Anatomy Review Questions

1. A patient with an isolated

oculomotor nerve paralysis would
present with the following findings on
the affected side
A) constricted pupils (+CNIII)
B) eyeball deviated laterally (-CNIII)
C) weakness of eyelid closure (-CNVII)
D) all of the above
 
• MPL .5
 2. Reproductive adaptations noted in
the female true pelvis include the
following EXCEPT
A) greater pubic angle
B) wider sacrosciatic
notches
C) longer pelvic cavity
D) cylindrical pelvic cavity
*3.A high velocity bullet penetrates the posterior
aspect of the shoulder and severely injures the origin of
the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. Each of the
following nerves might possible be affected EXCEPT
the
A) upper
subscapular
B) Radial
C) Thoracodorsal
D) medial pectoral
Brachial Plexus
Cords
• posterior
– upper subscapular nn
– thoracodorsal nn
– lower subscapular nn
– axillary nn
– radial nn

• lateral
– lateral pectoral nn
– musculocutaneous nn
– lateral root of median nn

• medial
– medial pectoral nn
– medial brachial cutaneous nn
– medial antebrachial cutaneous nn
– ulnar nn
– medial root of median nn
4.During the
proliferative phase of
the menstrual cycle,
one can observe that
• the endometrium
thickens largely
because of edema
• glycogen disappears
in the basal
cytoplasm of the
glandular epithelium
• there is a two to
threefold increase
in the thickness of
the endometrium
• the endometrial
glands become
quite tortuous
5. Bile formed by hepatic cells is first
secreted into the
• bile canaliculi
• bile ducts
• space of Disse
• hepatic duct
6. A patient with an isolated injury to the mandibular
division of the trigeminal nerve would present with

A) atrophy of the
temporalis muscle
on the affected side
B) flattened naso-labial
fold on the affected
side
C) numbness of the
cheek on the
affected side
D) A and C only
7. The landmark structure noted during the
dissection of the gluteal area
A) gluteus medius
B) piriformis
C) quadratus femoris
D) obturator externus
8.Semen is composed of products produced by all
of the following EXCEPT the
• seminiferous tubules
• seminal vesicles
• bulbourethral glands
• rete testis
*9. True ribs include

• 5th
• 7th
• 8th
• A and B
*10. A patient was noted to have atrophy of the
temporalis and masseter muscles on one side of the
face. His corneal reflex on the affected side was normal
and he had no sensory deficit in the cheek area. This
patient most probably has a lesion involving the

a. mandibular division of
CN V
b. maxillary division of CN
V
c. ophthalmic division of
CN V
d. terminal branches of CN
VII
*11. The primary
hip flexor is the
• sartorius
• rectus femoris
• iliopsoas
• pectineus
*12. The following secretions are correctly attached
with their cells of origin in every pair EXCEPT

A) glucagon - pancreatic • Answer:

alpha cells • Parietal cells produce
B) intrinsic factor- parietal gastric acid
cells of the stomach • Chief cells produce
C) insulin - pancreatic beta pepsinogen
cells
D) hydrochloric acid -
chief cells of the
stomach
13. A patient presented with complete paralysis of one
side of the face with intact lacrimation and taste
sensation (anterior 2/3 of tongue) The cranial nerve
involved in this case most probably has a tension at the
level of the
• internal auditory
meatus
• geniculate ganglion
• sytlomastoid foramen
• external auditory
meatus
*14. This structure is
highly vulnerable in
surgical manipulation of
the ductus arteriosus

• Esophagus
• left bronchus
• left vagus nerve
• left recurrent
laryngeal nerve
15. The three types of granulocytes usually can be
distinguished best under the light microscope on the
basis of

A) nuclear morphology
and cell size
B) nuclear morphology
only
C) cell size only
D) staining reaction of
cytoplasmic granules
*16. The liver is anatomically divided into right and left
unequal halves along the fissure of the

A) ligamentum venosum
B) inferior vena cava
C) falciform ligament
D) porta hepatic
 17. Both skeletal and smooth muscle can be found in
the muscularis externa of the

• Stomach
• Duodenum
• Colon
• esophagus

• Mid esophagus has

skeletal and smooth
muscles
 *18. This structure is highly vulnerable in cancerous
growth in R pulmonary hilum and posterior
mediastinum

• Trachea
• superior
intercostal
vein
• vagus
nerve
D) pulmonary
ligament
19. During erection of the penis, the volume of the
blood occupying the spaces of the cavernous sinuses is
increased by
• contraction of the musculature of the dorsal artery of the
penis
• relaxation of the musculature of the dorsal artery of the penis
• contraction of the musculature of the helicine arteries
• relaxation of the musculature of the helicine arteries
*20.The granules found in the cells of the adrenal
medulla consist of

• hydrocortisone
• Glucocorticoids
• Epinephrine
D) mineralocorticoids
21. The deep perineal space in the male contains
each of the following EXCEPT
• membranous urethra
• prostate gland
• bulbourethral glands
• sphincter urethrae
muscle
 *22. Loss of
extension of the
knee would result
from damage to the

• femoral nerve
• tibial nerve
• tibial and common
fibular
D) obturator nerve
23. Which of the following epithelia can usually be
found in the normal female reproductive system?

A) stratified
squamous and
simple columnar
B) transitional and
stratified
squamous
C) simple columnar
and transitional
D) simple columnar
and
pseudostratified
24. By inserting the finger into the rectum, the
following can be readily felt and examined

• enlarged seminal
vesicles
• prostate gland
• A and B
• none of the above
25. The ventral rami of the brachial plexus are
seen at the
• posterior cervical
triangle
• carotid triangle
C) submandibular triangle
D) muscular triangle
26. The function of the interstitial endocrine cells of the
testis is to

a. form acrosome
b. secrete testosterone
c. support the germinal
epithelium
d. supply nutrients to the
sex cells
27. The vermiform appendix is best located by
following the

A) anterior cecal artery

B) descending branch of
the right colic artery
C) ileum to the ileocolic
juncture
D) teniae coli of the
ascending colon
28. From which of the
following sites is primary
cancer most likely to
metastasize to the lung by
venous spread?

• Ileum
• Appendix
• Kidney
• transverse colon
29. Simple cuboidal epithelium is usually found in

• parietal layer of
Bowman’s capsule
• descending limb of the
loop of Henle
• rete testis
• single layer on the
free surface of the
ovary
30. The roof of the adductor canal is formed by the

• rectus femoris
• vastus medialis
• adductor longus
• sartorius
31. Trauma to the
sternocostal surface of
the heart would more
likely damage the

A) right atrium
B) right ventricle
C) left ventricle
D) left atrium
32. Interruption of blood
flow in the internal iliac
artery would affect blood
flow to each of the
following EXCEPT the
• medial thigh muscles
• ductus deferens
• lower abdominal wall
and rectus abdominis
muscle
• rectum
*33. A child suspected of aspirating a small button is seen in the
ER. While there is no complain of pain, there is frequent
coughing. Physical examination showed absence of breath
sounds. Aspirated small objects tend to lodge in the right inferior
lobar bronchus for all the following reasons EXCEPT

• left main stem ( primary)

bronchus is more
horizontal
• right inferior lobar
bronchus nearly continues
the direction of the
trachea
• right lung has no middle
lobe
• right main stem(primary)
bronchus is of greater
diameter than the left
34. This structure separates
the perineum from the
pelvic cavity
• ischiorectal fossa
• urogenital diaphragm
• pelvic diaphragm
• urogenital triangle
35. Drug detoxification
occurs in the
• Golgi apparatus
• smooth endoplasmic
reticulum
• rough endoplasmic
reticulum
• lysosomes
36. The ligament that
prevents C1 vertebrae
from translating against
C2 is
• alar ligament
• tentorial ligament
• transverse ligament
• posterior longitudinal
ligament
37. The scala vestibuli of
the inner ear
communicates with the
scala tympani via the
• Modiolus
• Helicotrema
• cecum cupulare
D) aqueduct
38. The Haversian
canals of bone tissue
A) contain
chondrocytes
B) are lined by cement
lines
C) form the central
structure of a
Haversian system
D)run perpendicular to
the long axis of the
bone
39. The hepatic portal vein
is correctly described by
each of the following
EXCEPT
• it drains most of the
venous blood from the
gastrointestinal tract
• it forms by the
confluence of the
superior mesenteric and
splenic veins
• it is located in the
hepatoduodenal ligament
• it forms posterior to the
head of the pancreas
• 40. The internal
spermatic fascia is
derived from the
• external oblique
aponeurosis
• Peritoneum
• transversus abdominis
aponeurosis
• transversalis fascia
41. The vagus nerve
enters the abdominal
cavity through the
• aortic hiatus
• esophageal hiatus
• sternocostal hiatus
• vena caval aperture
• 42. The part of the
uterine tube which is
removed during
fimbriectomy
• Cornua
• Isthmus
• Ampulla
• infundibulum
• 43. Pressure
developing deep to
the flexor
retinaculum would
affect each of the
following EXCEPT the
A) median nerve
B) ulnar nerve
C) tendons of the flexor
digitorum
superficialis muscle
D) tendons of the flexor
pollicis longus muscle
44. A patient enters the
emergency room not
being able to raise his
foot. The nerve that is
suspected to be
damaged is the
• Tibial
• common fibular
• Obturator
D) medial plantar
45. Sinusoids are correctly
described by each of
the following EXCEPT
a. they have a irregular
tortuous lumen
b. they are lined by
endothelial cells
c. they have a dense
connective tissue wall
d. they have no
phagocytic elements
46. The opening into the
lesser sac is through the
• foramen of Bochdalek
• foramen of Winslow
• foramen of Morgagni
D) foramen transversarium
47.Damage to the obturator
nerve on the lateral wall
of the pelvis would affect
the function of each of
the following muscles
EXCEPT the
• Sartorius (femoral n)
• Gracilis
• adductor longus
• Pectineus (femoral n, occl
obturator n)
48. When removing
the right lung, the
surgeon has to be
careful to protect
which of the
following
structures passing
posterior to the
root of the lung?
• hemiazygos vein
• right vagus nerve
• right phrenic nerve
• thoracic aorta
49. Which muscle is
responsible for expelling
the last drops of urine in
the male
• sphincter urethrae
• bulbocavernosi
• sphincter vesicae
(internal urethral
sphincter)
• Ischiocavernosi

Bulbospongiosus constricts
around the bulb of the
penis to express last drop
of urine from “urethra”
50. At the
hepatoduodenal
ligament, the structure
that occupies a medial
location is the
• common bile duct
• portal vein
• inferior vena cava
• hepatic artery
51. The thoracic duct enters
the venous circulation at
the junction of
A) superior vena cava and
right atrium
B) left subclavian and left
internal jugular vein
C) left and right
brachiocephalic vein
D) right subclavian and right
internal jugular vein
• 52. The axillary artery may
be ligated at this point
without compromising the
blood supply to the upper
extremity
• A) proximal to the
thyrocervical trunk
• B) distal to the
subscapular artery
• C) between the
thyrocervical trunk and
subscapular artery
• D) none of the above
53. Separates the
submandibular triangle
from the carotid
triangle
• posterior belly of
digastric
• Omohyoid
• sternohyoid
D) hyoid bone
54. An occlusion of the
superior mesenteric
artery would result in
necrosis of each of the
following EXCEPT the
• ascending colon
• Rectum
• Ileum
• cecum
55. Occupies the
tracheoesophageal
groove
• vagus nerve
• sympathetic trunk
• recurrent laryngeal
nerve
• phrenic nerve
56. A woman’s inability to
supinate the forearm
could result from an
injury to which of the
following pair of nerves
• axillary and radial
• median and ulnar
• radial (supinator,
brachioradialis)and
musculocutaneous
(biceps)
D) suprascapular and
axillary
57. Following tonsillectomy,
a patient noted loss of
general sensation and
taste from the posterior
one third of the tongue. It
could be assumed that
the injured nerve was a
branch of the
• glossopharyngeal nerve
• facial nerve
• lingual nerve
• hypoglossal nerve
58. The median cubital
vein is a communication
between the
• cephalic and basilic
• basilic and axillary
• cephalic and axillary
D) axillary and subclavian
59. Fenestrated capillaries
have
A) extremely attenuated
areas of endothelium with
pores
B) thickened areas with pores
C) diaphragm that have the
same thickness as unit
membranes
D) pores that are evenly
spaced over the entire
surface of the endothelium
60. A severe blow to the
side of the head could
fracture which one of
the following bones in
the roof of the orbit?
• Palatine
• Maxilla
• Frontal
• zygomatic
61. Occupies a medial
location within the
carotid sheath
B) internal jugular vein
C) ansa cervicalis
D)vagus nerve
D) common carotid artery
62. Each of the following
characterizes the levator ani
muscles EXCEPT
a. it forms the principal part of
the pelvic diaphragm
b. it separates the floor of the
pelvis from the ischioanal
fossa
c. it arises from the inner
surface of the superior
ramus of the pubis
d. it separates the superficial
and deep inguinal spaces
• 63. A basketball player • Some Lovers Try
who trips and falls, Positions That They
landing on his Can't Handle
outstretched hand will
most likely fractures
which carpal bone?
• trapezium
• Capitate
• Scaphoid
• hamate
64. Lymphatic nodules are
found in each of the
following EXCEPT
• lymph nodes
• Thymus
• Tonsils
• walls of urinary tract
65. A spleen may be
ruptured in traumatic
injuries to the chest if
these ribs are fractured
and displaced
A) 5th, 6th, 7th level of the
posterior axillary line
B) 7th, 8th , 9th level of the
midaxillary line
C) 9th, 10th, 11th level of
the left posterior
axillary line
D) 10th, 11th, 12 anteriorly
66. A diastolic murmur coming
from a stenosed mitral
valve in patient with RHD is
best heard or auscultated at
the
• 5th ICS left midclavicular
line
• 4th ICS left parasternal
border
• 2nd ICS left parasternal
border
• 4th ICS right parasternal
border
67. Surgically, it is
important to locate
which one of the
following structures
located immediately
posterior to the second
part of the duodenum
• transverse colon
• left lobe of the liver
• hilum of right kidney
• gallbladder
68. Podocytes are
associated with which of
the following parts of the
urinary system
• distal convoluted tubule
• thick limb of loop of
Henle
• major calyces
• visceral layer of
Bowmans capsule
69. A baby sustained a lower
brachial plexus injury due
to traumatic childbirth
(forceful pulling on the
arm). The following is/are
true statements regarding
this type of injury
A) results in loss of abduction,
flexion and lateral rotation
of the shoulder
B) results in clawhand
deformity (c8, t1;
ulnar>median)
C) leads to sensory deficit in
the lateral aspect of the
upper extremity
D) all of the above
70. Which of the following
layers in the wall of a
medium sized artery
contains smooth muscle
• internal elastic
membrane
• external elastic
membrane
• tunica adventitia
• tunica media
• 71. A lesion of the lingual
nerve immediately after it
receives the chorda
tympani nerve could
result in each of the
following EXCEPT
• loss of sublingual gland
secretion
• sensory loss from lower
teeth
• loss of taste from anterior
two thirds of the tongue
• loss of submandibular
gland secretion
• 72. The superior vena
cava could be
damaged by a stab
wound deep to the
• right first costal
cartilage
• right fourth costal
cartilage
• right sternoclavicular
joint
• left second costal
cartilage
73. All of the following statements
concerning the uterus are
correct EXCEPT
• the broad ligament reflects
from the posterior surface of
the uterus to the rectum to
form the rectouterine pouch
• the round ligament connects
the uterus to the ovary
• the broad ligament extends
from the anterior surface of the
uterus onto the bladder
forming the vesicouterine
pouch
• the uterine tubes enter the
uterus in the superior border of
the broad ligament
74. A 58-year-old man
presented with a year
history of chest pain. The
attacks were increasing in
frequency and were only
relieved by rest. Cardiac
catheterization revealed an
area of occlusion of the
circumflex branch of the left
coronary artery. The
damage to the heart would
probably involve the
• left atrium and left
ventricle
• right atrium and left
ventricle
• right and left ventricles
• apex of the heart
75. A severe infection
that obstructs the
middle meatus
would affect
drainage from each
of the following
sinus EXCEPT the
• maxillary sinus
• frontal sinus
• nasolacrimal duct
• anterior ethmoid air
cells
76. Plicae circulares is
most abundant in what
part of the
gastrointestinal tract
• Duodenum
• jejunum
• Ileum
• large intestine
77. A woman on her 3rd
trimester of pregnancy
developed paresthesia of
the hands. She has
difficulty in doing her
cross-stitch hobby. Her
most likely problem
affects the
• median nerve
• ulnar nerve
• radial nerve
• axillary nerve
78.A 9-year-old boy fell
hitting his elbow.
Physical examination
showed weakness in
wrist flexion and loss of
adduction. Loss of
sensation was noted on
the medial side of his
hand. What nerve was
most probably injured
• Musculocutaneous
• Ulnar
• Radial
• median
79. Carcinoma of the
_____part of the
pancreas usually shows
itself first by painless
progression jaundice with
enlargement and
distention of the gall
bladder
• Head
• Neck
• Body
• tail
80. Sperms found in these
structures are capable
of fertilizing ova
B) seminiferous tubules
C) rete testis
D)ductuli efferentes
D) epididymis
81. A myocardial infarction
that damages the heart
muscle in the anterior
two thirds of the
interventricular septum
would result primarily
from occlusion of the
A) posterior interventricular
artery
B) marginal branch of the
right coronary artery
C) marginal branch of the
left coronary artery
D) anterior interventricular
artery
82. The horizontal fissure
of the right lung
separates the
• superior and middle
lobe
• superior and inferior
lobe
• inferior and middle lobe
D) superior lobe from
cardiac notch
83. In Dupuytren’s
contracture, the flexion of
the MCP joints is actually
due to
A) compression of the median
nerve at the wrist, leading
to atrophy of the muscles of
opposition
B) inflammation of the
synovium of the long flexor
tendons, leading to scarring
C) atrophy of the lumbrical
muscles due to disuse
D) fibrosis of the digital slips
of the palmar aponeurosis
84. It would be difficult for
a gallbladder infection
to easily reach which
one of the following
viscera
• Liver
• third part of the
duodenum
• cystic duct
• transverse colon
85. After leaving the
trabecular sinuses of
a lymph node, lymph
passes directly into
the
• afferent lymphatic
vessels
• efferent lymphatic
vessels
• subscapular sinuses
• medullary sinuses
86. A vertical incision
through the
midline of the
anterior
abdominal wall
will traverse the
• rectus abdominis
• external oblique
• internal oblique
• linea alba
87. The contents of an
indirect inguinal
hernia enters the
inguinal canal
______ to the
inferior epigastric
artery
• Lateral
• Medial
• Inferior
• none of the above
88. A penetrating knife
wound to the posterior
shoulder in the
quadrangular space
would damage the
axillary nerve and the
• anterior circumflex
humeral artery
• posterior circumflex
humeral artery
• subscapular artery
• superior thoracic artery
89.A tumor involving the
fifth to twelfth thoracic
vertebrae could affect
each of the following
structures in the
posterior mediastinum
EXCEPT the
• thoracic duct
• phrenic nerve
• azygos vein
• descending aorta
90. Damage to the
anatomic
snuffbox might
be expected to
injure the
• ulnar nerve
• capitate bone
• ulnar artery
• radial artery
• 91. The cerebral arterial
circle (circle of Willis) is
formed by branches of
the internal carotid
artery and the
• external carotid artery
• vertebral artery
• basilar artery
• middle meningeal
artery
92. AS a result of an
injury to the ulnar
nerve in the arm, all
of the following
changes in the hand
will be noted
EXCEPT
A) sensory loss on the
little finger and one
half of the ring
finger
B) the thumb is
strongly adducted
C) loss of flexion of the
distal
interphalangeal
joints of the fourth
and fifth digits
D) marked wasting in
the hypothenar
eminence
• For questions 93-95
• A 63 year old woman
shows a fine, pill-rolling
tremor in both upper
extremities, with
tremors at rest. There is
an overall poverty of
movements. The
patient’s gait is shuffling
and motor performance
is delayed.
93. The most likely
diagnosis is
• Wilson’s disease
• Parkinson’s disease
• Benedikt’s syndrome
• Liver-brain disease
94. Dysfunction of this
structure is implicated
in the above disease
A) substantia gelatinosa
B) red nucleus
C) substantia nigra
D) cerebellum
95. Treatment involves
administration of
• Dopamine
• L-
dihydroxyphenylalanin
e (levodopa)
• Acetylcholine
• serotonin
96. The powerful
extension of the thigh
required when one is
standing from a sitting
position is the function
of the
• gluteus maximus
• iliacus muscle
• psoas major
• piriformis
97. Ejaculatory fluid is
composed of products
produced by all of the
following EXCEPT the
• seminiferous tubules
• seminal vesicles
• bulbourethral glands
• rete testis
98. Respiratory distress
syndrome occurs most
commonly because
a. too few mature alveoli
have developed
b. surfactant production
is insufficient
c. the lungs are partially
filled with amniotic fluid
d. type I alveolar epithelial
cells produce a greatly
thickened basement
membrane
• For question 99-100 • Prostitute’s pupils,
•   accommodate but not react
• A 55-year-old woman
complained of numbness in
the legs, which spread to
involve her hands. There were
sudden sharp pains, variable in
location, but usually localized
to one or the other leg. On
examination, her pupils were
of unequal size. Argyll-
Robertson pupils and
Romberg’s sign were present.
Although the patient’s
strength was normal she was
areflexic in all limbs.
99. The most likely • Syphilis
diagnosis is
• Brown Sequard
syndrome
• tabes dorsalis
• multiple sclerosis
• meningiona
100. Above findings is the
result of
a. degeneration of
posterior columns
b. upper motor neuron
damage
c. cerebellar disease
d. degeneration of basal
ganglia