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Econ 125 HK2 ALL
Econ 125 HK2 ALL
Econ 125 HK2 ALL
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Correct Answer: a. provides a signal that the Fed wants to encourage an expansion or contraction
of the money supply
Given Answer: b. is usually done in large increments in order to have a rapid impact on business
activity
Question: Q38. If planned investment decreases, the multiplier will decrease the equilibrium
income.
Question: Q39. The classical doctrine assumed that the normal equilibrium position for the
economy was at full employment.
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Question: Q38. If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Question: Q40. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Question: Q43. The Bretton Woods system included the idea of fixed exchange rates.
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Question: Q22. An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Question: Q26. As units of input are added to the production process, the marginal product
Question: Q27. Which of the following is the best example of variable cost?
Given Answer: a. dilemma that firms in perfect competition face in setting price
Question: Q45. Foreign outsourcing refers to the
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Question: Q27. Suppose that the Consumer Price Index increased from 100 to 120 between 2015
and 2016. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how
much did your real income rise?
Question: Q30. If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Question: Q34. Assume a reserve requirement of 10 percent. A commercial bank has total
reserves of $100,000, excess reserves of $25,000, and total checkable deposits outstanding of
$750,000. If the reserve requirement were increased to 15 percent,
Question: Q48. Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U. S. assets. This
contributes to a U. S.
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Question: Q12. National income accountants eliminate double counting of intermediate goods by
using only the value of final goods.
Question: Q13. According to the equation of exchange, if total output is 2,000 units, the velocity
of money is 5, and the money supply is $1,000, the average price per transaction will be
Question: Q26. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve
requirement.
Question: Q30. Monetarists argue that the Fed reduces fluctuations in economic activity and the
price level.
Correct Answer: b. occasional problems of unemployment could occur but would be quickly
eliminated by the system of self-regulating markets
Given Answer: d. the economy had several possible equilibrium output levels
Question: Q42. In the Keynesian model, the 45-degree line consists of the points where
Correct Answer: a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods
Given Answer: b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods
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Question: Q4. The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978
Correct Answer: b. set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by 1983 and
zero inflation by 1988
Question: Q28. The roughly coincident indicators have their upward and downward turning points
prior to the upward and downward turning points of real GDP.
Correct Answer: c. the expected results of government anticyclical measures are offset by the
actions of businesses and individuals
Given Answer: a. the expected results of government anticyclical measures are intensified by the
actions of businesses and individuals
Question: Q39. In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,
Correct Answer: c. borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the public, which
is more effective than taxation
Given Answer: a. borrowing from banks is more effective than taxation, which is more effective
than borrowing from the public
Question: Q40. A balanced budget always has a neutral effect on the economy.
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Question: Q14. If the government uses the budget as an economic stabilizer, the budget is most
likely to be in deficit during a(n)
Question: Q19. If a country engaged in free trade has an unlimited quantity of imports of a good
available at a fixed price, the supply curve for that good is
Question: Q43. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Correct Answer: a. gold to flow out of the country to other countries
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Correct Answer: b. why the size of the total national output depends on the size of total spending
Given Answer: a. how the price of chicken influences the quantity of chicken bought
Question: Q6. The process by which nations limit their productive efforts to a particular activity
instead of trying to produce directly everything that they need is known as
Question: Q26. As units of input are added to the production process, the average product
Question: Q29. The opportunity cost of using one?s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
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Question: Q5. The international organization that replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) is the
Question: Q11. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for
Question: Q37. A major force leading the U. S. economy to full employment after the Great
Depression was
Question: Q45. The federal government?s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Question: Q47. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Given Answer: b. gold to flow into the country from other countries
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Question: Q1. When the federal government insures large financial institutions against losses, the
problem of arises.
Question: Q8. The process of specialization can be carried out by business firms as well as by
regions and nations.
Correct Answer: b. the relationship between resource inputs and product output
Question: Q31. Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs
at the point where
Correct Answer: c. MR = MC
Question: Q41. As more firms enter a monopolistic competitive industry, average revenue will
fall for existing firms.
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Question: Q7. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as a
Question: Q8. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, all persons, unrelated or related,
who occupy a housing unit comprise
Correct Answer: b. shows the amounts of real output that will be demanded at various price levels
Given Answer: a. is identical to the AE curve
Question: Q46. As foreign currency becomes less expensive in terms of the U. S. dollar,
Given Answer: c. the U. S. demand curve for foreign currency shifts to the left
Question: Q47. As the price of foreign exchange increases in terms of the U. S. dollar, U. S.
products become cheaper for foreigners to buy.
Question: Q7. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as a
Question: Q11. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for
Question: Q30. The U. S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks
and checkable deposits is referred to as
Correct Answer: a. M1
Given Answer: d. M1 + M2
Question: Q33. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.
Question: Q43. Raising taxes in order to pay off the U. S. national debt would result in a
significant redistribution of income.
Question: Q46. Which of the following would cause a credit to the U. S. balance of payments?
Given Answer: d. Russia cancels its purchases of U. S. wheat and buys wheat from Argentina
Question: Q50. A debit item on the U. S. balance of payments is any transaction that
Question: Q5. The idea that what?s good for one person may not be good for all people is known
as the
Correct Answer: b. fallacy of composition
Question: Q30. Under conditions of perfect competition, firms sell identical products.
Question: Q31. Elaine?s firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn?t Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?
Correct Answer: d. she can sell all she wants at the market price
Question: Q38. A monopolist that charges different prices to different buyers based on their
elasticities of demand is practicing
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What quantities of goods and services to produce, which resources to use, and who gets to have
what share of the output (all of the above) Every society faces some basic economic choices such
as
market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and incentives An economic system is said
to be a
individuals and firms In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
it results in an unequal distribution of property and income A problem with the use of the market
system is that
the market system functions best when the rights of private property are protected The relationship
between the market system and private property is
private property Which one of the f0llowing is a characteristic of capitalism but not of
communism?
intellectual power Which of the following is not considered part of the productive resource, land?
individuals and firms Under the US market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by
the profit motive In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of
all costs of production Profit is the excess of revenue over and above payment for
the higher its price The stronger that consumer demand is for a good or service, other things being
equal,
the pricing system The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is
through
the pricing system Under a market system, an individual's income is ultimately determined through
consumer demand The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the US are determined by
its contribution to the final product In a market economy, a resource is compensated according to
sole proprietorship The most prevalent form of business enterprise in the US is the
sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership The basic legal forms of business
organization in the US are the
syndicate Which of the following is not one of the basic legal forms of business organization in the
US?
sole proprietorship The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is
the
False The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the corporation.
True In a cooperative type of enterprise, a shareholder has only one vote regardless of the number
of shares held.
True In the US, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the agriculture industry.
True The US economy is a mixture of perfect and imperfect competition and regulated and non-
regulated industries.
True Laissez-faire is a policy of government nonintervention in the economy.
True Government intervention in the US economy includes legislation such as antitrust laws, labor
laws, and safety regulations.
False Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the economy
has a job.
False An economic growth rate of 3 percent would be considered unhealthy for the US economy.
True A stable unemployment rate requires that the US economy grow each year in order to absorb
new workers who enter the labor force.
False The US had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
True Deciding what to produce and allocating goods and services are functions of all types of
economic systems.
False Socialism combines monopoly, capitalism, private property, and a strong dictatorial central
government.
False A major advantage of a partnership is the legal separation of personal and partnership assets.
True In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to income
tax.
True In determining what and how much to produce, the market economy works in a democratic
manner based on dollar votes.
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A production function is either a) a technique for determining the most profitable rate of output, b)
the relationship between a combination of inputs and a quantity of output, c) an important factor in
determining the shape of the long-run supply curve, d) all of these B
The marginal product refers to the impact of which unit of a productive resource? A) First. B)
middle. C) last. D) average C
The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive resource is the: a)
average product, b) marginal input, c) total product, d) marginal product D
As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product: a) increases
throughout, b) at first increases and then decreases, c) remains the same, d) declines then rises B
As units of input are added to the production process, the average product: a) rises and then
declines, b) declines and then rises, c) remains the same, d) is always greater than the marginal
product A
When marginal product is less than average product: a) average product falls, b) average product is
zero, c) average product increases, d) average product is unaffected A
If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned elsewhere is: a)
an explicit cost, b) an accounting cost, c) an implicit cost, d) not a cost C
The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from its best
alternative use is the: a) resource cost, b) opportunity cost, c) overhead cost, d) variable cost B
These costs implied by alternatives given up are: a) explicit costs, b) historical costs, c) outlay
costs, d) implicit or opportunity costs D
The marginal cost curve crosses the average total cost curve at the: a) highest level of average total
cost, b) lowest level of average total cost, c) point where the ATC equals the AVC, d) point where
the ATC equals the AFC B
The principle that pulls down the average cost (ATC), and then, as output continues to expand,
pulls it up, is: a) lower prices and then higher prices, b) rising and then diminishing marginal
returns, c) lower average fixed cost and then higher average fixed cost, d) lower resource prices
and then higher resource prices B
Average product falls any time: a) marginal product is falling, b) marginal product is rising, c)
marginal product is below it, d) total product is rising C
An example of an implicit cost is: a) rent, b) taxes, c) wages, d) forgone interest when investing
one's savings in one's own business D
The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are added to a set of
fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly smaller, is the
principle of: a) increasing production, b) functioning production, c) diminishing marginal returns,
d) increasing returns to scale C
For the principle of diminishing marginal returns to hold: a) all resources must vary, b) at least one
resource should remain fixed, c) only one resource should vary, d) a minimum of three input
resources is necessary C
The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve reflects: a) profit
per unit, b) total fixed cost, c) marginal cost, d) the principle of diminishing marginal returns B
The opportunity cost of using one's own savings in operating a business can be determined by
using: a) wage rates, b) interest rates, c) exchange rates, d) rental rates B
Total fixed cost is commonly referred to as: a) overhead, b) depreciation, c) opportunity cost, d)
marginal cost A
As output increases, total fixed cost: a) increases, b) remains constant, c) rises and then falls, d)
falls and then rises B
Which of the following is the best example of a variable cost? A) depreciation on a building. B)
property taxes. C) wages. D) rent paid for one's building C
The marginal product is the increase in output per additional unit of input True
The marginal product decreases, reaches a minimum, and then rises as output increases False
As long as the marginal product is falling, the average product falls False
The average product decreases any time the marginal product is decreased False
The average product can be calculated for any unit of input by dividing the total product by the
marginal product False
If all inputs are increased by 25% and output by 35%, increasing returns to scale exist True
Opportunity cost and implicit cost are both explicit costs False
Marginal cost is the change in total cost that results from producing one less or more unit of output
True
As output increases, marginal cost increases, reaching a maximum, and then falls False
So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise False
The principle of diminishing marginal returns is applicable only to the use of labor as a productive
resource False
The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a variable
resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output will become
increasingly smaller and, eventually larger False
The major factor for accounting for diseconomies of scale is management inefficiency True
In a mature industry, all firms operate with constant returns to scale False
On a cost/output graph, the average fixed cost is constucted as a straight horizontal line False
Marginal cost crosses the average variable cost and the average total cost at their lowest points
True
The average fixed cost remains constant even in the long run False
The difference between ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC True
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Correct Government intervention in the U.S. economy includes legislation such as antitrust
laws, labor laws, and safety regulations.
Question 1 answers
Correct An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Question 2 answers
Question 3 answers
Question 4 answers
Correct Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Question 5 answers
Correct The basic legal forms of business organization in the United States are the
Question 6 answers
Question 7 answers
Question 8 answers
Question 9 answers
Question 10 answers
Correct In a partnership, each partner’s liability is limited to his or her contribution to the
partnership.
Question 11 answers
Correct In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.
Question 12 answers
Question 13 answers
Correct Answer: Correct market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and incentives
Question 15 answers
Question 16 answers
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Incorrect All goods and services produced during the year are added to the total wealth of the
nation.
Question 19 answers
Correct The process of allocating the total product among the resources involved is referred to
as
Question 20 answers
Correct Labor includes the physical efforts of individuals and groups, but not their mental
efforts.
Question 21 answers
Correct Economic services lack the characteristic of transferability found in economic goods.
Question 22 answers
Correct The relationship between the price of a book and the number of volumes purchased
would be an example of microeconomics.
Question 23 answers
Correct Economies must make choices because resources are limited while wants are unlimited.
Question 24 answers
Question 25 answers
Question 26 answers
Correct If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve, it
can move
Question 27 answers
Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized
if
Question 28 answers
Question 29 answers
Question 30 answers
Question 31 answers
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Correct Answer: Correct the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Correct The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers face is known as comparative advantage.
Question 33 answers
Correct The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of all the alternative choices.
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Correct The greatest increase in productivity per capita in the future will probably result from
Question 36 answers
Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Question 37 answers
Correct If the market price of gasoline were $4 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is imposed,
Question 38 answers
Correct According to the total revenue rule, if the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is
less than 1 and if price goes
Question 39 answers
Question 40 answers
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Correct Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Correct If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
Question 42 answers
Correct It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,
Question 44 answers
Correct If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be complements.
Question 45 answers
Correct A change in demand occurs whenever consumers will purchase more because of a
decrease in price.
Question 46 answers
Correct The total quantity of a good that all buyers in the market would buy at various prices at
a given time is known as
Question 47 answers
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect price changes are always in the same direction as supply changes
Correct Answer: Correct price and quantity supplied are positively or directly related
Correct If the coefficient of elasticity for a commodity is 1.5 and the price of that commodity is
raised, total revenue will decrease.
Question 50 answers
OK
An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right
Question 44
In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Correct Answer: True
Question 45 A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits
Question 46
In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Correct Answer: True
Question 47
An economic system is said to be a
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives
Question 25
In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation
Question 26 s
The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from
its best alternative use is the
Correct Answer: opportunity cost
Question 27 0
As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Correct Answer: decreases
Question 28
The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Correct Answer: False
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 94 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 90 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the
percentage change in price
Correct Answer: Correct the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage
change in price
Question 2 answers
Question 3 answers
Correct If the coefficient of elasticity for a commodity is 1.5 and the price of that commodity is
raised, total revenue will decrease.
Question 4 answers
Question 5 answers
Correct If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Question 7 answers
Correct If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Question 8 answers
Question 9 answers
Correct The total quantity of a good offered for sale is unaffected by estimates by sellers of the
probable costs of producing the good in the future.
Question 10 answers
Correct When the supply of a product increases but the demand for the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Question 11 answers
Correct The demand for necessities and goods that require a small expenditure tends to be price
inelastic.
Question 12 answers
Correct In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Question 13 answers
Correct A stable unemployment rate requires that the U.S. economy grow each year in order to
absorb new workers who enter the labor force.
Question 14 answers
Question 15 answers
Correct The most common type of business in the United States is the corporation.
Question 16 answers
Question 17 answers
Correct If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,
Question 18 answers
Question 19 answers
Correct The relationship between the market system and private property is
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected
Question 21 answers
Question 22 answers
Question 23 answers
Correct The stronger that consumer demand is for a good or service, other things being equal,
Question 24 answers
Correct Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?
Question 25 answers
Correct The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the corporation.
Question 26 answers
Question 27 answers
Question 28 answers
Question 29 answers
Correct The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Question 30 answers
Question 31 answers
Correct Goods directly used by individuals and households are known as capital goods.
Question 32 answers
Correct The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.
Question 33 answers
Correct If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, “what would happen
if…”, then that economist is working in the area of
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Selected Answer: Correct make choices when resources are scarce
Correct The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the study
of
Question 36 answers
Correct An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of a(n)
Question 37 answers
Question 38 answers
Question 39 answers
Correct Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Question 40 answers
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the next best alternative that must be sacrificed
Correct Answer: Correct the next best alternative that must be sacrificed
Correct If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve, it
can move
Question 42 answers
Correct A nation’s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital
resources.
Question 43 answers
Correct If a society is producing at a point on its production possibilities curve, it does not have
the problem of scarce resources.
Question 44 answers
Correct Because of the high level of output in the United States, there is little need for choosing
among alternative output combinations.
Question 45 answers
Correct One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Correct To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily need
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Question 50 answers
OK
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand increases,
If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
If demand and supply increase by the same amount, equilibrium price will rise.
Price elasticity of demand tends to be greater for substitute items than for complementary
goods.
The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the product
will be
Price floors can create shortages if price floors are above market prices.
If the market price of gasoline were $4 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is imposed,
In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market price.
Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected
The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the United States are determined by
The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the
Which of the following is not among the United States’ economic goals?
Selected Answer: equal distribution of income
Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that Country
B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that Country A produces 120
tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B produces 90 tons of coffee using 4
units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the production
of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the production of
sugar
Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of both
wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and 3
units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized if
The standard of living in most countries in the past has risen primarily as a result of a more
skilled workforce and better machinery and equipment.
The application of the principle of comparative advantage requires each of two trading
partners to have an absolute advantage over the other in the production of some particular
commodity.
The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers face
is known as comparative advantage.
When the entire production possibilities curve shifts inward, the economy is growing.
To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily need
Selected Answer: technical assistance
Selected Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want
Correct Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want
If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it without
much effort,
Goods used to produce other goods and services are known as capital.
Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”
Selected Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard
Correct Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Correct An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as a
Question 1 answers
Question 2 answers
Selected Answer: Correct competition
Question 3 answers
Correct In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Question 4 answers
Correct If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,
Question 5 answers
Correct An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Question 6 answers
Correct The relationship between the market system and private property is
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected
Question 8 answers
Incorrect Socialism combines monopoly, capitalism, private property, and a strong dictatorial
central government.
Question 9 answers
Question 10 answers
Question 11 answers
Correct Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the
economy has a job.
Question 12 answers
Question 13 answers
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct Answer: Correct the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct An increase in demand tends to increase both the equilibrium price and the amount of a
commodity exchanged.
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Whenever the supply of a product increases and the demand for the product decreases,
Question 16 answers
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Selected Answer: Correct a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices
Correct Answer: Correct a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices
Correct Probably the main characteristic of a demand curve is that it slopes upward from left to
right.
Question 19 answers
Correct If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only 750
units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is inelastic.
Question 20 answers
Correct If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,
Question 21 answers
Question 22 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Correct Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Correct The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Question 23 answers
Question 25 answers
Correct A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Question 26 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States
Correct Answer: Correct the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United States
Correct Concern with the level of employment in the economy is a macroeconomic issue.
Question 27 answers
Correct A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually and
in groups, is known as a(n)
Question 28 answers
Correct For the use of the employee’s participation in production, an employee receives
Question 29 answers
Correct Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”
Question 30 answers
Question 31 answers
Correct To understand the purpose of a given economic policy, it is necessary to understand the
influence of political and social policies.
Question 32 answers
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: Correct puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct All economies in the world have identical methods of functional distribution.
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Correct The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.
Question 37 answers
Correct If you heard someone say that coal miners should be paid more wages to enable them
to adequately support their families, that would be a statement of
Question 38 answers
Question 39 answers
Question 40 answers
Correct Total annual production in the United States is in excess of $10 trillion.
Question 41 answers
Question 42 answers
Question 43 answers
Correct A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Question 44 answers
Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized
if
Question 45 answers
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Correct If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities curve,
it is underutilizing its resources.
Question 48 answers
Correct The basic function of any economic system is to provide the framework for allocating
scarce resources in a way that adequately satisfies unlimited wants.
Question 49 answers
Question 50 answers
OK
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated through
payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
A nation that imports more than it exports has a surplus balance of trade.
The circular flow represents the total level of output and income.
The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will tend to
cause the economy to
During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources is to
bid the resources away from other firms.
The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to the total value of the
output.
If total spending is less than the total production of goods and service, all the goods produced
can be cleared from the market by
Selected Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total
planned injections into the circular flow
Correct Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total planned
injections into the circular flow
A kinked demand curve results when one firm’s price changes are followed downward but
not upward by competing firms.
The rule of reason states that monopolies that behave well are still illegal.
A cartel is
Selected Answer: a type of formal collusion
The demand curve for the output of an individual firm in monopolistic competition is
Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel industry.
A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the equilibrium
output,
If a firm adds one more worker and total output increases from 100 to 120, the marginal
product of labor equals
Selected Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 20
Selected Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the AFC
Correct Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the AFC
The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be determined
by using
If all inputs are increased by 25 percent and output by 35 percent, increasing returns to scale
exist.
Selected Answer: False
To arrive at a logical determination of a firm’s optimum output, economists assume that the
firm seeks to
The principle of diminishing marginal returns is applicable only to the use of labor as a
productive resource.
The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.
The marginal product decreases, reaches a minimum, and then rises as output increases.
The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output is
known as
Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond the
point where MR equals MC,
If a perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level for which MR equals $5, MC
equals $6, and ATC equals $4, the firm
An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.
If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished product
will rise.
If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Selected Answer: make an economic profit
Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Correct An increase in planned savings, all else held constant, will always result in
Question 1 answers
Correct Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Question 2 answers
Question 3 answers
Question 4 answers
Correct If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is
Question 5 answers
Correct The circular flow of income does not take into consideration nonprofit institutions.
Question 6 answers
Question 7 answers
Question 8 answers
Correct A surplus budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the circular
flow of business activity?
Question 9 answers
Correct If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned
injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Question 10 answers
Correct In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to planned
saving,
Question 11 answers
Question 12 answers
Correct If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will tend
to cause the economy to
Question 13 answers
Correct The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the
Question 14 answers
Question 15 answers
Question 16 answers
Question 17 answers
Selected Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Correct Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Question 18 answers
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Correct Under which type of market structure is the firm’s pricing decision the most difficult?
Question 21 answers
Question 22 answers
Question 23 answers
Correct Under oligopoly, collusive practices to fix prices are more likely to take place if
Question 24 answers
Question 25 answers
Incorrect A market structure in which a single buyer exists on one side of the market and only
one seller exists on the other side is known as
Question 26 answers
Correct The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Question 27 answers
Correct As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Question 28 answers
Correct When at least one productive resource is fixed, the firm is producing
Question 29 answers
Correct On a cost/output graph, the average fixed cost is constructed as a straight horizontal
line.
Question 30 answers
Question 31 answers
Question 32 answers
Correct The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive resource
is the
Question 33 answers
Question 34 answers
Incorrect It may be beneficial for a firm that is suffering a loss to continue to operate in the short
run as long as it is recovering its fixed cost.
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Selected Answer: Correct at least one of the firm’s resources cannot be varied
Correct Answer: Correct at least one of the firm’s resources cannot be varied
Question 37 answers
Question 38 answers
Correct If the entry of new firms in a perfectly competitive industry substantially increases the
market demand for resources,
Question 39 answers
Incorrect If price equals marginal cost at the long-run equilibrium, this means that economic
efficiency is being achieved.
Question 40 answers
Correct In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Question 41 answers
Correct In the short run, each firm is free to vary its maximum capacity.
Question 42 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, firms offer roughly similar products for sale.
Question 43 answers
Correct Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level, and
MC equals AVC at the $8 level. If the market price is $7,
Question 44 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the firm should shut down in the short run
Correct Answer: Correct the firm should shut down in the short run
Incorrect Producer surplus is the difference between the price the firm is willing to sell its goods
and the price it actually receives.
Question 45 answers
Correct Suppose that the development of a new, improved seed allows all corn farmers in the
United States to increase their yields per acre. Since the demand for corn is relatively inelastic, the
price of corn in a perfectly competitive market is likely to
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Incorrect Economic efficiency occurs when firms are producing the goods consumers most want
and consumers pay a price equal to marginal cost.
Question 48 answers
Correct Under perfect competition, each firm can sell its entire supply at the market price.
Question 49 answers
Question 50 answers
Correct Answer: Correct increase its volume of output up to its maximum existing capacity
OK
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1 answers
Question 2 answers
Correct Which of the following defines flows out of the circular flow that occur when resource
income is received and not spent directly on purchases from domestic firms?
Question 3 answers
Correct Which of the following is not a type of leakage from the circular flow of income?
Question 4 answers
Correct A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.
Question 5 answers
Correct In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to planned
saving,
Question 6 answers
Correct The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Question 7 answers
Question 8 answers
Question 9 answers
Selected Answer: Correct total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow
Correct Answer: Correct total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total
planned injections into the circular flow
Correct A nation that imports more than it exports has a surplus balance of trade.
Question 10 answers
Question 11 answers
Correct If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while other
planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Question 12 answers
Question 13 answers
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the degree of control over price it can exercise
Correct Answer: Correct the degree of control over price it can exercise
Question 15 answers
Question 16 answers
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Correct The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Correct Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Incorrect The demand curve for the output of an individual firm in monopolistic competition is
Question 21 answers
Correct Answer: Correct more elastic than the market demand curve
Correct A kinked demand curve results when one firm’s price changes are followed
downward but not upward by competing firms.
Question 22 answers
Correct Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Question 23 answers
Question 24 answers
Correct All firms in monopolistic competition must sell at the same price.
Question 25 answers
Correct The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the
Question 26 answers
Question 27 answers
Correct The output level that yields maximum profit under perfect competition is where MR
equals MC.
Question 29 answers
Question 30 answers
Correct An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.
Question 31 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond
the point where MR equals MC,
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct profits diminish
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, no individual seller or buyer can influence
price.
Question 33 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Question 36 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a
Question 37 answers
Correct If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Question 38 answers
Correct The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output
is known as
Question 39 answers
Question 40 answers
Selected Answer: Correct forgone interest when investing one’s savings in one’s own
business
Correct Answer: Correct forgone interest when investing one’s savings in one’s own business
Question 41 answers
Question 42 answers
Correct Average total cost is equal to total cost divided by marginal product.
Question 43 answers
Correct The break-even point on a break-even chart is equivalent to the point where MR = MC
on a cost/output graph.
Question 44 answers
Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Correct total variable cost
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Correct The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Question 50 answers
OK
Question: Q3. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?
Question: Q10. If nominal GDP is reported at $10,000 billion and the GDP implicit price deflator
is 150, the GDP in constant dollars is
Question: Q16. According to the equation of exchange, if total output is 2,000 units, the velocity
of money is 5, and the money supply is $1,000, the average price per transaction will be
Question: Q19. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset
by a change in velocity.
Correct Answer: a. true
Question: Q28. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.
Question: Q31. It is possible for the economy to still experience an increase in the money supply
when the Fed increases the reserve requirement.
Question: Q35. If the Federal Reserve System wanted to tighten the money supply, the most
powerful combination of actions would be to
Correct Answer: d. raise reserve requirement, raise the discount rate, and sell government
securities
Given Answer: c. lower reserve requirements, raise the discount rate, and buy government
securities
Question: Q36. The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the
Name Exam 3
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1 answers
Incorrect In the simple Keynesian model, if aggregate expenditures exceed current output,
inventories will ________ and businesses will ___________ output.
Question 2 answers
Correct According to the Keynesian analysis, as income increases, the marginal propensity to
consume will rise.
Question 3 answers
Question 4 answers
Correct In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports
Question 5 answers
Correct Higher prices reduce the purchasing power of financial assets owned by households.
Question 6 answers
Correct The consumption function shows the relationship between the income received by the
economy’s households and the
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output
Correct Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output
Correct The aggregate demand curve is the sum of individual demand curves in the economy.
Question 8 answers
Incorrect The monetarist school is more similar to the Keynesian school than the classical school.
Question 9 answers
Correct According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Question 10 answers
Question 11 answers
Correct Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of
income.
Question 12 answers
Correct Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?
Question 13 answers
Incorrect Checkable deposits are counted as part of the U.S. money supply.
Question 14 answers
Correct The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.
Question 15 answers
Incorrect A transfer of money from a NOW account to a money market fund causes
Question 16 answers
Correct The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1 by the CPI.
Question 17 answers
Correct Savings deposits are not counted as part of the M1 measure of the U.S. money supply.
Question 18 answers
Correct The U.S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks and
checkable deposits is referred to as
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct A decrease in the level of required reserves will decrease a bank’s ability to extend
loans.
Question 22 answers
Question 23 answers
Question 24 answers
Question 25 answers
Selected Answer: Correct price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year
Correct Answer: Correct price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year
Correct Assume total reserves are $1 million, checkable deposits are $5 million, and the reserve
requirement is 10 percent. What are the excess reserves?
Question 26 answers
Question 27 answers
Correct The functions carried out by the Federal Reserve Banks include
Question 28 answers
Correct The Federal Reserve System was established by the National Banking Act of 1864.
Question 29 answers
Question 30 answers
Correct The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the
Question 31 answers
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct independent within the U.S. government
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies
Correct Answer: Correct eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance
companies
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Correct Cash transactions account for about 20 percent of the value of transactions.
Question 37 answers
Question 38 answers
Correct Constant-dollar GDP can be converted into current-dollar GDP by multiplying the real
GDP by the implicit price deflators
Question 39 answers
Correct The GDP excludes the production of services for which no monetary transaction takes
place.
Question 40 answers
Correct National income is equivalent to total earnings in the form of wages, rent, interest, and
profits.
Question 41 answers
Question 42 answers
Correct Purchasing power parity shows how many units of currency are needed in one country
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country
Correct Answer: Correct to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country
Incorrect A transfer payment is a payment of money in return for which no current goods or
services are produced.
Question 44 answers
Correct Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Correct a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists
Correct Answer: Correct a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists
Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect personal income to be larger than disposable personal income
Correct The GDP counts durable goods only during their year of production.
Question 47 answers
Question 48 answers
Incorrect If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5 percent,
then
Question 49 answers
Correct Answer: Correct real GDP per capital did not change
Question 50 answers
OK
Question 50
If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $1.50
Correct Answer: $0.67
Question 2
0 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in?
Selected Answer: a. Between the first and the second units of output.
Correct Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.
Feedback: b, after 3 units of output
Question 3
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Correct Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Feedback: Correct
Question 4
0 of 1.25 points
Question 5
1.25 of 1.25 points
Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because
Question 6
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is
added, output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than
the previous unit.
Correct Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is
added, output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than
the previous unit.
Feedback: Correct
Question 7
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
Correct Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
Feedback: Correct
Question 8
1.25 of 1.25 points
If you earn $80,000 a year and acquiring cable TV service costs you $150 per year,
your demand for cable is likely to be:
Selected Answer: d. inelastic.
Feedback: Correct
Question 9
1.25 of 1.25 points
Economic profit is
Selected Answer: c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
Correct Answer: c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
Feedback: Correct
Question 10
0 of 1.25 points
If a store advertises that it will match the prices of any competitor, it is most likely
that consumers will:
Question 11
1.25 of 1.25 points
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a
Feedback: Correct
Question 12
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 13
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility
per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Correct Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility
per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Feedback: Correct
Question 14
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Correct Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Feedback: Correct
Question 15
1.25 of 1.25 points
The income elasticity of widgets is negative; the cross elasticity between widgets and
gadgets is negative. Widgets are a(n):
Selected Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Correct Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Feedback: Correct
Question 16
1.25 of 1.25 points
When people have very little time to respond to price changes, demand becomes
Feedback: Correct
Question 17
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 18
1.25 of 1.25 points
A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices:
Question 19
1.25 of 1.25 points
The concept of opportunity cost is based on the principle of:
Feedback: Correct
Question 20
1.25 of 1.25 points
We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
Selected Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Feedback: Correct
Question 21
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 22
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic
study.
Correct Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic
study.
Feedback: Correct
Question 23
1.25 of 1.25 points
Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?
Question 24
1.25 of 1.25 points
Hal sells tennis shoes. Hal wants to increase his revenues, so he raises his prices. This
strategy will only work if demand is
Feedback: Correct
Question 25
1.25 of 1.25 points
The firm?s short-run production function, or total product curve, is a relationship that
shows:
Selected Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition
of a variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital)
constant, or fixed.
Correct Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition
of a variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital)
constant, or fixed.
Feedback: Correct
Question 26
1.25 of 1.25 points
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents
Selected Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches
its lowest point.
Correct Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches
its lowest point.
Feedback: Correct
Question 27
1.25 of 1.25 points
According to the marginal principle, if the marginal benefit is far greater than the
marginal cost, than a rational individual will
Selected Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct
Question 28
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production?
Feedback: Correct
Question 29
1.25 of 1.25 points
If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then:
Selected Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Correct Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Feedback: Correct
Question 30
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. Which of the following factors can cause a move from point
d to points g or h?
Feedback: Correct
Question 31
1.25 of 1.25 points
James has enough money to buy a car at the market price from fifteen years ago, but
today it?s only half of what he would need. Which principle does this represent?
Feedback: Correct
Question 32
1.25 of 1.25 points
In a monopolistically competitive market, what will cause the entry of new firms to
stop?
Selected Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Correct Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Feedback: Correct
Question 33
1.25 of 1.25 points
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
Selected Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on
the quantity is uncertain.
Correct Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on
the quantity is uncertain.
Feedback: Correct
Question 34
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where
price equals average cost.
Correct Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where
price equals average cost.
Feedback: Correct
Question 35
1.25 of 1.25 points
As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand:
Question 36
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 37
1.25 of 1.25 points
Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because:
Selected Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Correct Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Feedback: Correct
Question 38
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose that there is a particularly good wheat harvest this year, and at the same time,
medical reports indicate that increased grain consumption improves health. What will
happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of wheat?
Selected Answer: e. Quantity will increase, but the change in price depends on
the relative size of the shift.
Correct Answer: e. Quantity will increase, but the change in price depends on
the relative size of the shift.
Feedback: Correct
Question 39
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 40
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: c. If I hire ten workers to produce tables, what will be the
average cost per table?
Correct Answer: c. If I hire ten workers to produce tables, what will be the
average cost per table?
Feedback: Correct
Question 41
1.25 of 1.25 points
A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied by
an entire industry is a
Question 42
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Feedback: Correct
Question 43
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 44
1.25 of 1.25 points
If your new business (in which you have invested $50,000, which you previously kept
in savings, earning 10% interest) earns an accounting profit of $30,000 in the first
year, and you had previously been employed as a ditch-digger, earning $10,000 per
year, your economic profit is:
Feedback: Correct
Question 45
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Correct Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Feedback: Correct
Question 46
1.25 of 1.25 points
If Country 1 is absolutely better at producing all goods than Country 2, which of the
following is most likely to be true?
Question 47
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 48
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common?
Selected Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same
amount of income.
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same
amount of income.
Feedback: Correct
Question 49
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 51
1.25 of 1.25 points
Feedback: Correct
Question 52
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 53
1.25 of 1.25 points
Question 54
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?
Selected Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit
remains above marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit
remains above marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct
Question 55
1.25 of 1.25 points
If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are
Feedback: Correct
Question 56
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Question 57
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What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza?
Feedback: Correct
Question 58
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Feedback: Correct
Question 59
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Selected Answer: c. 2
Correct Answer: c. 2
Feedback: Correct
Question 60
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Question 61
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If the firm has economies of scale in the long run, then the long-run average cost
curve is:
Question 62
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At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing,
Selected Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Correct Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Feedback: Correct
Question 63
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In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called:
Feedback: Correct
Question 64
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The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC:
Feedback: Correct
Question 65
1.25 of 1.25 points
Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour?
Question 66
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As compared to the short-run elasticity of supply, in the long run, the elasticity of
supply will usually:
Question 67
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Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because:
Question 68
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Feedback: Correct
Question 69
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Question 70
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Question 71
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In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers?
Question 72
0 of 1.25 points
In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for gasoline is estimated to be about
0.11. In the long run, studies suggest that it is about 0.9. How can you best explain
this difference?
Selected Answer: a. The supply of gasoline is likely to increase in the long run.
Correct Answer: c. Consumers are more able to make different choices given
more time to adapt.
Feedback: c, consumer adapt. In the short run, it is difficult to make different
choices about transportation. However, in the long run, consumers can adapt to
changing gas prices in a number of ways, such as choice of a different car or a
different place to live. Thus elasticity increases dramatically in the long run (though it
is still inelastic).
Question 73
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Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change in
supply moves equilibrium to:
Question 74
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Refer to the graph below. Marginal utility is:
Question 75
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Question 76
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The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
Question 77
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Question 78
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Suppose that all of the fast-food restaurants in the entire world are purchased by one
firm. Relative to the current (competitive) price and quantity (and assuming that
nothing else has changed), we would expect the monopolist to:
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Question 80
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Selected Answer: c. For any value of X beyond point a, the value of X is greater
than the corresponding value of Y.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Feedback: d, all of the above
Selected Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct
Selected Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
Correct Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
Feedback: Correct
Question 57 1.25 out of 1.25 points
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium,
Selected Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Feedback: Correct
Selected Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount
of income.
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Feedback: Correct
Selected Answer: b. firms will invest more when future GDP growth is predicted.
Correct Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Feedback: c, firms invest more when their stock price is high
Question 2
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Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output?
Question 3
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Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________.
Feedback: Correct
Question 4
1.25 of 1.25 points
If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause?
Question 5
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Selected Answer: c. The aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during
recessions, so it temporarily lays off workers.
Correct Answer: c. The aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during
recessions, so it temporarily lays off workers.
Feedback: Correct
Question 6
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Which of the following groups is primarily responsible for setting monetary policy,
such as open-market operations?
Question 7
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Question 8
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Question 9
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Question 10
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Question 11
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Question 12
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Which of the following will shift the Keynesian aggregate supply curve?
Question 13
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If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken?
Selected Answer: c. 7%
Correct Answer: c. 7%
Feedback: Correct
Question 14
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In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______.
Feedback: Correct
Question 15
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Feedback: Correct
Question 16
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Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________.
Question 17
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of:
Selected Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Correct Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Feedback: Correct
Question 18
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Question 19
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Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?
Question 20
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Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year?
Question 21
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If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, then
Question 22
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Selected Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while
real GDP controls for changes in prices.
Correct Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while
real GDP controls for changes in prices.
Feedback: Correct
Question 23
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience
Question 24
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Assuming a classical aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause a
decrease in output?
Question 25
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Suppose a farmer sells wheat to a miller for $400 and the miller grinds the wheat into
flour. The flour is sold to a bakery for $750. The bakery uses the flour to produce
$1,250 worth of bread. Assume the bakery has no other input to production. In the
production of the bread, the value added by the bakery is
Feedback: Correct
Question 26
0 of 1.25 points
Suppose currency held by the public is $100, $250 is held in checkable deposits, $50
is held in travelers' checks, and $500 is held in money market mutual funds.
Assuming no money is held in any other account, the value of M1 is
Question 27
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Feedback: Correct
Question 28
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Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment?
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Question 30
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If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5 marks
= $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany?
Feedback: Correct
Question 31
0 of 1.25 points
Assuming that capital is fixed, as the amount of labor in the economy increases, total
output
Selected Answer: d. increases at a decreasing rate.
Correct Answer: b. decreases at a decreasing rate.
Feedback: b, increases at a decreasing rate
Question 32
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For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be:
Question 33
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Question 34
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Suppose that the reserve ratio is 0.2 and that banks loan out all their excess reserves.
If a person deposits $100 cash in a bank, checking account balances will increase by
Feedback: Correct
Question 35
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If John quits his job to find a new job in a different city, John is considered
Question 36
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Question 37
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Question 38
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If the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply, which of the following would
accomplish that goal?
Question 39
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Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer?
Question 40
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Question 41
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Feedback: Correct
Question 42
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If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest rate
is
Question 43
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Question 44
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Question 45
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___________ interest rates are quoted in the market, while ___________ interest rates
are adjusted for inflation.
Feedback: Correct
Question 46
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Question 47
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Question 48
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Financial intermediaries
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Question 50
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Question 51
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Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the
Feedback: Correct
Question 52
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Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve?
Question 53
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Question 54
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Suppose there are 2,000 people in the nation of Utopia. Of the people over 16 years
old, 1,500 are employed, and 100 are unemployed and looking for work, and 400 are
unemployed and are not looking for work. The labor force participation rate in Utopia
is:
Feedback: Correct
Question 55
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Question 56
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Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose?
Feedback: Correct
Question 57
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If people transfer money from their checking account to their savings account
Question 58
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Selected Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly
than that of a rich nation.
Correct Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly
than that of a rich nation.
Feedback: Correct
Question 59
1.25 of 1.25 points
Selected Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must
collapse if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Correct Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must
collapse if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Feedback: Correct
Question 60
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Question 61
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Question 62
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If the CPI is 350 in Year 1 and 420 in Year 2, what is the inflation rate?
Feedback: Correct
Question 63
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Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is:
Question 64
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Question 65
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Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Consumer Price Index
(CPI) and the GDP deflator?
Selected Answer: d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for quality
improvements in goods.
Correct Answer: d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for quality
improvements in goods.
Feedback: Correct
Question 66
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The relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP demanded is
called
Question 67
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If the natural rate of unemployment for the economy is 5% and the current rate of
unemployment is 4%, which of the following is true?
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Question 69
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Question 70
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Question 71
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If the cost of a basket of goods is $125 in 1989, $135 in 1990, and $150 for 1991,
assuming 1991 is the base year, the CPI for 1989 is
Feedback: Correct
Question 72
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Feedback: Correct
Question 73
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Question 74
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A consumer buys a new house. In which GDP category does this count?
Feedback: Correct
Question 75
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Currency is:
Question 76
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Question 77
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Feedback: Correct
Question 78
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The government budget deficit and the trade deficit are known as the twin deficits
because:
Question 79
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Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that information,
what can you say about output?
Question 80
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A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied by
an entire industry is a d. short-run market supply curve.
A firm's variable costs d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.
A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices: c. if it
is trying to deter entry.
A monopolist sets the price of a good by choosing the level of output and then b.
setting the price according to the market demand curve.
R d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
A natural monopoly occurs when a. the entry of a second firm would make both
firms unprofitable.
A perfectly competitive firm is operating at an output where price is greater than
marginal cost. Therefore: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.
According to the Law of Supply, d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity
supplied.
According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of
ice-cream and pizzas such that a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the
marginal utility per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar
spent on pizza.
An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that: a. with a fixed
amount of capital, as more and more labor is added, output increases at a decreasing
rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than the previous unit.
As compared to perfect competition, monopolies a. reduce consumer surplus,
create positive economic profits, and generate deadweight loss.
As more firms enter the market, which of the following is true? a. Demand for each
firm decreases.
As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand: c.
decreases.
At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing, a. the
marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost curve.
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on the quantity is
uncertain.
Economic profit is c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium, e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal cost.
Hal sells tennis shoes. Hal wants to increase his revenues, so he raises his prices. This
strategy will only work if demand is c. inelastic.
If foreign officials make it time-consuming and complicated to get goods through
customs, this is an example of a: d. nontariff trade barrier.
If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then: c. your nominal income hasn't
changed, but your real income has increased.
If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then a. the two
products are substitutes.
If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are b. an inferior good.
If the firm has economies of scale in the long run, then the long-run average cost
curve is: c. downward-sloping.
If the marginal product of labor is increasing, a. output is increasing at an
increasing rate.
If Y = 600 - 3X, what is the vertical intercept? d. 600
If you earn $80,000 a year and acquiring cable TV service costs you $150 per year,
your demand for cable is likely to be: d. inelastic.
In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the
market price be? b. Price will be equal to average cost.
In a monopolistically competitive market, what will cause the entry of new firms to
stop? d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must: c. Decrease the
price on all units sold.
In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called: c. Fixed cost.
In the short-run, an increase in demand results in a(n) a. greater increase in the
equilibrium price than in the long-run.
In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers? d. centrally
planned economy
Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour? b. one hour of
studying
Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with: d. Selling
an additional unit of output.
Marginal utility is the b. additional happiness gained by consuming one more unit
of a good.
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents d. the output at which the long-run
average cost curve reaches its lowest point.
Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because: a. marginal revenue is less
than price in both industries.
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because: b. there are no
barriers to entry in either industry.
Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because: c. consumers
gain from increased variety.
Refer to the graph below. Along the line corresponding to points a and b, the
following statement(s) is/are true: d. All of the above.
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common? c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change in
supply moves equilibrium to: d. Point b
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?
c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains above marginal
cost.
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in? b. After three units of
output are produced.
Refer to the graph below. Which of the following factors can cause a move from point
d to points g or h? d. All of the above.
Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the
penalties for cheating.
Suppose a firm responds to underpricing by another firm by choosing a price so low
that neither firm can profit. This strategy is known as d. the grim trigger strategy.
Suppose that all of the fast-food restaurants in the entire world are purchased by one
firm. Relative to the current (competitive) price and quantity (and assuming that
nothing else has changed), we would expect the monopolist to: d. sell less and
charge more.
Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production? b. $89
Suppose that there is a particularly good wheat harvest this year, and at the same time,
medical reports indicate that increased grain consumption improves health. What will
happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of wheat? e. Quantity will increase,
but the change in price depends on the relative size of the shift.
Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the
following shows the effect on the computer market? b. Graph B
The concept of opportunity cost is based on the principle of: d. scarcity.
The firm?s short-run production function, or total product curve, is a relationship that
shows: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition of a variable
input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital) constant, or fixed.
The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC: a. increases.
The key feature of an oligopoly is that: d. Firms act strategically.
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a c.
cartel.
The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the
following principle: a. The marginal principle.
The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
b. The price of the good changes drastically.
The problem of scarcity, d. exists because human wants exceed available
resources.
Under a policy of average-cost pricing, a. the government picks a point on the
demand curve where price equals average cost.
Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice competitors.
We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition: c. Many firms,
differentiated product, and no artificial barriers to entry.
What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza? b. $1.50
What is the marginal cost of the second slice of pizza? a. $1.50
When firms act together to set prices: e. all of the above
Which of the following best explains why there are diminishing returns in the short
run? b. In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have less to
work with, and output increases at a decreasing rate.
Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium? d. All
of the above.
Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?
b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Which of the following formulas shows total profit? b. (P ? ATC)Q
Which of the following is not a type of product differentiation? e. All of the above
are types of product differentiation
Which of the following is NOT an example of a marginal decision? c. If I hire ten
workers to produce tables, what will be the average cost per table?
Which of the following is true of a monopoly? c. The monopoly?s demand curve
and the market demand curve are one and the same.
Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics? e. None of the
above; all are within the scope of economic study.
Which of the following statements best describes total utility? b. Total utility
increases at a decreasing rate with each good a consumer purchases.
Which of the following statements is correct? c. Jorge has the absolute and
comparative advantage in pies.
Which of the following statements is true? d. If marginal cost is greater than average
variable cost, average variable cost must be increasing.
Which of the following would be expected to have the MOST elastic demand? d.
Ford Taurus
Why are monopoly markets considered to be inefficent? d. because they restrict
output, creating a deadweight loss
Why do people specialize and trade? a. Because each person can consume more by
specializing and trading.
___________ interest rates are quoted in the market, while ___________ interest rates
are adjusted for inflation. b. Nominal, real
A consumer buys a new house. In which GDP category does this count? b.
Investment
According to real business cycle theory, d. business cycles are caused by
technology shocks.
According to supply-side economists, higher tax rates e. may reduce tax
revenues by discouraging economic activity.
According to the ___________, investment spending depends positively on the
expected future growth of GDP, while the _____________ model suggests that a
downturn in GDP reduces investment, causing an additional decrease in GDP. b.
accelerator theory, multiplier-accelerator
An increase in the capital stock a. shifts up the short-run production function,
causing output to increase at all positive levels of labor.
An increase in the real interest rate: c. decreases the quantity of investment.
Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output? b. an increase in government spending
At the full-employment level of output, c. the labor market is in equilibrium.
Automatic stabilizers in the economy smooth business cycles by: a. increasing
transfer payments during recessions and increasing tax collections during inflationary
periods.
Consider the Keynesian cross model. If output exceeds the equilibrium level of
output, then b. firms experience an increase in inventories and respond by reducing
production.
Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________. c. Keynesian
economics, the real business cycle theory
Economists are concerned that the CPI may actually overstate the true annual increase
in the cost of living. Why is this a problem? c. Because increases in Social
Security are related to the increase in the CPI, and the federal budget will increase too
fast.
Financial intermediaries b. reduce risk through diversification.
For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be: d.
elementary education.
If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken? c. 7%
If John quits his job to find a new job in a different city, John is considered b.
frictionally unemployed.
If nominal interest rates are high but there is still a high level of investment, it is likely
that: c. the inflation rate is high, and thus the real interest rate is low.
If people transfer money from their checking account to their savings account b. M1
falls and M2 remains constant.
If prices increase but the level of national output is held constant, than nominal GDP
________ and real GDP __________. e. increases, does not change
If the capital stock increases: c. the aggregate production function will shift
upward.
If the cost of a basket of goods is $125 in 1989, $135 in 1990, and $150 for 1991,
assuming 1991 is the base year, the CPI for 1989 is e. 83.
If the economy is at full employment, which of the following is true? b. There is
no cyclical unemployment.
If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, then d. the slope of the
consumption function increases.
If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest rate
is c. 5%.
If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5 marks
= $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany? d. $2.0
If the real GDP growth rate of a country is 7%, how many years will it take for real
GDP to double? b. 10 years
If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause? d. The demand for labor has decreased.
In a closed economy, if government spending increases: c. either consumption or
investment or both must decrease.
In an open economy, exports _______ national income, and imports ________
national income. b. increase, reduce
In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______. b. fall, not change
Investment spending is very d. procyclical.
Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?
d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings not based on
rational evidence.
Money serves as a store of value because b. its value is preserved between
transactions.
National output that is not consumed is called c. savings.
Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is: c. A poor country
growing rapidly.
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Some economists argue that cutting the capital gains tax is desirable because: b.
individuals will be more likely to sell stock that has increased in value, and tax
revenues will rise.
Sources of external funds of a financial intermediary are known as a. liabilities.
Suppose a computer manufacturer develops a new method of processing that allows
them to make more computers with the same amount of input. This is an example of
b. technological progress.
Suppose a farmer sells wheat to a miller for $400 and the miller grinds the wheat into
flour. The flour is sold to a bakery for $750. The bakery uses the flour to produce
$1,250 worth of bread. Assume the bakery has no other input to production. In the
production of the bread, the value added by the bakery is a. $500.
Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience a. capital deepening.
Suppose that a U.S. corporation has a plant in Malaysia. Income from that plant is part
of the company's annual earnings, but how is it counted in the national income
accounts? c. It counts toward both gross national product (GNP) but not toward
gross domestic product (GDP).
Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year? b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.
Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________. c. not change, fall
Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose? d. C, D and E only
Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that information,
what can you say about output? d. Any of the above answers are possible.
Suppose there are 2,000 people in the nation of Utopia. Of the people over 16 years
old, 1,500 are employed, and 100 are unemployed and looking for work, and 400 are
unemployed and are not looking for work. The labor force participation rate in Utopia
is: c. 80%.
Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the a. wealth effect.
The expected real interest rate e. is difficult to measure.
The GDP deflator: c. is an index of how prices change over time.
The government budget deficit and the trade deficit are known as the twin deficits
because: d. in an open economy, increased government budget deficits can reduce
exports and increase imports, increasing the trade deficit.
The investment spending curve is a. a negative relationship between real interest
rates and investment.
The stock of high-powered money, or the monetary base, is bank reserves plus
currency held by the public. Which of the following would change the stock of high-
powered money? d. The Fed buys bonds from the public sector.
The U. S. Federal Reserve is controlled by: d. the Chairman of the Fed and the Board
of Governors.
The unemployment rate is likely to understate the rate of actual unemployment
because: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as unemployed.
Trade deficits are likely to lead to future increases in consumption if a. the trade
deficits support current investment.
What is the definition of a recession? b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive
quarters.
What is the effect of government spending on capital deepening? c. Government
spending can increase capital deepening when it is used to build infrastructures such
as roads and bridges.
When the level of national output is zero, total consumption is c. equal to
autonomous consumption.
Which of the following are examples of items used as money? e. All of the above
are true.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the natural rate of unemployment?
b. The natural rate of unemployment differs between developed countries.
Which of the following is an example of a contractionary fiscal policy? b.
increased taxes
Which of the following is an example of a durable good? b. a television
Which of the following is an example of a government transfer payment? d. the food
stamps issued to persons in an antipoverty program
Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer? d. a decrease in
unemployment benefits paid out during an expansion
Which of the following is an example of convergence? e. The GDP per capita of
a poor nation grows more quickly than that of a rich nation.
Which of the following is considered to be included in the underground economy?
b. gambling winnings not reported on your taxes
Which of the following is NOT a reason why the aggregate demand curve is
downward-sloping? c. When the price level rises, consumers will substitute to
other, less-expensive goods, and the quantity demanded will fall.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Consumer Price Index
(CPI) and the GDP deflator? d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for
quality improvements in goods.
Which of the following is NOT an example of government spending? c. A retired
person receives a Social Security payment.
Which of the following is NOT an intermediate good? e. paint sold to a
consumer to use on his house
Which of the following is the best example of cyclical unemployment? c. The
aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during recessions, so it temporarily lays off
workers.
Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment? b.
Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the typewriter industry
permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the skills to get a job in the
computer industry.
Which of the following will cause aggregate demand to increase? a. an increase in
the money supply
Which of the following will decrease the supply of labor? d. an increase in income
taxes
Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve? d. changes
in the stock of labor or capital
Which of the following will shift the Keynesian aggregate supply curve? d. a change
in oil prices
Why is it difficult to compare real per capita GDP across countries? b. because
exchange rates are determined by supply and demand for traded goods and financial
assets and do not reflect the value of many goods that determine living standards
Why was fiscal policy more effective in the early 1960s than in the late 1960s?
d. because the change in the early 1960s was expected to be permanent while the
change in the late 1960s was known to be temporary
The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC:
Correct Answer: a. increases.
What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza?
Correct Answer: $1.50
Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production?
Correct Answer: b. $89
An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that:
Correct Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is added,
output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than the
previous unit.
As more firms enter the market, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: a. Demand for each firm decreases.
If Y = 200 + 2X, what is the slope of this line?
Correct Answer: c. 2
As compared to perfect competition, monopolies
Correct Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits, and
generate deadweight loss.
In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called:
Correct Answer: c. Fixed cost.
Under a policy of average-cost pricing,
Correct Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where price
equals average cost.
A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied
by an entire industry is a
Correct Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.
Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium?
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Why are monopoly markets considered to be inefficent?
Correct Answer: d. because they restrict output, creating a deadweight loss
Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the
following shows the effect on the computer market?
Correct Answer: b. Graph B
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
Correct Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on the
quantity is uncertain.
The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
Correct Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.
Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour?
Correct Answer: one hour of studying
A monopolist will choose a level of output that sets
Correct Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
As compared to the short-run elasticity of supply, in the long run, the elasticity of
supply will usually:
Correct Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).
If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are
Correct Answer: b. an inferior good.
An economist's notion of costs differs from an accountant's notion of costs as
follows:
Correct Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of nonpurchased
inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
In the short-run, an increase in demand results in a(n)
Correct Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the
following principle:
Correct Answer: a. The marginal principle.
A Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) illustrates the concept of scarcity. Which
item will be most likely to result in a shift of the PPC outward, indicating the ability
to produce more goods?
Correct Answer: an increase in population
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents
Correct Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches its
lowest point.
A monopolist sets the price of a good by choosing the level of output and then
Correct Answer: b. setting the price according to the market demand curve.
James has enough money to buy a car at the market price from fifteen years ago, but
today it?s only half of what he would need. Which principle does this represent?
Correct Answer: Reality
In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers?
Correct Answer: d. centrally planned economy
Refer to the graph below. Along the line corresponding to points a and b, the
following statement(s) is/are true:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Use the following table to answer the question. What is the marginal cost of the
second slice of pizza?
Correct Answer: $1.50
Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change
in supply moves equilibrium to:
Correct Answer: d. Point b
Why do people specialize and trade?
Correct Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium,
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal cost.
As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand:
Correct Answer: c. decreases.
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common?
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
If the marginal product of labor is increasing,
Correct Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.
A natural monopoly occurs when
Correct Answer: a. the entry of a second firm would make both firms unprofitable.
Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because
Correct Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice
competitors.
If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then:
Correct Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must:
Correct Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.
Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?
Correct Answer: b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics?
Correct Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic study.
If Country 1 is absolutely better at producing all goods than Country 2, which of the
following is most likely to be true?
Correct Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because:
Correct Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.
According to the marginal principle, if the marginal benefit is far greater than the
marginal cost, than a rational individual will
Correct Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the
market price be?
Correct Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.
Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because:
Correct Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.
At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing,
Correct Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost curve.
Which of the following would be expected to have the MOST elastic demand?
Correct Answer: d. Ford Taurus
Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because:
Correct Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for cheating.
Often a firm will spend money to lobby government officials to allow the firm to act
as a monopolist. This process is known as
Correct Answer: e. rent seeking.
Which of the following statements best describes total utility?
Correct Answer: b. Total utility increases at a decreasing rate with each good a
consumer purchases.
The problem of scarcity,
Correct Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.
Market systems are desirable because
Correct Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.
We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of
ice-cream and pizzas such that
Correct Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility per
dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because:
Correct Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.
Which of the following best explains why there are diminishing returns in the short
run?
Correct Answer: In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have less
to work with, and output increases at a decreasing rate.
Suppose a firm responds to underpricing by another firm by choosing a price so low
that neither firm can profit. This strategy is known as
Correct Answer: d. the grim trigger strategy.
A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices:
Correct Answer: if it is trying to deter entry.
If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then
Correct Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.
If your new business (in which you have invested $50,000, which you previously
kept in savings, earning 10% interest) earns an accounting profit of $30,000 in the
first year, and you had previously been employed as a ditch-digger, earning $10,000
per year, your economic profit is:
Correct Answer: d. 15,000.
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a
Correct Answer: c. cartel.
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in?
Correct Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.
Use the information in this table to answer the question. Which of the following
statements is correct?
Correct Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
According to the duopolists' dilemma,
Correct Answer: b. two firms both choose a low price, although both would be better
off with the high price.
The income elasticity of widgets is negative; the cross elasticity between widgets
and gadgets is negative. Widgets are a(n):
Correct Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with:
Correct Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.
A friend offers you a Coke, a Pepsi, or a Diet Coke. You don't like Diet Coke, so
after some thought, you take the Pepsi. What is the opportunity cost of your choice?
Correct Answer: the Coke
Suppose that the reserve ratio is 0.2 and that banks loan out all their excess reserves.
If a person deposits $100 cash in a bank, checking account balances will increase by
Correct Answer: d. $500.
The investment spending curve is
Correct Answer: a. a negative relationship between real interest rates and investment.
What is the definition of a recession?
Correct Answer: b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive quarters.
Which of the following groups is primarily responsible for setting monetary policy,
such as open-market operations?
Correct Answer: c. The Federal Open Market Committee
The U. S. Federal Reserve is controlled by:
Correct Answer: d. the Chairman of the Fed and the Board of Governors.
The stock of high-powered money, or the monetary base, is bank reserves plus
currency held by the public. Which of the following would change the stock of high-
powered money?
Correct Answer: d. The Fed buys bonds from the public sector.
If the natural rate of unemployment for the economy is 5% and the current rate of
unemployment is 4%, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: a. Cyclical unemployment is negative.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the natural rate of
unemployment?
Correct Answer: b. The natural rate of unemployment differs between developed
countries.
Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________.
Correct Answer: c. Keynesian economics, the real business cycle theory
If the real GDP growth rate of a country is 7%, how many years will it take for real
GDP to double?
Correct Answer: b. 10 years
If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken?
Correct Answer: c. 7%
If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause?
Correct Answer: d. The demand for labor has decreased.
Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________.
Correct Answer: c. not change, fall
Which of the following is an example of a contractionary fiscal policy?
Correct Answer: b. increased taxes
Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is:
Correct Answer: c. A poor country growing rapidly.
Money serves as a store of value because
Correct Answer: b. its value is preserved between transactions.
When the level of national output is zero, total consumption is
Correct Answer: c. equal to autonomous consumption.
The study of the economy as it operates at full employment is called
Correct Answer: c. classical economics.
Which of the following is NOT an intermediate good?
Correct Answer: e. paint sold to a consumer to use on his house
Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the
Correct Answer: a. wealth effect.
During the Great Depression, banks failed because:
Correct Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must collapse
if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment?
Correct Answer: b. Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the
typewriter industry permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the
skills to get a job in the computer industry.
Economists are concerned that the CPI may actually overstate the true annual
increase in the cost of living. Why is this a problem?
Correct Answer: c. Because increases in Social Security are related to the increase in
the CPI, and the federal budget will increase too fast.
If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest
rate is
Correct Answer: c. 5%.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about investment?
Correct Answer: b. Investment refers to the purchases of stocks and bonds.
Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose?
Correct Answer: d. C, D and E only
Refer to the graph below. Inventory buildup exists when the level of output is:
Correct Answer: c. y1
The unemployment rate is likely to understate the rate of actual unemployment
because:
Correct Answer: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as unemployed.
Why is it difficult to compare real per capita GDP across countries?
Correct Answer: b. because exchange rates are determined by supply and demand for
traded goods and financial assets and do not reflect the value of many goods that
determine living standards
Which of the following is an example of convergence?
Correct Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly than that
of a rich nation.
Suppose a computer manufacturer develops a new method of processing that allows
them to make more computers with the same amount of input. This is an example of
Correct Answer: b. technological progress.
Which of the following are examples of items used as money?
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are true.
Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output?
Correct Answer: b. an increase in government spending
In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______.
Correct Answer: b. fall, not change
What is the effect of government spending on capital deepening?
Correct Answer: c. Government spending can increase capital deepening when it is
used to build infrastructures such as roads and bridges.
Why was fiscal policy more effective in the early 1960s than in the late 1960s?
Correct Answer: d. because the change in the early 1960s was expected to be
permanent while the change in the late 1960s was known to be temporary
If the capital stock increases:
Correct Answer: c. the aggregate production function will shift upward.
Financial intermediaries
Correct Answer: b. reduce risk through diversification.
In a closed economy, if government spending increases:
Correct Answer: c. either consumption or investment or both must decrease.
National output that is not consumed is called
Correct Answer: c. savings.
If prices increase but the level of national output is held constant, than nominal GDP
________ and real GDP __________.
Correct Answer: e. increases, does not change
Money serves as a unit of account because
Correct Answer: d. prices are quoted in terms of money.
Sources of external funds of a financial intermediary are known as
Correct Answer: a. liabilities.
If the economy is at full employment, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: b. There is no cyclical unemployment.
If the CPI is 350 in Year 1 and 420 in Year 2, what is the inflation rate?
Correct Answer: b. 20%
Trade deficits are likely to lead to future increases in consumption if
Correct Answer: a. the trade deficits support current investment.
Currency is:
Correct Answer: b. an asset to the public and a liability of the Fed.
Automatic stabilizers in the economy smooth business cycles by:
Correct Answer: a. increasing transfer payments during recessions and increasing tax
collections during inflationary periods.
Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve?
Correct Answer: d. changes in the stock of labor or capital
If the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply, which of the following would
accomplish that goal?
Correct Answer: a. sell bonds to the private sector
The expected real interest rate
Correct Answer: e. is difficult to measure.
The relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP demanded is
called
Correct Answer: c. aggregate demand.
If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5
marks = $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany?
Correct Answer: d. $2.0
The GDP deflator:
Correct Answer: c. is an index of how prices change over time.
Assuming a classical aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause a
decrease in output?
Correct Answer: e. None of the above are true.
Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that
information, what can you say about output?
Correct Answer: d. Any of the above answers are possible.
According to real business cycle theory,
Correct Answer: d. business cycles are caused by technology shocks.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why the aggregate demand curve is
downward-sloping?
Correct Answer: c. When the price level rises, consumers will substitute to other,
less-expensive goods, and the quantity demanded will fall.
In an open economy, exports _______ national income, and imports ________
national income.
Correct Answer: b. increase, reduce
An increase in the real interest rate:
Correct Answer: c. decreases the quantity of investment.
Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience
Correct Answer: a. capital deepening.
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of:
Correct Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
The difference between real GDP and nominal GDP is that
Correct Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while real
GDP controls for changes in prices.
Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year?
Correct Answer: b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.
According to supply-side economists, higher tax rates
Correct Answer: e. may reduce tax revenues by discouraging economic activity.
Which of the following will cause an INCREASE in aggregate demand?
Correct Answer: b. an increase in the money supply
Investment spending is very
Correct Answer: d. procyclical.
Which of the following will cause aggregate demand to increase?
Correct Answer: a. an increase in the money supply
For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be:
Correct Answer: d. elementary education.
Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?
Correct Answer: d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings not
based on rational evidence.
An increase in the capital stock
Correct Answer: a. shifts up the short-run production function, causing output to
increase at all positive levels of labor.
Question 18 1.25 out of 1.25 points
According to the Q-theory of investment:
Selected Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Correct Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Feedback: Correct
OK
Name Exam 3
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1 answers
Correct The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are produced
and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as
Question 2 answers
Question 3 answers
Incorrect The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known
as
Question 4 answers
Correct The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Question 5 answers
Correct The total earnings arising from the production of the GDP is known as
Question 6 answers
Question 7 answers
Correct If real GDP increases by 5 percent and the population increases by 10 percent during
the same period, real per capital income
Question 8 answers
Correct An increase in the price level adds to the value of the nominal GDP but not to the real
GDP.
Question 9 answers
Correct The value of leisure is not taken into consideration in GDP accounting.
Question 10 answers
Correct The portion of NI in the United States that takes the form of compensation of
employees amounts to
Question 11 answers
Question 12 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct The CPI does not necessarily make adjustments for improvement in the quality of
goods and services in the market basket.
Question 13 answers
Question 14 answers
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the national economy tends to operate at full employment
Correct Answer: Correct the national economy tends to operate at full employment
Question 16 answers
Incorrect If the money supply is $350 and PQ is $1,400, according to the quantity theory of
money, the velocity of money is
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Question 21 answers
Correct The CPI measures price changes for only about two-thirds of all spending.
Question 22 answers
Correct An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
Question 23 answers
Question 24 answers
Correct The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary
policy in controlling inflation.
Question 25 answers
Question 26 answers
Selected Answer: Correct stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages
Correct Answer: Correct stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages
Question 28 answers
Selected Answer: Correct inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output
Correct Answer: Correct inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output
Correct The multiplier is the relationship between the initial change in aggregate expenditure
and the resulting change in income.
Question 29 answers
Correct Keynes recommended the use of government deficit spending to overcome widespread
unemployment.
Question 30 answers
Incorrect The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely.
Question 31 answers
Correct Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?
Question 32 answers
Question 33 answers
Correct The new classical school holds that rational expectations tends to defeat the goals of
monetary policy.
Question 34 answers
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Question 37 answers
Question 39 answers
Incorrect Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.
Question 40 answers
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy
Correct Answer: Correct the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy
Question 42 answers
Correct One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Question 43 answers
Question 44 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect is a function of the federal Reserve Banks without any review by
the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Correct provides a signal that the Fed wants to encourage an expansion or contra
ction of the money supply
Question 45 answers
Correct Any bank reserves over and above the level of required reserves are known as
Question 46 answers
Correct The Reigle-Neal Act was passed by Congress in 1932 to regulate banking.
Question 47 answers
Correct If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Question 48 answers
Correct During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)
Question 50 answers
OK
Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 64 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
c unemployment,
c unemployment,
a. monetary and fiscal policies are likely to be equally effective
b. monetary policy is likely to be more effective than fiscal policy
*c. fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
d. laissez-faire policy is likely to be most effective
Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 72 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
c unemployment,
c unemployment,
Name Exam 4
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Score 80 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 90 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
OK
Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 88 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Correct The progressive income tax serves as an automatic stabilizer for the U.S. economy.
Question 1 answers
Incorrect In the past few decades, the United States has not experienced any extended periods of
Question 2 answers
Correct The U.S. economy failed to achieve full employment levels of output during the 1960s
despite increased government spending
Question 3 answers
Correct If the government must borrow during an inflationary period, it is less inflationary to
borrow idle funds rather than funds that would otherwise be spent.
Question 4 answers
Question 5 answers
Correct Several Latin American nations suffered from hyperinflation during the 1980s and
1990s.
Question 6 answers
Correct Compared to its position during the late 1970s, the Phillips curve for the U.S. economy
in the 1980s appeared to
Question 7 answers
Correct One lesson learned from the U.S. deficit spending of the 1930s was that direct spending
for transfer payments stimulated the economy more than spending on public works.
Question 8 answers
Question 9 answers
Incorrect Which of the following situations prevailed in the United States in the early 1990s?
Question 10 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect the Bush Administration wanted higher interest rates
Correct Answer: Correct the Fed and the Bush Administration were at odds about interest rates
Correct If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this action
Question 11 answers
Correct During the Great Depression, the rate of unemployment in the United States reached a
high of
Question 12 answers
Correct Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation are
known as
Question 13 answers
Correct The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure to
determine poverty.
Question 14 answers
Correct Statistics indicate that because of government transfer programs, households in the four
lower quintiles now receive a much larger share of aggregate income than in 1970.
Question 15 answers
Question 16 answers
Correct The Lorenz curve measures the per capita annual income of individuals.
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Correct The biggest disincentive to employment for those on welfare is the effect of taxes as
they earn income.
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Correct Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households
Correct Answer: Correct the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of households
Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points
Correct Channeling people according to sex or race into particular occupations tends to
Question 22 answers
Correct If new highly progressive tax laws are enacted, the resulting Lorenz curve will move to
the right-hand corner of the graph.
Question 23 answers
Question 24 answers
Correct Because their earnings are highest, married couples between the ages of 35-54 hold the
largest share of wealth in the United States.
Question 25 answers
Correct The level of business activity at any time is affected by the trend, seasonal variations,
random fluctuations, and cyclical fluctuations.
Question 26 answers
Correct The U.S. economy has experienced no minor cycles since World War II.
Question 27 answers
Question 28 answers
Selected Answer: Correct eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data
Correct Answer: Correct eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces from the
data
Question 29 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect less prevalent in those countries with modern banking systems
c 13) Monetary theorists maintain that to eliminate the business cycle, it is necessary to eliminate
a. money
b. currency
d. bank reserves
Correct Answer: Correct more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Question 30 answers
Question 31 answers
Correct Minor cycles have fluctuations which are noticeable and severe.
Question 32 answers
Correct As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct Answer: Correct increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct The impact of the 2005 hurricanes in Florida would be an example of a random
fluctuation in business activity.
Question 34 answers
Correct The highest and lowest levels of economic activity during the business cycle are called
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Question 37 answers
Correct A recession is defined as a period in which real GDP is negative for two consecutive
quarters.
Question 38 answers
Question 39 answers
Selected Answer: Correct has decreased while agricultural output has increased
Correct Answer: Correct has decreased while agricultural output has increased
Question 40 answers
Correct The number and the percentage of U.S. workers in labor unions have decreased in the
past decade.
Question 41 answers
Question 42 answers
Incorrect The Council of Economic Advisers includes the Secretary of the Treasury and the
Chairman of the Federal Reserve Board.
Question 43 answers
Correct The Employment Act of 1946 makes the government responsible for maintaining
maximum employment, production, and purchasing power.
Question 44 answers
Question 45 answers
Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Correct frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment
Incorrect The labor force participation rate describes the civilian labor force as a percentage of
the civilian noninstitutional population.
Question 47 answers
Correct The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional unemployment
in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Incorrect Unemployment
Question 50 answers
OK
Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 60 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 82 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 96 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
OK
Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Incorrect Under a system of floating exchange rates, exchange rates are allowed to rise or fall
according to supply and demand.
Question 1 answers
Correct When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the balance
of payments as a
Question 2 answers
Question 3 answers
Selected Answer: Correct must exactly offset the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts
Correct Answer: Correct must exactly offset the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts
Question 4 answers
Correct If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Question 5 answers
Correct Special Drawing Rights are issued by the International Monetary Fund and are a
principal source of international reserves.
Question 6 answers
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: Correct more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Question 8 answers
Selected Answer: Correct total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: Correct total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct The best way to describe the international position of the U.S. dollar during the 1980s
is
Question 9 answers
Selected Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and then falling
Correct Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and then falling
Question 10 answers
Question 11 answers
Selected Answer: Correct fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: Correct fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Question 12 answers
Correct Since World War II, the importance of gold in international exchange has increased.
Question 13 answers
Correct The capital account of the balance of payments includes the purchase and sale of
physical assets but not of financial assets.
Question 14 answers
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: Correct explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was financed
Correct A nation on the gold standard would convert its currency into gold on demand.
Question 16 answers
Correct The government’s ability to repay the national debt is governed only by the total
assets of the economy.
Question 17 answers
Correct The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Question 18 answers
Correct The effect of a tax is the same thing as the incidence of the tax.
Question 19 answers
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the cost of carrying the national debt rises
Correct Answer: Correct the cost of carrying the national debt rises
Question 21 answers
Correct If the cost of collecting a tax is low relative to the revenue generated, the tax is said to
be economical.
Question 22 answers
Question 23 answers
Correct Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?
Question 24 answers
Question 25 answers
Question 26 answers
Question 27 answers
Question 28 answers
Correct In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Question 29 answers
Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Question 31 answers
Correct Passing the debt on to future generations has a different impact on individuals than it
does on the total economy.
Question 32 answers
Incorrect Compared to the national debts of major European countries as a percentage of national
incomes, the U.S. national debt
Question 33 answers
Correct Devices that set up multiple exchange rates between the currencies of two nations are
known as
Question 34 answers
Correct The French franc is the common currency of the Economic Monetary Union.
Question 35 answers
Question 36 answers
Correct In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of
Question 37 answers
Question 38 answers
Question 39 answers
Correct Which of the following countries is not a member of the European Union?
Question 40 answers
Correct The United States has used export subsidies to encourage the exportation of
Question 41 answers
Correct In rank order, the nations exporting the highest dollar value of merchandise into the
U.S. in 2005 were
Question 42 answers
Correct The rule of origin defines the maximum percentage of a country’s exported product
that can be sold in the United States.
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct If the United States exports wheat to foreign countries that levy tariffs on wheat
imports, the probable result is that the price of wheat will
Question 44 answers
Question 45 answers
Correct The revenue and protective purposes of a tariff are largely incompatible.
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Correct Which of the following, if successful, always results in a complete cessation of trade in
a certain product?
Question 50 answers
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Name Exam 2
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Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.
Correct One reason firms in monopolistic competition can charge different prices is that their
products are
Question 1 answers
Question 2 answers
Correct Suppose that a monopolist is producing an output level of 10,000 units. At that output
level, both MR and MC equal $5, AR equals $7, and ATC equals $6. Which of the following
statements is correct?
Question 3 answers
Incorrect In 1911, the Supreme Court established the rule of reason. This rule held that
Question 4 answers
Correct Answer: Correct the Sherman Antitrust Act made only unreasonable restraints of trade
illegal
Question 5 answers
Question 6 answers
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect the less the price difference between competing firms
Question 9 answers
Correct A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.
Question 10 answers
Question 11 answers
Correct No U.S. firm has ever obtained sufficient control over raw materials to develop a
monopoly or near monopoly on that basis.
Question 12 answers
Question 13 answers
Correct Which of the following statements concerning the circular flow model is (are) correct?
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Correct planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow
Correct Answer: Correct planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow
Question 15 answers
Correct In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Question 16 answers
Correct A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.
Question 17 answers
Question 18 answers
Correct An increase in planned savings, all else held constant, will always result in
Question 19 answers
Correct According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is greater
than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for
Question 20 answers
Correct During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources is
to bid the resources away from other firms.
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in consumption.
Question 22 answers
Question 23 answers
Correct Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Question 24 answers
Question 25 answers
Question 26 answers
Correct Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.
Question 27 answers
Correct If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Question 28 answers
Question 29 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the lowest average costs of production at each level of output
Correct Answer: Correct the lowest average costs of production at each level of output
Correct If one firm in a perfectly competitive industry is somehow able to produce at a lower
cost than competing firms in the short run,
Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in
the long run
Correct Answer: Correct the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in the long
run
Question 31 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
Question 32 answers
Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Question 33 answers
Correct If economies of scale are present, a firm can enhance its profits by
Question 34 answers
Selected Answer: Correct operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale
Correct Answer: Correct operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale
Incorrect Elaine’s firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn’t Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?
Question 35 answers
Correct Answer: Correct she can sell all she wants at the market price
Correct Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level. If the
market price is $10,
Question 36 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the best the firm can do is to break even
Correct Answer: Correct the best the firm can do is to break even
Correct The lowest possible ATC curve is attained at the optimal scale of output.
Question 37 answers
Correct In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Question 38 answers
Correct If the firm produces one more unit of output and total cost rises from $1,000 to $1,050,
marginal cost is
Question 39 answers
Correct The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are added
to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly smaller,
is the principle of
Question 40 answers
Question 41 answers
Correct If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned
elsewhere is
Question 42 answers
Question 43 answers
Correct Marginal revenue is the increase in total revenue per additional unit of input.
Question 44 answers
Question 45 answers
Correct The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from its
best alternative use is the
Question 46 answers
Question 47 answers
Correct So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise.
Question 48 answers
Question 49 answers
Question 50 answers
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Q1. Economists divide productive resources into which of the following four broad categories?
CORRECT a. a fast food restaurant that only serves lunch and dinner trying to determine if it s
hould open for breakfast
Q4. The idea that what?s good for one person may not be good for all people is known as the
Q6. An economy?s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)
Q7. The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers use is kno
wn as
Q8. Which of the following would shift a nation?s entire production possibilities curve outward?
CORRECT d. privatization
Q15. If shortages or surpluses exist in a market, what helps guide the market back to equilibrium?
CORRECT b. false
CORRECT c. a change in people?s preferences that causes them to buy either more or less than
before
Q20. The total quantity of a good that all buyers in the market would buy at various prices at a giv
en time is known as
Q22. It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the demand fo
r another commodity.
CORRECT a. true
CORRECT b. false
Q24. If demand and supply increase by the same amount, equilibrium price will rise.
CORRECT b. false
Q25. The change to total output resulting from using an additional unit of a productive resource is t
he
CORRECT a. true
Q28. Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is equal to the price at which a goo
d is sold.
CORRECT a. true
CORRECT b. false
Q30. If the entry of new firms in a perfectly competitive industry substantially increases the market
demand for resources,
CORRECT b. more efficient firms can earn higher profits than less efficient firms
Q32. In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, market forces come into play to
CORRECT c. eliminate profits
CORRECT a. true
Q38. A monopoly can sell all that it desires at any given price.
CORRECT b. false
Q39. A monopolist that charges different prices to different buyers based on their elasticities of de
mand is practicing
CORRECT b. false
CORRECT d. MR equals MC
Q44. Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Q46. The amount of unemployment that arises because workers are temporarily between jobs or ne
w entrants to the labor force is known as
Q49. Unemployment caused by an imbalance between the skills possessed by workers and the skill
s demanded in labor markets is known as
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Question: Q3. The international organization that replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) is the
Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time
Question: Q14. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for
Question: Q15. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?
Question: Q26. The U. S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks
and checkable deposits is referred to as
Correct Answer: a. M1
Given Answer: d. M1 + M2
Given Answer: d. the effect is neutral since imports are replaced by domestic goods
Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time
Question: Q11. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?
Correct Answer: b. anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods and services
Question: Q31. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.
Correct Answer: a. true
Given Answer: d. the effect is neutral since imports are replaced by domestic goods
Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time
Question: Q11. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?
Correct Answer: d. consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports
Correct Answer: b. anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods and services
Question: Q31. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.
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Question: Q22. In exercising the principle of comparative advantage, a nation with no absolute
advantage should produce a commodity in which it faces a lower opportunity cost than its trading
partners face.
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Correct Answer: d. forgone interest when investing one's savings in one's own business
Question: Q2. The concept of choosing the least-cost combination of resources for a given
amount of output is known as
Correct Answer: c. economic efficiency
Question: Q5. The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are
added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly
smaller, is the principle of
Question: Q7. Marginal cost is equal to the increase in total cost per unit of input divided by
marginal product.
Correct Answer: a. the lowest average costs of production at each level of output
Given Answer: b. the lowest average costs of production for each plant size
Question: Q45. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for
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Question: Q4. In dollars, the nominal GDP in the United States is in 2005 was between:
Question: Q8. If nominal GDP is reported at $10,000 billion and the GDP implicit price deflator
is 150, the GDP in constant dollars is
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Question: Q5. An increase in the number of inexperienced workers in the labor force is likely to
increase the unemployment rate relative to the level of output.
Question: Q18. In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term "lowest fifth"
indicates
Question: Q39. During the 1960s, tax cuts were used to promote economic expansion in the
United states.
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Correct Answer: b. can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the government finances
spending with taxes on idle funds
Question: Q41. A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that
Question: Q47. Meetings among the leaders of the Group of Eight nations have directed the
course of international monetary policy in the last decade.
Correct Answer: a. true
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Question: Q5. The idea that what's good for one person may not be good for all people is known
as the
Question: Q35. A market structure in which two firms control the market is a
Question: Q45. When unions cause wages to rise above the equilibrium wage,
Correct Answer: b. derived from the demand for the good or service it produces
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Correct Answer: b. occasional problems of unemployment could occur but would be quickly
eliminated by the system of self-regulating markets
Given Answer: d. the economy had several possible equilibrium output levels
Correct Answer: c. may alter the composition of total output by substituting government spending
for private spending