fet 18U/114/13(i) oan [Total No. of Printed Pages 64] Question Booklet No. (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen) | Roll No. Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet! Centre Code No. Day and Date .. Sequence and that no page/ques contains all the pages in cory Superintegg Ouestion Booklet bring it Mhe notice of, fresh Question Booklet. 2, Donotbring any loose 3. A separate OMR Any Ny is missing, In case of faulty Invigidgrs immedictely to obtain a 4. Write all entries by 5, Onthe front page ¢f the Answer Sheet, wr the top ant by darleuing the circles at th A Centre code Numb and the Set Numbel whereever apy 6. No overwriting is al ion Booklet no. and Set no. (if any) on OMR Answer Sheddgud Roll No. and OMBgse@Wer Sheet no. on the Question Booklet. 7, Any change in the aforesi jet Merified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfairmeans. 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Auswer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the OMR Answer Sheet. 9. Foreach question, darken only one circle on the OMR Answer Sheet, If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 10. Now that (he answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish 0 attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marks). AL, For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet 12. On completion of the Test, the candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheetto the Invigilator in the examination room/hali, However, candidates are allowed to takeaway Test Bookletand copy of CMR Answer Sheet with them Ber in the space provided at 1@ Question Booklet Number, 13. Candidates are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14.1. acandidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shail be liable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose18U/114/13(i) ROUGH WORK wH18Bb+4713(i) No. of Questions : 150 Uy at wet : 150 at Time : 2 2 Hours Full Marks : 450 1 awa: 2 woe quis: 450 Note :(1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. catenin seit at eet HA I VAST HL) HH TST 3 (aA) sit ar Bi aeder werd Fa B RI Ce ote wre ART! gaa amattd sea ar area ger er (2) If more than one alternative answers scem to be epproximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. cafe watts Fenieas Sa Wel sat S Prve ete ef, tt Prvets aa Sa 1 (3) This paper comprises of three sections : Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics. Each section contains 50 questions. ge ygaaa dim Gest ar 2 : Af faa , Cee feet od afar i waer wes F sousT SI 3 P.T.O.Tstyr” 18U/114/13{(1] ol. 02. “Skerjon.A qs -I PHYSICS fen fart If the earth suddenly contracted to half of its radius without any change in its mass and its shape, duration of the day instead of 24 hours will be : (1) 24 hours (2) 12hours (3) 6 hours (4) 8 hours ale fat Ra ul Sept gael Jedt ar cane Fa Ee gs one aH defeat ae Rear om dl 24 we? S eA a es at ar oraf erit : (1) 24 Wwe (2) 12 we (3) 6 Awe (4) 8 Wee ‘The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 min diameter containing water is approximately (surface tension water-air interface is 0.073 Newton/meter at 20°C) : ari @ 98 ca are aie Hl acl Breas eae 1 filo BH 20°C we ae Seat eT et ( W-ea sigs TAA 20°C Fz 0.073 wyet Atez B) = () 15mm (2) 20mm (3) 40 mm (4) 30mm3. 4. 35. 18U/114/13(i) AUT“K a particle of mass M of gas obeys Maxwellian velocity distribution. The average speed of the particle is (k is Boltzman’s constant ) : MK a Oe M aera ara ae a ape Fea an Pare oe an Ba abt at arat & (k dieeatda fein 8) : SKE [2k 1 \Mq Pl Wve Per (3kT " 4) Yo (3) If 15 gm of air is heated from 0°C to 5'C at constant volume by adding 150 calories of heat, the change in the internal energy of air will be (1) 20 cal/gm (2) 10 cal/gm (3) 15 cal/gm (4) Scal/em fee aTart We 150 Feit Ge at AT SHC 15 HM ear ST OC a sc am ae Pear ona ® dt eat A atiaite Gat F oRada er (1) 20 Sarat (2) 10 aera (3) 15 Sarat (4) 5 état Which one of the following statement is not true for a particle executing simple harmonic motion ? (1) The force on the particle is directed towards the centre. (2) The force on the particle is directely proportional to the displacement from the centre. (3) The kinetic energy of the particle is maximum at the extreme positions. (4) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the extreme positions. 5 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 06. cm aor ot Be eee onafer aft area BS fay fre A a Be GT HAT wel wet B ? (1) BY WL MM are Ae Hx SH GME fess Hear S 2) wre wR aren ae gah Se Ferg 8 Rewer S agai Brat & 1 (3) er A afar Gol gab sey fergat ov siftraar act 81 (4) er at eT gah aH fergeih we afew at & A particle is executing simple harmonic motion along x-axis. If the distances of the particle from the equilibrium position are x, and x, with velocities u, and u,, respectively, the time period T of the oscillations is : we ey (x aa S at Get sages Ne Hee G1 ate aT ferg @ x, ax, seat we sas a7 wr: u, aa u, 8, dt aa angie vfs am ateart ret z :18U/114/13(i) 07. Two j ‘ Ne ao bottes are placed in an evacuated vessel maintained at thse ure of 27' ey The temperature of first body is 327°C and 0! second body is 227°. The ratio of rate of heat loss from two bodies is approximately : a AM Fes ca Pate aca # wa &, Pree areas 27°C Bi yew fees ar OITA 327°C we fara fees at aGRTT 227°C 81 at fest @ a ah Gem are at eet a wren orga 3 : (yp 2:1 (2]) 3:2 (3) 4:1 (4) 5:3 08. A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. If the room temperature rises by 10°C and coefficient of linear expansion of the metal rod is 2*10° per°C. The time period of the pendulum will have percentage increase of : Uh BAM Ag a BS BH Soa aes are HI Ate Far say 1 aes ort mT am 10°C as wT & ote ag ar ta gare quis: 210° oft °C a, dt ee F ardaara A oftert aah att : (1) 2x10 (2) 1*10° (3) -1*10% (4) -2x10° 09. Two transverse sinusoidal waves travel in opposite directions along a string, The speed of each wave is 0.5 cm/sec. Each wave has the same amplitude of 3 cm and wavelength of 6 cm. The equation of the resultant wave is : at srgpea car at wa-gazt & fart fens 4 ew et Ste A aa at B1 oetH TAT OS aA /Ao, Ham 3 Site Ta ate 6 Aiio &1 veri aor ar wet B (1) y=6sinaxcosnt (2) ¥=6sin Zoos 33 RX mt = bein Mee (3) y= 6sin=cos- (4) ¥= sin cos 7 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) rial and of same length are stretched 372, 10. Two strings made of same mat by same tension. If their cross sectional diameters are in the ratio the ratio of their fundamental frequencies will be = cep &t cart @ ast aa send a et er Shea ea Ta A tl ¥) ae gad oftede aret an orgy 3:2 a A Seat yer ongheratt ar arya eT : (1) 4 Q) 3:2 (3) 4:9 11. The frequency of first overtone in closed organ pipe is same as that of first overtone in case of open organ pipe. If the length of closed organ pipe is 30 cm, the length of open organ pipe is : (1) 60cm (2) 40cm (3) 45cm (4) 15cm cep de anit ogy 4H gers cif of ongfer 48 BD ga savin ay } wert often Ht ale de arts vga at dans 30 Hifo FH at ga arta mes at cia eri : () 60 @fto (2) 40 @Afo (3) 45 fle (4) i5 ite 12. In a single slit diffraction if the slit width is d and light used nas wavelength ;,, the angular width of central maxima shall be : cm ét fee faada F fee at dred a & cen gaa vag: a: aie 9 8 dt ate ofeass at ata alerd ah : 2 d i Qo Q > 8 4 (4)180/114/13(i) 13. Length of a solenoid of area of cross section A is |. It contains N turns its self inductance is : A spre are & Aswet St wee oan at cing 181 sat ae ae STN G1 ga ater ar are zs : (1) wyNPAST (2) noNASL (3) NPAT (4) woNAL 14, The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated to a potential difference of V volt is : V dive fasarae oe afta stlagra f- are atrted % - a) yea (2) [a yy h _tv_3 te 8) Qomkt Pav A where h is Planck's constant and m is the electron mass. oi h Sai Rein car m stag at deta Eh 15. Two pieces of a wire of same material have their lengths in the ratio 1: 2 and diameters in the ratio 2: 1 . If these are stretched by the same force, their elongations will be in the ratio : cm a og & Ft as & rat sag 1: 2 oer RAS are 2:1 F agua #81 afe Sat at at cH @ aa arr Gen war at sat vag # gheeit sr agua em : Q) 8:1 (2) 2:1 (3) 4:1 (4) 1:8 9 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 16. 17. 18. Ata height h from earth's surface with h<80mL (3) <80mL (4) 20mL 2651. 52. 53. 18U/114/13(i) SECTION - Hf qs -I1 CHEMISTRY cart fast Diffusion of helium gas is four times faster than : (1), (2) CO, (3) SO, (4) No, Aferert Far ar Peer are yar dar () 0, 4 (2) co, & 3) so, & (4) NO,@ For the following reaction in gaseous phase, COlg)+502(8)= COL) K,/K, is: infa saer 4 ofarar Co(g)+40.(8)=C0,(8 & faa, K/K, & QQ) Rn (2) (RN? (3) (RT) (4) RN? Which of the following is the weakest acid ? fra Fa Ara aaa gia ora & ? () HF (2) HCl (3) HNO, (4) H,SO, 25 P.T.O.87. 58. 59. 18U/114/13(i) Which of the following is not a colligative property ? (1) Osmotic pressure (2) Depression of freezing point (3) Elevation of boiling point (4) Opticalactivity faa @ an a ager pert aes ? (1) TORT TT (2) feat aeat (3) Faas Saat (4) Senter afer A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with (1) 0.01 M solution of glucose (2) 0.02 M solution of glucose (3) 0.05 M solution of glucose (4) 1.0 M solution of glucose after an 6% facet aarerardt & : (1) 0.01 M wat frat @ (2) 0.02 M Wat raat & (3) 0.05 M tga fatat A (4) 10M ast fara a ‘The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl, and KNO, are 152, 128 and 111 S cm? mol", respectively. What would be the molar conductivity of NaNO, in S cm? mol" ? KCl, NaCl 71 KNO, #4 Flat area FAT: 152, 128 aa 1118 aie ater Bis iP Aer! # NaNO, at tere arerevar eM ePTh ? (1) 87 (2) 101 (3) 391 (4) 239 27 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 60. if the standard electrode potential of Cu’/Cu electrode is 0.34 V, 61. what is the electrode potential at 0.01 M concentration of Cur? 2 (T=298K) : (1) 0.563v (2) 0.422v (3) 0.281V (4) 0.140 aft Cu’/Cu gaagis ar are Pera 0.34 aie 8, A 0.01 M Cu? art arat are gatagts at fa (7-298K ) aan ar 2 Ql) 0.536 ave (2) 0.422 dive (3) 0.281 ate (4) 0.190 alee ‘The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by rate =k(A}"[B]". On the double concentration of A and half concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be : a ard a cer pS ater estefan & fire 84 Peay ax = Kappa art fet one @1 A eT at aT ga BF aan | aren aes oe, a ot ert oafeensit or arya gar ; 1 Q) = (2) mtn @) 2 (4) nm 2862. 63. 64. 18U/114/13(i) The activation energy of exothermic reaction A +B is 80 kJ mol". ‘The heat of the reaction is 200kJ mol’. The activation energy for the reaction B——A (in kJ mot-!) would be Seg afar A—B & faq ae Gal 80 Pogo’ FI apiien sur 200 froyo Wa 21 aftfear B—oa % few aia Gat (oy Fret! 4) Sit (1) 280 (2) 120 (3) 80 (4) 40 Activated charcoal is used to remove colouring matter from pure substances. It works by : (1) bleaching (2) oxidation (3) reduction (4) adsorption ge vere & or St ewe Og aa arate Tg dha B 1 gaa (1) faesteret (2) siatct (3) Hane (4) afeeteet The velocity of oxidation of oxalic acid by acidified KMnO, increases as the reaction progresses. It is an example of : (1) Promoter (2) Catalytic poison (3) Autocatalysis (4) Inhibitor 29 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 65. 66. 67. atta KMnO, arr rears avet & sitehance at ae ifittepal aaa & oer ae ont Bi Fe TH TaTeTT 2: QQ) aden ar QQ) Sere faa ar (3) Ma: SR ar (4) ARR ST Which is more powerful to coagulate the negative colloid ? (1) K,[Fe(CN),] (2) Na,PO, (3) Znso, (4) AICI, Doping of slicon with boron leads to : (1) n-type semiconductor (2) p-type semiconductor (3) metal (4) insulator fete ar deta & arr sro (Sift) aan & (1) n~ Bea orstarereh (2) p ~ cer aa: (3) ag (4) arn Which one of the following concentration parameters is not affected by change in temperature 2 () g/L (QQ). normality (3) molarity (4) molality 3068. 69. 18U/114/13(i) or GRada ae Fret 4 8 acer arr Hiygus senfarer set ster B 7 (1) ar yetet (2) arterar (3) Alea (4) Ateerar Spontaneous adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is an exothermic process because : (1) AH increases for system (2) AS increases for gas (3) AS decreases for gas (4) AG increases for gas Ra ar we da & aoe we ee: - ated afar cH Gorath yr & Fas : Q) aa % far an agar ® (2) Xe & fam 4s ae’ (3) Na % fam As wear @ (4) 7a & fam aG asm & PVC stands for : (1) Polyvinyl carbinol (2) Polyvinyl chloral (3) Polyvinyl chloride (4) Polyvinyl chloroform pve wat eet = (1) Ofettfeargcranntelsiter (QQ) UntfangcraRice (3) UdirngraRES (4) Siehtfarrgerritart 31 P.T.O.18U/114/131i) 70. Which of the following substances does not fall in the category of 71. 72. carbohydrates ? (1) Mannose (3) Glycerol (2) (4) Starch Cellulose Prafafadt cerita 8 ata arafergge at Ach A ae on & 2 (2) (4) Ethyl alcohol on oxidation produces : sas Senet at sitedinet tar B : QQ) Baer (3) Perera (1) Cocl, (3) CH,Coct Paracetamol is : (1) Antibiotic (3) Antipyretic afer & : (1) Udrarifes (3) SRT 32 (2) (4) (2) (4) (2) (4) ert ager CH,CHO CH,COCH, Antimalarial Sulpha drug Ua FAT18U/114/13(i) 73, Which one of the following does not give positive test with Tollen's reagent ? (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Benzaldehyde (3) Glucose (4) Acetone fra a Be aee otemtes Barer carer When we Bat S ? (i) watefeseres 2) aufesees (3) "abr (4) water 74, Formaldehyde and ammonia reacts to produce ()) Para-formaldehyde (2) Hexamethylenetetramine (3) Crotonaldehyde (4) Trioxane ative oft opifrar & oifafwar ear : (ot eeCES (2) Sereafateegroaria (3) meriesegs (4) RRsat 75. Maleic acid and fumaric acid are (2) position isomers (2) functional isomers (3) geometrical isomers (4) metamers 33 P.T.O.18U/114/13{i) 76. 77. (Ql) @m wreas (2) araieres Aare (3) Safrdta areas (4) Fears Acetic acid on heating with ethanol in the presence of traces of sulphuric acid produces : ofefes ules, argh ufas a cafeafer A gaenet ara rt et az tare: (1) C,H, QQ) C,H, (3) CH,COOC,H, (4) (CH,CO),0 Wolff-Kishner reduction is used for : (1) Carboxylic acid (2) Olefins (3) Carbonyl compounds (4) Nitro compounds aier-Prez Bead arrerea & fee seit fear oar & Q) araleafeer cfs (2) Shift (3) aralPrer aAfret (4) agg aifreat 3418U/114/13(i) 78. If two valencies of carbonyl group are satisfied by two alkyl groups, 79. 80. the compound formed is : (1) Acid (2) Aldehyde (3) Ketone (4) Acid anhydride afe araitrer aie af et datraart et cfent aye a dae Fae afte Fare: a) ofa (2) cree @) ate (4) fas Wess What product is formed on heating two molecules of urea ? (1) Uricacid (2) Biuret (3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon dioxide after & & omysit How aA Ge eT Tere ara e ? (1) afte ofee (2) TARE () AIRgerT (4) art srgottrngs By which reaction, formaldehyde is converted to methyl alcohol ? (1) Aldol reaction (2) Cannizzaro's reaction (3) Wolff-Kishner reaction (4) Wurtz-Fittig reaction 35 P.T.O.18U/114/13\(i) 81. 82. 83. 2? (1) oeeter cafefarar Q) SRO a offer (3) aren-fasrart afafeeat (4) dar Refer otter Geminal dihalide is : Sia seas & (1) BrCH,-CH,-CH,Br (2) CH,CL-CH,Br (3) CH,CCI,CH, (4) CH,CHBr-CH,Br Which one of the following is used as antiknock in petrol fuel ? (1) Tetraethyl lead (2) Basic lead sulphate (3) Basic lead chromate (4) Lead tetra acetate frafefae a @ Ascar cm Aga det A ogered Tet B wT F sear fara oie & ? (1) Barer as (2) ata ae ame (3) aaa as wre (4) as 3g whee Glycerol is = (1) Primary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol (3) Dihydric alcohol (4) Trihydric alcohol 3684, 85. 18U/114/13{i) Porter & (1) orafte sreptear (2) fares orptea (3) Biers arebrect @) géeefss areHtet The test, which is not given by acetone, is : (1) 2,4-DNP test (2) Todoform test (3) Bromoform test (4) Schiff's test ge veerr sit after ant wet fear oer @ : (1) 2,4-dfoutofte What (2) sTgetert éerr (3) aTErT gaert (4) Rep ar oer ‘The emission spectrum of hydrogen, first discovered and the region of electromagnetic spectrum it belongs to, are respectively : (1) Lymen, U.V. (2) Lymen, Visible (3) Balmer, U.V. (4) Balmer, Visible agen a ae Gage (acter), vet ator va ot faga gaa aay % aa 8 wahrad 3 ote ae arafad 2 : {) aga godto (2) agas faftac (sea) (3) aa Jodto (4) arerac fafa (zea) 37 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 86. An electron with kinetic energy of 100eV and zero potential energy 87. will have an associated wavelength of (mass of © =9.109% 107? kg) (1) 1.2310" m (2) 1.23*107 cm (3) 1.2310 A (4) 1.23*107° km uae ea Brea afer Got 1o0ev 8, aa fafa aot at 8, SAB AK 9.10910 fate S det J Gaal aed al: (1) 1.23«10'° lo (2) 1.23x10° Bo (1 9ax1010 A (4) 1.23%10" fabeit tito Elements A and B combine to form AB, and A,B,. When 0.1 mole of AB, weights 10 g and 0.05 mole A,B, weights 9g, the atomic weights of A and B are respectively (1) 40&30 (2) 30&40 (3) 50 &50 (4) 60 & 40 aa aA at B, AB, Sit A,B, 4 wa A east Ad Bi sa 0.1 Fle AB, WIE 10 FIA TaN 0.05 Ale A,B, BAO aA a aA at BOT orpTt eT: (1) 40 iz 30 (2) 303% 40 (3) 50 ait 50 (4) 60 ait 40 3818U/114/13(i) 88. What is the total number of atoms per unit cell in a primitive face 89. 90. ccatered cube ? um ot & GIN (Aiken) wae oe orp 1 tee of ate Sat sar ari? (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 12 Which of the following is a paramagnetic species ? fretted ¥ 8 tm-ar oat srpqaara & 7 (1) TiCl, (2) [Ni(CN),}- (3) [CulNE,)," (4) Znso, In 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of [Co(NH,),ClJCI, an excess of AgNO, is added . The number of moles of AgCl precipitated will be : 100 fasfto [Co(NH,),CLICI @ 0.01 Wea ata (face) 7 Agno, at aft arr # fara omar @1 sada F agcl B eat at ae ert: qQ) 001 (2) 0.001 (3) 0.002 (4) 0.003 39 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 91. 92. 93. In which of the following processes bond order will increase Profatiad 3 8 Pret ar angen sear (1) BoB, Q) Cc,» (3) N,N,’ (4) 0,0," The correct order of ligands CN , CO, NH OH according to their field strength is : CN, CO, NH, OH agAS ar Ae HT Sd Aa at FH orga err (1) CN >CO>0OH >NH, (2) CO>CN >NH,>OH (3) CN >OH >CO>NH, (4) COsNH,>OH >CN” Select the compound in which metal is in zero oxidation state . Sa TiRRR at gm, Brea act A otter ore aq a (1) Fe(CO), (2) Ni(H,0),Cl, (3) TiCl, (4) Cu(NH,),So, 4094. 95. 18U/114/13(i) A square planar complex which is formed when metal hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved : wa ani-ereeha age saat &, oa Set B dae sas Ps ae a am aa a (yy sp? (2) dsp* (3) d? sp* (4) # sp? Select the correct statement in reference to [Ni(CN),]® and [Ni(CO),] = (1) Both are square plancr (2) Both are tetrahedral (3) (Ni(CO),] is tetrahedral and [Ni(CN),|" is square planer (4) {Ni(CO},] is square planer and [Ni (CN),J’ is tetrahedral (NEN) PE aHTe [Ni(CO),] B Ae A ad wa a BT: () at af aractta 2 Q) at aguncciia & (3) [NICO),) GH Agape afte [Ni{CO),|” eH FT Traetter & (4) [IN(CO),| GH TF anata ait [N(CO),| GR AgsHTa 41 P.T.O.18U/114/13(i) 96. 97. 98. TUPAC name of K,[Fe(CN),] is : (1) Potassium tetracyanoferrate (II) (2) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II) (3) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) (4) Hexacyanoferrate tetrapotassium K,[Fe(CN),| I StISo Yo flo uo aio am ® : () Tee Serer] (2) Tae aaa (it) (2) Teer renee UM) (4) SaaS e 2ed2fery Number of monodentate ligands bonded to a metal ion in a comple (1) Oxidation number (2) Effective atomic number (3) Primary valency (4) Coordination number WH ag & tnx F Aste fees A deT eB : QQ) Sttafieeer dear 2) Het weary dear (3) area datorepar 4) Wr den Which of the following is diamagnetic : frafaftar 3 & dtr ofagracta & - (1) By (3) 0; (3) Ny (4) 0 42