
characterized by exfoliative erythroderma,
peripheral lymphadenopathy and Sezary cells present
in the skin, lymph nodes and peripheral blood
117. Gaucher’s disease: rare disorder of fat
metabolism caused by deficiency of
glucocerebrosidase
118. Bernard-Soulier syndrome: mutations to platelet
GP IB or GP IX, defect of platelet adhesion
119. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia: mutations to
platelet GP IIb or IIIa; defect of fibrinogen-
dependent platelet aggregation
120. Lactoferrin: protein produced by the neutrophis
and stored in the secondary granules that is able
bind iron
161. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL
162. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system
is CARBON DIOXIDE.
163. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a
test through analysis in the laboratory to the
charting of the report.
164. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a
description of their particular hazard, such as
POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.
165. Information contained in the Material Safety
Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical
and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion
potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and
methods for safe handling.
166. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION.
The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE
URINE MENISCUS.
167. Studies have shown that although everyone who
eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain
genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.
168. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.
169. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL
TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute
renal failure.
170. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF
THE COVERSLIP.
171. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning:
MONOHYDRATE CAOX
172. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY
APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)
173. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for
counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are
immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to
charging the chamber.
174. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA)
provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM
VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).
175. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected
in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected
can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid
and cells and are discarded.
176. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water
and solutes in the large intestine associated with
MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.
177. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of
water and electrolytes into the large intestine
caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.
178. Plasmapheresis donor, total protein at least 6
g/dL.
179. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the
plasma or additive solution of the blood component
during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of
packed red blood cells may put patient populations
such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic,
or renal dysfunction at risk of developing
hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to
massive transfusion appear to be related to the
patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels,
and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.
180. Significant Antibody titer in HDN:
HARMENING
4th edition: significant is 32
5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
6th edition: critical titer is 16 — with Christian
Cammayo and Shy Valbuena.
181. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS
RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS
182. MEAN: average value
183. MODE: most frequently occurring value
184. MEDIAN: middle value within range
185. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept
186. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE
187. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that
are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with
smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM
188. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors
with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered
UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through
surgery).
189. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either
Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response
(%RR)
190. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts
of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER.
191. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal
192. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by
distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified
by commercial product, or can be disposed of by
licensed waste hauler.
193. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK:
represent the second X chromosome in females and may
be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The
number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the
number of X chromosomes present in a cell.
194. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum
containing RNA and may represent localized failure
of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in
infections, poisoning, burns and following
chemotherapy.
195. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain
several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray
staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes
and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be
present singly, or there may be several in one cell.
These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES.
196. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and
decreases as the temperature lowers.
197. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be
confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally
a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it
is positioned on top of the RBC.
198. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results
199. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY
200. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100%
because less concentrated solutions will produce
lysis of cells.
201. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s
solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic
acids.
202. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism
to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase
movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is
also used to accelerate staining, decalcification,
immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.
* The processing time depends on the thickness and
density of the specimen. Reagents used for microwave
processing include ethanol, isopropanol and
proprietary mixtures of alcohol, and paraffin.
Graded concentration of solutions is not required.
Clearing agents are not necessary because the
temperature of the final paraffin step facilitates
evaporation of the alcohols from the tissue. Xylene
and formalin are not used in this process, which
eliminates toxic fumes and carcinogens.
* Disadvantages of the system include the fact that
the process is labor intensive because the solutions
are manually manipulated, temperatures must be
maintained between 70 and 85°C, and the size of
tissue sample is critical (2 mm). Also the cost of
laboratory-grade microwaves may be prohibitive, and
proper use of the microwave oven requires careful
calibration and monitoring.
203. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE
PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE
crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER.
Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh
solution.
204. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long,
multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their
contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under
voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY
205. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is
composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to
one another at structures called intercalated discs
that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is
involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED,
INVOLUNTARY
206. Smooth muscle consists of collections of
fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow,
involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
207. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the
Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic
tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.
208. Three (3) major changes that are observed in
the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation
and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of
the nucleus).
209. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION:
CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR
NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.
210. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and
may be obtained by:
* Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method
* Surgical biopsy
* Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE
(small object used to remove circular section of
tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying
marrow is obtained)
ISBB
211. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT
SERUM: anti-M
212. Most common cause of transfusion reactions:
CLERICAL ERRORS
213. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE
UNIT
214. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE
UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial
growth
215. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of
transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS
216. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days
217. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be
performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire
218. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering,
centrifugation and washing
219. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs
220. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE
221. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED
for: NEWBORNS with severe infections
222. Test performed on blood that will be transfused
to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S
223. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation
between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2
224. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA
225. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement
pathway: IgM and IgG
226. Primary immune response: IgM
227. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG
228. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release
histamine: IgE
229. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN
230. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born
to HIV-positive mothers: PCR
231. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection:
HBsAg
232. First antibody detected in serum after
infection with HBV: anti-HBc
233. Blood products are tested for which virus
before being transfused to newborns: CMV
234. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic
active hepatitis
235. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary
bladder cancer
HEMATOLOGY
236. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable
of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
237. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic
series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
238. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules:
PROMYELOCYTE
239. Appearance of secondary/specific granules:
MYELOCYTE
240. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable
of mitosis: MYELOCYTE
241. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to
NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND
242. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in
adult: ILIAC CREST
243. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate
counting of: RETICULOCYTES
244. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions
without destroying the cell: SPLEEN
245. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
246. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC,
NORMOCHROMIC
247. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia:
MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC
248. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
249. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY
250. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES
251. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency
252. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes
and nucleated RBCs
253. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia:
CHLORAMPHENICOL
254. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC,
NORMOCHROMIC
255. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS
256. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs
257. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute
promyelocytic leukemia
258. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE
MYELOMA: ROULEAUX
259. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE
260. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia
261. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA)
262. PT and APTT result in patient with
polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED
263. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM:
ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN
264. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
PHOSPHOLIPID
265. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE
HISTOPATH
266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID
DIAGNOSIS
267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE
OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as
Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
ESPECIALLY SKIN
275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
containing tissues
276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
and other bacteria
277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
biopsies
279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
structures, lipid and mucus
280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
SEVENTEEN
281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
URGENT BIOPSIES
282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
and nuclear proteins
283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
decalcifying agent
284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
tissues at the same time
285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
sensitive method for determining the extent of
decalcification
286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON
(PLASTIC MEDIUM)
287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING
288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately
6-10C lower than the mp of wax
289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,
AZOCARMINE
293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,
CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as
possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,
horse, guinea pig and others
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does
not exceed: 150 mg
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180
mg/dL
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND
SAFRANIN
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:
PYELONEPHRITIS
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy
Proteinuria >4 g/day)
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:
CALCIUM OXALATE
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium
phosphate
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial
endotoxin
312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod
mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the
fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal
deficiency
317. Most common cause of male infertility:
VARICOCELE
318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s
stain
319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
HISTOPATH
266. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID
DIAGNOSIS
267. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
268. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
269. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE
OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
270. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as
Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
271. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for
TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
272. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE
TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
273. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM,
BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
274. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES
ESPECIALLY SKIN
275. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN,
MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-
containing tissues
276. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative
process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia
and other bacteria
277. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
278. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary
biopsies
279. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY
structures, lipid and mucus
280. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C.
SEVENTEEN
281. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND
URGENT BIOPSIES
282. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides
and nuclear proteins
283. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest
decalcifying agent
284. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens
tissues at the same time
285. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most
sensitive method for determining the extent of
decalcification
286. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON
(PLASTIC MEDIUM)
287. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING
288. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately
6-10C lower than the mp of wax
289. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
290. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
291. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
292. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS,
AZOCARMINE
293. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE,
CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
294. Mountant refractive index should be as close as
possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
295. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used
animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep,
horse, guinea pig and others
296. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
297. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
298. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does
not exceed: 150 mg
299. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180
mg/dL
300. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin:
ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
301. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND
SAFRANIN
302. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates
303. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE
GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
304. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts:
PYELONEPHRITIS
305. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin
hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large
amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID
306. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells
307. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy
Proteinuria >4 g/day)
308. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones:
CALCIUM OXALATE
309. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium
phosphate
310. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
311. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial
endotoxin
312. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod
mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
313. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
314. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
315. BEST TEST for determining the status of the
fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
316. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal
deficiency
317. Most common cause of male infertility:
VARICOCELE
318. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s
stain
319. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
320. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in:
ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
CM: 4th Edition Strasinger
CEREBROSPINAL FLUID (CSF)
386. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every
hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the
arachnoid villi
387. CSF Total volume in adult:
6th edition: 90 to 150 mL
4th edition: 140 to 170 mL
388. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL
389. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL
390. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL
391. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections
392. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50
WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive
lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS
or other degenerating neurologic disorders
393. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic
infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES
IMMITIS
394. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent
that of plasma glucose
395. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL
396. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to
18 mg/dL
SEMINAL FLUID
397. Liquefaction within 30 to 60 minutes
398. Volume 2 to 5 mL
399. pH 7.2 to 8
400. Sperm morphology: at least 200 sperms should be
evaluated
401. Sperm viability, eosin-nigrosin stain, counting
number of dead cells in 100 sperms
402. Motility is evaluate in approximately 20 high-
power fields
403. Sperm concentration 20 M to 160 M per mL
404. Sperm count ≥ 40 M per ejaculate*
405. Most common dilution is 1:20 prepared using a
MECHANICAL (positive-displacement) rather than a
Thoma pipette
406. Minimum motility of 50% with a rating of 2.0
after 1 hour is considered normal
407. Fructose ≥ 13 umol per ejaculate
408. Specimens for fructose should be tested within
2 hours or FROZEN to prevent fructolysis
409. RAPE, presence of sperm: (1) enhancing specimen
with XYLENE and examining under PHASE MICROSCOPY (2)
ACP (3) seminal glycoprotein p30 (prostatic
specific antigen [PSA]), which is present even in
the absence of sperm (4) ABO, DNA
410. Motile sperm can be detected for up to 24 hours
after intercourse, whereas nonmotile sperm can
persist for 3 days. As the sperm die off, only the
heads remain and may be present for 7 days after
intercourse.
SYNOVIAL FLUID
411. Volume less than 3.5 mL
412. Normal: clear and pale yellow
413. Able to form 4 to 6 cm string
414. Less than 2,000 RBCs/uL
415. Less than 200 WBCs/uL
416. Glucose less than 10 mg/dL lower than the blood
glucose
SEROUS FLUID: TRANSUDATES AND EXUDATES
417. Most reliable differentiation: Fluid-to-blood
ratios for protein and LD
418. WBC counts greater than 1,000/uL and RBC counts
greater than 100,000/uL are indicative of an exudate
PLEURAL FLUID
419. Pleural fluid cholesterol greater than 60 mg/dL
or a pleural fluid to serum cholesterol ratio
greater than 0.3 provides a reliable information
that the fluid is an exudate
420. Fluid to serum total bilirubin ratio of 0.6 or
more also indicates the presence of an exudate
421. Pleural fluid pH lower than 7.3 may indicate
the need for chest-tube drainage, in addition to
antibiotics in cases of pneumonia. The finding of pH
as low as 6 indicates esophageal rupture that is
allowing the influx of gastric fluid
PERITONEAL FLUID
422. RBC counts GREATER THAN 100,000/uL are
indicative of BLUNT TRAUMA INJURIES
423. Normal WBC counts are less than 500 cells/uL
and the count increases with bacterial peritonitis
and cirrhosis
424. CA 125 antigen, source is from OVARIES,
FALLOPIAN TUBES or ENDOMETRIUM
FECALYSIS
425. Large intestine is capable of absorbing
approximately 3,000 mL of water
426. Most representative, for fecal fats; 3-day
stool collection
427. Muscle fibers: slide is examined for 5 minutes.
Only undigested fibers are counted, and the presence
of more than 10 is reported as increased
428. Bleeding in excess of 2.5 mL/150 gram of stool
is considered pathologically significant
429. Normal stool pH is between 7 and 8
430. pH below 5.5 in cases of CARBOHYDRATE DISORDERS
BARBARA BROWN
COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
431. SCREENING PROCEDURE that is helpful in the
diagnosis of many diseases, it is one indicator of
the body’s ability to fight disease, it is used to
MONITOR the effects of drug and radiation therapy,
and it may be employed as an INDICATOR OF PATIENT’S
PROGRESS in certain diseased states such as
infection or anemia.
HEMATOCRIT
432. TRAPPED PLASMA: amount of plasma that still
remains in RBC portion after the microhematocrit has
been spun. Increased in macrocytic anemias,
spherocytosis, thalassemia, hypochromic anemia and
sickle cell anemia
433. When comparing spun hematocrit results obtained
on an electronic cell counter, the spun hematocrit
results vary from 1 to 3% HIGHER because of this
trapped plasma (unless cell counter has been
calibrated).
434. Anticoagulated blood should be centrifuged
within 6 hours of collection when the blood is
stored at room temperature.
435. Overanticoagulation: FALSELY LOW due to
shrinkage of cells
436. Air bubbles denote poor technique but do not
affect the results
437. Incomplete sealing of the microhematocrit
tubes: FALSELY LOW
438. Inadequate centrifugation of the
microhematocrit tubes or allowing the tubes to stand
longer than several minutes after centrifugation:
FALSELY ELEVATED
439. Hematocrit may be expressed in either of two
ways (1) as percentage, e.g., 42% or (2) as a
decimal point, e.g., 0.42.
WHITE BLOOD CELLS COUNT
440. Count above 11 x 10 9th/L is termed
LEUKOCYTOSIS
441. Mix the Thoma pipet for approximately 3 minutes
to ensure hemolysis and adequate mixing
442. Manual counts, no more than 10-cell variation
between the four squares

PLATELET COUNT
443. Prolonged BT and poor clot retraction are found
when there is marked thrombocytopenia
444. EDTA: decreased platelet clumping but increased
MPV
445. If concentration of EDTA exceeds 2mg/mL of
whole blood, platelets may SWELL AND THEN FRAGMENT,
causing invalidly higher count
446. Using Rees-Ecker diluting fluid, the platelet
count must be completed within 30 minutes of
diluting in order to ensure against platelet
DISINTEGRATION
447. 1% ammonium oxalate, the dilution is stable for
8 hours
ERTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE
448. Macrocytes tend to settle more rapidly than
microcytes
449. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis: falsely lower
ESR
450. Agglutination: more rapid sedimentation rate
451. In severe anemia: ESR IS MARKEDLY INCREASED
SUGAR WATER TEST
452. Citrated whole blood
453. In anemia, the hemolysis may be slightly
increased in PNH negative specimens
454. Use of defibrinated blood may cause positive
results due to the hemolysis of traumatized RBCs
455. Test should be performed WITHIN 2 HOURS of
obtaining the specimen
SUCROSE HEMOLYSIS TEST
456. Citrated whole blood
457. Increased hemolysis (<10%) may be found in
leukemia or myelosclerosis
458. PNH: 10% to 80% hemolysis
ACID SERUM TEST
459. Whole blood defibrinated
460. When patient has received blood transfusions,
less lysis occurs because of the presence of normal
transfused red blood cells
461. Thyroxine (µg/dL to nmol/L) 12.9
462. X-axis: HORIZONTAL, ABSCISSA, INDEPENDENT
VARIABLES
463. Y-axis: VERTICAL, ORDINATE, DEPENDENT VARIABLES
464. UREA: Colorimetric: diacetyl [ inexpensive,
lacks specificity]
465. UREA: Enzymatic: NH3 formation [greater
specificity, more expensive]
466. CREATININE: Colorimetric: end point [simple,
nonspecific]
467. CREATININE: Colorimetric: kinetic [rapid,
increased specificity]
468. CREATININE: Enzymatic [measure ammonia
colorimetrically or with ion-selective electrode]
469. URIC ACID: Colorimetric [problems with
turbidity, several common drugs interfere]
470. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: UV [need special
instrumentation and optical cells]
471. URIC ACID: Enzymatic: H2O2 [interference by
reducing substances]
472. Constituents of a number of common foods,
including BANANAS, VANILLA, TEA AND COFFEE, may
react in the test for HMMA. HMMA is also VMA. 4-
Hydroxy-3-Methoxymandelic acid (HMMA)
473. Laboratory personnel should be aware of the
MECHANICAL HAZARDS of equipment such as CENTRIFUGES,
AUTOCLAVES, and HOMOGENIZERS.
474. Third Taenia: Taenia asiatica or the Taiwan
Taenia
475. Fungal elements fluoresce green with acridine
orange
476. Reporting of normal urine crystals: reported as
rare, few, moderate, or many per hpf
477. Abnormal crystals may be averaged and reported
per lpf
478. Reagent for APT test: 1% NaOH
479. Infective stage of Leishmania to man:
PROMASTIGOTE
480. Infective stage of Trypanosoma to man:
TRYPOMASTIGOTE
481. Infective stage of Plasmodia to man:
SPOROZOITES
482. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis:
ANGIOSTRONGYLUS CANTONENSIS
483. When an accident involving electrical shock
occurs, the ELECTRICAL SOURCE MUST BE REMOVED
IMMEDIATELY.
484. URINARY MEATUS: external urinary opening
485. POLYURIA: greater than 2.5 L/day in adults
486. OLIGURIA: less than 400 mL/day in adults
487. Yellow-orange specimen caused by the
administration of phenazopyridine (brand name
Pyridium) or azo-gantrisin compounds to people who
have urinary tract infections [drug for UTI: orange
and viscous urine]
488. CLINITEST tablets contain copper sulfate,
sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and sodium
hydroxide
489. ACETEST provides sodium nitroprusside, glycine,
disodium phosphate, and lactose in tablet form. The
addition of lactose gives better color
differentiation. Acetest tablets are hygroscopic; if
the specimen is not completely absorbed within 30
seconds, a new tablet should be used.
490. Bence Jones protein coagulates at temperatures
between 40°C and 60°C and dissolves when the
temperature reaches 100°C.
491. Automated reagent strip readers: REFLECTANCE
PHOTOMETRY
492. Casts have a tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES
OF THE COVER SLIP
493. Squamous epithelial cells: Rare, few, moderate,
or many per LPF
494. Transitional epithelial cells: Rare, few,
moderate, or many per HPF
495. RTE CELLS: AVERAGE NUMBER PER 10 HPFS
496. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Acid-albumin and the CTAB
tests (+) thick, white turbidity
497. MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES: Metachromatic staining
spot test: BLUE SPOT
498. Very slight amount of OXYHEMOGLOBIN: PINK CSF
499. Conversion of oxyhemoglobin to unconjugated
bilirubin: YELLOW CSF
500. Heavy hemolysis: ORANGE CSF
501. Red or brown seminal fluid: BLOOD
502. Normal appearance of gastric fluid: PALE GRAY
with mucus
503. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is
present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this
is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.
504. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf
505. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf
506. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf
507. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf
508. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER
509. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA
510. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT
511. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS
512. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia
chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS
513. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L
514. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE
515. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY
516. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like
projections
517. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE
518. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC
ACTIVE HEPATITIS
519. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR
520. Restriction fragment length polymorphism:
MOLECULAR
521. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M
522. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such
agglutinin, calling its antigen I for
“individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST
BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.
523. For patients with history of FEBRILE
NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs
524. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM
525. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD
SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen
that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular
studies.
526. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY
BLADDER CANCER
527. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or
gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible
in the results window, indicating that the specimen
contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the
intensity of the test band may vary with different
specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands
should be interpreted as a positive result.
528. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at
T and a black or gray band is visible at the C
position, the test can be considered negative,
indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not
present.
529. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C
or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C
position, the test is invalid. The test should be
repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
530. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY
FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be
collected 48 hours later and tested again using
another Card Pregnancy Test device.
531. The standard screening method for HIV antibody
has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory
test is the Western blot.
532. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory
tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay
(IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line
immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have
also been developed.
533. HBs ag: active infection
534. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF
INFECTIVITY
535. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis
B 560. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells,
536. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B
537. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B
538. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B
539. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis
B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness
of therapy
540. ITIS: inflammation
SEVEN BASE SI UNITS
541. Length: METER
542. Mass: KILOGRAM
543. Time: SECONDS
544. Quantity of mass: MOLE
545. Electric current: AMPERE
546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN
547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA
548. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF
REAGENTS
549. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF
THE INSTRUMENT
550. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized
testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing
551. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel
(nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)
552. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T
553. The bacteriological examination of water
consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the
presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation
of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)
554. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF
GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH
555. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF
GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON
EMB/ENDO AGAR
556. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF
ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the
DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING
BACILLI
557. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is
LATENCY
558. Reoviruses: derivation of the word:
R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)
559. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever
bronchial asthma
561. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of
Chlamydia
562. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms,
chromoblastomycosis
563. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating
eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction),
sporotrichosis
564. NEGRI BODIES: rabies
565. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus
566. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus
567. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric
striations of collagen-like materials, benign
conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma
568. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
569. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS
570. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the
increase IN NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-
STOOL” appearance.

616. Iron conversion factor from conventional to SI
(µmol/L): 0.179
617. Bilirubin conversion factor from conventional
to SI (µmol/L): 17.1
618. Thyroxine conversion factor to SI (µg/dl to
mmol/L): 12.9
619. Specimen collection & processing: Pre-
analytical QA
620. Long term accuracy of analytical methods:
External QC
621. Abrupt change: Shift
622. Gradual change: Trend
623. One control value exceeds +2s and another
exceeds -2s: R4s
624. 2 consecutive ctrl values exceed the same mean
+2s or -2s: 2:2s
625. Fixed-angle centrifuge advantages over the
horizontal centrifuge: Lesser air friction, smaller
increase in sample temperature, quicker
sedimentation of small particles, and operated over
higher speed
626. Used to determine whether there is
statistically significant difference between the SD
of 2 groups of data: f-test
627. Used to determine whether there is
statistically significant difference between the
means of 2 groups of data: t-test
628. Sample of known quantity with several
analytes.: Control
629. Anticoagulant for cardiopulmonary bypass:
Heparin
630. Basal state collection: Early morning blood
collection
631. Uses 2 monochromators, affected by quenching:
Fluorometry
632. Uses 2 photodetectors, for the sample beam and
reference beam: Double – beam in space
633. Obsolete blood glucose methodologies: Folin-
Wu, Nelson Somogyi
634. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:
Ortho-toluidine, condensation method
635. Test for chylomicrons, creamy layer on top:
Standing plasma test
636. Apolipoprotein component of VLDL: Apo-B100
637. Transports exogenous triglycerides:
Chylomicrons
638. Transports endogenous triglycerides: VLDL
639. Highest cholesterol content: LDL
640. One step method for cholesterol determination:
Liebermann - Burchardt
641. Cholesterol esterase: Used in enzymatic method
of cholesterol determination
642. CV of HDLc (NCEP Guidelines for Acceptable
Measurement Error):≤ 4%
643. Assay for Uric acid that uses mercury arc vapor
lamp: Enzymatic: UV
644. Greater specificity and more expensive BUN
assay: Enzymatic: ammonia formation
645. Simple, Nonspecific test for Creatinine
determination : Colorimetric: end point
646. Categories of Azotemia: Pre-renal, Renal, Post-
renal
647. Test used to assess the ability to conjugate
bilirubin and secrete bile: Total and Direct
Bilirubin assay
648. Gamma spike/ Monoclonal gammopathy: Multiple
myeloma
649. Beta-gamma bridging: Hepatic cirrhosis
650. Reaction rate is directly proportional to
substrate concentration: First-order kinetics
651. Enzyme specific for both pancreas and salivary
glands: Amylase
652. Clinically significant if decreased:
Cholinesterase
653. Substrate used in Bowers-McComb method for ALP
activity measurement: p-nitrophenylphosphate
654. Chief counterion of sodium: Chloride
655. Driving force of bicarbonate buffer system:
CARBON DIOXIDE
656. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship:
Reciprocal
657. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly: Glucose
suppression test
658. Increased in Hypothyroidism (primary): TSH
659. T3 uptake levels in Hypothyroidism : Decreased
660. Begins with patient identification and
continues until testing is completed and the results
are reported : Chain of custody
661. Requires whole blood EDTA sample: Cyclosporine
and Tacrolimus tests
662. Method of choice for measuring antidepressants:
HPLC
663. Gold standard for drug testing: GC-MS
664. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase: Organophosphates
& Carbamates
665. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen
ions: Acid
666. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl
ions: Base
667. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen
ions: Base
668. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl
ions: Acid
669. Comparing patient’s results with previous
results: Delta check
670. POCT is most often performed by nurses,
perfusionists (who operate heart-lung machine during
open heart surgery), respiratory therapists and
physician themselves.
671. Expressed in Ehrlich units (mg/dl):Urobilinogen
672. Used to differentiate myoglobin and hemoglobin:
Blondheim’s test
673. Degree of Hazard 1:Slight hazard
674. Degree of Hazard 2:Moderate hazard
675. Degree of Hazard 3:Serious hazard
676. Degree of Hazard 4:Extreme hazard
677. Handwashing: Clean between fingers 15 sec (or
20 sec , 6th ed), downward
678. When skin or eye contact occurs, the best first
aid is to immediately: Flush the area with water for
at least 15 minutes and then seek medical attention
679. Preservative of choice for urine cytology
studies: Saccomano’s fixative
680. Urine specimen for Urobilinogen: Afternoon
sample (2-4pm)
681. Storage conditions for reagent strip: Cool, dry
place
682. Reagent incorporated in Ketone pad: Sodium
nitroprusside
683. Hoesch Test: Ehrlich’s reagent in 6M HCl
684. Speckled pattern on blood parameter: Hematuria
685. Principle of Automated Reagent Strip Reader:
Reflectance photometry
686. Soluble in dilute acetic acid: Red blood cells,
amorphous phosphates, carbonates
687. Soluble in ether: Lipids, chyle, lymphatic
fluid
688. Appear microscopically as yellow brown-granules
and produce a characteristic pink sediment (brick
dust), uroerythrin: AMORPHOUS URATES
689. Cause a white precipitate following specimen
refrigeration :Amorphous phosphates
690. Tubular injury: 2 or more RTE cells per HPF
691. Telescoped sediment: Elements of
glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome
692. Glitter cells: Neutrophils seen in hypotonic
urine
693. Formation of casts:
Hyaline→cellular→granular→waxy
694. Hyaline cast consists entirely of: Uromodulin
695. Crystals seen in liver disease: Bilirubin,
tyrosine, leucine
696. Forms of Struvite: Coffin-lid, Feather-like,
Fern-leaf, Prism, Colorless sheets, Flakes
697. Ethylene glycol poisoning: Monohydrate Calcium
Oxalate (oval, dumbbell)
698. Most frequent parasite encountered in urine:
Trichomonas vaginalis
699. Fecal contaminant in urine: Pinworm ova
700. Diluent for CSF WBC Count: 3% Glacial HAc with
methylene blue
701. Precipitation test for CSF total protein: TCA
and SSA
702. Positive for pellicle clot formation:
Tubercular meningitis
703. Oligoclonal bonding in CSF bonding but not in
serum → Multiple sclerosis, encephalitis, Guillain-
Barre syndrome and neurosyphilis
704. Semen fructose test is not tested within 2
hours: Specimen must be FROZEN
705. Reagent used in Florence test which detects
choline: Potassium iodide, Iodine
706. Used to assess sperm cell velocity and
trajectory: Computer-assisted semen analysis (CASA)
707. Normal volume of synovial fluid: less than 3.5
ml
708. Normal synovial fluid glucose:<10mg/dl lower
than blood glucose
709. Cells seen in synovial fluid which resembles
polished rice macroscopically: Rice bodies
710. Type of effusion caused by congestive heart
failure: Transudate
711. Sputum: Not a normal body fluid,
tracheobronchial secretions
712. Important diagnostic test for Pneumocystic
carinii in immunocompromised patients:
Bronchoalveolar lavage
713. Tests for Neural Tube defects: AFP,
acetylcholinesterase
714. Microviscosity test for fetal lung maturity:
measured by FLUORESCENCE POLARIZATION
715. Green amniotic fluid: MECONIUM
716. Dark red-brown color of amniotic fluid: FETAL
DEATH
717. Normal Gastric fluid appearance: PALE GRAY WITH
MUCUS
718. Noninvasive test to determine gastric acidity:
DIAGNEX TUBELESS TEST
719. Collagen-like material with concentric
striations seen in ovarian and thyroid carcinomas:
PSAMMOMA BODIES
721. Laminar flow: Biosafety Cabinet class II
722. HEPA filter: Removes org > 0.3 um (bacteria,
fungi)
723. Blood culture collection: 2-3 samples (Max 3-4)
at least 1 hour apart in 24 hours
724. Grade A milk: <75,000 bacteria per mL when raw,
and <15,000 bacteria once pasteurized
725. Enteric agar: XLD, EMB, HEA
726. Rickettsial stains: Gimenez, Macchiavello
727. Concentration of Hydrogen Peroxide as
disinfectant: 3% H2O2
728. MIO medium: Motility Indole Ornithine
729. Quaternary ammonium compounds are inactivated
by: Organic substances
730. Fite-Faraco stain: Hematoxylin as counterstain
instead of methylene, AFB
731. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate: Anti-phagocytic,
anti-complement
732. Bromthymol blue as indicator: HEA, TCBS,
Simmon’s citrate agar
733. Nasopharyngeal swabs: H. influenzae, N.
meningitidis, B. pertussis
734. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria: Crystal violet
and sodium desoxycholate (bile salt)
735. Inhibits gram-negative bacteria: Sodium azide,
phenylethyl alcohol
736. Detects gram-negative endotoxin: Limulus lysate
test
737. Protein A: Staphylococcus aureus,
coagglutination
738. Slime layer production: Staphylococcus
epidermidis
739. Protein M: Streptococcus pyogenes
740. Colonies with ground glass appearance:
Legionella (Mahon)
741. Increased resistance of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
to aminoglycosides: Increased calcium and magnesium
742. Smallest free-living organism: Mycoplasma
743. Benchmarking: Comparison with peers
744. Histoplasma crossreacts with: Blastomyces,
Aspergillus and Coccidioides
745. Aman medium stain: Lactophenol cotton blue
746. Czapek’s medium: Isolation of Aspergillus
747. African histoplasmosis: Histoplasma duboisii
748. Test for Candida albicans that uses serum: Germ
tube test
749. Chlamydospore production of Candida albicans:
Cornmeal agar
750. Candidiasis infection affecting the oral
cavity: Thrush
751. General isolation media for fungi: Saboraud’s
dextrose agar
752. Major biologic hazard to laboratory personnel:
Coccidioides immitis
753. Sensitive fungal (fluorescent) dye that binds
to cell wall: Calcofluor white
754. Chromoblastomycosis: Sclerotic bodies
755. Rose gardener’s disease: Sporotrichosis
756. Eosinophilic material due to antigen-antibody
reaction in cases of sporotrichosis: Asteroid body
757. Largest DNA virus: Poxvirus
758. Smallest DNA virus: Parvovirus
759. Largest RNA virus: Paramyxovirus
760. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus
(Picornaviridae)
761. Cross reactive antigen in all human
adenoviruses: Hexon
762. Gastroenteritis in children during winter
months: Rotavirus
763. Nonbacterial gastroenteritis in adults:
Norovirus
764. Toxic to HSV: Calcium alginate
765. Isolation medium for Cytomegalovirus: Human
fibroblast cells
766. True amoeba: GENUS Entamoeba
767. Trophozoite with ingested red blood cell:
Entamoeba histolytica
768. Trophozoite with ingested WBC: Entamoeba
gingivalis
769. Gay bowel syndrome: Giardiasis
770. Cercaria minus a tail: Schistosomule
771. Infective stage of Diphyllobothrium latum:
Plerocercoid larva
772. Resembles Diphyllobothrium latum adult:
Spirometra
773. Passing of proglottids of Taenia: Irritated by
ALCOHOL
774. Taenia spp. eggs: Hexacanth embryo with thick
radial striations
775. Cercarial dermatitis: Schistosomes
776. Length of needle in routine phlebotomy: 1.0 –
1.5 inches
777. Angle of draw in venipuncture: 15 to 30 ° angle
(15 degree angle)
778. The distance of drop of blood from the edge of
the slide: 1 cm
779. Blood production outside the bone marrow:
EXTRAmedullary hematopoiesis
780. Hematopoietic stem cell marker: CD 34
781. Common acute lymphocytic leukemia antigen: CD
10
782. Test for Hemoglobin S which uses black line:
Dithionate solubility test
783. Starry sky pattern under low power imparted by
numerous macrophages with apoptotic debris:
Burkitt’s lymphoma
784. Granules (tertiary granules) present in
Neutrophil: Alkaline phosphatase
785. Euglobulin clot lysis time: Screening test for
fibrinolysis
786. Screening test for PNH: Sugar water screening
test
787. Derived from RBC Histogram: MCV, RDW
788. Derived from Platelet Histogram: MPV, PDW
789. In cyanmethemoglobin method, all hemoglobin are
measured, except: Sulfhemoglobin
790. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia: Mauve
lavender
791. Patient with PNH received blood transfusion:
Less lysis due to the presence of normal RBCs
transfused
792. Positive instrumental errors: Bubbles in the
sample, extraneous electrical pulsesand aperture
plugs (most common)
793. Negative instrumental error: Excessive lysing
of RBCs
794. Instrumental error that is either a positive or
negative error: Improper setting of aperture current
or threshold
795. Purplish red pinpoint hemorrhagic spots:
Petechiae
796. Blood escapes into SMALL areas of skin and
mucous membrane: Purpura
797. Blood escapes into LARGE areas of skin, mucous
membrane, and other tissues: Ecchymosis
798. Primary hemostasis: Vasoconstriction
799. Outer surface of platelet: Glycocalyx
800. Contains microtubules that maintains platelet
shape: Sol-gel zone
801. Platelet estimate of 100,000 to 149,000/µL:
Slight decrease
802. Platelet estimate of 150,000 to 199,000/µL: Low
normal
803. Labile factors: Factors V and VIII
804. Prematurely activates at cold temperature:
Factors VII FXI
805. Vitamin K-dependent factors: Factors II, VII,
IX, X
806. Normal value for TEMPLATE bleeding time:6 – 10
minutes
807. Christmas factor: Factor IX
808. Rosenthal syndrome: Factor XI deficiency
809. Platelet estimate of 401,000 to
599,000/µl: Slight increase
810. Platelet estimate of 600,000 to 800,000/µL:
Moderate increase
811. A surgical connection between to structures, it
usually means a connection that is created between
tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops
of intestines: ANASTOMOSIS
812. Polyclonal antibodies used in
immunohistochemical techniques are frequently
derived from: RABBIT
813. Most rapid of the common freezing agents:
LIQUID NITROGEN
814. General purpose fixative: 10% neutral buffered
formalin
815. Protein fixation: Neutral buffered formol
saline or formaldehyde vapor
816. Fixatives for nucleic acids: Ethanol, methanol
and Carnoy’s solution
817. Amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times
the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently, the
maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be 20
times the tissue volume.
818. Recommended ratio of fluid to tissue volume for
DECALCIFICATION is 20 to 1
819. Amount of dehydrating agent should not be less
than 10 times the volume of tissue
820. Dehydration: Low grade to high grade alcohol
821. Absence of water: WHITE anhydrous copper
sulfate
822. Presence of water: BLUE anhydrous copper
sulfate
823. Clearing: Dealcoholization
824. Most rapid embedding technique: Vacuum
embedding
825. Automated tissue processor: Fix, dehydrate,
clear, and infiltrate
826. Histochemical demonstration of ENZYMES: FROZEN
SECTION
827. ACRIDINE ORANGE is the most commonly used
fluorochrome to demonstrate DNA and RNA in fresh or
fixed tissues.
828. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate method: Calcium
salts = black
829. Red chromogen for peroxidases:
Aminoethylcarbazole (AEC)
830. Brown chromogen for peroxidases:
Diaminobenzidine (DAB)
831. Administrative investigation:2 members of board
+ 1 legal officer
832. Policies and guidelines for Med Tech Education:
CMO no. 14 s. 2006
833. Accreditation of clinical lab for training MT
interns: CMO no. 6 s. 2008
834. STAT, STATIM: Immediately
835. Biodegradable wastes: Green bag
836. Urine for routine urinalysis: 10 to 15 ml urine
(50 ml-container capacity)
837. Urine for drug testing: 30 to 45 ml (60 ml-
container capacity)
838. Urine for cytology: at least 50 ml urine
(Gregorios)
839. Venipucture: 15 to 30 degree angle
840. Arterial puncture: 45 to 60 degree angle (90
degrees for femoral artery)
841. Before blood is collected from the radial
artery in the wrist, one should do a MODIFIED ALLEN
TEST to determine whether the ulnar artery can
provide collateral circulation to the hand after the
radial artery puncture.
842. Central Venous Assess (CVA) collection:
eliminates multiple phlebotomies and surgical
situations. Five (5) ml of blood must be drawn and
discarded to eliminate contaminants. CVA is not
recommended for bacteriology (organisms can
contaminate specimen)
843. Order of draw from CATHETER LINES: First 3 to 5
ml blood is discarded THEN, blood culture,
anticoagulated tubes and clot tubes.
844. Donor bleeding: 45 degree angle to the skin,
make a quick clean puncture; once in the skin,
reduce the angle of the needle to about 10 to 20
degrees
845. Anaerobic and require ICE slurry (immediate
cooling): Lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas (if not
analyzed within 30 min = ↓ pH, and po2), iCa+2
(heparinized whole blood if not analyzed within 30
min)
846. C-Peptide test: evaluates hypoglycemia and
continuous assessment of beta cell function
847. Increased C-peptide: Insulinoma, type 2 DM,
ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
848. Decreased C-peptide: Type 1 DM
849. Colorimetric method for Triglycerides: van
Handel and Zilversmith
850. CDC reference method: Modified van Handel and
Zilversmith
851. Fluorometric method for Triglycerides: Hantzch
condensation
852. Largest and least dense: CHYLOMICRONS
853. Smallest but the most dense: HDL
854. Found in obstructive jaundice and LCAT
deficiency: Lipoprotein X
855. Floating beta lipoprotein: β-VLDL
856. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein: Lp (a)
857. Triglycerides, LDLc: FASTING 12 to 14 hours
858. Formula for LDLc: Total cholesterol – HDL –
VLDL
859. Friedewald VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.175
860. De Long VLDLc (mmol/L): Triglycerides/2.825
861. Friedewald VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/5
862. De Long VLDLc (mg/dL): Triglycerides/6.5
863. ONE-STEP direct method for cholesterol:
LIEBERMANN-BURCHARDT (L-B)
864. One-step method for cholesterol: Colorimetry
(Pearson, Stern and MacGavack)
865. Two-step method for cholesterol: C + Extraction
(Bloors)
866. Three-step method for cholesterol: C+ E +
Saponification (Abell-Kendall)
867. Four-step method for cholesterol: C + E + S +
Precipitation (Schoenheimer, Sperry, Parekh and
Jung)
868. CDC reference method for cholesterol: Abell,
Levy and Brodie method
869. Modification of the ABELL-KENDALL method
continues as the REFERENCE METHOD for cholesterol
used by the CDC (Henry)
870. TANGIER’S DISEASE: HDL is abnormal and
significantly reduced
871. Activated at cold temperature: Factors VII and
XI (seven, eleven)
872. Labile factors, decrease on storage: Factors V
and VIII (five, eight)
873. Wintrobe tube: 11.5 cm long, 3 mm bore
874. Westergren tube: 30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore
875. Capillary tube: 7 to 7.5 cm (70-75 mm) long, 1
mm bore (1.2 mm)
876. Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2,000 to 2,300 g
for 30 minutes
877. Microhematocrit: Centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000
g for 5 minutes (five minutes)
878. Normocytic, normochromic: Acute blood loss,
hemolytic anemia, aplastic anemia
879. Microcytic, hypochromic: Anemia of chronic
disease, thalassemia, IDA and sideroblastic anemia
880. Macrocytic, normochromic: MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA
881. Poikilocytosis: DECREASED ESR
882. Correction for WBC count, Adult: 5 or more
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
883. Correction for WBC count, Neonate: 10 or more
nucleated RBCs/100 WBC differential
884. Increased EDTA: Decreased hematocrit, decreased
ESR
885. Hemoglobinopathies: QUALITATIVE defect in
hemoglobin
886. Thalassemia: QUANTITATIVE defect in hemoglobin
887. Responsible for clot retraction: THROMBOSTHENIN
888. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot:
FIBROMETER
889. Photo-optical detection: Electra, COAG-A-MATE,
Ortho-Koagulab
890. Complement-dependent cytotoxicity: INVERTED
PHASE CONTRAST microscope
891. Stains for the BASEMENT MEMBRANE: PAS and
azocarmine
892. Fixatives for H & E: All fixatives can be used
except those that contain osmic acid. Osmic acid
(like Flemming’s) inhibits hematoxylin
893. Manual H & E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING, it
includes a differentiation step
894. Harris hematoxylin: Primary/Basic/Nuclear stain
895. Eosin: Secondary/Counterstain/Acid/Cytoplasmic
stain
896. Stain of choice for cytology: ORIGINAL Pap’s
stain
897. Pap’s stain consists of 3 stains: Harris
hematoxylin, Orange green (OG6) and Eosin Azure (EA)
898. Harris hematoxylin: stains the nucleus
899. OG 6: stains the cytoplasm of mature cells
(superficial cells)
900. EA 36/50/65: stains the cytoplasm of immature
cells (parabasal, intermediate cells)
--------------------------------------------
LEGACY OF PAMET PRESIDENTS
901. FIRST PRESIDENT: Charlemagne T. Tamondong
"Emergence of the Profession" (1963-1967)
902. Nardito D. Moraleta "Professional Recognition"
(1967-1970)
903. Felix E. Asprer "Legislative Agenda" (1970-
1971, 1973-1976)
904. Bernardo T. Tabaosares "Celebration of the
Practice" (1971-1973)
905. Angelina R. Jose "Career Advocacy" (1973)
906. Venerable C.V. Chua (Venerable OCA)
"Educational Enhancement" (1977-1981)
907. Carmencita P. Acedera "Image Building" (1982-
1991)
908. Marilyn R. Atienza "Proactivism" (1992-1996)
909. Norma N. Chang "International Leadership"
(1997-2000)
910. Agnes B. Medenilla "Organizational Dynamism"
(2001-2002, 2005-2006)
911. Shirley F. Cruzada "Interdisciplinary
Networking" (2003-2004)
912. Leila M. Florento "Beyond Expectations" (2007-
2012)
913. Romeo Joseph J. Ignacio "Soar Higher through
V.O.I.C.E." Visibility, Oneness, Integrity,
Commitment and Excellence (2013 - 2015)
914. Ronaldo E. Puno (2015-present)
----------------------------------------------------
--------
915. FATHER OF PAMET: CRISANTO ALMARIO
916. PAMET was originally organized on SEPTEMBER 15,
1963
917. PAMET HYMN Music: Francis Jerota Pefanco
918. PAMET HYMN Lyrics: Hector Gentapanan Gayares,
Jr.
919. Current PAMET President: Ronaldo E. Puno
920. Current PASMETH President: Bernard U. Ebuen
921. Board of MT Head: Dr. Marietta Baccay
922. Board of MT Member: Marilyn Atienza
923. Board of MT Member: Marian Tantingco
924. PRC CHAIRPERSON: TEOFILO S. PILANDO, JR.
925. DOH SECRETARY: DR. PAULYN JEAN B. ROSELL-UBIAL
926. BIPHASIC MEDIUM/CASTANEDA BOTTLES: BRUCELLA
927. CIN medium: Y. enterocolitica
928. CCFA: C. difficile
929. BCYE medium: Legionella
930. HBT medium: Gardnerella
931. ssDNA: Parvovirus
932. dsRNA: Reovirus
933. Smallest RNA virus: Enterovirus
(Picornaviridae)
934. Acid-resistant: Enterovirus
935. Acid-sensitive: Rhinovirus
936. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
937. Measles: RUBEOLA
938. German measles: RUBELLA
939. Chickenpox: VARICELLA
940. Odor of bitter almonds: CYANIDE
941. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth:
ARSERNIC
942. Legally intoxicated: Blood alcohol greater than
100 mg/dL (0.10%)
943. Potentiometry: measurement of pH and pCO2
944. Amperometry: measurement of pO2
945. High affinity to keratin: ARSENIC
946. Visible region: 400 to 700 nm
947. UV region <400 nm
948. Infrared region > 700 nm
949. Cholesterol, acceptable CV ≤ 3%
950. Triglyceride, acceptable CV ≤ 5%
951. HDLc, LDLc acceptable CV ≤ 4%
952. OBESE BMI ≥ 30 kg/sq.m.
953. Overweight BMI 25 to 29.9 kg/sq.m.
954. Underweight BMI < 18.5 kg/sq.m.
955. BASAL STATE: early morning before the patient
has eaten or become physically active.
956. STAT for the Latin word statim meaning
immediately. Tests that fall into this category
include:
a. Glucose in diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Some drug levels such as theophylline
c. Amylase in suspected pancreatitis
d. CK in suspected MI
e. Hematocrit
f. Blood gases
g. Potassium
957. CRITICAL VALUES or PANIC VALUES: list of
analytes that truly do have the potential to be
lethal if unchecked for a short period.
958. SCHILLING TEST: Laboratory determination of
vitamin B12 absorption
959. Hemostatic mechanisms comprise four (4) main
systems: the vascular system, platelets, coagulation
system and fibrinolytic system.
960. OSMOLALITY
a. Osmolality = 2Na + (Glucose/20) + (BUN/3)
b. Osmolality = 1.86Na + (Glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8) +
9 982. NEGLIGENCE, which is defined as failure to give
961. Anion gap
a. AG = Na - (Cl + HCO3)
b. AG = (Na + K) – (Cl + HCO3)
----------------------------------
NORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
962. Uric acid is alkali soluble
963. Amorphous urates - soluble in alkali and heat
964. CaOx - soluble in dilute HCl
965. Amorphous phosphates - soluble in dilute acetic
acid
966. Calcium phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
acid
967. Triple phosphate - soluble in dilute acetic
acid
968. Ammonium biurate - soluble in acetic acid with
heat
969. Calcium carbonate - forms gas from acetic acid
ABNORMAL URINARY CRYSTALS
970. Cystine is soluble in ammonia, dilute HCl
971. Cholesterol is soluble in chloroform
972. Leucine is soluble in hot alkali or alcohol
973. Tyrosine is soluble in alkali or heat
974. Bilirubin is soluble in acetic acid, HCl, NaOH,
ether and chloroform
975. Sulfonamides soluble in acetone
976. Radiographic dye soluble in 10% NaOH
977. Ampicillin crystals form bundles when
refrigerated
-------------------------------------
978. F. tularensis is a very small, strictly
aerobic, coccoid to pleomorphic rod-shaped, gram-
negative bacillus that requires CYSTINE or CYSTEINE
for growth
979. Legionella spp. may be isolated on BCYE agar
supplemented with growth factors, including L-
CYSTINE, FERRIC SALT, AND Α-KETOGLUTARATE.
980. Bordetella spp. are strictly aerobic,
nonfermentative, catalase-positive, minute
coccobacilli requiring NICOTINIC ACID, CYSTEINE, and
usually METHIONINE, for growth.
981. MEDICAL MALPRACTICE is misconduct or lack of
skill by a health-care professional that results in
injury to the patient.
reasonable care by the health-care provider, must be
proven in a malpractice suit.
983. SERUM or PLASMA is the specimen of choice for
the determination of circulating concentrations of
most drugs. THERAPEUTIC DRUGS, BISHOP
984. Analysis for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES
has focused primarily on the use of URINE as the
test sample of choice. The urine specimen represents
the net load of the drug over a long period, whereas
the blood sample provides only a quick picture of
the drug level at a specific time. DRUGS OF ABUSE,
CALBREATH
985. CHAIN OF CUSTODY
Processing steps for such specimens—initial
collection, transportation, storage, and analytical
testing— must be documented by careful record
keeping. Documentation ensures that there has been
no tampering with the specimen by any interested
parties, that the specimen has been collected from
the appropriate person, and that the results
reported are accurate.
Each step of the COLLECTION, HANDLING, PROCESSING,
TESTING, AND REPORTING PROCESSES must be documented;
this is called the chain of custody.
986. RICE BODIES are fragments of degenerating
proliferative synovial cells or microinfarcted
synovium.
987. OCHRONOTIC SHARDS, ground pepper appearance
from pigmented cartilage fragments may be the result
of a metabolic disorder (i.e., ochronosis).
988. PROBLEMS: RBCs appear gray, WBCs are too dark,
eosinophil granules are gray, not orange. CAUSES:
Stain or buffer too alkaline (most common),
inadequate rinsing, prolonged staining, heparinized
blood sample.
989. PROBLEMS: RBCs are too pale or are RED, WBCs
are barely visible. CAUSES: Stain or buffer too
acidic (most common), underbuffering (too short),
over-rinsing.
990. HBeAg indicates HIGH INFECTIVITY.
991. CORDOCENTESIS, or percutaneous umbilical blood
sampling (PUBS).
SPECIAL URINE PRESERVATIVES
992. Formaldehyde – for Addis count
993. Conc, HCl – for epinephrine, norepinephrine,
catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid
994. Glacial acetic acid pH 4.5 – for aldosterone
995. Sodium carbonate – for porphyrins and
urobilinogen (to ensure alkalinity)
996. Glacial acetic acid pH 2.0 – for serotonin
997. Conc. HCl – for steroids, ammonia, urea, total
nitrogen
998. Chloroform – for aldosterone
999. Sulfuric acid – preserves calcium and other
inorganic constituents
1000. Sodium fluoride or benzoic acid – ideal for
glucose analysis, prevents glycolysis
1001. REAGENT LOG should be kept to indicate DATE IN
USE and EXPIRATION DATE of the reagent. This log
should also note the lot numbers of controls. After
the reagent has been checked, this is indicated on
the label, and the solution can be used for
laboratory testing.
1002. ACID
a. Dissociable substance that yields hydrogen (H)
ions
b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydroxyl (OH)
ions
1003. BASE
a. Dissociable substance that yields hydroxyl (OH)
ions
b. Dissociable substance that accepts hydrogen (H)
ions
1004. A MOHR PIPET does not have graduations to the
tip. It is a self-draining pipet, but the tip should
not be allowed to touch the vessel while the pipet
is draining.
1005. A SEROLOGIC PIPET has graduation marks to the
tip and is generally a blowout pipet.
1006. A MICROPIPET is a pipet with a total holding
volume of less than 1 mL; it may be designed as
either a Mohr or a serologic pipet.
1007. GLUCOSE MEASUREMENTS
a. Reference method, enzymatic: HEXOKINASE
b. Chemical method for glucose, still widely used:
Ortho-toluidine, condensation
c. Obsolete chemical blood glucose methods: Folin-
Wu, Nelson Somogyi
1008. SCREENING FOR BIRTH DEFECTS
a. Triple test: AFP, HCG and ESTRIOL
b. QUAD screen: AFP, HCG, ESTRIOL and INHIBIN-A
1009. Regulation of aldosterone secretion via the
renin/angiotensin system is achieved as follows.
Decreased blood volume or blood pressure induces the
release of kidney renin, which induces the
production of angiotensin I and II. Angiotensin II
affects release of aldosterone from the adrenal
gland, which ultimately causes the kidney distal
tubule to RETAIN SODIUM, thereby raising blood
volume and blood pressure.
1010. THREE (3%) PERCENT HYDROGEN PEROXIDE: In a 3%
solution, hydrogen peroxide is a harmless but very
weak antiseptic whose primary clinical use is in the
cleansing of wounds.
1011. ANAEROBES usually cannot grow in the presence
of O2, and the atmosphere in anaerobe jars, bags, or
chambers is composed of 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5%
to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2
1012. Aerosol-induced sputum are collected by
allowing the patient to breathe aerosolized
droplets, using an ultrasonic nebulizer containing
NaCl or until a strong cough reflex is initiated.
1013. ASCARIS EGGS: In the soil, it takes about two
to three weeks for eggs to develop into the
infective stage (embryonation) under favorable
conditions with suitable temperature, moisture and
humidity. The embryonated eggs can survive in moist
shaded soil for a few months to about two years in
tropical and subtropical areas, but for much longer
in temperate regions. (Belizario)
1014. The mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica
and F. gigantica is by ingestion of metacercaria
encysted on edible aquatic plants or by drinking
water with floating metacercariae.
1015. FASCIOLA GIGANTICA is the dominant species in
the PHILIPPINES, affecting CATTLES and water
buffaloes. There are only few human cases reported
locally.
1016. Human infection with F. hepatica also called
the sheep liver fluke is now considered a global
zoonosis. In countries like Bolivia, Ecuador,
Islamic Republic of Iran and Yemen, human
fascioliasis usually parallel the prevalence of
infection in SHEEP and other ruminants like GOATS,
CATTLE, BUFFALOES and HORSES.
1017. Diphyllobothrium latum egg: OVA are usually
yellowish brown, with a moderately thick shell and
an inconspicuous operculum. Opposite the operculum
is a small knob-like thickening (aboperculum).
1018. LIFE CYCLE OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS: The
adult E. granulosus resides in the small bowel of
the definitive hosts, dogs or other canids. Gravid
proglottids release eggs that are passed in the
feces. After ingestion by a suitable intermediate
host (under natural conditions: sheep, goat, swine,
cattle, horses, camel), the egg hatches in the small
bowel and releases an oncosphere that penetrates the
intestinal wall and migrates through the circulatory
system into various organs, especially the liver and
lungs. In these organs, the oncosphere develops into
a cyst that enlarges gradually, producing
protoscolices and daughter cysts that fill the cyst
interior. The definitive host becomes infected by
ingesting the cyst-containing organs of the infected
intermediate host. After ingestion, the
protoscolices evaginate, attach to the intestinal
mucosa, and develop into adult stages. (CDC)
a. Definitive host: DOGS (infective stage to DH,
hydatid cyst)
b. Intermediate host: SHEEP (Infective stage to IH,
eggs)
c. Accidental intermediate host: MAN
d. APOLLON: Found in the IH: HYDATID CYST
1019. Increased casts in ATHLETIC PSEUDONEPHRITIS
and in some diuretic therapies.
1020. All types of casts may occur in the broad
form. However, considering the accompanying urinary
stasis, the most commonly seen broad casts are (1)
granular and (2) waxy.
1021. Bile-stained broad, waxy casts are seen as the
result of the tubular necrosis caused by VIRAL
HEPATITIS.
1022. CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE OR ENDSTAGE RENAL
DISEASE:
a. Marked decrease in the glomerular filtration rate
(less than 25 mL/min)
b. Steadily rising serum BUN and creatinine values
(azotemia)
c. Electrolyte imbalance
d. Lack of renal concentrating ability producing an
isosthenuric (SG 1.010) urine
e. Proteinuria and renal glycosuria
f. Abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY, and (3)
BROAD casts, often referred to as a TELESCOPED URINE
SEDIMENT
1023. SMOOTH AND RAPID WEDGE SMEAR: Keep the
spreader slide at a 30 to 40 degree angle and the
edge of the slide firmly against the horizontal
slide, push the spreader slide rapidly over the
entire length of the slide. (push spreader slide
RAPIDLY). The tail of the film should be
SMOOTH. Barbara Brown
1024. RBC indices are used to define the size and
hemoglobin content of RBCs. They consists of MCV,
MCH and MCHC. The indices are commonly used as an
aid in diagnosing and differentiating anemias.
(Brown)
1025. The MCH is much less valuable to the clinician
than the MCV and MCHC.
1026. Although CYTOKINES are produced by many cell
populations (endothelial cells, fibroblasts,
epithelial cells, and others), they are MAINLY THE
PRODUCTS OF HELPER T CELLS (TH) AND MACROPHAGES.
(Henry)
1027. CROHN’S DISEASE: inflammatory bowel disease.
Immune reaction against intestinal bacteria.
1028. POLARIZING MICROSCOPY: Polarized light is
obtained by using TWO POLARIZING FILTERS. The light
emerging from one filter vibrates in one plane, and
a second filter placed at a 90-degree angle blocks
all incoming light, except that rotated by the
birefringent substance.
1029. TISSUE BLOCK, FIXATION
Electron microscopy: 1 to 2 sq. mm.
Light microscopy: 2 sq.cm (2 cm x 1 cm) x 0.4 cm
(thickness or thinness)
1030. RA 10912: Continuing Professional Development
Act of 2016
a. It lapsed into law without P’Noy’s signature on
July 21, 2016
b. Under President Aquino, Senator Trillanes
c. MANDATORY for the renewal of the PRC cards of all
registered and licensed professionals under PRC
d. 45 units for 3 years for Registered Medical
Technologists (RMTs)
e. 30 units for 3 years for Registered Laboratory
TECHNICIANS (RLTs)
f. Under this law, OFWs are NOT exempted. They can
earn CPD units abroad provided that you have
supporting documents to prove it. The CPD council
for your profession will dictate the equivalency of
such seminars. (PRC Resolution No. 2016-990 series
of 2016)
g. PRC amended few provisions in the Resolution
No. 2013-774 Series of 2013 or the Revised
Guidelines on the Continuing Professional
Development (CPD) program for all Registered and
Licensed professionals through Resolution No. 2016-
990 series of 2016.
PS.
1. ALL TYPES of casts can be a broad cast.
2. Most common type of broad casts are GRANULAR and
WAXY casts.
3. But if asked about TELESCOPED SEDIMENTS:
abundance of (1) GRANULAR, (2) WAXY and (3) BROAD
casts.
4. Wedge smear should be SMOOTH and RAPID.
5. Cytotoxicity testing is under HLA testing;
therefore anticoagulant is ACD or heparin. — with
Kelly Kinyoun and 49 others.
1031. ALLELE - one of two or more different genes
that may occupy a specific locus on a chromosome.
1032. ANTITHETICAL - referring to antigens that are
the product of allelic genes (e.g., Kell [K] and
Cellano [k]).
1033. Amorph - gene that does not appear to produce
a detectable antigen; a silent gene, such as Jk, Lu,
O.
1034. Recessive - type of gene that, in the presence
of its dominant allele, does not express itself;
expression occurs when it is inherited in the
homozygous state.
1035. Dominant - trait or characteristic that will
be expressed in the offspring even though it is
carried on only one of the homologous chromosomes.
1036. Codominant - pair of genes in which neither is
dominant over the other—that is, they are both
expressed.
1037. Phenotype - OUTWARD EXPRESSION OF GENES (e.g.,
a blood type). On blood cells, serologically
demonstrable antigens constitute the phenotype,
except those sugar sites that are determined by
transferases.
1038. Genotype - individual’s actual genetic makeup.
1039. Adsorption - providing an antibody with its
corresponding antigen under optimal conditions so
that the antibody will attach to the antigen,
thereby removing the antibody from the serum; often
used interchangeably with absorption.
1040. Elution - process whereby cells that are
coated with antibody are treated in such a manner as
to DISRUPT THE BONDS BETWEEN THE ANTIGEN AND
ANTIBODY.
1041. Bombay Phenotype - occurring in individuals
who possess normal A or B genes but are unable to
express them because they lack the gene necessary
for production of H antigen, the required precursor
for A and B. These persons often have a potent anti-
H in their serum, which reacts with all cells except
other Bombays. Also known as Oh.
1042. The PARABOMBAY phenotypes are those rare
phenotypes in which the RBCs are completely devoid
of H antigens or have small amounts of H antigen
present.54 RBCs of these individuals express weak
forms of A and B antigens, which are primarily
detected by adsorption and elution studies.
1043. Ficoll-Hypaque - density-gradient medium used
to separate and harvest specific white blood cells,
most commonly lymphocytes.
1044. LISS contains glycine or glucose in addition
to saline.
1045. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is a common drug used to
treat hypertensi on; frequently the cause of a
positive direct Coombs’ test result.
1046. RETICULOCYTE or the NEOCYTE (young RBCs).
1047. ICTERUS - condition characterized by yellowish
skin, whites of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body
fluids caused by increased circulating bilirubin
resulting from excessive hemolysis or from liver
damage due to hepatitis. Synonym is jaundice.
1048. KERNICTERUS - form of icterus neonatorum
occurring in infants, developing at 2 to 8 days of
life; prognosis poor if untreated. This condition is
due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin.
1049. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE - can result from a
deficiency of an enzyme that transfers glucuronate
groups onto bilirubin or from liver immaturity; can
result in jaundice that occurs in some infants
during the first few days of life; also called
NEONATAL JAUNDICE.
1050. PHYSIOLOGIC JAUNDICE of the newborn is a
result of a deficiency in the enzyme glucuronyl
transferase, one of the last liver functions to be
activated in prenatal life since bilirubin
processing is handled by the mother of the fetus.
a. Kernicterus often results in cell damage and
death in the newborn, and this condition will
continue until glucuronyl transferase is produced.
b. Infants with this type of jaundice are usually
treated with ultraviolet radiation to destroy the
bilirubin as it passes through the capillaries of
the skin. In extreme cases, some infants require an
exchange transfusion.
c. Because this condition is so serious, bilirubin
levels are carefully and frequently monitored so the
dangerously high levels of unconjugated bilirubin
(approximately 20 mg/dL) can be detected and
treated.