Econ 125 HK2 ALL

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ECON 125 Exam 3

Question: Q33. Each Federal Reserve Bank

Correct Answer: b. is controlled by its own Board of Governors

Given Answer: a. is directly responsible to the U.S. President

Question: Q34. Changing the discount rate

Correct Answer: a. provides a signal that the Fed wants to encourage an expansion or contraction
of the money supply

Given Answer: b. is usually done in large increments in order to have a rapid impact on business
activity

Question: Q38. If planned investment decreases, the multiplier will decrease the equilibrium
income.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q39. The classical doctrine assumed that the normal equilibrium position for the
economy was at full employment.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Exam 5

Question: Q38. If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is

Correct Answer: a. 10 pesos

Given Answer: d. 100 pesos

Question: Q40. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect

Correct Answer: a. gold to flow out of the country to other countries

Given Answer: b. gold to flow into the country to other countries

Question: Q42. If domestic income is rising,

Correct Answer: c. imports will increase


Given Answer: b. demand for foreign currency will fall

Question: Q43. The Bretton Woods system included the idea of fixed exchange rates.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Midterm Exam

Question: Q19. A change in demand would be illustrated by


Correct Answer: c. a change in people?s preferences that causes them to buy either more or less
than before

Given Answer: a. a drop in price, which causes people to buy more

Question: Q22. An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the

Correct Answer: d. demand curve to the right

Given Answer: b. demand curve leftward

Question: Q26. As units of input are added to the production process, the marginal product

Correct Answer: b. at first increases, then eventually decreases

Given Answer: a. increases throughout

Question: Q27. Which of the following is the best example of variable cost?

Correct Answer: c. wages

Given Answer: b. property taxes

Question: Q37. The individual supply of a monopolist

Correct Answer: d. coincides with the market supply curve

Given Answer: a. coincides with the market demand curve

Question: Q41. The oligopolist?s dilemma is similar to the

Correct Answer: c. prisoner?s dilemma

Given Answer: a. dilemma that firms in perfect competition face in setting price
Question: Q45. Foreign outsourcing refers to the

Correct Answer: a. exporting of domestic jobs

Given Answer: b. exporting of domestic goods

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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q6. Labor market discrimination refers to

Correct Answer: c. differing economic opportunities based on personal characteristics

Given Answer: a. differing economic opportunities offered to persons according to their


productivity

Question: Q27. Suppose that the Consumer Price Index increased from 100 to 120 between 2015
and 2016. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how
much did your real income rise?

Correct Answer: c. 8. 33 percent

Given Answer: a. 30 percent

Question: Q30. If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is

Correct Answer: c. $0. 67

Given Answer: a. $1. 50

Question: Q34. Assume a reserve requirement of 10 percent. A commercial bank has total
reserves of $100,000, excess reserves of $25,000, and total checkable deposits outstanding of
$750,000. If the reserve requirement were increased to 15 percent,

Correct Answer: d. the bank would be $12,500 short of required reserves

Given Answer: b. excess reserves would be decreased to $12,500

Question: Q46. If domestic income is rising,

Correct Answer: c. imports will increase

Given Answer: d. imports will decrease

Question: Q48. Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U. S. assets. This
contributes to a U. S.

Correct Answer: d. surplus on financial account

Given Answer: b. deficit on financial account


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ECON 125 Exam 3

Question: Q12. National income accountants eliminate double counting of intermediate goods by
using only the value of final goods.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q13. According to the equation of exchange, if total output is 2,000 units, the velocity
of money is 5, and the money supply is $1,000, the average price per transaction will be

Correct Answer: b. $2.50

Given Answer: d. $7.50


Question: Q20. COLA is a form of indexation.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q26. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve
requirement.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q30. Monetarists argue that the Fed reduces fluctuations in economic activity and the
price level.

Correct Answer: b. false

Given Answer: a. true

Question: Q39. Classical economists believed that

Correct Answer: b. occasional problems of unemployment could occur but would be quickly
eliminated by the system of self-regulating markets

Given Answer: d. the economy had several possible equilibrium output levels

Question: Q42. In the Keynesian model, the 45-degree line consists of the points where

Correct Answer: b. total output is equal to aggregate expenditure

Given Answer: c. total consumption is equal to total expenditure


Question: Q46. The marginal propensity to consume is

Correct Answer: a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods

Given Answer: b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods

Question: Q47. In the simplest Keynesian model, planned investment is assumed to be

Correct Answer: c. constant

Given Answer: b. negatively related to income

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ECON 125 Exam 4

Question: Q4. The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978

Correct Answer: b. set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by 1983 and
zero inflation by 1988

Given Answer: d. is better known as the Kemp-Roth Act

Question: Q18. The New Economy is one of


Correct Answer: c. information

Given Answer: a. durable goods

Question: Q28. The roughly coincident indicators have their upward and downward turning points
prior to the upward and downward turning points of real GDP.

Correct Answer: b. false

Given Answer: a. true

Question: Q37. According to the rational expectations theory,

Correct Answer: c. the expected results of government anticyclical measures are offset by the
actions of businesses and individuals

Given Answer: a. the expected results of government anticyclical measures are intensified by the
actions of businesses and individuals

Question: Q39. In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,

Correct Answer: c. borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the public, which
is more effective than taxation

Given Answer: a. borrowing from banks is more effective than taxation, which is more effective
than borrowing from the public

Question: Q40. A balanced budget always has a neutral effect on the economy.

Correct Answer: b. false

Given Answer: a. true


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ECON 125 Exam 5

Question: Q14. If the government uses the budget as an economic stabilizer, the budget is most
likely to be in deficit during a(n)

Correct Answer: b. trough

Given Answer: d. peak

Question: Q19. If a country engaged in free trade has an unlimited quantity of imports of a good
available at a fixed price, the supply curve for that good is

Correct Answer: d. perfectly elastic

Given Answer: a. upward sloping

Question: Q34. The largest trading partner of the United states is

Correct Answer: b. Canada

Given Answer: c. European Union

Question: Q43. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Correct Answer: a. gold to flow out of the country to other countries

Given Answer: b. gold to flow into the country to other countries

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ECON 125 Midterm Exam

Question: Q1. An example of a macroeconomic model is one that considers

Correct Answer: b. why the size of the total national output depends on the size of total spending

Given Answer: a. how the price of chicken influences the quantity of chicken bought

Question: Q6. The process by which nations limit their productive efforts to a particular activity
instead of trying to produce directly everything that they need is known as

Correct Answer: a. specialization

Given Answer: b. using absolute advantage

Question: Q26. As units of input are added to the production process, the average product

Correct Answer: a. rises and then declines

Given Answer: d. is always greater than the marginal product

Question: Q29. The opportunity cost of using one?s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using

Correct Answer: b. interest rates

Given Answer: a. wage rates

Question: Q49. Unemployment

Correct Answer: b. usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

Given Answer: c. usually decreases whenever nominal GDP increases


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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q5. The international organization that replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) is the

Correct Answer: c. World Trade Organization

Given Answer: b. Export-Import Bank

Question: Q11. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for

Correct Answer: c. employment to increase

Given Answer: b. prices to rise

Question: Q37. A major force leading the U. S. economy to full employment after the Great
Depression was

Correct Answer: c. government spending for World War II

Given Answer: b. higher reserve requirements

Question: Q38. The tax rebate of 2008 is an example of

Correct Answer: d. pump priming

Given Answer: a. expansionary monetary policy

Question: Q45. The federal government?s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the

Correct Answer: c. total assets of the economy

Given Answer: b. incidence of taxes

Question: Q47. Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect

Correct Answer: a. gold to flow out of the country to other countries

Given Answer: b. gold to flow into the country from other countries

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ECON 125 Midterm Exam

Question: Q1. When the federal government insures large financial institutions against losses, the
problem of arises.

Correct Answer: c. moral hazard

Given Answer: b. fallacy of composition

Question: Q3. One of the areas Macroeconomics deals with is

Correct Answer: d. general price level

Given Answer: c. price of automobiles

Question: Q8. The process of specialization can be carried out by business firms as well as by
regions and nations.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q23. The law of demand illustrates that as

Correct Answer: d. price decreases, quantity demanded increases


Given Answer: b. price increases, quantity demanded increases

Question: Q28. A production function is

Correct Answer: b. the relationship between resource inputs and product output

Given Answer: d. all of these

Question: Q31. Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs
at the point where

Correct Answer: c. MR = MC

Given Answer: d. AVC = ATC

Question: Q41. As more firms enter a monopolistic competitive industry, average revenue will
fall for existing firms.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q50. Unemployment

Correct Answer: b. usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

Given Answer: c. usually decreases whenever nominal GDP increases

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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q7. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as a

Correct Answer: b. family

Given Answer: a. household

Question: Q8. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, all persons, unrelated or related,
who occupy a housing unit comprise

Correct Answer: b. a household

Given Answer: c. an extended family unit

Question: Q13. The size of the circular flow

Correct Answer: b. measures the level of income and output

Given Answer: c. increases if there are more planned leakages

Question: Q21. The size of planned consumption is influenced to a considerable extent by

Correct Answer: c. how much income people are receiving

Given Answer: b. whether or not the government is running a deficit

Question: Q25. The aggregate demand curve

Correct Answer: b. shows the amounts of real output that will be demanded at various price levels
Given Answer: a. is identical to the AE curve

Question: Q46. As foreign currency becomes less expensive in terms of the U. S. dollar,

Correct Answer: a. foreign goods become cheaper to U. S. citizens

Given Answer: c. the U. S. demand curve for foreign currency shifts to the left

Question: Q47. As the price of foreign exchange increases in terms of the U. S. dollar, U. S.
products become cheaper for foreigners to buy.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q7. According to the U. S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as a

Correct Answer: b. family

Given Answer: a. household

Question: Q11. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for

Correct Answer: c. employment to increase

Given Answer: b. prices to rise

Question: Q21. The size of planned consumption is influenced to a considerable extent by

Correct Answer: c. how much income people are receiving

Given Answer: b. whether or not the government is running a deficit

Question: Q30. The U. S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks
and checkable deposits is referred to as

Correct Answer: a. M1

Given Answer: d. M1 + M2

Question: Q33. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.

Correct Answer: a. true


Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q43. Raising taxes in order to pay off the U. S. national debt would result in a
significant redistribution of income.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q45. The U. S. income tax is based on the principle of

Correct Answer: c. ability to pay

Given Answer: d. equality of sacrifice

Question: Q46. Which of the following would cause a credit to the U. S. balance of payments?

Correct Answer: c. Lloyd?s of London makes an insurance payment to a U. S. resident

Given Answer: d. Russia cancels its purchases of U. S. wheat and buys wheat from Argentina

Question: Q50. A debit item on the U. S. balance of payments is any transaction that

Correct Answer: d. makes U. S. dollars available to foreigners

Given Answer: c. makes foreigners use up their holdings of U. S. dollars

ECON 125 Midterm Exam

Question: Q5. The idea that what?s good for one person may not be good for all people is known
as the
Correct Answer: b. fallacy of composition

Given Answer: a. cause-effect fallacy

Question: Q10. Which of the following is true of scarcity?

Correct Answer: d. it is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations

Given Answer: c. it affects only poor nations

Question: Q30. Under conditions of perfect competition, firms sell identical products.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q31. Elaine?s firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn?t Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?

Correct Answer: d. she can sell all she wants at the market price

Given Answer: b. doing so would be considered unethical price chiseling

Question: Q37. A single-price monopolist

Correct Answer: c. must lower price in order to sell more

Given Answer: b. can sell all it desires at a given price

Question: Q38. A monopolist that charges different prices to different buyers based on their
elasticities of demand is practicing

Correct Answer: c. third degree price discrimination

Given Answer: b. second degree price discrimination


Question: Q46. Most illegal immigrants are found in occupations

Correct Answer: d. that require little formal education

Given Answer: b. that require two years of college

Econ 1101 Chapter 3 40 terms by samantha_cheatwood1

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What quantities of goods and services to produce, which resources to use, and who gets to have
what share of the output (all of the above) Every society faces some basic economic choices such
as



market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and incentives An economic system is said
to be a



individuals and firms In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by



it results in an unequal distribution of property and income A problem with the use of the market
system is that



the market system functions best when the rights of private property are protected The relationship
between the market system and private property is



private property Which one of the f0llowing is a characteristic of capitalism but not of
communism?



consumer demand In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by




intellectual power Which of the following is not considered part of the productive resource, land?



individuals and firms Under the US market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by



the profit motive In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of



all costs of production Profit is the excess of revenue over and above payment for



the higher its price The stronger that consumer demand is for a good or service, other things being
equal,



the pricing system The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is
through



the pricing system Under a market system, an individual's income is ultimately determined through



consumer demand The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the US are determined by



its contribution to the final product In a market economy, a resource is compensated according to



sole proprietorship The most prevalent form of business enterprise in the US is the



sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership The basic legal forms of business
organization in the US are the



syndicate Which of the following is not one of the basic legal forms of business organization in the
US?



sole proprietorship The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is
the



False The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the corporation.



True A corporation can raise money by selling stock or bonds.



True In a cooperative type of enterprise, a shareholder has only one vote regardless of the number
of shares held.



True In the US, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the agriculture industry.



False There are no government-regulated markets in the US economy.



True The US economy is a mixture of perfect and imperfect competition and regulated and non-
regulated industries.



True Self-interest is a major tenet of economic liberalism.


True Laissez-faire is a policy of government nonintervention in the economy.



True Laissez-faire is a policy of no government in



True Government intervention in the US economy includes legislation such as antitrust laws, labor
laws, and safety regulations.



False Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the economy
has a job.



False An economic growth rate of 3 percent would be considered unhealthy for the US economy.



True A stable unemployment rate requires that the US economy grow each year in order to absorb
new workers who enter the labor force.



False The former Soviet Union was an example of a traditional economy.



False The US had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.



True Deciding what to produce and allocating goods and services are functions of all types of
economic systems.



False Socialism combines monopoly, capitalism, private property, and a strong dictatorial central
government.


False A major advantage of a partnership is the legal separation of personal and partnership assets.



True In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to income
tax.



True In determining what and how much to produce, the market economy works in a democratic
manner based on dollar votes.

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Chapter 5 - Basic Economics 40 terms by coralthegreat

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A production function is either a) a technique for determining the most profitable rate of output, b)
the relationship between a combination of inputs and a quantity of output, c) an important factor in
determining the shape of the long-run supply curve, d) all of these B



The marginal product refers to the impact of which unit of a productive resource? A) First. B)
middle. C) last. D) average C



The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive resource is the: a)
average product, b) marginal input, c) total product, d) marginal product D


As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product: a) increases
throughout, b) at first increases and then decreases, c) remains the same, d) declines then rises B



As units of input are added to the production process, the average product: a) rises and then
declines, b) declines and then rises, c) remains the same, d) is always greater than the marginal
product A



When marginal product is less than average product: a) average product falls, b) average product is
zero, c) average product increases, d) average product is unaffected A



If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned elsewhere is: a)
an explicit cost, b) an accounting cost, c) an implicit cost, d) not a cost C



The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from its best
alternative use is the: a) resource cost, b) opportunity cost, c) overhead cost, d) variable cost B



These costs implied by alternatives given up are: a) explicit costs, b) historical costs, c) outlay
costs, d) implicit or opportunity costs D



The marginal cost curve crosses the average total cost curve at the: a) highest level of average total
cost, b) lowest level of average total cost, c) point where the ATC equals the AVC, d) point where
the ATC equals the AFC B



The principle that pulls down the average cost (ATC), and then, as output continues to expand,
pulls it up, is: a) lower prices and then higher prices, b) rising and then diminishing marginal
returns, c) lower average fixed cost and then higher average fixed cost, d) lower resource prices
and then higher resource prices B


Average product falls any time: a) marginal product is falling, b) marginal product is rising, c)
marginal product is below it, d) total product is rising C



An example of an implicit cost is: a) rent, b) taxes, c) wages, d) forgone interest when investing
one's savings in one's own business D



The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are added to a set of
fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly smaller, is the
principle of: a) increasing production, b) functioning production, c) diminishing marginal returns,
d) increasing returns to scale C



For the principle of diminishing marginal returns to hold: a) all resources must vary, b) at least one
resource should remain fixed, c) only one resource should vary, d) a minimum of three input
resources is necessary C



The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve reflects: a) profit
per unit, b) total fixed cost, c) marginal cost, d) the principle of diminishing marginal returns B



The opportunity cost of using one's own savings in operating a business can be determined by
using: a) wage rates, b) interest rates, c) exchange rates, d) rental rates B



Total fixed cost is commonly referred to as: a) overhead, b) depreciation, c) opportunity cost, d)
marginal cost A



As output increases, total fixed cost: a) increases, b) remains constant, c) rises and then falls, d)
falls and then rises B



Which of the following is the best example of a variable cost? A) depreciation on a building. B)
property taxes. C) wages. D) rent paid for one's building C



The marginal product is the increase in output per additional unit of input True



The marginal product decreases, reaches a minimum, and then rises as output increases False



As long as the marginal product is falling, the average product falls False



The average product decreases any time the marginal product is decreased False



The average product can be calculated for any unit of input by dividing the total product by the
marginal product False



If all inputs are increased by 25% and output by 35%, increasing returns to scale exist True



Implicit cost is an opportunity cost of doing business True



Opportunity cost and implicit cost are both explicit costs False



Marginal cost is the change in total cost that results from producing one less or more unit of output
True


As output increases, marginal cost increases, reaching a maximum, and then falls False



So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise False



The principle of diminishing marginal returns is applicable only to the use of labor as a productive
resource False



The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a variable
resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output will become
increasingly smaller and, eventually larger False



The major factor for accounting for diseconomies of scale is management inefficiency True



In a mature industry, all firms operate with constant returns to scale False



On a cost/output graph, the average fixed cost is constucted as a straight horizontal line False



Marginal cost crosses the average variable cost and the average total cost at their lowest points
True



The average fixed cost remains constant even in the long run False



Marginal cost is related inversely to marginal product True




The difference between ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC True

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Review Assessment: Exam 1

User Sze Wai Ng

Submitted 5/31/14 11:59 AM

Name Exam 1

Status Completed

Score 94 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct Government intervention in the U.S. economy includes legislation such as antitrust
laws, labor laws, and safety regulations.
Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct command economy

Correct Answer: Correct command economy

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct The profit motive is one characteristic of a command economy.

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct competition

Correct Answer: Correct competition

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct private property


Correct Answer: Correct private property

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct The basic legal forms of business organization in the United States are the

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership

Correct Answer: Correct sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct flexible management

Correct Answer: Correct flexible management

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the profit motive

Correct Answer: Correct the profit motive

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct Laissez-faire is a policy of no government intervention in the economic activities of


individuals and businesses.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 10 text Question 10 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect In a market economy, prices serve as a rationing mechanism.

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a partnership, each partner’s liability is limited to his or her contribution to the
partnership.

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct An economic system is said to be a

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and


incentives

Correct Answer: Correct market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and incentives

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct Consumption is the ultimate end of economic activity.


Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct Putting a business venture together is the function of the

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct entrepreneur

Correct Answer: Correct entrepreneur

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct Economics is considered a physical science.

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct The study of economics would be less complicated if differences in prudential


judgments did not exist.

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True


Correct Answer: True

Question 19 text Question 19 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect All goods and services produced during the year are added to the total wealth of the
nation.

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct The process of allocating the total product among the resources involved is referred to
as

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct functional distribution

Correct Answer: Correct functional distribution

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct Labor includes the physical efforts of individuals and groups, but not their mental
efforts.

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct Economic services lack the characteristic of transferability found in economic goods.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct The relationship between the price of a book and the number of volumes purchased
would be an example of microeconomics.

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Economies must make choices because resources are limited while wants are unlimited.

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct A bulldozer used by a construction firm is known as a

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct capital good

Correct Answer: Correct capital good

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct Technological development can be applied to the improvement of human capital as


well as physical capital.

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve, it
can move

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct outward in any direction

Correct Answer: Correct outward in any direction

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized
if

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Country A specializes in wheat

Correct Answer: Correct Country A specializes in wheat

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct Every economic system must decide

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation’s production possibilities curve can be shifted outward by technological


development.

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Correct When using the principle of comparative advantage, the person with no absolute
advantage should perform the job in which he or she has

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a lesser disadvantage

Correct Answer: Correct a lesser disadvantage

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct When different regions of a country produce different goods,

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages

Correct Answer: Correct the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers face is known as comparative advantage.

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of all the alternative choices.

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Correct Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct The greatest increase in productivity per capita in the future will probably result from

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct technological development

Correct Answer: Correct technological development

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Correct Answer: Correct Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the market price of gasoline were $4 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is imposed,

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the price of gasoline would fall

Correct Answer: Correct the price of gasoline would fall

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to the total revenue rule, if the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is
less than 1 and if price goes

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct down, total revenue goes down

Correct Answer: Correct down, total revenue goes down

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a good has perfectly inelastic demand,

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Correct Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct move it to the equilibrium price

Correct Answer: Correct move it to the equilibrium price

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.

Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Correct Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be complements.

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct A change in demand occurs whenever consumers will purchase more because of a
decrease in price.

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct The total quantity of a good that all buyers in the market would buy at various prices at
a given time is known as

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct market demand


Correct Answer: Correct market demand

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct is perfectly elastic

Correct Answer: Correct is perfectly elastic

Question 49 text Question 49 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The law of supply states that

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect price changes are always in the same direction as supply changes

Correct Answer: Correct price and quantity supplied are positively or directly related

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the coefficient of elasticity for a commodity is 1.5 and the price of that commodity is
raised, total revenue will decrease.

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

OK

Question 1 0 out of 2 points

An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The measure of elasticity will be the same at any place along a given straight-line,
slanted demand curve.
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Along a straight-line, slanted demand curve,
Correct Answer: the price elasticity varies along the line

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only
750 units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is
inelastic.
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity refers to the
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Price ceilings usually create surpluses since supply is increased.
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be
complements.
Correct Answer: True
Question 13 0 out of 2 points
If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a nation to gain from specialization and exchange is affected by factors
such as shipping costs and exchange rates.
Correct Answer: True
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it is underutilizing its resources.
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Correct Answer: absolute advantage
Question 24 0 out of 2 points
Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)
Correct Answer: increased level of technology

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Correct Answer: utility

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Payment for the use of capital is made in the form of investment.
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort,
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Correct Answer: the pricing system

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of
Correct Answer: the profit motive

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Correct Answer: corporation

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


An economic system is said to be a
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives
Question 48 0 out of 2 points
The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Privatization results in
Correct Answer: a reduction in government economic functions

User Un Teng Teresa Chao


Submitted 6/14/10 1:44 AM
Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 72 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The quantity supplied and price tend to vary
Selected Answer: directly
Correct Answer: directly

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The demand for a fur coat tends to be more price elastic than the demand for
automobile tires.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


If the coefficient of elasticity for a commodity is 1.5 and the price of that commodity
is raised, total revenue will decrease.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The demand for a product at a given time is defined as the
Selected Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices
Correct Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a determinant of demand?
Selected Answer: production costs
Correct Answer: production costs

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


If total revenue decreases when a price is decreased, the demand for the commodity
is elastic.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will fall

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


A change in demand occurs whenever consumers will purchase more because of a
decrease in price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The quantity supplied is inversely related to price.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is assumed to be constant along a demand curve for pet dogs?
Selected Answer: the price of cats
Correct Answer: the price of cats

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Selected Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic
Question 13 0 out of 2 points
Price floors can create shortages if price floors are above market prices.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


A traditional economy is based on
Selected Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The basic legal forms of business organization in the United States are the
Selected Answer: sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Profit is the excess of revenue over and above payment for
Selected Answer: all costs of production
Correct Answer: all costs of production

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Question 18 2 out of 2 points
Deciding what to produce and allocating goods and services are functions of all types
of economic systems.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


When two or more individuals own a business that does not have a legal existence
separate from that of the individuals, it is known as a
Selected Answer: partnership
Correct Answer: partnership

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Selected Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation
Question 23 0 out of 2 points
The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by
Selected Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


In determining what and how much to produce, the market economy works in a
democratic manner based on dollar votes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers face is known as comparative advantage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 28 2 out of 2 points
A nation’s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital
resources.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The United States has an abundance of resources and thus does not face the problem
of scarcity.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve shows the use of resources and the alternative
combinations of goods that a society can produce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The extent to which a society can engage in specialization and exchange is limited by
the size of the market.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 33 2 out of 2 points
People must make choices because
Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


Japan has a low standard of living because of its shortage of resources.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation’s entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: developing a more efficient technology

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


In exercising the principle of comparative advantage, a nation with no absolute
advantage should produce a commodity in which it faces a lower opportunity cost
than its trading partners face.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The basic function of any economic system is to provide the framework for allocating
scarce resources in a way that adequately satisfies unlimited wants.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 38 2 out of 2 points
The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


A bulldozer used by a construction firm is known as a
Selected Answer: capital good
Correct Answer: capital good

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, “what would happen
if…”, then that economist is working in the area of
Selected Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


All economies in the world have identical methods of functional distribution.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: the president of GM
Correct Answer: the president of GM
Question 43 2 out of 2 points
Economists divide productive resources into which of the following four broad
categories?
Selected Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise
Correct Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as a(n)
Selected Answer: social science
Correct Answer: social science

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Selected Answer: scarce
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: the purpose for which it is used
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: the size of the total national output depends on the size of total
spending
Question 48 2 out of 2 points
Some economic principles are based on physical phenomena.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


To understand the purpose of a given economic policy, it is necessary to understand
the influence of political and social policies.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The rules and principles of economics that serve as a guide for action are known as
Selected Answer: economic theory
Correct Answer: economic theory

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The measure of elasticity will be the same at any place along a given straight-line,
slanted demand curve.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Along a straight-line, slanted demand curve,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the price elasticity varies along the line

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only
750 units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is
inelastic.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity refers to the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Price ceilings usually create surpluses since supply is increased.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be
complements.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a nation to gain from specialization and exchange is affected by factors
such as shipping costs and exchange rates.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it is underutilizing its resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increased level of technology

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: utility

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Payment for the use of capital is made in the form of investment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the pricing system
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the profit motive

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: corporation
Question 44 0 out of 2 points
In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


An economic system is said to be a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False
Question 49 0 out of 2 points
In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Privatization results in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a reduction in government economic functions

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


An economic growth rate of 3 percent would be considered unhealthy for the U.S.
economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


In determining what and how much to produce, the market economy works in a
democratic manner based on dollar votes.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


A stable unemployment rate requires that the U.S. economy grow each year in order
to absorb new workers who enter the labor force.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A problem with the use of the market system is that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Competition serves as a regulator in a market economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not among the United States’ economic goals?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. economy is a mixture of perfect and imperfect competition and regulated
and nonregulated industries.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the
economy has a job.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Every society faces some basic economic choices such as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


The shifting or returning of government economic functions to individuals and firms
in the economy is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: privatization

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: private property

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


A change in demand would be illustrated by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Probably the main characteristic of a demand curve is that it slopes upward from left
to right.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The slope of a demand curve is a measure of elasticity.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The price elasticity of demand is defined as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the
percentage change in price

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, the supply of goods is based on
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


A price floor will result in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


If total revenue decreases when a price is decreased, the demand for the commodity
is elastic.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


If income increases and the demand for a product increases, the product is a normal
good.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


According to the total revenue rule, if the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is
less than 1 and if price goes
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: down, total revenue goes down

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


A nation’s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital
resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


If a society is producing at a point on its production possibilities curve, it does not
have the problem of scarce resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve shows the use of resources and the alternative
combinations of goods that a society can produce.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as comparative advantage.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation’s entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: developing a more efficient technology
Question 34 0 out of 2 points
A need to make choices exists because of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Exercising the principle of comparative advantage between nations primarily
involves
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The United States has an abundance of resources and thus does not face the problem
of scarcity.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve,
it can move
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: outward in any direction

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The United States is academically unique in having so many
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: business schools
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the size of the total national output depends on the size of total
spending

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Total wealth is a _______concept; total income is a _______ concept.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: stock; flow

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


Goods directly used by individuals and households are known as capital goods.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


A bulldozer used by a construction firm is known as a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: capital good

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The rules and principles of economics that serve as a guide for action are known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: economic theory

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


If you heard someone say that coal miners should be paid more wages to enable them
to adequately support their families, that would be a statement of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


Consumption is the ultimate end of economic activity.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Utility as an economic term refers to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want

ECON125-HK1. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK1) > CONTROL


PANEL > GRADEBOOK > MODIFY GRADE > GRADE ATTEMPT

Grade Assessment Exam 1 Name Exam 1


User Kwan Lung Dragon Au
Status Completed
Score 100 out of 100 points
Instructions
Clear Attempt Click Clear Attempt to clear this user’s attempt.
Clear Attempt
Comments Modify Comments

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A movement downward toward the right along a typical production possibilities
curve represents
Given Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of the
other
Correct Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of technological development is to increase output through
Given Answer: using better machines
Correct Answer: using better machines
Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Given Answer: increasing opportunity costs
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When an economic unit limits the scope of its productive efforts instead of trying to
produce everything it needs, it is engaging in
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Individuals are forced to make choices because
Given Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A society will be at a point inside its production possibilities curve whenever
Given Answer: some resources are unemployed
Correct Answer: some resources are unemployed

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Given Answer: comparative advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage
Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If an economy is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it may mean that the nation
Given Answer: is underutilizing its resources
Correct Answer: is underutilizing its resources

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A need to make choices exists because of
Given Answer: both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process by which individuals limit their productive efforts to a particular activity
instead of trying to produce directly everything that they need is known as
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve applies
Given Answer: to any two products
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Given Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Exercising the principle of comparative advantage between nations primarily
involves
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A free good lacks the element of
Given Answer: scarcity
Correct Answer: scarcity

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The largest share of the total income of the United States is currently being
distributed in the form of
Given Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic service need not be
Given Answer: tangible
Correct Answer: tangible

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As economists use the term, capital means
Given Answer: such things as machinery and equipment
Correct Answer: such things as machinery and equipment
Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Given Answer: microeconomics
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Given Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Public parks and libraries are examples of
Given Answer: public goods
Correct Answer: public goods

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Given Answer: general price level
Correct Answer: general price level

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy's
Given Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income
Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Given Answer: utility
Correct Answer: utility

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The rules and principles of economics that serve as a guide for action are known as
Given Answer: economic theory
Correct Answer: economic theory

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of a free good is
Given Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard
Correct Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Given Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Given Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act calls for the U.S. government to pursue
Given Answer: a balanced budget
Correct Answer: a balanced budget

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Corporations have the advantage of
Given Answer: limited liability of the stockholders
Correct Answer: limited liability of the stockholders

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A traditional economy is based on
Given Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered not part of the productive resource, land?
Given Answer: intellectual power
Correct Answer: intellectual power

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A corporation can raise funds by
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The owner of a sole proprietorship has
Given Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts
Correct Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Given Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not among the United States' economic goals?
Given Answer: equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Given Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Given Answer: command economy
Correct Answer: command economy

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The basic legal forms of business organization in the United States are the
Given Answer: sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship, corporation, cooperative, and partnership

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Given Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity means the
Given Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Given Answer: rise
Correct Answer: rise

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand for a product at a given time is defined as the
Given Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices
Correct Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
Given Answer: move it to the equilibrium price
Correct Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Given Answer: slopes upward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The quantity supplied and price tend to vary
Given Answer: directly
Correct Answer: directly

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A demand curve generally
Given Answer: slopes downward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes downward to the right

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To maintain a price below the equilibrium price,
Given Answer: the government must set a ceiling price
Correct Answer: the government must set a ceiling price

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Given Answer: purchased as price falls
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls
Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If the market price of gasoline were $2 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed
Given Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A change in demand means that
Given Answer: a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices
Correct Answer: a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy's production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of
Given Answer: an increased level of technology
Correct Answer: an increased level of technology

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The United States is academically unique in having so many
Given Answer: business schools
Correct Answer: business schools

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When different regions of a country produce different goods,
Given Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Correct Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Given Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Given Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Given Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Given Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If an economy is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it may mean that the nation
Given Answer: is underutilizing its resources
Correct Answer: is underutilizing its resources

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Given Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Given Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Given Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In economics, scarcity means that
Given Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want
Correct Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A need to make choices exists because of
Given Answer: both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Given Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States
Correct Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Given Answer: equilibrium price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand for a product at a given time is defined as the
Given Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices
Correct Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Given Answer: demand curve to the right
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right
Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Demand for luxuries tends to be
Given Answer: elastic
Correct Answer: elastic

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied, the market price must be
Given Answer: above cost of production
Correct Answer: below equilibrium

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to
Given Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An increase in supply will cause the supply line to
Given Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the long run, the supply of goods is based on
Given Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The price elasticity of demand is defined as
Given Answer: the absolute change in quantity demanded divided by the absolute
change in price
Correct Answer: the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the
percentage change in price

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a price floor of $10 a bottle is imposed on wine from California
Given Answer: the price of some wines will increase
Correct Answer: the price of some wines will increase

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A change in demand would be illustrated by
Given Answer: a change in people's preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before
Correct Answer: a change in people's preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered a command economy?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a cooperative form of business enterprise, a shareholder is entitled to
Given Answer: one vote
Correct Answer: one vote

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Given Answer: private property rights interfere with the operation of the market
system
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The most prevalent form of business enterprise in the U.S. is the
Given Answer: sole proprietorship
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by
Given Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Given Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic system is said to be a
Given Answer: traditional economy if it relies on extensive market trading
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives.

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Every society faces some basic economic choices such as
Given Answer: which resources to use
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the United States are determined by
Given Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The owner of a sole proprietorship has
Given Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts
Correct Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Given Answer: private property
Correct Answer: private property

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as
Given Answer: a market economy
Correct Answer: a mixed economy

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Given Answer: microeconomics
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as
Given Answer: a social science
Correct Answer: a social science

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of
Given Answer: a normative economic statement
Correct Answer: a normative economic statement

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Determining "what ought to be" in the economy is considered
Given Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Economists divide productive resources into four broad categories
Given Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise
Correct Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Putting a business venture together is the function of the
Given Answer: entrepreneur
Correct Answer: entrepreneur

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Public parks and libraries are examples of
Given Answer: economic goods
Correct Answer: public goods

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As economists use the term, capital means
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: such things as machinery and equipment

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Total wealth is a _______concept; total income is a _______ concept.
Given Answer: stock; flow
Correct Answer: stock; flow

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy's
Given Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income
Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A free good lacks the element of
Given Answer: scarcity
Correct Answer: scarcity

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Given Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered not part of the productive resource, land?
Given Answer: intellectual power
Correct Answer: intellectual power

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Given Answer: the pricing system
Correct Answer: the pricing system

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Corporations have the advantage of
Given Answer: limited liability of the stockholders
Correct Answer: limited liability of the stockholders

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The shifting or returning of government economic functions to individuals and firms
in the economy is known as
Given Answer: intervention
Correct Answer: privatization

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Given Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The owner of a sole proprietorship has
Given Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
the amount of the investment
Correct Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Government intervention becomes necessary when self-interest leads to
Given Answer: the undermining of competition
Correct Answer: the undermining of competition

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Given Answer: corporation
Correct Answer: corporation
Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act calls for the U.S. government to pursue
Given Answer: balance-of-payments equilibrium
Correct Answer: a balanced budget

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The use of a central planning board or commission to answer the fundamental
economic questions is typical of what kind of economy?
Given Answer: supply
Correct Answer: command

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Rivalry among firms and individuals for sales to consumers
Given Answer: is known as competition
Correct Answer: all of the above are correct

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Given Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Given Answer: how it was produced
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Determining "what ought to be" in the economy is considered
Given Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Given Answer: utility
Correct Answer: utility

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort
Given Answer: it is scarce, but it is not an economic good
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy's
Given Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of "what is" rather than "what ought to be"?
Given Answer: positive economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Given Answer: monopolistic pricing
Correct Answer: general price level

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as
Given Answer: a physical science
Correct Answer: a social science

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Given Answer: monetary economics
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Given Answer: the reward for taking a risk and winning
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Given Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Given Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When demand for a product increases but the supply of the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Given Answer: fall
Correct Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Given Answer: purchased as price falls
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
Given Answer: an increase in the number of consumers
Correct Answer: an increase in the number of consumers

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand for a product at a given time is defined as the
Given Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices
Correct Answer: amount that would be bought at various prices
Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If the market price of gasoline were $2 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed
Given Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The law of demand illustrates that as
Given Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases
Correct Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the long run, the supply of goods is based on
Given Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Given Answer: minimum price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Given Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Given Answer: fall
Correct Answer: rise

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Given Answer: demand curve leftward
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity means the
Given Answer: adaptability of suppliers to price changes
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Given Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Given Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Exercising the principle of comparative advantage between nations primarily
involves
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Given Answer: comparative advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Given Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Given Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Given Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Given Answer: comparative advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Given Answer: business firms only
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Every economic system must decide
Given Answer: how to produce.
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When an economic unit limits the scope of its productive efforts instead of trying to
produce everything it needs, it is engaging in
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A movement downward toward the right along a typical production possibilities
curve represents
Given Answer: increasing production of both goods under consideration
Correct Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In economics, scarcity means that
Given Answer: we can never feed every person in the country
Correct Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Public parks and libraries are examples of
Given Answer: public goods
Correct Answer: public goods

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Given Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, "what would happen
if…", then that economist is working in the area of
Given Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


For the use of the employee's participation in production, an employee receives
Given Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of
Given Answer: a normative economic statement
Correct Answer: a normative economic statement

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If you heard someone say that coal miners should be paid more wages to enable them
to adequately support their families, that would be a statement of
Given Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Given Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The largest share of the total income of the United States is currently being
distributed in the form of
Given Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The stock of labor talents and skills is known as
Given Answer: human capital
Correct Answer: human capital

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: move to the right
Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The quantity supplied and price tend to vary
Given Answer: directly
Correct Answer: directly

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the market price of gasoline were $2 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed
Given Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Given Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Given Answer: rise
Correct Answer: rise
Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Given Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Given Answer: equilibrium price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
Given Answer: move it above the equilibrium price
Correct Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied, the market price must be
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: below equilibrium
Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Given Answer: demand curve to the right
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The owner of a sole proprietorship has
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Given Answer: competition
Correct Answer: competition

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Given Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A traditional economy is based on
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The use of a central planning board or commission to answer the fundamental
economic questions is typical of what kind of economy?
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: command

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as
Given Answer: a mixed economy
Correct Answer: a mixed economy

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Full employment describes the condition in which
Given Answer: 95 to 96 percent of the civilian labor force is employed
Correct Answer: 95 to 96 percent of the civilian labor force is employed

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic system is said to be a
Given Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives.
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives.

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Given Answer: private property
Correct Answer: private property

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Profit is the excess of revenue over and above payment for
Given Answer: all costs of production
Correct Answer: all costs of production

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Every society faces some basic economic choices such as
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Given Answer: absolute specialization
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A society will be at a point inside its production possibilities curve whenever
Given Answer: some resources are unemployed
Correct Answer: some resources are unemployed

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process by which individuals limit their productive efforts to a particular activity
instead of trying to produce directly everything that they need is known as
Given Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation's entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Given Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.
Correct Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Annual total production in the United States is
Given Answer: more than $10 trillion
Correct Answer: more than $10 trillion

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Individuals are forced to make choices because
Given Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy's production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of
Given Answer: an increased level of technology
Correct Answer: an increased level of technology
Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A production possibilities curve applies
Given Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve,
it can move
Given Answer: outward in any direction
Correct Answer: outward in any direction

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Given Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If an economy is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it may mean that the nation
Given Answer: is underutilizing its resources
Correct Answer: is underutilizing its resources

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Given Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development
Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as
Given Answer: a social science
Correct Answer: a social science

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Utility as an economic term refers to
Given Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want
Correct Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Given Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economic service need not be
Given Answer: useful
Correct Answer: tangible

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Economics can be classified best as
Given Answer: a social science
Correct Answer: a social science
Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is the study of "what is" rather than "what ought to be"?
Given Answer: positive economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort
Given Answer: it is not scarce, but it is an economic good
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of
Given Answer: a positive economic statement
Correct Answer: a normative economic statement

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Given Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Given Answer: is a shrewd business executive who works as a consultant to other
businesses to show d. them more profitable methods of operation is a visiting
diplomat from France
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Given Answer: electricians' wage rates
Correct Answer: general price level

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As economists use the term, capital means
Given Answer: such things as machinery and equipment
Correct Answer: such things as machinery and equipment

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If you heard someone say that coal miners should be paid more wages to enable them
to adequately support their families, that would be a statement of
Given Answer: positive economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Given Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Given Answer: command economy
Correct Answer: command economy
Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Given Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as
Given Answer: a mixed economy
Correct Answer: a mixed economy

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Given Answer: private property
Correct Answer: private property

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Given Answer: financial capital
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by
Given Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: consumer demand
Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is not one of the basic legal forms of business organization in
the United States?
Given Answer: syndicate
Correct Answer: syndicate

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Given Answer: laissez-faire
Correct Answer: competition

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by
Given Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Given Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the United States are determined by
Given Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand
Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Given Answer: demand curve leftward
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a good has perfectly inelastic demand,
Given Answer: any price change is matched by an equal percentage change in
quantity demanded
Correct Answer: the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To maintain a price below the equilibrium price,
Given Answer: demand must increase
Correct Answer: the government must set a ceiling price

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Given Answer: the price of gasoline increased
Correct Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a price floor of $10 a bottle is imposed on wine from California
Given Answer: the price of some wines will increase
Correct Answer: the price of some wines will increase

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Given Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a determinant of demand?
Given Answer: production costs
Correct Answer: production costs

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following types of goods tend toward elastic demand?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Given Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
Given Answer: increase the supply
Correct Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Given Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Given Answer: purchased as price falls
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Given Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Given Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve applies
Given Answer: only to food and shelter
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If an economy is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it may mean that the nation
Given Answer: is underutilizing its resources
Correct Answer: is underutilizing its resources

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Given Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Given Answer: food
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Every economic system must decide
Given Answer: how to distribute goods and services to the population
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Given Answer: increasing opportunity costs
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A society will be at a point inside its production possibilities curve whenever
Given Answer: some resources are unemployed
Correct Answer: some resources are unemployed

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Given Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Given Answer: proficient in all areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Specialization
Given Answer: can increase total output without an increase in resources
Correct Answer: All three alternative answers are correct

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Given Answer: comparative advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as
Selected Answer: a social science
Correct Answer: a social science

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


A free good lacks the element of
Selected Answer: scarcity
Correct Answer: scarcity

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of
Selected Answer: a normative economic statement
Correct Answer: a normative economic statement

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Selected Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Selected Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Economists divide productive resources into four broad categories
Selected Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise
Correct Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: the purpose for which it is used
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy's
Selected Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Utility as an economic term refers to
Selected Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want
Correct Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want
Question 12 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Selected Answer: general price level
Correct Answer: general price level

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity means the
Selected Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Selected Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If the market price of gasoline were $2 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Question 17 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
Selected Answer: an increase in the number of consumers
Correct Answer: an increase in the number of consumers

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: equilibrium price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: slopes upward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


A surplus quantity will occur when
Selected Answer: price is above equilibrium
Correct Answer: price is above equilibrium

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The law of demand illustrates that as
Selected Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases
Correct Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Selected Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States
Correct Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Selected Answer: rise
Correct Answer: rise

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Selected Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


When demand for a product increases but the supply of the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Selected Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase
Correct Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Selected Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Individuals are forced to make choices because
Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


A movement downward toward the right along a typical production possibilities
curve represents
Selected Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other
Correct Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Every economic system must decide
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve applies
Selected Answer: to any two products
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


When using the principle of comparative advantage, the person with no absolute
advantage should perform the job in which he or she has
Selected Answer: a lesser disadvantage
Correct Answer: a lesser disadvantage

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Selected Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
An economy's production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of
Selected Answer: an increased level of technology
Correct Answer: an increased level of technology

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation's entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.
Correct Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as
Selected Answer: a mixed economy
Correct Answer: a mixed economy

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Selected Answer: the accounting profession
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered a command economy?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: communism

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


An economic system is said to be a
Selected Answer: traditional economy if it relies on extensive market trading
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives.

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


A corporation can raise funds by
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered not part of the productive resource, land?
Selected Answer: intellectual power
Correct Answer: intellectual power

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Selected Answer: financial capital
Correct Answer: financial capital
Question 47 2 out of 2 points
Rivalry among firms and individuals for sales to consumers
Selected Answer: all of the above are correct
Correct Answer: all of the above are correct

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Selected Answer: competition
Correct Answer: competition

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as
Selected Answer: a social science
Correct Answer: a social science

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


A free good lacks the element of
Selected Answer: scarcity
Correct Answer: scarcity

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of
Selected Answer: a normative economic statement
Correct Answer: a normative economic statement

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Selected Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Selected Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Question 8 2 out of 2 points
Economists divide productive resources into four broad categories
Selected Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise
Correct Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: the purpose for which it is used
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy's
Selected Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Utility as an economic term refers to
Selected Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want
Correct Answer: the ability of a good to satisfy a want

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Selected Answer: general price level
Correct Answer: general price level
Question 13 2 out of 2 points
In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity means the
Selected Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Selected Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If the market price of gasoline were $2 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
Selected Answer: an increase in the number of consumers
Correct Answer: an increase in the number of consumers
Question 18 2 out of 2 points
The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: equilibrium price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: slopes upward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


A surplus quantity will occur when
Selected Answer: price is above equilibrium
Correct Answer: price is above equilibrium

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The law of demand illustrates that as
Selected Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases
Correct Answer: price decreases, quantity demanded increases

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if
Selected Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States
Correct Answer: the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Selected Answer: rise
Correct Answer: rise

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


On a price/quantity graph, a straight horizontal demand curve
Selected Answer: is perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: is perfectly elastic

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


When demand for a product increases but the supply of the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Selected Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase
Correct Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The process of specialization and exchange allows a producer to become
Selected Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production
Correct Answer: proficient in one or a few areas of production

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Individuals are forced to make choices because
Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


A movement downward toward the right along a typical production possibilities
curve represents
Selected Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other
Correct Answer: increasing production of one good and decreasing production of
the other

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Every economic system must decide
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve applies
Selected Answer: to any two products
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


When using the principle of comparative advantage, the person with no absolute
advantage should perform the job in which he or she has
Selected Answer: a lesser disadvantage
Correct Answer: a lesser disadvantage

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Selected Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


An economy's production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of
Selected Answer: an increased level of technology
Correct Answer: an increased level of technology
Question 38 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following would shift a nation's entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.
Correct Answer: Developing a more efficient technology.

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as
Selected Answer: a mixed economy
Correct Answer: a mixed economy

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Selected Answer: the accounting profession
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered a command economy?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: communism
Question 43 0 out of 2 points
An economic system is said to be a
Selected Answer: traditional economy if it relies on extensive market trading
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives.

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


A corporation can raise funds by
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered not part of the productive resource, land?
Selected Answer: intellectual power
Correct Answer: intellectual power

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Selected Answer: financial capital
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Rivalry among firms and individuals for sales to consumers
Selected Answer: all of the above are correct
Correct Answer: all of the above are correct

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Selected Answer: competition
Correct Answer: competition

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Correct Answer: True
Question 4 0 out of 2 points
The measure of elasticity will be the same at any place along a given straight-line,
slanted demand curve.
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Along a straight-line, slanted demand curve,
Correct Answer: the price elasticity varies along the line

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only
750 units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is
inelastic.
Correct Answer: False
Question 10 0 out of 2 points
When talking about demand, price elasticity refers to the
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Price ceilings usually create surpluses since supply is increased.
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be
complements.
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a nation to gain from specialization and exchange is affected by factors
such as shipping costs and exchange rates.
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it is underutilizing its resources.
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)
Correct Answer: increased level of technology

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Correct Answer: utility
Question 27 0 out of 2 points
Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 33 0 out of 2 points
Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Payment for the use of capital is made in the form of investment.
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort,
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Correct Answer: the pricing system
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of
Correct Answer: the profit motive

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Correct Answer: corporation

Question 44
In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Correct Answer: True
Question 45 A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits

Question 46
In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Correct Answer: True

Question 47
An economic system is said to be a
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Privatization results in
Correct Answer: a reduction in government economic functions
Question 1 0 out of 2 points
Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Correct Answer: a monopoly

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


A bilateral monopoly is a circumstance where only one seller and only one buyer
exist in a market.
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in monopolistic competition is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss,
its AR curve is
Correct Answer: touching its ATC curve

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is always true of monopolists?
Correct Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel
industry.
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is associated with
Correct Answer: an oligopoly

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one seller.
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or
an oligopoly.
Correct Answer: False
Question 13 0 out of 2 points
Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If all firms adhere to the conditions of perfect competition, short-run losses are
avoided.
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


As long as economic profits are being made, new firms will enter a perfectly
competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs at
the point where
Correct Answer: AR = MC

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The entry and exit of firms drive economic profits to zero in the long run in a
perfectly competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Correct Answer: operates where MR equals MC

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


If a firm is producing an output level for which the market price exceeds the firm’s
marginal cost,
Correct Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit

Question 25
In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation

Question 26 s
The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from
its best alternative use is the
Correct Answer: opportunity cost

Question 27 0
As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 28
The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm’s productive
resources, the firm has
Correct Answer: constant returns to scale

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


In the long run,
Correct Answer: all the firm’s resources are variable

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The production function relates outputs to inputs.
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Correct Answer: remains constant

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting
total output.
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget tends to have a neutral effect on the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated
through payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect
Question 47 0 out of 2 points
Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Correct Answer: expands

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in
consumption.
Correct Answer: True

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Funds that earn a fixed rate of interest and must be held for a stipulated period of
time are known as
Correct Answer: time deposits
Question 3 0 out of 2 points
Assume the following: M = $500; V = 10; and P = $10. If the money supply then
increases by 50 percent while total transactions triple, the new value of the price level
will be:
Correct Answer: $5

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The multiple expansion of the money supply is made possible because money
withdrawn from one bank finds its way into other banks.
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in reserve requirements immediately increases the money supply.
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio
is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
Correct Answer: $50,000
Question 9 0 out of 2 points
The higher the reserve requirement,
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


If a bank has legal reserves of $1 million, a reserve requirement of 10 percent, and
checkable deposits of $6 million, it can extend its checkable deposits by
Correct Answer: $4 million

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The ease with which an asset can be converted into the medium of exchange is called
Correct Answer: liquidity

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


The Treasury issues all paper currency today.
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Correct Answer: True
Question 15 0 out of 2 points
The GDP in the United States is reported quarterly in terms of
Correct Answer: annual rates

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Correct Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following constitutes the largest component of NI in the United States?
Correct Answer: compensation of employees

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Disposable personal income is equal to
Correct Answer: PI minus personal taxes

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Question 21 0 out of 2 points
The total earnings arising from the production of the GDP is known as
Correct Answer: national income

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Gross domestic product measures the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country by
Correct Answer: both domestic and foreign resources

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following four
major sectors?
Correct Answer: consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If the MPC is five-sixths, the size of the multiplier is 6.
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The condition required for equilibrium to exist according to Keynesian analysis is
that
Correct Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages
Question 27 0 out of 2 points
According to the Keynesian consumption function, if disposable income
Correct Answer: increases, both planned saving and planned consumption will
increase

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a self-regulating market would
Correct Answer: eliminate shortages or surpluses through price changes

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Along the composite aggregate supply curve,
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is in equilibrium and suddenly the level of planned investment
increases by $2 billion, national income will increase by
Correct Answer: more than $2 billion because of MPC

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is an example of supply-side economics?
Correct Answer: reducing marginal income tax rates

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Factors that help determine the level of planned investment include
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


As the economy expands, it requires less and less investment.
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Classical economists believed that
Correct Answer: the economy naturally tended toward full employment

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


Critics of supply-side economics claim that it
Correct Answer: increases federal debt

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


If the Fed sells securities on the open market, this will
Correct Answer: decrease banks’ excess reserves
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
Reserve requirements on nonpersonal time deposits cannot exceed 9 percent.
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Correct Answer: personal checks

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


All members of the Board of Governors are members of the Fed’s Open Market
Committee.
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
Correct Answer: Treasury bills

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Correct Answer: 1913

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal
Reserve System.
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 did not
Correct Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Each Federal Reserve Bank can issue Federal Reserve notes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Correct Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the number of consumers, all else held constant, will shift the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: demand curve to the right

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the
product will be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The measure of elasticity will be the same at any place along a given straight-line,
slanted demand curve.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Along a straight-line, slanted demand curve,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the price elasticity varies along the line

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only
750 units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is
inelastic.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


When talking about demand, price elasticity refers to the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: responsiveness of buyers to price changes

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Price ceilings usually create surpluses since supply is increased.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be
complements.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The ability of a nation to gain from specialization and exchange is affected by factors
such as shipping costs and exchange rates.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities
curve, it is underutilizing its resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increased level of technology
Question 26 0 out of 2 points
The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: utility

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The difference between a capital good and a consumer good depends on
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the purpose for which it is used

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Payment for the use of capital is made in the form of investment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the pricing system

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


In a market economy, businesses are encouraged to produce because of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the profit motive

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False
Question 42 0 out of 2 points
The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: corporation

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 47 0 out of 2 points
An economic system is said to be a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In a corporate form of business enterprise, both profits and dividends are subject to
income tax.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Privatization results in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a reduction in government economic functions

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


An example of technological development is to increase output through
Selected Answer: using better machines
Correct Answer: using better machines
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Selected Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
Government regulations which affect entrepreneurial activities within a nation also
affect total output and the standard of living.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The United States is academically unique in having so many
Selected Answer: business schools
Correct Answer: business schools

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Economics can be defined as the study of choices.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve,
it can move
Selected Answer: outward in any direction
Correct Answer: outward in any direction

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Selected Answer: the United States
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of all the alternative choices.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation’s entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: developing a more efficient technology
Correct Answer: developing a more efficient technology

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The total quantity of a good that all buyers in the market would buy at various prices
at a given time is known as
Selected Answer: market demand
Correct Answer: market demand

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


If a price floor of $10 a bottle is imposed on wine from California,
Selected Answer: the price of some wines will increase
Correct Answer: the price of some wines will increase

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: elastic
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Whenever the supply of a product decreases and the demand for the product
increases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not lead to a change in demand for coffee?
Selected Answer: a change in the price of tea
Correct Answer: a change in the price of coffee

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


A change in demand would be illustrated by
Selected Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before
Correct Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


In the long run, the supply of goods is based on
Selected Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


The demand for a fur coat tends to be more price elastic than the demand for
automobile tires.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Selected Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The quantity supplied and price tend to vary
Selected Answer: directly
Correct Answer: directly

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Economics is considered a physical science.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Selected Answer: subjective economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Determining “what ought to be” in the economy is considered
Selected Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually
and in groups, is known as a(n)
Selected Answer: social science
Correct Answer: social science

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Putting a business venture together is the function of the
Selected Answer: entrepreneur
Correct Answer: entrepreneur

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: the president of GM
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The largest share of the total income of the United States is currently being
distributed in the form of
Selected Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


Economic theory and economic policy are synonymous.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Selected Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Selected Answer: competition
Correct Answer: competition

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,
Selected Answer: the unemployment rate will rise
Correct Answer: the unemployment rate will rise

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


In a market system, the government enforces laws ensuring that private enterprises
and conditions of competition will prevail.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


In a cooperative type of enterprise, a shareholder has only one vote regardless of the
number of shares held.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
An economic growth rate of 3 percent would be considered unhealthy for the U.S.
economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


A major disadvantage of a corporation is
Selected Answer: the double taxation of its profits
Correct Answer: the double taxation of its profits

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act calls for the U.S. government to pursue
Selected Answer: a balanced budget
Correct Answer: a balanced budget

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


A problem with the use of the market system is that
Selected Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income
Correct Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


When two or more individuals own a business that does not have a legal existence
separate from that of the individuals, it is known as a
Selected Answer: partnership
Correct Answer: partnership
Question 47 2 out of 2 points
The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: communism

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


U.S. prices are considered stable only when the Consumer Price Index
Selected Answer: remains unchanged
Correct Answer: moves 2 percent or less in a year’s time

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as comparative advantage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Selected Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. If each country specializes in producing
the good in which it is relatively more efficient and then trades for the other good, it
follows that
Selected Answer: each country will experience half the resulting gains in
consumption
Correct Answer: the allocation of the resulting consumption gains will be
determined by bargaining between the two countries.

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Because of the high level of output in the United States, there is little need for
choosing among alternative output combinations.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
If a society is producing at a point on its production possibilities curve, it does not
have the problem of scarce resources.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


To exercise the law of comparative advantage, a nation
Selected Answer: does not have to produce any goods using fewer resources than
its trading partner
Correct Answer: does not have to produce any goods using fewer resources than its
trading partner

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


An example of technological development is to increase output through
Selected Answer: using better machines
Correct Answer: using better machines

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation’s entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: developing a more efficient technology
Correct Answer: developing a more efficient technology

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The extent to which a society can engage in specialization and exchange is limited by
the size of the market.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 11 0 out of 2 points
If a nation has an absolute advantage over another nation in the production of all
commodities, it is not feasible to take advantage of the principle of comparative
advantage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act calls for the U.S. government to pursue
Selected Answer: a balanced budget
Correct Answer: a balanced budget

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The former Soviet Union was an example of a traditional economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not one of the basic legal forms of business organization in
the United States?
Selected Answer: syndicate
Correct Answer: syndicate
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not among the United States’ economic goals?
Selected Answer: equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


In a partnership, each partner’s liability is limited to his or her contribution to the
partnership.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


A stable unemployment rate requires that the U.S. economy grow each year in order
to absorb new workers who enter the labor force.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 21 2 out of 2 points
Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the
economy has a job.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, a resource is compensated according to
Selected Answer: its contribution to the final product
Correct Answer: its contribution to the final product

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Privatization results in
Selected Answer: a return to economic liberalism
Correct Answer: a reduction in government economic functions

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Selected Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as a
Selected Answer: mixed economy
Correct Answer: mixed economy
Question 26 2 out of 2 points
An increase in demand causes price to rise and quantity sold to fall.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


A demand curve generally
Selected Answer: slopes downward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes downward to the right

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


A price floor will result in
Selected Answer: an increase in price if the price floor is above the market price
Correct Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


If the market price of gasoline were $4 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is
imposed,
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall
Question 31 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following types of goods tend toward elastic demand?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The slope of a demand curve is a measure of elasticity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not lead to a change in demand for coffee?
Selected Answer: a change in the price of tea
Correct Answer: a change in the price of coffee

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


Over the long run, the supply curve becomes
Selected Answer: unit elastic
Correct Answer: more elastic

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


A change in demand would be illustrated by
Selected Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before
Correct Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before
Question 36 2 out of 2 points
If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only
750 units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is
inelastic.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


There is a difference between demand and quantity demanded.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Whenever the supply of a product decreases and the demand for the product
increases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Goods used to produce other goods and services are known as capital.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Putting a business venture together is the function of the
Selected Answer: entrepreneur
Correct Answer: entrepreneur
Question 41 0 out of 2 points
Payment for the use of capital is made in the form of investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the study of “what is” rather than “what ought to be”?
Selected Answer: positive economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it
without much effort,
Selected Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good
Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?
Selected Answer: general price level
Correct Answer: general price level

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, “what would happen
if…”, then that economist is working in the area of
Selected Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Some economic principles are based on physical phenomena.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Economies must make choices because resources are limited while wants are
unlimited.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


The study of economics is primarily theoretical and has very little practical
application.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


As economists use the term, capital means
Selected Answer: such things as machinery and equipment
Correct Answer: such things as machinery and equipment

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The largest share of the total income of the United States is currently being
distributed in the form of
Selected Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Some economic principles are based on physical phenomena.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Economic services lack the characteristic of transferability found in economic goods.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Goods directly used by individuals and households are known as capital goods.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The resource most directly associated with profits is
Selected Answer: capital
Correct Answer: enterprise

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 7 2 out of 2 points
Economic theory and economic policy are synonymous.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Public parks and libraries are examples of
Selected Answer: economic goods
Correct Answer: public goods

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


An example of a free good is
Selected Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard
Correct Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: the president of GM
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


An example of a macroeconomic model is
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: the size of the total national output depends on the size of total
spending

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers face is known as comparative advantage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat
and cloth will be maximized if
Selected Answer: Country A specializes in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Use of the principle of comparative advantage involves
Selected Answer: both specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: both specialization and exchange

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Japan has a low standard of living because of its shortage of resources.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 17 2 out of 2 points
If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve,
it can move
Selected Answer: outward in any direction
Correct Answer: outward in any direction

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


When an economic unit limits the scope of its productive efforts instead of trying to
produce everything it needs, it is engaging in
Selected Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The greatest increase in productivity per capita in the future will probably result from
Selected Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production
of both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in
Country A and 3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country B has a comparative advantage in wheat
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


A nation’s production possibilities curve can be shifted outward by technological
development.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 22 0 out of 2 points
The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of all the alternative choices.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Selected Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The basic function of any economic system is to provide the framework for allocating
scarce resources in a way that adequately satisfies unlimited wants.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: inelastic
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


If the cross-elasticity coefficient is negative, then the two goods must be
complements.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


There is a difference between demand and quantity demanded.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Price ceilings usually create surpluses since supply is increased.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


If a good has negative income elasticity, then it is an inferior good.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


An increase in demand tends to increase both the equilibrium price and the amount of
a commodity exchanged.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A change in demand occurs whenever consumers will purchase more because of a
decrease in price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
Demand for luxuries tends to be
Selected Answer: elastic
Correct Answer: elastic

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Demand is a list of needs or wants, regardless of purchasing power.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Whenever the supply of a product increases and the demand for the product
decreases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will fall
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will fall

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 37 0 out of 2 points
Probably the main characteristic of a demand curve is that it slopes upward from left
to right.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


A traditional economy is based on
Selected Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


In a cooperative type of enterprise, a shareholder has only one vote regardless of the
number of shares held.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The U.S. economy is a mixture of perfect and imperfect competition and regulated
and nonregulated industries.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is considered not part of the productive resource, land?
Selected Answer: intellectual power
Correct Answer: intellectual power

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the
corporation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In a partnership, each partner’s liability is limited to his or her contribution to the
partnership.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The shifting or returning of government economic functions to individuals and firms
in the economy is known as
Selected Answer: privatization
Correct Answer: privatization

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The United States had a surplus balance of trade during most of the 1990s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Selected Answer: the pricing system
Correct Answer: the pricing system

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Laissez-faire is a policy of government nonintervention in the economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


The vast majority of U.S. businesses have more than 500 employees each.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Selected Answer: command economy
Correct Answer: command economy

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The total quantity of a good offered for sale is unaffected by estimates by sellers of
the probable costs of producing the good in the future.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 3 0 out of 2 points
Any time the market price moves away from its equilibrium position to a lower price,
market action will tend to force it further away from its original equilibrium position.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


If a price ceiling of $3 is imposed on gasoline and the market price is $2,
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The effect of a change in the quantity sold of product A resulting from a change in the
price of product B is measured by
Selected Answer: cross elasticity of demand
Correct Answer: cross elasticity of demand

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If supply increases more than demand, equilibrium price will fall.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The standard of living in most countries in the past has risen primarily as a result of a
more skilled workforce and better machinery and equipment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


When an economic unit limits the scope of its productive efforts instead of trying to
produce everything it needs, it is engaging in
Selected Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, a nation cannot overcome a shortage of labor or land.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Your decision to attend college was a microeconomic choice.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Selected Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s wealth consists of a multitude of consumer and capital goods.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve will shift outward when additional resources are
found.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


As price is lowered from a point higher than the equilibrium price, it will bring about
Selected Answer: an increase in quantity demanded
Correct Answer: an increase in quantity demanded
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
When the supply of a product increases but the demand for the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Selected Answer: first rise and then return to the original price level
Correct Answer: fall, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A considerable degree of government control of production and distribution exists in
a command economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


A positive economic statement is always true.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Economics is an isolated science since it has no relation to other sciences.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy’s
Selected Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Production is the creation or addition of utility.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 94 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The total quantity of a good offered for sale is unaffected by estimates by sellers of
the probable costs of producing the good in the future.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Any time the market price moves away from its equilibrium position to a lower price,
market action will tend to force it further away from its original equilibrium position.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The demand for a fur coat tends to be more price elastic than the demand for
automobile tires.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 5 2 out of 2 points
If a price ceiling of $3 is imposed on gasoline and the market price is $2,
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A surplus quantity will occur when
Selected Answer: price is above equilibrium
Correct Answer: price is above equilibrium

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


When demand for a product increases but the supply of the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Selected Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase
Correct Answer: rise, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The effect of a change in the quantity sold of product A resulting from a change in the
price of product B is measured by
Selected Answer: cross elasticity of demand
Correct Answer: cross elasticity of demand

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If supply increases more than demand, equilibrium price will fall.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 10 2 out of 2 points
If a price floor of $10 a bottle is imposed on wine from California,
Selected Answer: the price of some wines will increase
Correct Answer: the price of some wines will increase

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not lead to a change in demand for coffee?
Selected Answer: a change in the price of coffee
Correct Answer: a change in the price of coffee

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


A change in demand would be illustrated by
Selected Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before
Correct Answer: a change in people’s preferences that causes them to buy either
more or less than before

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will fall
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will fall

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of
Selected Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed
Correct Answer: the next best alternative that must be sacrificed
Question 15 2 out of 2 points
Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through
Selected Answer: technological development
Correct Answer: technological development

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The United States has an abundance of resources and thus does not face the problem
of scarcity.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Selected Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


People must make choices because
Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Question 20 2 out of 2 points
Exercising the principle of comparative advantage between nations primarily
involves
Selected Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The standard of living in most countries in the past has risen primarily as a result of a
more skilled workforce and better machinery and equipment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


When an economic unit limits the scope of its productive efforts instead of trying to
produce everything it needs, it is engaging in
Selected Answer: specialization
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, a nation cannot overcome a shortage of labor or land.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is
Selected Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan
Question 25 2 out of 2 points
The extent to which a society can engage in specialization and exchange is limited by
the size of the market.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by
Selected Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Which one of the following is a characteristic of capitalism but not of communism?
Selected Answer: private property
Correct Answer: private property

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The use of a central planning board or commission to answer the fundamental
economic questions is typical of what kind of economy?
Selected Answer: command
Correct Answer: command
Question 30 2 out of 2 points
If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,
Selected Answer: the unemployment rate will rise
Correct Answer: the unemployment rate will rise

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Selected Answer: command economy
Correct Answer: command economy

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as
Selected Answer: financial capital
Correct Answer: financial capital
Question 35 2 out of 2 points
An economic growth rate of 3 percent would be considered unhealthy for the U.S.
economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


A traditional economy is based on
Selected Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Competition serves as a regulator in a market economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The most prevalent form of business enterprise in the U.S. is the
Selected Answer: sole proprietorship
Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of a(n)
Selected Answer: normative economic statement
Correct Answer: normative economic statement
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
Economic theory and economic policy are synonymous.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Selected Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Your decision to attend college was a microeconomic choice.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Selected Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


An economy’s wealth consists of a multitude of consumer and capital goods.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who
Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit
Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, “what would happen
if…”, then that economist is working in the area of
Selected Answer: positive economics
Correct Answer: positive economics

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the
study of
Selected Answer: microeconomics
Correct Answer: microeconomics

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Consumption is the ultimate end of economic activity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Submitted 7/30/10 2:49 AM


Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 86 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


When different regions of a country produce different goods,
Selected Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Correct Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The process by which individuals limit their productive efforts to a particular activity
instead of trying to produce directly everything that they need is known as
Selected Answer: scarcity
Correct Answer: specialization

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The United States is academically unique in having so many
Selected Answer: business schools
Correct Answer: business schools

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Selected Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve will shift outward when additional resources are
found.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The extent to which a society can engage in specialization and exchange is limited by
the size of the market.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


People must make choices because
Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce
Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers incur is known as
Selected Answer: comparative advantage
Correct Answer: comparative advantage

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


A nation’s production possibilities curve can be shifted outward by technological
development.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to
Selected Answer: increasing opportunity costs
Correct Answer: increasing opportunity costs

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Use of the principle of comparative advantage involves
Selected Answer: both specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: both specialization and exchange

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


As price is lowered from a point higher than the equilibrium price, it will bring about
Selected Answer: an increase in quantity demanded
Correct Answer: an increase in quantity demanded

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


An increase in supply will cause the supply line to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right
Question 15 2 out of 2 points
An increase in demand tends to increase both the equilibrium price and the amount of
a commodity exchanged.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


A supply curve generally
Selected Answer: slopes upward to the right
Correct Answer: slopes upward to the right

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If a price floor of $10 a bottle is imposed on wine from California,
Selected Answer: the price of some wines will increase
Correct Answer: the price of some wines will increase

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: unit elastic
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


When the supply of a product increases but the demand for the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will
Selected Answer: first rise and then return to the original price level
Correct Answer: fall, and equilibrium quantity will increase
Question 20 2 out of 2 points
The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the
Selected Answer: equilibrium price
Correct Answer: equilibrium price

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Consider the market for bicycles. If a dealer cuts prices by 10 percent and sells 20
percent more bikes, then demand for bicycles is
Selected Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase
Correct Answer: elastic, and total revenue will increase

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Any time the market price moves away from its equilibrium position to a lower price,
market action will tend to force it further away from its original equilibrium position.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


In accordance with the law of supply, if the price doubled, the quantity supplied
would generally
Selected Answer: fall
Correct Answer: rise
Question 25 2 out of 2 points
An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Rivalry among firms and individuals for sales to consumers
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Government intervention becomes necessary when self-interest leads to
Selected Answer: the undermining of competition
Correct Answer: the undermining of competition

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


U.S. prices are considered stable only when the Consumer Price Index
Selected Answer: moves 2 percent or less in a year’s time
Correct Answer: moves 2 percent or less in a year’s time

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a
Selected Answer: command economy
Correct Answer: command economy
Question 30 2 out of 2 points
In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Selected Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A considerable degree of government control of production and distribution exists in
a command economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


A stable unemployment rate requires that the U.S. economy grow each year in order
to absorb new workers who enter the labor force.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


When two or more individuals own a business that does not have a legal existence
separate from that of the individuals, it is known as a
Selected Answer: partnership
Correct Answer: partnership
Question 35 2 out of 2 points
The use of a central planning board or commission to answer the fundamental
economic questions is typical of what kind of economy?
Selected Answer: command
Correct Answer: command

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as a
Selected Answer: mixed economy
Correct Answer: mixed economy

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most commonly found in the
agriculture industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,
Selected Answer: the unemployment rate will rise
Correct Answer: the unemployment rate will rise

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Generally, in economics we study how people
Selected Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Correct Answer: make choices when resources are scarce
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
A positive economic statement is always true.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Selected Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Economics is an isolated science since it has no relation to other sciences.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


An economic good must be
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its
Selected Answer: total product
Correct Answer: total product
Question 45 2 out of 2 points
The total value of the goods and services produced over a period of time represents
an economy’s
Selected Answer: total income
Correct Answer: total income

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Economies must make choices because resources are limited while wants are
unlimited.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Selected Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 50 0 out of 2 points
Production is the creation or addition of utility.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Name Exam 1
Status Completed
Score 90 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers
use is known as
Selected Answer: absolute advantage
Correct Answer: absolute advantage

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage applies to
Selected Answer: nations only
Correct Answer: individuals, businesses, and nations

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


A nation’s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital
resources.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The ability of a nation to gain from specialization and exchange is affected by factors
such as shipping costs and exchange rates.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Technological development can be applied to the improvement of human capital as
well as physical capital.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


When different regions of a country produce different goods,
Selected Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages
Correct Answer: the country becomes better off if the regions are pursuing their
comparative advantages

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


A society will be at a point inside its production possibilities curve whenever
Selected Answer: some resources are unemployed
Correct Answer: some resources are unemployed

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that
Country B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that
Country A produces 120 tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B
produces 90 tons of coffee using 4 units of production. It follows that
Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar
Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the
production of sugar

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would shift a nation’s entire production possibilities curve
outward?
Selected Answer: developing a more efficient technology
Correct Answer: developing a more efficient technology

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


A production possibilities curve applies
Selected Answer: to any two products
Correct Answer: to any two products

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The United States has an abundance of resources and thus does not face the problem
of scarcity.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Functional distribution has to do with the allocation of total production among the
resources.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Economies must make choices because resources are limited while wants are
unlimited.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Economics is an isolated science since it has no relation to other sciences.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Wealth is a flow concept, whereas income is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Economics can best be defined as the study of how
Selected Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants
Correct Answer: society decides to use its scarce resources in an attempt to satisfy
unlimited wants

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Profits can be thought of as
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Goods used to produce other goods and services are known as capital.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Positive economics is concerned with
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A positive economic statement is always true.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


For a good to be scarce, it must be something that
Selected Answer: is available only in limited quantities
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
The largest share of the total income of the United States is currently being
distributed in the form of
Selected Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is
Selected Answer: unit elastic
Correct Answer: unit elastic

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the
demand for another commodity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Demand for luxuries tends to be
Selected Answer: elastic
Correct Answer: elastic

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


If a good has perfectly inelastic demand,
Selected Answer: the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Correct Answer: the same amount would be purchased regardless of price
Question 29 2 out of 2 points
An increase in supply will cause the supply line to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


If a price ceiling of $3 is imposed on gasoline and the market price is $2,
Selected Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged
Correct Answer: the price of gasoline will remain unchanged

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


A price floor will result in
Selected Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price
Correct Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The more substitutes for a good, the more elastic its demand tends to be.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


There is a difference between demand and quantity demanded.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will rise
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will rise

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Over the long run, the supply curve becomes
Selected Answer: more elastic
Correct Answer: more elastic

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The quantity supplied is inversely related to price.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A problem with the use of the market system is that
Selected Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income
Correct Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is
Selected Answer: competition
Correct Answer: competition
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
An economic system is said to be a
Selected Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives
Correct Answer: market economy if it relies on self-interested behavior and
incentives

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A major advantage of a partnership is the legal separation of personal and partnership
assets.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not among the United States’ economic goals?
Selected Answer: equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The most common type of business in the United States is the corporation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Which form of business organization has the advantage of being a legal person in
itself?
Selected Answer: corporation
Correct Answer: corporation

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the United States are determined by
Selected Answer: consumer demand
Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Under the U.S. market system, land and capital goods are owned mainly by
Selected Answer: individuals and firms
Correct Answer: individuals and firms

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the
corporation.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a basic tenet of economic liberalism?
Selected Answer: government regulation
Correct Answer: government regulation

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Self-interest is a major tenet of economic liberalism.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 50 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?
Selected Answer: communism
Correct Answer: communism

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The extent to which a society can engage in specialization and exchange is limited by
the size of the market.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is true of scarcity?
Selected Answer: it is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations
Correct Answer: it affects only poor nations

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Specialization
Selected Answer: All three alternative answers are correct
Correct Answer: All three alternative answers are correct

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 5 2 out of 2 points
In exercising the principle of comparative advantage, a nation with no absolute
advantage should produce a commodity in which it faces a lower opportunity cost
than its trading partners face.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily
need
Selected Answer: technical assistance
Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Annual total production in the United States is
Selected Answer: more than $10 trillion
Correct Answer: more than $10 trillion

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other
producers face is known as comparative advantage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Technological development can be applied to the improvement of human capital as
well as physical capital.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 10 2 out of 2 points
In economics, scarcity means that
Selected Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want
Correct Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


The application of the principle of comparative advantage requires each of two
trading partners to have an absolute advantage over the other in the production of
some particular commodity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between the market system and private property is
Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, marketing cooperatives are most prevalent in
Selected Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture
Question 15 2 out of 2 points
A corporation can raise funds by
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its
Selected Answer: flexible management
Correct Answer: flexible management

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Laissez-faire is a policy of government nonintervention in the economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


A problem with the use of the market system is that
Selected Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income
Correct Answer: it results in an unequal distribution of property and income

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Government intervention becomes necessary when self-interest leads to
Selected Answer: the undermining of competition
Correct Answer: the undermining of competition
Question 20 2 out of 2 points
A major advantage of a partnership is the legal separation of personal and partnership
assets.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The owner of a sole proprietorship has
Selected Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable
for all debts
Correct Answer: unlimited liability: if the firm goes bankrupt, the owner is liable for
all debts

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Competition serves as a regulator in a market economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


The primary means of rationing goods and services in a market system is through
Selected Answer: the pricing system
Correct Answer: the pricing system

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the
economy has a job.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 25 2 out of 2 points
The stronger that consumer demand is for a good or service, other things being equal,
Selected Answer: the higher its price
Correct Answer: the higher its price

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


All goods and services produced during the year are added to the total wealth of the
nation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Wealth is a flow concept, whereas income is a stock concept.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The ability of a good or service to satisfy a want is known as
Selected Answer: utility
Correct Answer: utility

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Economic theory and economic policy are synonymous.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Determining “what ought to be” in the economy is considered
Selected Answer: normative economics
Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Economists divide productive resources into which of the following four broad
categories?
Selected Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise
Correct Answer: land, labor, capital, enterprise

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


A positive economic statement is always true.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


For the use of their capital in production, owners receive
Selected Answer: interest
Correct Answer: interest

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


The process of allocating the total product among the resources involved is referred
to as
Selected Answer: marketing distribution
Correct Answer: functional distribution

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Some economic principles are based on physical phenomena.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Macroeconomic policymakers do not include
Selected Answer: the president of GM
Correct Answer: the president of GM

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


There is a difference between demand and quantity demanded.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The slope of a demand curve is a measure of elasticity.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Whenever the supply of a product increases and the demand for the product
decreases,
Selected Answer: equilibrium price will fall
Correct Answer: equilibrium price will fall
Question 41 2 out of 2 points
Any time the market price moves away from its equilibrium position to a lower price,
market action will tend to force it further away from its original equilibrium position.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


If supply increases more than demand, equilibrium price will fall.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


A price floor will result in
Selected Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price
Correct Answer: a decrease in price if the price floor is below the market price

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


In the long run, the supply of goods is based on
Selected Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production
Correct Answer: the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The more substitutes for a good, the more elastic its demand tends to be.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 46 2 out of 2 points
A change in demand occurs whenever consumers will purchase more because of a
decrease in price.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to
Selected Answer: move it to the equilibrium price
Correct Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a determinant of demand?
Selected Answer: production costs
Correct Answer: production costs

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


An increase in supply will cause the supply line to
Selected Answer: move to the right
Correct Answer: move to the right

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


If a 2 percent change in price is followed by a 10 percent change in quantity sold, the
coefficient of price elasticity is
Selected Answer: 8.0
Correct Answer: 5.0
Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >
EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 1

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 1

User Wai Hung Poon

Submitted 11/29/12 8:50 PM

Name Exam 1

Status Completed

Score 96 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct The price elasticity of demand is defined as

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the
percentage change in price

Correct Answer: Correct the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage
change in price

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct Price elasticity of demand is a measure of consumer responsiveness to a change in


price.

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True


Correct Answer: True

Question 3 text Question 3 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect To maintain a price above the equilibrium price,

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect supply must increase

Correct Answer: Correct price must be regulated

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the coefficient of elasticity for a commodity is 1.5 and the price of that commodity is
raised, total revenue will decrease.

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct Over the long run, the supply curve becomes

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct more elastic

Correct Answer: Correct more elastic

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a good has negative income elasticity, then it is an inferior good.


Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct If both demand and supply increase, but demand increases more than supply,

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equilibrium price will rise

Correct Answer: Correct equilibrium price will rise

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct If 12 units of a good are sold when the price is $1 per unit, and 8 units are sold at a
price of $1.50 per unit, then demand is

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct unit elastic

Correct Answer: Correct unit elastic

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct The demand for a product at a given time is defined as the

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct amount that would be bought at various prices

Correct Answer: Correct amount that would be bought at various prices


Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct The total quantity of a good offered for sale is unaffected by estimates by sellers of the
probable costs of producing the good in the future.

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct When the supply of a product increases but the demand for the product remains
unchanged, the equilibrium price of the product will

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct fall, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Correct Answer: Correct fall, and equilibrium quantity will increase

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct The demand for necessities and goods that require a small expenditure tends to be price
inelastic.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market
price.
Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct A stable unemployment rate requires that the U.S. economy grow each year in order to
absorb new workers who enter the labor force.

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 15 text Question 15 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Laissez-faire is a policy of no government intervention in the economic activities of


individuals and businesses.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct The most common type of business in the United States is the corporation.

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct Government intervention becomes necessary when self-interest leads to

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the undermining of competition

Correct Answer: Correct the undermining of competition

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the unemployment rate will rise

Correct Answer: Correct the unemployment rate will rise

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct The major advantage of the sole proprietorship is its

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct flexible management

Correct Answer: Correct flexible management

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct The relationship between the market system and private property is

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected
Correct Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct A major disadvantage of a corporation is

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the double taxation of its profits

Correct Answer: Correct the double taxation of its profits

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct A corporation can raise money by selling stock or bonds.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct Rivalry among firms and individuals for sales to consumers

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct The stronger that consumer demand is for a good or service, other things being equal,
Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the higher its price

Correct Answer: Correct the higher its price

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following economic systems abolishes all private property?

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct communism

Correct Answer: Correct communism

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct The board of directors has unlimited financial liability for the debts of the corporation.

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct Economic theory and economic policy are synonymous.

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Correct For the use of their capital in production, owners receive

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct interest

Correct Answer: Correct interest

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct A free good lacks the element of

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct scarcity

Correct Answer: Correct scarcity

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct The sum of all the goods and services produced by an economy over a given time
period is known as its

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total product

Correct Answer: Correct total product

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct Income is a flow concept whereas wealth is a stock concept.

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Goods directly used by individuals and households are known as capital goods.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct If an economist is trying to figure out, in a certain situation, “what would happen
if…”, then that economist is working in the area of

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct positive economics

Correct Answer: Correct positive economics

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct Generally, in economics we study how people

Question 35 answers
Selected Answer: Correct make choices when resources are scarce

Correct Answer: Correct make choices when resources are scarce

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the study
of

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct microeconomics

Correct Answer: Correct microeconomics

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct An editorial in a newspaper calling for the government to abolish the minimum wage
because it takes advantage of consumers is an example of a(n)

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct normative economic statement

Correct Answer: Correct normative economic statement

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct An economic good must be

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Correct Productivity per worker has increased in the past primarily through

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct technological development

Correct Answer: Correct technological development

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct Overspecialization and the resulting dependence on one or a few products by a nation
can lead to severe economic fluctuations if demand for those products varies widely.

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Correct Answer: Correct the next best alternative that must be sacrificed

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a firm uses technological development to change its production possibilities curve, it
can move

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct outward in any direction

Correct Answer: Correct outward in any direction


Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation’s raw materials and sources of energy are considered part of its capital
resources.

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a society is producing at a point on its production possibilities curve, it does not have
the problem of scarce resources.

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct Because of the high level of output in the United States, there is little need for choosing
among alternative output combinations.

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct One cause for the uneven standard of living throughout the world is the uneven
distribution of resources.

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct Use of the principle of comparative advantage involves

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct both specialization and exchange

Correct Answer: Correct both specialization and exchange

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily need

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct technical assistance

Correct Answer: Correct technical assistance

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct Every economic system must decide

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above


Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

Correct Answer: Correct Country A has a comparative advantage in wheat

OK

ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) > EXAMS > REVIEW


ASSESSMENT: EXAM 1

Review Assessment: Exam 1

User Sin Keung Chiu

Submitted 6/1/13 6:19 AM

Name Exam 1

Status Completed

Score 100 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points

If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand increases,

Selected Answer: equilibrium price will fall


Correct Answer: equilibrium price will fall

Question 2 2 out of 2 points

A surplus quantity will occur when

Selected Answer: price is above equilibrium

Correct Answer: price is above equilibrium

Question 3 2 out of 2 points

A demand curve generally

Selected Answer: slopes downward to the right

Correct Answer: slopes downward to the right

Question 4 2 out of 2 points

If the market price is below the equilibrium price, forces will come into play to

Selected Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Correct Answer: move it to the equilibrium price

Question 5 2 out of 2 points

If demand and supply increase by the same amount, equilibrium price will rise.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Demand is a list of needs or wants, regardless of purchasing power.


Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Price elasticity of demand tends to be greater for substitute items than for complementary
goods.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points

The quantity supplied and price tend to vary

Selected Answer: directly

Correct Answer: directly

Question 9 2 out of 2 points

The demand curve for a product slopes downward to the right because more of the product
will be

Selected Answer: purchased as price falls

Correct Answer: purchased as price falls

Question 10 2 out of 2 points

A typical demand schedule shows higher sales at lower prices.

Selected Answer: True


Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Price floors can create shortages if price floors are above market prices.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points

If the market price of gasoline were $4 a gallon and a ceiling price of $1.50 is imposed,

Selected Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Correct Answer: the price of gasoline would fall

Question 13 2 out of 2 points

In a market with many buyers and sellers, no one individual can influence the market price.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points

The relationship between the market system and private property is

Selected Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected

Correct Answer: the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


In a market economy, resources are allocated by the government.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points

In a market economy, the use of resources is determined primarily by

Selected Answer: consumer demand

Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 17 2 out of 2 points

The high salaries paid to sports superstars in the United States are determined by

Selected Answer: consumer demand

Correct Answer: consumer demand

Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Competition serves as a regulator in a market economy.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 19 2 out of 2 points

There are no government-regulated markets in the U.S. economy.

Selected Answer: False


Correct Answer: False

Question 20 2 out of 2 points

The form of business organization with the most flexibility of management is the

Selected Answer: sole proprietorship

Correct Answer: sole proprietorship

Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Self-interest is a major tenet of economic liberalism.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points

The profit motive is one characteristic of a command economy.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 23 2 out of 2 points

A corporation can raise funds by

Selected Answer: all of the above

Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Which of the following is not among the United States’ economic goals?
Selected Answer: equal distribution of income

Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 25 2 out of 2 points

In a partnership, each partner’s liability is limited to his or her contribution to the


partnership.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as

Selected Answer: financial capital

Correct Answer: financial capital

Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Assume that Country A produces 60 tons of sugar using 6 productive units and that Country
B produces 40 tons of sugar using 6 productive units. Assume further that Country A produces 120
tons of coffee using 4 units of production and that Country B produces 90 tons of coffee using 4
units of production. It follows that

Selected Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the production
of sugar

Correct Answer: Country A has a comparative advantage over Country B in the production of
sugar

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Individuals are forced to make choices because

Selected Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Correct Answer: wants are unlimited and resources are scarce

Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of both
wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and 3
units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized if

Selected Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Correct Answer: Country A specializes in wheat

Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Use of the principle of comparative advantage involves

Selected Answer: both specialization and exchange

Correct Answer: both specialization and exchange

Question 31 2 out of 2 points

The standard of living in most countries in the past has risen primarily as a result of a more
skilled workforce and better machinery and equipment.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 32 2 out of 2 points

The application of the principle of comparative advantage requires each of two trading
partners to have an absolute advantage over the other in the production of some particular
commodity.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points

The ability to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers face
is known as comparative advantage.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Economics can be defined as the study of choices.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points

When the entire production possibilities curve shifts inward, the economy is growing.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points

To solve their basic long-term economic problems, developing countries primarily need
Selected Answer: technical assistance

Correct Answer: technical assistance

Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Which of the following is true of scarcity?

Selected Answer: it affects only poor nations

Correct Answer: it affects only poor nations

Question 38 2 out of 2 points

In economics, scarcity means that

Selected Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want

Correct Answer: there are not enough resources for everything that people want

Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Putting a business venture together is the function of the

Selected Answer: entrepreneur

Correct Answer: entrepreneur

Question 40 2 out of 2 points

If a useful good or service exists in such abundance that anyone can readily obtain it without
much effort,

Selected Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good

Correct Answer: it is neither scarce nor is it an economic good


Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Profits can be thought of as

Selected Answer: all of the above

Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Goods used to produce other goods and services are known as capital.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points

In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who

Selected Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Correct Answer: puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Total wealth is a _______concept; total income is a _______ concept.


Selected Answer: stock; flow

Correct Answer: stock; flow

Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Which of the following areas of study is included in the field of macroeconomics?

Selected Answer: general price level

Correct Answer: general price level

Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Some economic principles are based on physical phenomena.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Determining “what ought to be” in the economy is considered

Selected Answer: normative economics

Correct Answer: normative economics

Question 49 2 out of 2 points

An example of a free good is

Selected Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard

Correct Answer: the water bubbling up from the natural spring in your backyard

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The interactions of producers and consumers in individual markets are part of the study of

Selected Answer: microeconomics

Correct Answer: microeconomics

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 1

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 1

User Yuen Ling Carol Lam

Submitted 1/12/14 12:12 PM

Name Exam 1

Status Completed

Score 96 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct An economy that contains both perfect and imperfect competition and both regulated
and nonregulated industries is known as a

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct mixed economy

Correct Answer: Correct mixed economy

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to economic liberalism, the regulating force of the economy is

Question 2 answers
Selected Answer: Correct competition

Correct Answer: Correct competition

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct Privatization results in

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a reduction in government economic functions

Correct Answer: Correct a reduction in government economic functions

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a market economy, decisions about what to produce are made primarily by

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct individuals and firms

Correct Answer: Correct individuals and firms

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the United States produces the same level of output each year, instead of increasing
it,

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the unemployment rate will rise

Correct Answer: Correct the unemployment rate will rise

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct An economy in which a central authority makes most of the economic decisions is
known as a

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct command economy

Correct Answer: Correct command economy


Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The relationship between the market system and private property is

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private
property are protected

Correct Answer: Correct the market system functions best when the rights of private property are
protected

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is considered a command economy?

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 9 text Question 9 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Socialism combines monopoly, capitalism, private property, and a strong dictatorial
central government.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a cooperative form of business enterprise, a shareholder is entitled to

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct one vote

Correct Answer: Correct one vote

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Correct Corporations have the advantage of

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct limited liability of the stockholders

Correct Answer: Correct limited liability of the stockholders

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct Full employment is considered to have been achieved only when everybody in the
economy has a job.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct Self-interest is a major tenet of economic liberalism.

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the long run, the supply of goods is based on

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Correct Answer: Correct the availability of the resources and the costs of production

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in demand tends to increase both the equilibrium price and the amount of a
commodity exchanged.

Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct Whenever the supply of a product increases and the demand for the product decreases,

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Correct Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct A supply curve generally

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct slopes upward to the right

Correct Answer: Correct slopes upward to the right

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct A change in demand means that

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices

Correct Answer: Correct a changed amount will be bought at the same given prices

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct Probably the main characteristic of a demand curve is that it slopes upward from left to
right.

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct If 1,000 units of a particular good would be purchased at 40 cents per unit but only 750
units would be purchased at 50 cents per unit, the demand for the good is inelastic.

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct If demand increases and supply decreases, but supply decreases more than demand
increases,

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Correct Answer: Correct equilibrium price will fall

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a good has perfectly inelastic demand,

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Correct Answer: Correct the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct The point where quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal is known as the

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equilibrium price

Correct Answer: Correct equilibrium price

Question 24 text Question 24 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in income is measured by the


Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect cross elasticity of demand

Correct Answer: Correct income elasticity of demand

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct The slope of a demand curve is a measure of elasticity.

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct A shift in the supply curve for gasoline in the United States would result if

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United
States

Correct Answer: Correct the OPEC nations decided to stop sales of crude oil to the United States

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct Concern with the level of employment in the economy is a macroeconomic issue.

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct A science that studies the behavior and interactions of human beings, individually and
in groups, is known as a(n)

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct social science


Correct Answer: Correct social science

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct For the use of the employee’s participation in production, an employee receives

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct wages

Correct Answer: Correct wages

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct Positive economics deals with “what is” as opposed to “what ought to be.”

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct For a good to be scarce, it must be something that

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct To understand the purpose of a given economic policy, it is necessary to understand the
influence of political and social policies.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Correct In economics, the entrepreneur is the person who

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Correct Answer: Correct puts together land, labor, and capital and tries to make a profit

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct All economies in the world have identical methods of functional distribution.

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct Utility as an economic term refers to

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the ability of a good to satisfy a want

Correct Answer: Correct the ability of a good to satisfy a want

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct Microeconomics is a study of aggregates in the economy.

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct The largest part of U.S. national income takes the form of profits.

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False


Correct Answer: False

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct If you heard someone say that coal miners should be paid more wages to enable them
to adequately support their families, that would be a statement of

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct normative economics

Correct Answer: Correct normative economics

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct Comparative advantage cannot be applied to activities of individuals.

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct The typical production possibilities frontier curves outward due to

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct increasing opportunity costs

Correct Answer: Correct increasing opportunity costs

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct Total annual production in the United States is in excess of $10 trillion.

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Correct If a society is producing at a point on its production possibilities curve, it does not have
the problem of scarce resources.

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct Every economic system must decide

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation that has done well economically in spite of a lack of material resources is

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Japan

Correct Answer: Correct Japan

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that Country A has an absolute advantage over Country B in the production of
both wheat and cloth. The opportunity cost of 1 unit of wheat is 2 units of cloth in Country A and
3 units of cloth in Country B. It follows that production of both wheat and cloth will be maximized
if

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Country A specializes in wheat

Correct Answer: Correct Country A specializes in wheat

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Correct The standard of living in most countries in the past has risen primarily as a result of a
more skilled workforce and better machinery and equipment.

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation’s production possibilities curve can be shifted outward by technological


development.

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a nation is producing a combination of goods inside its production possibilities curve,
it is underutilizing its resources.

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct The basic function of any economic system is to provide the framework for allocating
scarce resources in a way that adequately satisfies unlimited wants.

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Correct Because of the high level of output in the United States, there is little need for choosing
among alternative output combinations.

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

OK

ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) > EXAMS > REVIEW


ASSESSMENT: EXAM 2

Review Assessment: Exam 2

User Siu Wan Luk

Submitted 3/26/13 10:07 AM

Name Exam 2

Status Completed

Score 90 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points

In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated through
payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True


Question 2 2 out of 2 points

A nation that imports more than it exports has a surplus balance of trade.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 3 2 out of 2 points

The circular flow represents the total level of output and income.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 4 2 out of 2 points

The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 5 2 out of 2 points

If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will tend to
cause the economy to

Selected Answer: remain stable

Correct Answer: remain stable

Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Unexpected inventory accumulations represents unplanned investment.


Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points

To have an increase in investment, consumption must decrease.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 8 2 out of 2 points

The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to

Selected Answer: the total value or cost of the output

Correct Answer: the total value or cost of the output

Question 9 2 out of 2 points

During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources is to
bid the resources away from other firms.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points

The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to the total value of the
output.

Selected Answer: True


Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points

If total spending is less than the total production of goods and service, all the goods produced
can be cleared from the market by

Selected Answer: lowering prices

Correct Answer: lowering prices

Question 12 2 out of 2 points

If planned investment exceeds planned savings, the economy always expands.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points

It is true that a stable economy occurs when

Selected Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total
planned injections into the circular flow

Correct Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total planned
injections into the circular flow

Question 14 2 out of 2 points

A kinked demand curve results when one firm’s price changes are followed downward but
not upward by competing firms.

Selected Answer: True


Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Under monopolistic competition, a firm’s marginal revenue curve is

Selected Answer: below the average revenue curve

Correct Answer: below the average revenue curve

Question 16 2 out of 2 points

The best example of an oligopolistic industry in the United States is

Selected Answer: automobile production

Correct Answer: automobile production

Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Oligopoly is a market structure in which

Selected Answer: there are relatively few producers

Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 18 0 out of 2 points

The rule of reason states that monopolies that behave well are still illegal.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points

A cartel is
Selected Answer: a type of formal collusion

Correct Answer: a type of formal collusion

Question 20 0 out of 2 points

The demand curve for the output of an individual firm in monopolistic competition is

Selected Answer: perfectly elastic

Correct Answer: more elastic than the market demand curve

Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?

Selected Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 22 2 out of 2 points

A firm that is a price maker can

Selected Answer: limit output and raise prices

Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or an


oligopoly.

Selected Answer: False


Correct Answer: False

Question 24 2 out of 2 points

The closer monopolistic competition gets to perfect competition,

Selected Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve

Correct Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve

Question 25 2 out of 2 points

The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel industry.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 2 out of 2 points

A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the equilibrium
output,

Selected Answer: AR is above ATC

Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 27 2 out of 2 points

If a firm adds one more worker and total output increases from 100 to 120, the marginal
product of labor equals

Selected Answer: 20

Correct Answer: 20

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The ATC rises whenever the

Selected Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the AFC

Correct Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the AFC

Question 29 2 out of 2 points

The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be determined
by using

Selected Answer: interest rates

Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Average revenue times total output equals total profit.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Total profit is equal to

Selected Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Question 32 0 out of 2 points

If all inputs are increased by 25 percent and output by 35 percent, increasing returns to scale
exist.
Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points

To arrive at a logical determination of a firm’s optimum output, economists assume that the
firm seeks to

Selected Answer: maximize profit or minimize loss

Correct Answer: maximize profit or minimize loss

Question 34 2 out of 2 points

The principle of diminishing marginal returns is applicable only to the use of labor as a
productive resource.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 35 2 out of 2 points

The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points

The marginal product decreases, reaches a minimum, and then rises as output increases.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False


Question 37 2 out of 2 points

So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points

The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output is
known as

Selected Answer: marginal revenue

Correct Answer: marginal revenue

Question 39 0 out of 2 points

Perfect competition assumes that a producer is interested in maximizing profit.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

Question 40 0 out of 2 points

Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond the
point where MR equals MC,

Selected Answer: profits increase

Correct Answer: profits diminish

Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price


Selected Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Correct Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Question 42 2 out of 2 points

If a perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level for which MR equals $5, MC
equals $6, and ATC equals $4, the firm

Selected Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output

Correct Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output

Question 43 2 out of 2 points

An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points

If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished product
will rise.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Question 45 2 out of 2 points

If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Selected Answer: make an economic profit

Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Perfectly competitive firms are price takers.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points

In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run

Selected Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 49 2 out of 2 points

A large number of buyers is an assumption of perfect competition.

Selected Answer: True

Correct Answer: True

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above AFC,
the firm should always continue to operate.

Selected Answer: False

Correct Answer: False

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 2

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 2

User Wai Hung Poon

Submitted 11/29/12 8:57 PM

Name Exam 2

Status Completed

Score 88 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in planned savings, all else held constant, will always result in

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a slowdown in the circular flow of income

Correct Answer: Correct a slowdown in the circular flow of income

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct investment, government spending, and exports

Correct Answer: Correct investment, government spending, and exports

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the circular flow, investment refers to spending on

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct capital goods

Correct Answer: Correct capital goods

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the circular flow, nonprofit institutions are

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct counted as businesses

Correct Answer: Correct counted as businesses

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct an increase in total income and output

Correct Answer: Correct an increase in total income and output


Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct The circular flow of income does not take into consideration nonprofit institutions.

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The production of goods and services generates income.

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct To have an increase in investment, consumption must decrease.

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct A surplus budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the circular
flow of business activity?

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decrease total output and/or prices


Correct Answer: Correct decrease total output and/or prices

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned
injections equal other planned leakages), the economy

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct experiences rising prices

Correct Answer: Correct experiences rising prices

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to planned
saving,

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct prices and total output tend to be stable

Correct Answer: Correct prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will tend
to cause the economy to

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct remain stable

Correct Answer: Correct remain stable

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Sherman Antitrust Act

Correct Answer: Correct Sherman Antitrust Act

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct In monopolistic competition, there is no need for advertising.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct The demand for the product of a monopolist is perfectly inelastic.

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is always true of monopolists?

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Correct Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following will cause a cartel to be unstable?

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct sharply differentiated products

Correct Answer: Correct sharply differentiated products

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of monopolistic competition, a firm maximizes profits where

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct MR equals MC

Correct Answer: Correct MR equals MC

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct The closer monopolistic competition gets to perfect competition,

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the more horizontal the AR curve

Correct Answer: Correct the more horizontal the AR curve


Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under which type of market structure is the firm’s pricing decision the most difficult?

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct oligopoly

Correct Answer: Correct oligopoly

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct below the AR line

Correct Answer: Correct below the AR line

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under monopolistic competition, a firm’s marginal revenue curve is

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct below the average revenue curve

Correct Answer: Correct below the average revenue curve

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under oligopoly, collusive practices to fix prices are more likely to take place if

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct market demand is highly inelastic


Correct Answer: Correct market demand is highly inelastic

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Federal Trade Commission

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct polices deceptive advertising

Correct Answer: Correct polices deceptive advertising

Question 26 text Question 26 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect A market structure in which a single buyer exists on one side of the market and only
one seller exists on the other side is known as

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect a Wheeler-Lea market

Correct Answer: Correct a bilateral monopoly

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct interest rates

Correct Answer: Correct interest rates

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decreases

Correct Answer: Correct decreases

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct When at least one productive resource is fixed, the firm is producing

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct in the short run

Correct Answer: Correct in the short run

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct On a cost/output graph, the average fixed cost is constructed as a straight horizontal
line.

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct Wages paid are an example of an explicit cost of doing business.

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct The production function relates outputs to inputs.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive resource
is the

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct marginal product

Correct Answer: Correct marginal product

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equal to average revenue

Correct Answer: Correct equal to average revenue

Question 35 text Question 35 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect It may be beneficial for a firm that is suffering a loss to continue to operate in the short
run as long as it is recovering its fixed cost.

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True


Correct Answer: False

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct If a firm is in the short run,

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct at least one of the firm’s resources cannot be varied

Correct Answer: Correct at least one of the firm’s resources cannot be varied

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct Marginal product can never fall below zero.

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the entry of new firms in a perfectly competitive industry substantially increases the
market demand for resources,
Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct this raises the market price of resources

Correct Answer: Correct this raises the market price of resources

Question 40 text Question 40 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect If price equals marginal cost at the long-run equilibrium, this means that economic
efficiency is being achieved.

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct new firms will enter the industry

Correct Answer: Correct new firms will enter the industry

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the short run, each firm is free to vary its maximum capacity.

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, firms offer roughly similar products for sale.

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level, and
MC equals AVC at the $8 level. If the market price is $7,

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the firm should shut down in the short run

Correct Answer: Correct the firm should shut down in the short run

Question 45 text Question 45 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Producer surplus is the difference between the price the firm is willing to sell its goods
and the price it actually receives.

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that the development of a new, improved seed allows all corn farmers in the
United States to increase their yields per acre. Since the demand for corn is relatively inelastic, the
price of corn in a perfectly competitive market is likely to
Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decrease, and farm revenues will fall

Correct Answer: Correct decrease, and farm revenues will fall

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, AR always equals MR.

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 text Question 48 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Economic efficiency occurs when firms are producing the goods consumers most want
and consumers pay a price equal to marginal cost.

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under perfect competition, each firm can sell its entire supply at the market price.

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 50 text Question 50 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect In the short run, each perfectly competitive firm is free to

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct increase its volume of output up to its maximum existing capacity

OK

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Correct Answer: a monopoly

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


A bilateral monopoly is a circumstance where only one seller and only one buyer
exist in a market.
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in monopolistic competition is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss,
its AR curve is
Correct Answer: touching its ATC curve
Question 5 0 out of 2 points
A firm that is a price maker can
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is always true of monopolists?
Correct Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel
industry.
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is associated with
Correct Answer: an oligopoly
Question 11 0 out of 2 points
Monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one seller.
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or
an oligopoly.
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If all firms adhere to the conditions of perfect competition, short-run losses are
avoided.
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


As long as economic profits are being made, new firms will enter a perfectly
competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs at
the point where
Correct Answer: AR = MC
Question 17 0 out of 2 points
If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The entry and exit of firms drive economic profits to zero in the long run in a
perfectly competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Correct Answer: operates where MR equals MC

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


If a firm is producing an output level for which the market price exceeds the firm’s
marginal cost,
Correct Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from
its best alternative use is the
Correct Answer: opportunity cost

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Correct Answer: decreases
Question 28 0 out of 2 points
The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm’s productive
resources, the firm has
Correct Answer: constant returns to scale

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


In the long run,
Correct Answer: all the firm’s resources are variable

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The production function relates outputs to inputs.
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Correct Answer: remains constant

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting
total output.
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget tends to have a neutral effect on the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated
through payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
Correct Answer: True
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Correct Answer: expands

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in
consumption.
Correct Answer: True
Question 1 0 out of 2 points
The difference between the price firms would be willing to accept for their goods and
the price they actually receive is called
Selected Answer: consumer surplus
Correct Answer: producer surplus

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Selected Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


The long-run average cost curve indicates
Selected Answer: the lowest average costs of production for each plant size
Correct Answer: the lowest average costs of production at each level of output

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if profits are being made,
Selected Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry
Correct Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a
Selected Answer: higher MR curve
Correct Answer: rising ATC curve

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, firms offer roughly similar products for
sale.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Selected Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Selected Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The lowest possible ATC curve is attained at the optimal scale of output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, no individual seller or buyer can influence
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Agreement between firms in an industry to set a certain price or to share a market is
Selected Answer: a collusive practice
Correct Answer: a collusive practice

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, economic profits tend to be eliminated under conditions of
monopolistic competition.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Public utilities are often referred to as
Selected Answer: oligopolistic monopolies
Correct Answer: natural monopolies

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Forms of imperfect competition include monopoly, oligopoly, and monopolistic
competition.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Trade Commission
Selected Answer: polices deceptive advertising
Correct Answer: polices deceptive advertising

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The Clayton Act brought labor unions under the jurisdiction of the antitrust laws.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Possible barriers to entry of new firms into an industry
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Public utilities are often called natural monopolies.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve results when one firm’s price changes are followed
downward but not upward by competing firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


A monopoly or oligopoly showing no economic profit or loss has
Selected Answer: an AR curve tangent to the lowest point of its ATC curve
Correct Answer: an AR curve tangent to its ATC curve to the left of the lowest point

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a condition of monopolistic competition?
Selected Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output
Correct Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Selected Answer: there are many sellers with differentiated products
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is
Selected Answer: below the AR line
Correct Answer: below the AR line

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, the ATC
Selected Answer: remains constant
Correct Answer: falls and then rises
Question 27 2 out of 2 points
If the firm produces one more unit of output and total cost rises from $1,000 to
$1,050, marginal cost is
Selected Answer: $50
Correct Answer: $50

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


To arrive at a logical determination of a firm’s optimum output, economists assume
that the firm seeks to
Selected Answer: maximize profit or minimize loss
Correct Answer: maximize profit or minimize loss

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Marginal cost can be determined best by observing changes in
Selected Answer: total cost/marginal product
Correct Answer: total variable cost

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


In a mature industry, all firms operate with constant returns to scale.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Implicit cost is an opportunity cost of doing business.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
Average revenue times total output equals total profit.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The average fixed cost remains constant even in the long run.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Total fixed cost is frequently referred to as
Selected Answer: overhead
Correct Answer: overhead

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is the
Selected Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output
Correct Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Opportunity cost and implicit cost are both explicit costs.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A deficit federal budget always raises prices.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The production of goods and services generates income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The size of the circular flow
Selected Answer: measures the level of income and output
Correct Answer: measures the level of income and output

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Whenever planned injections exceed planned leakages, total spending is less than
total output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The circular flow is unaffected by changes in the money supply or interest rates.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will
tend to cause the economy to
Selected Answer: remain stable
Correct Answer: remain stable

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Selected Answer: employment increases
Correct Answer: inventories accumulate

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Consider an economy that is operating at less than full employment. Suppose that
total resource income equals $400,000 of which $350,000 is used for consumption
spending and $50,000 is saved. If planned investment is $25,000, which of the
following is most likely to occur?
Selected Answer: income will rise
Correct Answer: inventories will accumulate

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for the output of a perfectly competitive firm is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic
Question 2 0 out of 2 points
The entry and exit of firms drive economic profits to zero in the long run in a
perfectly competitive industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


Suppose that the development of a new, improved seed allows all corn farmers in the
United States to increase their yields per acre. Since the demand for corn is relatively
inelastic, the price of corn in a perfectly competitive market is likely to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: decrease, and farm revenues will fall

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


On a graph of average cost curves, the space between ATC and AVC represents AFC.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
In the long run, perfect competition results in firms producing
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: at the minimum point of their long-run average cost curves, which
indicates economic efficiency

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition, each firm can sell its entire supply at the market price.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


There are no brand names in perfect competition.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition in the short run,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: more efficient firms can earn higher profits than less efficient firms
Question 12 0 out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: operates where MR equals MC

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: investment, government spending, and exports

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: expands

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


If the government finances its spending through taxes which absorb idle funds that
were not going to be spent by the private sector, a balanced budget can have an
expansionary effect.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Consider an economy that is operating at less than full employment. Suppose that
total resource income equals $400,000 of which $350,000 is used for consumption
spending and $50,000 is saved. If planned investment is $25,000, which of the
following is most likely to occur?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: inventories will accumulate

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, the economy always expands.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False
Question 22 0 out of 2 points
The production of goods and services generates income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned
injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: experiences rising prices

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Normal profit is considered an opportunity cost of operating a business.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 27 0 out of 2 points
Marginal cost can be determined best by observing changes in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total variable cost

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Marginal revenue is the increase in total revenue per additional unit of input.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The concept of minimizing the number of physical units of the inputs needed for a
given amount of output is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: technical efficiency

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, the AVC
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: falls and then rises

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The return to the entrepreneur for organizing, producing, and risk-taking in the
operation of the business is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total profit

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


If a firm is in the short run,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: at least one of the firm’s resources cannot be varied

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


For the principle of diminishing marginal returns to hold,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: only one resource should vary

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


The major factor accounting for diseconomies of scale is management inefficiency.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


In a mature industry, all firms operate with constant returns to scale.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Total cost is equal to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: TFC + TVC
Question 38 0 out of 2 points
Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Compared to perfect competition, a monopoly usually does not result in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: less profit

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


No U.S. firm has ever obtained sufficient control over raw materials to develop a
monopoly or near monopoly on that basis.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Predatory pricing involves charging different customers different prices for the same
good.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


If a monopolist lowers its price from $45 to $42 in order to increase its sales volume,
marginal revenue
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: is less than $42
Question 43 0 out of 2 points
An administered price is a price
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: established by a seller

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


The closer monopolistic competition gets to perfect competition,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of monopolistic competition, a firm maximizes profits where
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: MR equals MC

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


A monopoly can sell all that it desires at any given price.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False
Question 48 0 out of 2 points
The demand for the product of a monopolist is perfectly inelastic.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


When one firm lowers its price, its gain in sales at the expense of other firms is
known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the substitution effect

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a condition of monopolistic competition?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output

ECON125-HK1. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK1) > CONTROL


PANEL > GRADEBOOK > MODIFY GRADE > GRADE ATTEMPT

Grade Assessment Exam 2 Name Exam 2


User Kwan Lung Dragon Au
Status Completed
Score 94 out of 100 points
Instructions
Clear Attempt Click Clear Attempt to clear this user’s attempt.
Clear Attempt
Comments Modify Comments

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Added expenditures in the circular flow that are not paid for out of domestic resource
income are known as
Given Answer: injections
Correct Answer: injections

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: remains stable
Correct Answer: expands

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning the circular flow model is (are)
correct?
Given Answer: planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow
Correct Answer: planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget
Given Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending
Correct Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The operation of the total economy can best be demonstrated by a
Given Answer: circular flow
Correct Answer: circular flow
Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Given Answer: have a neutral effect
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The size of the circular flow
Given Answer: measures the level of income and output
Correct Answer: measures the level of income and output

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Given Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the circular flow, business owners receive
Given Answer: profits
Correct Answer: profits

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Given Answer: inventories accumulate
Correct Answer: inventories accumulate
Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Whenever exports equal imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: remains stable
Correct Answer: remains stable

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is
Given Answer: an increase in total income and output
Correct Answer: an increase in total income and output

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Given Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, average fixed cost
Given Answer: falls as output increases
Correct Answer: falls as output increases

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Given Answer: reduce supply
Correct Answer: reduce supply
Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Given Answer: AR exceeds AVC
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Given Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm determines its profit-maximizing or
loss-minimizing output by
Given Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost
Correct Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Given Answer: make an economic profit
Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Elaine's firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn't Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?
Given Answer: she can sell all she wants at the market price
Correct Answer: she can sell all she wants at the market price
Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Given Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, AR and MR
Given Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Allocative efficiency requires that
Given Answer: MC equals P
Correct Answer: MC equals P

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not assumed in perfect competition?
Given Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run
Correct Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Given Answer: new firms will enter the industry
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Given Answer: there are relatively few producers
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A cartel is
Given Answer: a type of formal collusion
Correct Answer: a type of formal collusion

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The closer monopolistic competition gets to perfect competition
Given Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve
Correct Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Given Answer: limit output and raise prices
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One reason firms in monopolistic competition can charge different prices is that their
products are
Given Answer: differentiated
Correct Answer: differentiated

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Given Answer: MR is above AR
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Trade Commission
Given Answer: polices deceptive advertising
Correct Answer: polices deceptive advertising

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


For identical cost conditions, the long-run equilibrium price under any form of
imperfect competition is ___________ than the long-run equilibrium price in perfect
competition because of __________.
Given Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition
Correct Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When one firm lowers its price, its gain in sales at the expense of other firms is
known as
Given Answer: the substitution effect
Correct Answer: the substitution effect

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Given Answer: predatory pricing
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is most likely to occur when other firms
Given Answer: follow a downward change in price but not an upward change by a
rival firm
Correct Answer: follow a downward change in price but not an upward change by a
rival firm

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a potential source of monopoly?
Given Answer: civil rights
Correct Answer: civil rights

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A graph of total fixed cost
Given Answer: is a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: is a straight horizontal line

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The marginal cost curve crosses the average total cost curve at the
Given Answer: lowest level of average total cost
Correct Answer: lowest level of average total cost

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Given Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When marginal product is less than average product
Given Answer: average product falls
Correct Answer: average product falls
Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Given Answer: rises and then declines
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Marginal cost is the
Given Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output
Correct Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To arrive at a logical determination of a firm's optimum output, economists assume
that the firm seeks to
Given Answer: minimize cost
Correct Answer: maximize profit or minimize loss

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output
is known as
Given Answer: marginal revenue
Correct Answer: marginal revenue

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the long run,
Given Answer: all the firm's resources are variable
Correct Answer: all the firm's resources are variable

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Given Answer: remains constant
Correct Answer: remains constant

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Average product falls any time
Given Answer: marginal product is below it
Correct Answer: marginal product is below it

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm did not have any fixed costs at all, then the ATC curve would be
Given Answer: the same as the AVC curve
Correct Answer: the same as the AVC curve

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Average total cost is equal to
Given Answer: AFC + AVC
Correct Answer: AFC + AVC

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When marginal product is less than average product
Given Answer: average product falls
Correct Answer: average product falls
Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
By looking at the marginal cost and marginal revenue curves, you can find out
Given Answer: at what output the firm would maximize profits or minimize losses
Correct Answer: at what output the firm would maximize profits or minimize losses

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Given Answer: $160,000
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output
is known as
Given Answer: marginal revenue
Correct Answer: marginal revenue

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the AVC is $12, the AFC is $4, the AR is $20, and output is 6,000 units, the total
profit is
Given Answer: $24,000
Correct Answer: $24,000

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm's productive
resources, the firm has
Given Answer: constant returns to scale
Correct Answer: constant returns to scale
Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If a firm adds one more worker and total output increases from 100 to 120, the
marginal product of labor equals
Given Answer: 120
Correct Answer: 20

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As output increases, the AVC
Given Answer: decreases
Correct Answer: falls and then rises

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are
added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become
increasingly smaller, is the principle of
Given Answer: increasing returns to scale
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal returns

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm is in the short run,
Given Answer: all its resources are variable
Correct Answer: at least one of the firm's resources cannot be varied

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Total profit is equal to
Given Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The opportunity cost of using one's own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Given Answer: wage rates
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Given Answer: marginal product
Correct Answer: marginal product

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The operation of the total economy can best be demonstrated by a
Given Answer: circular flow
Correct Answer: circular flow

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The size of the circular flow
Given Answer: measures the level of income and output
Correct Answer: measures the level of income and output

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is
Given Answer: an increase in total income and output
Correct Answer: an increase in total income and output
Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Given Answer: contracts
Correct Answer: expands

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning the circular flow model is (are)
correct?
Given Answer: an increase in planned savings always generates an increase in
planned investment spending
Correct Answer: planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following defines flows out of the circular flow that occur when
resource income is received and not spent directly on purchases from domestic firms?
Given Answer: leakages
Correct Answer: leakages

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for
Given Answer: prices to rise
Correct Answer: prices to rise

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Given Answer: increase total output and/or prices
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Given Answer: investment, government spending, and exports
Correct Answer: investment, government spending, and exports

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Given Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Given Answer: total income minus consumption spending
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget
Given Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending
Correct Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price
Given Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay
Correct Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A high degree of competition is not always feasible in the production of
Given Answer: cosmetics
Correct Answer: public utilities

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm determines its profit-maximizing or
loss-minimizing output by
Given Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost
Correct Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In perfect competition, no individual producer can influence price because
Given Answer: it is set by monopolists
Correct Answer: each contributes an insignificant amount to total supply

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Among the distinguishing characteristics of different types of markets are
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, a firm should
Given Answer: expand output
Correct Answer: expand output
Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If a perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level for which MR equals $5,
MC equals $6, and ATC equals $4, the firm
Given Answer: is suffering a loss but should increase output
Correct Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Diseconomies of scale occur
Given Answer: at the optimal scale of operation
Correct Answer: after the optimal scale is reached

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Given Answer: expand output
Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level. If
the market price is $10,
Given Answer: the firm will suffer an economic loss but should operate in the
short run
Correct Answer: the best firm can do is to break even

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Given Answer: normal profits; output will expand
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Elaine's firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn't Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?
Given Answer: her demand curve is not elastic
Correct Answer: she can sell all she wants at the market price

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Given Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Requiring the buyer of one good to purchase another good as well is termed
Given Answer: tying contracts
Correct Answer: tying contracts

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Given Answer: the U.S. Postal Service
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a condition of monopolistic competition?
Given Answer: advertising may exist
Correct Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output
Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The best example of an oligopolistic industry in the United States is
Given Answer: automobile production
Correct Answer: automobile production

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Given Answer: monopoly
Correct Answer: monopoly

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Public utilities are often referred to as
Given Answer: natural monopolies
Correct Answer: natural monopolies

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One company that retained its monopoly position for years through control of raw
materials was
Given Answer: Aluminum Company of America (ALCOA)
Correct Answer: Aluminum Company of America (ALCOA)

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Given Answer: predatory pricing
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a potential source of monopoly?
Given Answer: patents
Correct Answer: civil rights

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An administered price is a price
Given Answer: established by a seller
Correct Answer: established by a seller

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for the product of a monopolist is
Given Answer: identical to the market demand curve
Correct Answer: identical to the market demand curve

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Trade Commission
Given Answer: polices deceptive advertising
Correct Answer: polices deceptive advertising

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If economies of scale are present, a firm can enhance its profits by
Given Answer: operating beyond the optimal scale
Correct Answer: operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Among the distinguishing characteristics of different types of markets are
Given Answer: the ability of any or all firms in an industry to influence market
price
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If a perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level for which MR equals $5,
MC equals $6, and ATC equals $4, the firm
Given Answer: is suffering a loss and should reduce output
Correct Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Given Answer: endeavors to undercut the market price
Correct Answer: accepts the market price

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A high degree of competition is not always feasible in the production of
Given Answer: public utilities
Correct Answer: public utilities

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Given Answer: market price falls
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, marginal revenue
Given Answer: equals average revenue
Correct Answer: equals average revenue
Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The demand curve for the output of a perfectly competitive firm is
Given Answer: perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Given Answer: make an economic profit
Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Diseconomies of scale occur
Given Answer: at the optimal scale of operation
Correct Answer: after the optimal scale is reached

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Given Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The difference between the price firms would be willing to accept for their goods and
the price they actually receive is called
Given Answer: producer surplus
Correct Answer: producer surplus

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not assumed in perfect competition?
Given Answer: no advertising exists
Correct Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the long run,
Given Answer: all the firm's resources are variable
Correct Answer: all the firm's resources are variable

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Marginal cost is the
Given Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output
Correct Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When at least one productive resource is fixed, the firm is producing
Given Answer: in the short run
Correct Answer: in the short run

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of an implicit cost is
Given Answer: rent
Correct Answer: forgone interest when investing one's savings in one's own
business

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Marginal cost crosses the
Given Answer: ATC curve at the lowest point of the ATC curve
Correct Answer: ATC curve at the lowest point of the ATC curve

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The amount of profit necessary to keep the entrepreneur operating is known as
Given Answer: normal profit
Correct Answer: normal profit

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm did not have any fixed costs at all, then the ATC curve would be
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: the same as the AVC curve

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The return to the entrepreneur for organizing, producing, and risk-taking in the
operation of the business is
Given Answer: total profit
Correct Answer: total profit

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a small plant is more efficient than either a medium-sized or a large plant, the
situation must be one of
Given Answer: decreasing returns to scale
Correct Answer: decreasing returns to scale

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Given Answer: marginal product
Correct Answer: marginal product

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is the best example of variable cost?
Given Answer: depreciation on a building
Correct Answer: wages

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The marginal product refers to the impact of which unit of a productive resource?
Given Answer: first
Correct Answer: last

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the firm produces one more unit of output and total cost rises from $1,000 to
$1,050, marginal cost is
Given Answer: $1,050
Correct Answer: $50

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the circular flow, business owners receive
Given Answer: profits
Correct Answer: profits

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the circular flow, investment refers to spending on
Given Answer: capital goods
Correct Answer: capital goods

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is
Given Answer: an increase in total income and output
Correct Answer: an increase in total income and output

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If exports are less than imports (while other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: contracts
Correct Answer: contracts

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During a period of unemployment, a deficit budget will most likely have which of the
following effects on business activity?
Given Answer: increase total output
Correct Answer: increase total output

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Whenever exports equal imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: remains stable
Correct Answer: remains stable

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Given Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Given Answer: if the economy is at full employment, then prices will rise
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Given Answer: investment, government spending, and exports
Correct Answer: investment, government spending, and exports

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A surplus budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the circular
flow of business activity?
Given Answer: decrease total output and/or prices
Correct Answer: decrease total output and/or prices

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under which type of market structure is the firm's pricing decision the most difficult?
Given Answer: monopolistic competition
Correct Answer: oligopoly

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Regarding U.S. antitrust activity, the rule of reason was expressed in the
Given Answer: Clayton Act
Correct Answer: Standard Oil case

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is most likely to occur when other firms
Given Answer: follow any change in price by a rival firm
Correct Answer: follow a downward change in price but not an upward change by a
rival firm

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist's product is also the monopolist's
Given Answer: average revenue curve
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Given Answer: there are relatively few producers
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers
Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Given Answer: a government-regulated public utility
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a potential source of monopoly?
Given Answer: civil rights
Correct Answer: civil rights

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Trade Commission
Given Answer: polices deceptive advertising
Correct Answer: polices deceptive advertising

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One reason firms in monopolistic competition can charge different prices is that their
products are
Given Answer: differentiated
Correct Answer: differentiated

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a market of monopolistic competition, there will be
Given Answer: a substantial substitution effect whenever any one firm changes its
price
Correct Answer: product differentiation
Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Under oligopolistic market conditions,
Given Answer: the pricing actions of any one firm have a significant effect on the
others
Correct Answer: the pricing actions of any one firm have a significant effect on the
others

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In conditions of monopolistic competition,
Given Answer: products are identical
Correct Answer: there are many firms

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


At the point of maximum profit, marginal revenue equals
Given Answer: average total cost
Correct Answer: marginal cost

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Marginal cost crosses the
Given Answer: AVC curve at the highest point of the AVC curve
Correct Answer: ATC curve at the lowest point of the ATC curve

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the long run,
Given Answer: all the firm's resources are variable
Correct Answer: all the firm's resources are variable

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the AVC is $12, the AFC is $4, the AR is $20, and output is 6,000 units, the total
profit is
Given Answer: $48,000
Correct Answer: $24,000

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As output increases, the AVC
Given Answer: falls and then rises
Correct Answer: falls and then rises

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When at least one productive resource is fixed, the firm is producing
Given Answer: in the short run
Correct Answer: in the short run

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When marginal product is less than average product
Given Answer: average product increases
Correct Answer: average product falls

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The ATC rises whenever the
Given Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the
AFC
Correct Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the
AFC

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Given Answer: average product
Correct Answer: marginal product

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Total cost is equal to
Given Answer: TFC + TVC
Correct Answer: TFC + TVC

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Given Answer: remains constant
Correct Answer: remains constant

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The marginal cost curve crosses the average total cost curve at the
Given Answer: lowest level of average total cost
Correct Answer: lowest level of average total cost

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a small plant is more efficient than either a medium-sized or a large plant, the
situation must be one of
Given Answer: decreasing returns to scale
Correct Answer: decreasing returns to scale

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During a period of unemployment, a deficit budget will most likely have which of the
following effects on business activity?
Given Answer: increase total output
Correct Answer: increase total output

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Added expenditures in the circular flow that are not paid for out of domestic resource
income are known as
Given Answer: injections
Correct Answer: injections

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A surplus budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the circular
flow of business activity?
Given Answer: decrease total output and/or prices
Correct Answer: decrease total output and/or prices

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Given Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the circular flow, if government spending is greater than taxes, (while other
planned injections equal other planned leakages) then
Given Answer: the size of the income flow will increase
Correct Answer: the size of the income flow will increase
Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?
Given Answer: saving, investment, exports, and taxes
Correct Answer: investment, government spending, and exports

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a
tendency for
Given Answer: prices to rise
Correct Answer: employment to increase

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of unplanned investment is
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If exports are less than imports (while other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Given Answer: contracts
Correct Answer: contracts
Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The operation of the total economy can best be demonstrated by a
Given Answer: circular flow
Correct Answer: circular flow

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If total spending is less than the total production of goods and service, all the goods
produced can be cleared from the market by
Given Answer: raising prices
Correct Answer: lowering prices

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Given Answer: accepts the market price
Correct Answer: accepts the market price

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Under perfect competition in the short run,
Given Answer: more efficient firms can earn higher profits than less efficient firms
Correct Answer: more efficient firms can earn higher profits than less efficient firms

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Given Answer: new firms will enter the industry
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Given Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Given Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Diseconomies of scale occur
Given Answer: after the optimal scale is reached
Correct Answer: after the optimal scale is reached

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Allocative efficiency requires that
Given Answer: MC equals MR
Correct Answer: MC equals P

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Among the distinguishing characteristics of different types of markets are
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for the output of a perfectly competitive firm is
Given Answer: perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic
Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Given Answer: market price does not change
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price
Given Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay
Correct Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not assumed in perfect competition?
Given Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run
Correct Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, a firm should
Given Answer: expand output
Correct Answer: expand output

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Agreement between firms in an industry to set a certain price or to share a market is
Given Answer: a collusive practice
Correct Answer: a collusive practice
Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In monopolistic competition, the number of firms
Given Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others
Correct Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An effective way in which patents allow manufacturers to prevent the entry of new
firms into the industry is through
Given Answer: threats of infringement suits
Correct Answer: threats of infringement suits

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Given Answer: predatory pricing
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Each time the monopolist sells another unit of output, the total revenue increases by
Given Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold
Correct Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If firms in monopolistic competition are earning short-run profits
Given Answer: the entry of new firms will eliminate the profits in the long run
Correct Answer: the entry of new firms will eliminate the profits in the long run
Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following will cause a cartel to be unstable?
Given Answer: sharply differentiated products
Correct Answer: sharply differentiated products

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


For identical cost conditions, the long-run equilibrium price under any form of
imperfect competition is ___________ than the long-run equilibrium price in perfect
competition because of __________.
Given Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition
Correct Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a potential source of monopoly?
Given Answer: civil rights
Correct Answer: civil rights

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Given Answer: AR is above AVC
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Public utilities are often referred to as
Given Answer: natural monopolies
Correct Answer: natural monopolies
Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
An administered price is a price
Given Answer: established by a seller
Correct Answer: established by a seller

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is the
Selected Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output
Correct Answer: change in total cost resulting from producing one more unit of
output

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The return to the entrepreneur for organizing, producing, and risk-taking in the
operation of the business is
Selected Answer: total profit
Correct Answer: total profit

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Selected Answer: total fixed cost
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)
Question 5 2 out of 2 points
If the AVC is $12, the AFC is $4, the AR is $20, and output is 6,000 units, the total
profit is
Selected Answer: $24,000
Correct Answer: $24,000

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Selected Answer: rises and then declines
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The marginal product refers to the impact of which unit of a productive resource?
Selected Answer: last
Correct Answer: last

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Average total cost is equal to
Selected Answer: AFC + AVC
Correct Answer: AFC + AVC

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Average product falls any time
Selected Answer: marginal product is below it
Correct Answer: marginal product is below it

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The ATC rises whenever the
Selected Answer: AVC is equal to the AFC
Correct Answer: upward pull of the AVC is greater than the downward pull of the
AFC

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


By looking at the marginal cost and marginal revenue curves, you can find out
Selected Answer: at what output the firm would maximize profits or minimize
losses
Correct Answer: at what output the firm would maximize profits or minimize losses

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


In the short run, if a firm is suffering a loss, it should
Selected Answer: continue to operate if marginal cost is below average total cost
Correct Answer: continue to operate as long as it can recover variable cost

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Total profit is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Selected Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Elaine's firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn't Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?
Selected Answer: she can sell all she wants at the market price
Correct Answer: she can sell all she wants at the market price

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Selected Answer: accepts the market price
Correct Answer: accepts the market price

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Selected Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Selected Answer: market price does not change
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The demand curve for the output of a perfectly competitive firm is
Selected Answer: perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level. If
the market price is $10,
Selected Answer: the best firm can do is to break even
Correct Answer: the best firm can do is to break even

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Allocative efficiency requires that
Selected Answer: MC equals P
Correct Answer: MC equals P

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A high degree of competition is not always feasible in the production of
Selected Answer: public utilities
Correct Answer: public utilities

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price
Selected Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay
Correct Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


If economies of scale are present, a firm can enhance its profits by
Selected Answer: operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale
Correct Answer: operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Selected Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale
Question 26 0 out of 2 points
If one firm in a perfectly competitive industry is somehow able to produce at a lower
cost than competing firms in the short run,
Selected Answer: the competing firms will earn higher profits than the more
efficient firm in the short run
Correct Answer: the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in the
long run

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a type of leakage from the circular flow of income?
Selected Answer: investment
Correct Answer: investment

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: have a neutral effect
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, a deficit budget exists, and the
economy is in a state of less than full employment, the most likely result is
Selected Answer: an increase in total income and output
Correct Answer: an increase in total income and output

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning the circular flow model is (are)
correct?
Selected Answer: planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow
Correct Answer: planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


During a period of unemployment, a deficit budget will most likely have which of the
following effects on business activity?
Selected Answer: increase total output
Correct Answer: increase total output

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for
Selected Answer: prices to rise
Correct Answer: prices to rise

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget
Selected Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending
Correct Answer: may alter the composition of total output by substituting
government spending for private spending
Question 35 2 out of 2 points
Whenever exports equal imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: remains stable
Correct Answer: remains stable

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


If the government obtains all the money it uses for spending from taxation, it will
tend to cause the economy to
Selected Answer: inflate
Correct Answer: remain stable

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned
injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: remains stable
Correct Answer: experiences rising prices

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, investment refers to spending on
Selected Answer: capital goods
Correct Answer: capital goods

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


An administered price is a price
Selected Answer: established by a seller
Correct Answer: established by a seller
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Selected Answer: a government-regulated public utility
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


In oligopoly, following a rival's decrease in price tends to eliminate the
Selected Answer: substitution effect
Correct Answer: substitution effect

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is associated with
Selected Answer: monopolistic competition
Correct Answer: oligopoly

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


A monopoly or oligopoly showing no economic profit or loss has
Selected Answer: an MR curve above its AR curve
Correct Answer: an AR curve tangent to its ATC curve to the left of the lowest point

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The maximum profit of a monopolist occurs
Selected Answer: where MR equals MC
Correct Answer: where MR equals MC

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Each time the monopolist sells another unit of output, the total revenue increases by
Selected Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold
Correct Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is most likely to occur when other firms
Selected Answer: follow a downward change in price but not an upward change by
a rival firm
Correct Answer: follow a downward change in price but not an upward change by a
rival firm

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


When one firm lowers its price, its gain in sales at the expense of other firms is
known as
Selected Answer: the substitution effect
Correct Answer: the substitution effect

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a potential source of monopoly?
Selected Answer: civil rights
Correct Answer: civil rights

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


A cartel is
Selected Answer: a type of formal collusion
Correct Answer: a type of formal collusion

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Trade Commission
Selected Answer: polices deceptive advertising
Correct Answer: polices deceptive advertising

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a monopoly

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


A bilateral monopoly is a circumstance where only one seller and only one buyer
exist in a market.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in monopolistic competition is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss,
its AR curve is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: touching its ATC curve

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices
Question 6 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following is always true of monopolists?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel
industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is associated with
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: an oligopoly

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one seller.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or
an oligopoly.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If all firms adhere to the conditions of perfect competition, short-run losses are
avoided.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


As long as economic profits are being made, new firms will enter a perfectly
competitive industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs at
the point where
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: AR = MC

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The entry and exit of firms drive economic profits to zero in the long run in a
perfectly competitive industry.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: operates where MR equals MC

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


If a firm is producing an output level for which the market price exceeds the firm’s
marginal cost,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation
Question 26 0 out of 2 points
The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from
its best alternative use is the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: opportunity cost

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm’s productive
resources, the firm has
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: constant returns to scale

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


In the long run,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all the firm’s resources are variable

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The production function relates outputs to inputs.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: remains constant
Question 36 0 out of 2 points
The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting
total output.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 41 0 out of 2 points
A balanced federal budget tends to have a neutral effect on the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated
through payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 46 0 out of 2 points
A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: expands

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in
consumption.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 1 0 out of 2 points
Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Correct Answer: a monopoly

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


A bilateral monopoly is a circumstance where only one seller and only one buyer
exist in a market.
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in monopolistic competition is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss,
its AR curve is
Correct Answer: touching its ATC curve

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is always true of monopolists?
Correct Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: there are relatively few producers

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The best example of monopolistic competition in the United States is the steel
industry.
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve is associated with
Correct Answer: an oligopoly

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Monopsony is a market condition in which there is only one seller.
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or
an oligopoly.
Correct Answer: False
Question 13 0 out of 2 points
Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If all firms adhere to the conditions of perfect competition, short-run losses are
avoided.
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


As long as economic profits are being made, new firms will enter a perfectly
competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs at
the point where
Correct Answer: AR = MC

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The entry and exit of firms drive economic profits to zero in the long run in a
perfectly competitive industry.
Correct Answer: True
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, an individual producer
Correct Answer: operates where MR equals MC

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


If a firm is producing an output level for which the market price exceeds the firm’s
marginal cost,
Correct Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from
its best alternative use is the
Correct Answer: opportunity cost

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm’s productive
resources, the firm has
Correct Answer: constant returns to scale
Question 30 0 out of 2 points
If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


In the long run,
Correct Answer: all the firm’s resources are variable

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The production function relates outputs to inputs.
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Correct Answer: remains constant
Question 36 0 out of 2 points
The difference between the ATC and the AVC must represent the AFC.
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting
total output.
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget tends to have a neutral effect on the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, services rendered by the resource owners are compensated
through payments of wages, rent, interest, and profits.
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect
Question 47 0 out of 2 points
Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Correct Answer: expands

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in
consumption.
Correct Answer: True
Question 1 2 out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, average fixed cost
Selected Answer: falls as output increases
Correct Answer: falls as output increases

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond
the point where MR equals MC,
Selected Answer: profits increase
Correct Answer: profits diminish
Question 3 2 out of 2 points
Allocative efficiency requires that
Selected Answer: MC equals P
Correct Answer: MC equals P

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Selected Answer: new firms will enter the industry
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


On a graph of average cost curves, the space between ATC and AVC represents AFC.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, AR always equals MR.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


If a firm in perfect competition is suffering a loss, it should continue to operate in the
short run as long as
Selected Answer: AR exceeds AVC
Correct Answer: AR exceeds AVC

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, AR and MR
Selected Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if profits are being made,
Selected Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry
Correct Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


In perfect competition, if the market price is at the same level as the minimum point
of the firm’s average total cost curve, the best the firm can hope for is to break even.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


If MC equals MR at a point greater than ATC, the perfectly competitive firm will
Selected Answer: make an economic profit
Correct Answer: make an economic profit

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Wages paid are an example of an explicit cost of doing business.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Implicit cost is an opportunity cost of doing business.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


If the firm produces one more unit of output and total cost rises from $1,000 to
$1,050, marginal cost is
Selected Answer: $50
Correct Answer: $50

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


A graph of total fixed cost
Selected Answer: is a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: is a straight horizontal line

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned
elsewhere is
Selected Answer: an implicit cost
Correct Answer: an implicit cost

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


If a firm did not have any fixed costs at all, then the ATC curve would be
Selected Answer: the same as the AVC curve
Correct Answer: the same as the AVC curve
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
Total profit is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Average product falls any time
Selected Answer: marginal product is below it
Correct Answer: marginal product is below it

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Selected Answer: earn economic profits in the short run
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Average revenue (AR) is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue/output
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is
Selected Answer: both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
As units of input are added to the productive process, the marginal product
Selected Answer: decreases
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Planned investment may differ from actual investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Consider an economy that is operating at less than full employment. Suppose that
total resource income equals $400,000, of which $350,000 is used for consumption
spending and $50,000 is saved. If planned investment is $75,000, which of the
following is most likely to occur?
Selected Answer: prices will fall
Correct Answer: income will rise

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


A situation where exports exceed imports can cause total output to increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


During a period of unemployment, a deficit budget will most likely have which of the
following effects on business activity?
Selected Answer: increase total output
Correct Answer: increase total output
Question 29 0 out of 2 points
Unexpected inventory accumulations represents unplanned investment.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Selected Answer: total income minus consumption spending
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Selected Answer: total output and/or prices fall
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall
Question 34 0 out of 2 points
The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to the total value of
the output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


It is true that a stable economy occurs when
Selected Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow
Correct Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, nonprofit institutions are
Selected Answer: treated separately
Correct Answer: counted as businesses

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources
is to bid the resources away from other firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A cartel is
Selected Answer: a type of formal collusion
Correct Answer: a type of formal collusion
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
A monopoly
Selected Answer: has absolute control over price
Correct Answer: must lower price in order to sell more

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


In monopolistic competition, the number of firms
Selected Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others
Correct Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


In an oligopoly, following a rival’s decrease in price tends to eliminate the
Selected Answer: substitution effect
Correct Answer: substitution effect

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Selected Answer: average revenue curve
Correct Answer: average revenue curve

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


In monopolistic competition, there is no need for advertising.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 44 2 out of 2 points
Firms in monopolistic competition sell a similar but differentiated product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


When one firm lowers its price, its gain in sales at the expense of other firms is
known as
Selected Answer: the substitution effect
Correct Answer: the substitution effect

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


In conditions of monopolistic competition,
Selected Answer: there are only two producers
Correct Answer: there are many firms

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The maximum profit of a monopolist occurs
Selected Answer: where MR equals MC
Correct Answer: where MR equals MC

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The AR and MR curves of a monopoly are identical.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Selected Answer: a government-regulated public utility
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to the total value of
the output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following defines flows out of the circular flow that occur when
resource income is received and not spent directly on purchases from domestic firms?
Selected Answer: leakages
Correct Answer: leakages

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


Total output and the price level may decline simultaneously.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


If planned investment exceeds planned savings, the economy always expands.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, if government spending is greater than taxes, (while other
planned injections equal other planned leakages) then
Selected Answer: the size of the income flow will increase
Correct Answer: the size of the income flow will increase

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Consider an economy that is operating at less than full employment. Suppose that
total resource income equals $400,000, of which $350,000 is used for consumption
spending and $50,000 is saved. If planned investment is $75,000, which of the
following is most likely to occur?
Selected Answer: income will rise
Correct Answer: income will rise
Question 9 2 out of 2 points
Added expenditures in the circular flow that are not paid for out of domestic resource
income are known as
Selected Answer: injections
Correct Answer: injections

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources
is to bid the resources away from other firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Planned investment may differ from actual investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The production of goods and services generates income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 14 2 out of 2 points
In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm determines its profit-maximizing or
loss-minimizing output by
Selected Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost
Correct Answer: equating marginal revenue and marginal cost

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


In the long run, perfect competition results in firms producing
Selected Answer: at the minimum point of their long-run average cost curves,
which indicates economic efficiency
Correct Answer: at the minimum point of their long-run average cost curves, which
indicates economic efficiency

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a
Selected Answer: higher MR curve
Correct Answer: rising ATC curve

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if profits are being made,
Selected Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry
Correct Answer: new firms are attracted into the industry

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, average fixed cost
Selected Answer: falls as output increases
Correct Answer: falls as output increases

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


On a graph of average cost curves, the space between ATC and AVC represents AFC.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Selected Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Suppose that the development of a new, improved seed allows all corn farmers in the
United States to increase their yields per acre. Since the demand for corn is relatively
inelastic, the price of corn in a perfectly competitive market is likely to
Selected Answer: decrease, and farm revenues will fall
Correct Answer: decrease, and farm revenues will fall

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, firms offer roughly similar products for
sale.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
If the entry of new firms in a perfectly competitive industry substantially increases
the market demand for resources,
Selected Answer: this raises the market price of resources
Correct Answer: this raises the market price of resources

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In the short run, each perfectly competitive firm is free to
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: increase its volume of output up to its maximum existing capacity

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned
elsewhere is
Selected Answer: not a cost
Correct Answer: an implicit cost

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Normal profit is considered an opportunity cost of operating a business.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Selected Answer: marginal product
Correct Answer: marginal product
Question 29 2 out of 2 points
The principle that pulls down the average cost (ATC), and then, as output continues
to expand, pulls it up, is
Selected Answer: rising and then diminishing marginal returns
Correct Answer: rising and then diminishing marginal returns

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A firm’s break-even point occurs where
Selected Answer: total revenue equals total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue equals total cost

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


As output increases, marginal cost increases, reaches a maximum, and then falls.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Marginal cost crosses the
Selected Answer: ATC curve at the lowest point of the ATC curve
Correct Answer: ATC curve at the lowest point of the ATC curve

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Average revenue is synonymous with price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Average total cost is equal to total cost divided by marginal product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


As output increases, the AVC
Selected Answer: falls and then rises
Correct Answer: falls and then rises

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Average revenue (AR) is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue/output
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A four-firm concentration ratio indicates the number of firms in the industry.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Oligopolies always produce differentiated products.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 40 0 out of 2 points
If a firm in monopolistic competition is neither making a profit nor suffering a loss,
its AR curve is
Selected Answer: horizontal
Correct Answer: touching its ATC curve

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Possible barriers to entry of new firms into an industry
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Monopsonistic competition is a market in which there are only a few sellers but each
offers different conditions to sellers.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


The individual supply of a monopolist
Selected Answer: coincides with the market supply curve
Correct Answer: coincides with the market supply curve

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


The degree of control over its output price that any seller has is limited by
Selected Answer: the elasticity of the demand for the product
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 45 2 out of 2 points
The maximum profit of a monopolist occurs
Selected Answer: where MR equals MC
Correct Answer: where MR equals MC

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


Price stability is common in oligopolies.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a condition of monopolistic competition?
Selected Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output
Correct Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The AR and MR curves of a monopoly are identical.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following will cause a cartel to be unstable?
Selected Answer: sharply differentiated products
Correct Answer: sharply differentiated products

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


An administered price is a price
Selected Answer: established by a seller
Correct Answer: established by a seller

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Selected Answer: total output and/or prices fall
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources
is to bid the resources away from other firms.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, nonprofit institutions are
Selected Answer: counted as households
Correct Answer: counted as businesses

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: have a neutral effect
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Taxes are a leakage from the circular flow.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A situation where exports exceed imports can cause total output to increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


If the government finances its spending through taxes which absorb idle funds that
were not going to be spent by the private sector, a balanced budget can have an
expansionary effect.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, business owners receive
Selected Answer: profits
Correct Answer: profits

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If exports are less than imports (while other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: contracts
Correct Answer: contracts

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


If the federal government spends less than it receives from taxes,
Selected Answer: it has a surplus budget with leakages exceeding injections
Correct Answer: it has a surplus budget with leakages exceeding injections

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Accumulation and depletion of inventories affect the circular flow of income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


During a period of unemployment, a deficit budget will most likely have which of the
following effects on business activity?
Selected Answer: increase total output
Correct Answer: increase total output

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting
total output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


In conditions of monopolistic competition,
Selected Answer: there are many firms
Correct Answer: there are many firms

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the
Selected Answer: Sherman Antitrust Act
Correct Answer: Sherman Antitrust Act

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Possible barriers to entry of new firms into an industry
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Regarding U.S. antitrust activity, the rule of reason was expressed in the
Selected Answer: Standard Oil case
Correct Answer: Standard Oil case

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


Oligopolies always produce differentiated products.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Selected Answer: limit output and raise prices
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Oligopsony refers to a market in which there are a few buyers.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 21 2 out of 2 points
Each time the monopolist sells another unit of output, the total revenue increases by
Selected Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold
Correct Answer: less than the price of the last unit sold

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Selected Answer: AR is above ATC
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Under monopolistic competition, a firm’s marginal revenue curve is
Selected Answer: above the average revenue curve
Correct Answer: below the average revenue curve

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


A monopoly
Selected Answer: always has an elastic demand
Correct Answer: must lower price in order to sell more

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In an oligopoly, following a rival’s decrease in price tends to eliminate the
Selected Answer: multiplier effect
Correct Answer: substitution effect

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as
Selected Answer: predatory pricing
Correct Answer: predatory pricing

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Selected Answer: marginal product
Correct Answer: marginal product

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


When marginal product is less than average product,
Selected Answer: average product falls
Correct Answer: average product falls

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Total profit is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is equal to the price at
which a good is sold.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns is applicable only to the use of labor as
a productive resource.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Average revenue times total output equals total profit.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


On a cost/output graph, the average fixed cost is constructed as a straight horizontal
line.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Wages paid are an example of an explicit cost of doing business.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


If the AVC is $12, the AFC is $4, the AR is $20, and output is 6,000 units, the total
profit is
Selected Answer: $24,000
Correct Answer: $24,000

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The marginal product is the increase in output per additional unit of input.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


If economies of scale are present, a firm can enhance its profits by
Selected Answer: operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale
Correct Answer: operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The difference between the price firms would be willing to accept for their goods and
the price they actually receive is called
Selected Answer: producer surplus
Correct Answer: producer surplus

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, firms offer roughly similar products for
sale.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition assumes that all products are identical and that no advertising
exists.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Selected Answer: reduce supply
Correct Answer: reduce supply

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Any time market price is below AVC for all output levels, the firm can reduce its
losses by shutting down.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is correct when the perfectly competitive firm is producing its
long-run equilibrium output level?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 46 2 out of 2 points
The demand curve for the output of a perfectly competitive firm is
Selected Answer: perfectly elastic
Correct Answer: perfectly elastic

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Selected Answer: new firms will enter the industry
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Among the distinguishing characteristics of different types of markets are
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, the buyer will eventually be
able to buy the product at a
Selected Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation
Correct Answer: price equal to the lowest point on the ATC curve at the optimal
scale of operation

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss,
Selected Answer: AR is less than ATC
Correct Answer: AR is less than ATC

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, short-run equilibrium does not necessarily
exist where
Selected Answer: MR = MC
Correct Answer: MR = ATC

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, economic profits are
eventually eliminated.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


If the entry of new firms substantially raises demand for resources, two forces tend to
eliminate economic profit in the long run: upward pressure on cost and downward
pressure on price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


As more firms enter a monopolistic competitive industry, average revenue will fall
for exiting firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


For identical cost conditions, the long-run equilibrium price under any form of
imperfect competition is ___________ than the long-run equilibrium price in perfect
competition because of __________.
Selected Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect
competition
Correct Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
A major characteristic of a monopoly is the ability of the monopolist to influence
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Selected Answer: limit output and raise prices
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


A monopoly cannot suffer a loss.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Price stability is common in oligopolies.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Average total cost is equal to total cost divided by marginal product.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Selected Answer: $160,000
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is related inversely to the marginal product.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


At any given time,
Selected Answer: planned saving equals actual saving
Correct Answer: actual investment equals actual saving

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for
Selected Answer: prices to rise
Correct Answer: prices to rise

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Selected Answer: AR is above ATC
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a condition of monopolistic competition?
Selected Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output
Correct Answer: each firm charges the same price for its output
Question 3 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Selected Answer: a government-regulated public utility
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is
Selected Answer: below the AR line
Correct Answer: below the AR line

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


In monopolistic competition, overall demand and supply may set a market price, but
firms can deviate from that price within a small range without substantially affecting
their sales.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


The Clayton Act prohibits price discrimination.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Oligopoly is a market structure in which
Selected Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products
Correct Answer: all producers are selling identical or similar products
Question 8 2 out of 2 points
Market demand and the firm’s demand curve coincide in a monopoly.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


In an oligopoly, the pricing policy of each firm is independent of that of other firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The closer monopolistic competition gets to perfect competition,
Selected Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve
Correct Answer: the more horizontal the AR curve

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the
Selected Answer: Sherman Antitrust Act
Correct Answer: Sherman Antitrust Act

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Under oligopoly, collusive practices to fix prices are more likely to take place if
Selected Answer: market demand is highly elastic
Correct Answer: market demand is highly inelastic

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Opportunity cost and implicit cost are both explicit costs.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Total cost is equal to
Selected Answer: TFC + TVC
Correct Answer: TFC + TVC

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


As long as the marginal product is falling, the average product falls.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The marginal product is the increase in output per additional unit of input.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Selected Answer: interest rates
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Total profit is equal to
Selected Answer: total revenue minus total cost
Correct Answer: total revenue minus total cost

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The vertical distance between the total cost curve and the total variable cost curve
reflects
Selected Answer: total fixed cost
Correct Answer: total fixed cost

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is the change in total cost that results from producing one less or one
more unit of output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is equal to the price at
which a good is sold.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
Those costs implied by alternatives given up are
Selected Answer: implicit or opportunity costs
Correct Answer: implicit or opportunity costs

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The marginal cost curve crosses the average total cost curve at the
Selected Answer: lowest level of average total cost
Correct Answer: lowest level of average total cost

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


A prime example of perfect competition is the U.S. auto industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Selected Answer: market price does not change
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, market forces come into
play to
Selected Answer: increase demand
Correct Answer: eliminate profits
Question 29 2 out of 2 points
Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a
Selected Answer: rising ATC curve
Correct Answer: rising ATC curve

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Consumer surplus occurs whenever the consumer pays a price
Selected Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay
Correct Answer: less than the consumer is willing to pay

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Selected Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Consumer surplus is the area above the demand curve and below the equilibrium
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 34 0 out of 2 points
Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level, and
MC equals AVC at the $8 level. If the market price is $7,
Selected Answer: the firm will suffer an economic loss but should operate in the
short run
Correct Answer: the firm should shut down in the short run

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition assumes that all products are identical and that no advertising
exists.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


On a graph of average cost curves, the space between ATC and AVC represents AFC.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, if government spending is greater than taxes, (while other
planned injections equal other planned leakages) then
Selected Answer: the size of the income flow will increase
Correct Answer: the size of the income flow will increase
Question 39 2 out of 2 points
Planned investment may differ from actual investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


An example of unplanned investment is
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources
is to bid the resources away from other firms.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The circular flow can be affected by changes in
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is less
than planned saving
Selected Answer: total output and/or prices fall
Correct Answer: total output and/or prices fall
Question 44 2 out of 2 points
A surplus budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the circular
flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: decrease total output and/or prices
Correct Answer: decrease total output and/or prices

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to
Selected Answer: the total value or cost of the output
Correct Answer: the total value or cost of the output

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Inventory accumulation occurs whenever
Selected Answer: output exceeds spending
Correct Answer: output exceeds spending

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


A surplus federal budget always results in a decrease in total output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


If exports are less than imports (while other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: contracts
Correct Answer: contracts

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


If the selling price of a product is $10, the average total cost is $8, and total sales are
5,000 units, the total profit will be
Selected Answer: $20,000
Correct Answer: $10,000

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is
Selected Answer: equal to average revenue
Correct Answer: equal to average revenue
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Score 86 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, short-run equilibrium does not necessarily
exist where
Selected Answer: MR = MC
Correct Answer: MR = ATC
Question 2 0 out of 2 points
In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, economic profits are
eventually eliminated.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a
Selected Answer: rising ATC curve
Correct Answer: rising ATC curve

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


A high degree of competition is not always feasible in the production of
Selected Answer: public utilities
Correct Answer: public utilities

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The more that firms advertise, the closer they get to perfect competition.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run
Selected Answer: new firms will enter the industry
Correct Answer: new firms will enter the industry

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The lowest possible ATC curve is attained at the optimal scale of output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, AR and MR
Selected Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: are represented by a straight horizontal line

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Diseconomies of scale occur
Selected Answer: after the optimal scale is reached
Correct Answer: after the optimal scale is reached

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


If the entry of new firms substantially raises demand for resources, two forces tend to
eliminate economic profit in the long run: upward pressure on cost and downward
pressure on price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, maximum profit or minimum loss occurs at
the point where
Selected Answer: AR = MC
Correct Answer: AR = MC

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Forces that cause long-run average cost to fall as output expands are known as
Selected Answer: economies of scale
Correct Answer: economies of scale

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition always provides a lower price than monopolistic competition or
an oligopoly.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Public utilities are often called natural monopolies.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


A four-firm concentration ratio indicates the number of firms in the industry.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is
Selected Answer: below the AR line
Correct Answer: below the AR line

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


A monopoly
Selected Answer: must lower price in order to sell more
Correct Answer: must lower price in order to sell more

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Predatory pricing involves charging different customers different prices for the same
good.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Oligopsony refers to a market in which there are a few buyers.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


As more firms enter a monopolistic competitive industry, average revenue will fall
for exiting firms.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


For identical cost conditions, the long-run equilibrium price under any form of
imperfect competition is ___________ than the long-run equilibrium price in perfect
competition because of __________.
Selected Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect
competition
Correct Answer: higher; less than perfectly elastic demand in imperfect competition

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A major characteristic of a monopoly is the ability of the monopolist to influence
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


A firm that is a price maker can
Selected Answer: limit output and raise prices
Correct Answer: limit output and raise prices

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


A monopoly cannot suffer a loss.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Price stability is common in oligopolies.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Average total cost is equal to total cost divided by marginal product.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Selected Answer: $160,000
Correct Answer: $160,000

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Marginal cost is related inversely to the marginal product.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


For the principle of diminishing marginal returns to hold,
Selected Answer: only one resource should vary
Correct Answer: only one resource should vary

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


The principle that pulls down the average cost (ATC), and then, as output continues
to expand, pulls it up, is
Selected Answer: rising and then diminishing marginal returns
Correct Answer: rising and then diminishing marginal returns

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


As output increases, the AVC
Selected Answer: falls and then rises
Correct Answer: falls and then rises

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Implicit cost is an opportunity cost of doing business.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 33 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following is the best example of variable cost?
Selected Answer: wages
Correct Answer: wages

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


At the point of maximum profit, marginal revenue equals
Selected Answer: marginal cost
Correct Answer: marginal cost

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using
Selected Answer: interest rates
Correct Answer: interest rates

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Those costs implied by alternatives given up are
Selected Answer: implicit or opportunity costs
Correct Answer: implicit or opportunity costs

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The principle of diminishing marginal returns says that as more and more units of a
variable resource are added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to
output will become increasingly smaller and, eventually, larger.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 38 2 out of 2 points
An example of unplanned investment is
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


At any given time,
Selected Answer: planned saving equals actual saving
Correct Answer: actual investment equals actual saving

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for
Selected Answer: prices to rise
Correct Answer: prices to rise

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in
consumption.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 43 2 out of 2 points
Accumulation and depletion of inventories affect the circular flow of income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: have a neutral effect
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


A deficit federal budget always raises prices.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to
planned saving,
Selected Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable
Correct Answer: prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to the total value of
the output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 48 2 out of 2 points
It is true that a stable economy occurs when
Selected Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow
Correct Answer: total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources
is to bid the resources away from other firms.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Selected Answer: if the economy is at full employment, then prices will rise
Correct Answer: all of the above

User Kin Yip Suen


Submitted 11/5/10 12:00 AM
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Score 84 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The major characteristic of a monopoly is
Selected Answer: its price elasticity of demand
Correct Answer: the degree of control over price it can exercise

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


When one firm lowers its price, its gain in sales at the expense of other firms is
known as
Selected Answer: the substitution effect
Correct Answer: the substitution effect

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


If faced with the same cost conditions as a perfectly competitive firm, a monopoly
will
Selected Answer: charge the same price as the perfectly competitive firm
Correct Answer: charge a higher price than the perfectly competitive firm

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is
Selected Answer: below the AR line
Correct Answer: below the AR line

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


A major characteristic of a monopoly is the ability of the monopolist to influence
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


A firm is making a profit under conditions of monopolistic competition if, at the
equilibrium output,
Selected Answer: AR is above ATC
Correct Answer: AR is above ATC

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


U.S. patents grant a lifetime monopoly on an invention.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The Clayton Act brought labor unions under the jurisdiction of the antitrust laws.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


One reason firms in monopolistic competition can charge different prices is that their
products are
Selected Answer: differentiated
Correct Answer: differentiated

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The Herfindahl Index is calculated by summing the squares of the market shares of
each firm in the industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


In monopolistic competition, the number of firms
Selected Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others
Correct Answer: is so large that the actions of any one firm have little effect on the
others

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is always true of monopolists?
Selected Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost
Correct Answer: they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Selected Answer: reduce supply
Correct Answer: reduce supply

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


If a firm cannot make a profit under conditions of perfect competition, it should shut
down as soon as possible.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If a firm is producing an output level for which the market price exceeds the firm’s
marginal cost,
Selected Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit
Correct Answer: consumers would be willing to pay a price greater than what it
costs the firm to produce another unit

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If a perfectly competitive firm is producing an output level for which MR equals $5,
MC equals $6, and ATC equals $4, the firm
Selected Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output
Correct Answer: is earning a profit but should reduce output

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The long-run average cost curve indicates
Selected Answer: the lowest average costs of production at each level of output
Correct Answer: the lowest average costs of production at each level of output

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level. If
the market price is $10,
Selected Answer: the best the firm can do is to break even
Correct Answer: the best the firm can do is to break even
Question 21 2 out of 2 points
If a firm in a perfectly competitive industry is producing at a point where TR equals
TC and the market demand increases, then the firm will be making
Selected Answer: economic profits; it will expand output
Correct Answer: economic profits; it will expand output

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Among the distinguishing characteristics of different types of markets are
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Selected Answer: market price does not change
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if MR is below ATC at equilibrium output,
the firm is suffering a loss.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Selected Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Question 26 2 out of 2 points
The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


A deficit federal budget always raises prices.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Whenever planned injections exceed planned leakages, total spending is less than
total output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A surplus federal budget always results in a decrease in total output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


If exports exceed imports during a period of full employment (while other planned
injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: experiences rising prices
Correct Answer: experiences rising prices

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Spending on capital goods is referred to as investment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


A nation that imports more than it exports has a surplus balance of trade.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, business owners receive
Selected Answer: profits
Correct Answer: profits

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


If the government finances its spending through taxes which absorb idle funds that
were not going to be spent by the private sector, a balanced budget can have an
expansionary effect.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while
other planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following defines flows out of the circular flow that occur when
resource income is received and not spent directly on purchases from domestic firms?
Selected Answer: leakages
Correct Answer: leakages

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Marginal product can never fall below zero.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The addition to total output resulting from using one more unit of a productive
resource is the
Selected Answer: marginal input
Correct Answer: marginal product
Question 41 2 out of 2 points
Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is equal to the price at
which a good is sold.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


In a mature industry, all firms operate with constant returns to scale.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


As units of input are added to the productive process, the average product
Selected Answer: rises and then declines
Correct Answer: rises and then declines

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Total fixed cost is frequently referred to as
Selected Answer: overhead
Correct Answer: overhead

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


If a firm did not have any fixed costs at all, then the ATC curve would be
Selected Answer: the same as the AVC curve
Correct Answer: the same as the AVC curve

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


As output increases, total fixed cost
Selected Answer: remains constant
Correct Answer: remains constant

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


A graph of total fixed cost
Selected Answer: is a straight horizontal line
Correct Answer: is a straight horizontal line

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


A production function is
Selected Answer: an important factor in determining the shape of the long-run
supply curve
Correct Answer: the relationship between a combination of inputs and a quantity of
output

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


If a small plant is more efficient than either a medium-sized or a large plant, the
situation must be one of
Selected Answer: decreasing returns to scale
Correct Answer: decreasing returns to scale

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Those costs implied by alternatives given up are
Selected Answer: implicit or opportunity costs
Correct Answer: implicit or opportunity costs

User Ho Ming Chan


Submitted 3/4/11 2:03 AM
Name Exam 2
Status Completed
Score 92 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if MR is below ATC at equilibrium output,
the firm is suffering a loss.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond
the point where MR equals MC,
Selected Answer: profits diminish
Correct Answer: profits diminish

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Perfect competition does not assume that
Selected Answer: all firms operate at the same cost
Correct Answer: all firms operate at the same cost

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, AR always equals MR.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Perfectly competitive firms are price takers.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, no individual seller or buyer can influence
price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,
Selected Answer: market price does not change
Correct Answer: market price does not change

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not assumed in perfect competition?
Selected Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run
Correct Answer: all firms are equally efficient in the short run

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to
Selected Answer: reduce supply
Correct Answer: reduce supply

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, a firm should
Selected Answer: expand output
Correct Answer: expand output

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Under perfect competition in the short run, profits among firms can differ if some
firms use their resources more efficiently.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Under conditions of perfect competition, average fixed cost
Selected Answer: falls as output increases
Correct Answer: falls as output increases

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


One company that retained its monopoly position for years through control of raw
materials was
Selected Answer: Aluminum Company of America (ALCOA)
Correct Answer: Aluminum Company of America (ALCOA)

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The demand for the product of a monopolist is perfectly inelastic.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
Firms in monopolistic competition sell a similar but differentiated product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?
Selected Answer: a government-regulated public utility
Correct Answer: a government-regulated public utility

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


In a purely competitive market, the Herfindahl Index would have a value approaching
Selected Answer: infinity
Correct Answer: 0

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Public utilities are often referred to as
Selected Answer: natural monopolies
Correct Answer: natural monopolies

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


A market structure in which only one seller of a product exists is known as
Selected Answer: a monopoly
Correct Answer: a monopoly
Question 21 2 out of 2 points
The Herfindahl Index is calculated by summing the squares of the market shares of
each firm in the industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Requiring the buyer of one good to purchase another good as well is termed
Selected Answer: tying contracts
Correct Answer: tying contracts

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


All firms in monopolistic competition must sell at the same price.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The AR and MR curves of a monopoly are identical.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The major characteristic of a monopoly is
Selected Answer: the degree of control over price it can exercise
Correct Answer: the degree of control over price it can exercise

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


A situation where exports exceed imports can cause total output to increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


A balanced budget will tend to have which one of the following effects on the
circular flow of business activity?
Selected Answer: have a neutral effect
Correct Answer: have a neutral effect

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a type of leakage from the circular flow of income?
Selected Answer: investment
Correct Answer: investment

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A stable economy results whenever planned injections equals planned leakages.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, savings specifically represents
Selected Answer: total income minus consumption spending
Correct Answer: total income minus consumption spending

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to
Selected Answer: the total value or cost of the output
Correct Answer: the total value or cost of the output

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The production of goods and services generates income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Whenever exports exceed imports (and other planned injections equal other planned
leakages), the economy
Selected Answer: expands
Correct Answer: expands

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


A surplus federal budget always results in a decrease in total output.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


To have an increase in investment, consumption must decrease.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a
tendency for
Selected Answer: employment to increase
Correct Answer: employment to increase

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect of a high government budget deficit can be offset by the
contractionary effect of a surplus in the nation’s balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


At the point of maximum profit, marginal revenue equals
Selected Answer: marginal cost
Correct Answer: marginal cost

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Average product falls any time
Selected Answer: marginal product is below it
Correct Answer: marginal product is below it

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


If the accounting profit equals $200,000 and implicit costs equal $40,000, the
economic profit equals
Selected Answer: $160,000
Correct Answer: $160,000
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
When marginal product is less than average product,
Selected Answer: average product falls
Correct Answer: average product falls

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is
Selected Answer: equal to average revenue
Correct Answer: equal to average revenue

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The major factor accounting for diseconomies of scale is management inefficiency.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Unlike a firm in pure competition, a monopolist may be able to
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The marginal product is the increase in output per additional unit of input.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 47 2 out of 2 points
As long as the marginal product is falling, the average product falls.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Those costs implied by alternatives given up are
Selected Answer: implicit or opportunity costs
Correct Answer: implicit or opportunity costs

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


The break-even point on a break-even chart is equivalent to the point where MR =
MC on a cost/output graph.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


As output increases, average fixed cost
Selected Answer: decreases
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The industry most closely associated with perfect competition is
Selected Answer: mining
Correct Answer: farming

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Whenever marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost
Selected Answer: losses increase if output increases
Correct Answer: profit increases if output increases

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


A kinked demand curve
Selected Answer: is a basic characteristic of monopolistic competition markets
Correct Answer: tends to be inelastic for price decreases and elastic for price
increases

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


An increase in planned savings, all else held constant, will always result in
Selected Answer: an increase in planned investment spending
Correct Answer: a slowdown in the circular flow of income

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 2

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Review Assessment: Exam 2

User Yuen Ling Carol Lam

Submitted 1/12/14 12:17 PM

Name Exam 2

Status Completed

Score 98 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct Unexpected inventory accumulations represents unplanned investment.

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Correct A decrease in investment can cause a decrease in the price level without affecting total
output.

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following defines flows out of the circular flow that occur when resource
income is received and not spent directly on purchases from domestic firms?

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct leakages

Correct Answer: Correct leakages

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not a type of leakage from the circular flow of income?

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct investment

Correct Answer: Correct investment

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the simple circular flow of income, whenever planned investment is equal to planned
saving,

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct prices and total output tend to be stable

Correct Answer: Correct prices and total output tend to be stable

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The level of employment or unemployment helps determine whether or not price
increases will result from an increase in spending.

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct If inventories are accumulating, income must be greater than spending.

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct It is true that a stable economy occurs when

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to
total planned injections into the circular flow

Correct Answer: Correct total planned leakages from the circular flow are exactly equal to total
planned injections into the circular flow

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation that imports more than it exports has a surplus balance of trade.
Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the circular flow, business owners receive

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct profits

Correct Answer: Correct profits

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the economy is at less than full employment and exports exceed imports (while other
planned injections equal other planned leakages), the economy

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct expands

Correct Answer: Correct expands

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the circular flow, investment refers to spending on

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct capital goods

Correct Answer: Correct capital goods

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct The major characteristic of a monopoly is

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the degree of control over price it can exercise
Correct Answer: Correct the degree of control over price it can exercise

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct The maximum profit of a monopolist occurs

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct where MR equals MC

Correct Answer: Correct where MR equals MC

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct An administered price is a price

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct established by a seller

Correct Answer: Correct established by a seller

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct In conditions of monopolistic competition,

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct there are many firms

Correct Answer: Correct there are many firms

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct A kinked demand curve is associated with

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct an oligopoly

Correct Answer: Correct an oligopoly

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct The demand curve for a monopolist’s product is also the monopolist’s
Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct average revenue curve

Correct Answer: Correct average revenue curve

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is always true of monopolists?

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Correct Answer: Correct they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Question 21 text Question 21 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The demand curve for the output of an individual firm in monopolistic competition is

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect perfectly elastic

Correct Answer: Correct more elastic than the market demand curve

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct A kinked demand curve results when one firm’s price changes are followed
downward but not upward by competing firms.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is the best example of a monopoly in the United States?

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a government-regulated public utility


Correct Answer: Correct a government-regulated public utility

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Federal Trade Commission

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct polices deceptive advertising

Correct Answer: Correct polices deceptive advertising

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct All firms in monopolistic competition must sell at the same price.

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct The first act to declare monopolies illegal in the United States was the

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Sherman Antitrust Act

Correct Answer: Correct Sherman Antitrust Act

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct In perfect competition, no individual producer can influence price because

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct each contributes an insignificant amount to total supply

Correct Answer: Correct each contributes an insignificant amount to total supply

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, average fixed cost


Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct falls as output increases

Correct Answer: Correct falls as output increases

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct The output level that yields maximum profit under perfect competition is where MR
equals MC.

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct Perfectly competitive firms are price takers.

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in market demand for a product can raise the MR for a firm in perfect
competition.

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if a profitable firm pushes its output beyond
the point where MR equals MC,

Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct profits diminish

Correct Answer: Correct profits diminish

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, no individual seller or buyer can influence
price.

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct reduce supply

Correct Answer: Correct reduce supply

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, a firm should

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct expand output

Correct Answer: Correct expand output

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if any one producer increases output,

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct market price does not change

Correct Answer: Correct market price does not change


Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, profits can get squeezed out because of a

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct rising ATC curve

Correct Answer: Correct rising ATC curve

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct The increase in total revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output
is known as

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct marginal revenue

Correct Answer: Correct marginal revenue

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct An example of an implicit cost is

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct forgone interest when investing one’s savings in one’s own
business

Correct Answer: Correct forgone interest when investing one’s savings in one’s own business

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Correct Total profit is equal to

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total revenue minus total cost

Correct Answer: Correct total revenue minus total cost

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct When marginal product is less than average product,

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct average product falls

Correct Answer: Correct average product falls

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct Average total cost is equal to total cost divided by marginal product.

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct The break-even point on a break-even chart is equivalent to the point where MR = MC
on a cost/output graph.

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct Marginal cost can be determined best by observing changes in

Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Correct total variable cost

Correct Answer: Correct total variable cost

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct Those costs implied by alternatives given up are

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct implicit or opportunity costs

Correct Answer: Correct implicit or opportunity costs

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct Marginal cost is

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (c)

Correct Answer: Correct both (a) and (c)

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct The opportunity cost of using one’s own savings in operating a business can be
determined by using

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct interest rates

Correct Answer: Correct interest rates

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct Whenever marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost,

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct profit increases if output increases

Correct Answer: Correct profit increases if output increases


Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct Total fixed cost is frequently referred to as

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct overhead

Correct Answer: Correct overhead

OK

ECON 125 Exam 3

Question: Q3. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?

Correct Answer: d. consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports

Given Answer: a. consumption, investment, government purchases, and transfer payments

Question: Q10. If nominal GDP is reported at $10,000 billion and the GDP implicit price deflator
is 150, the GDP in constant dollars is

Correct Answer: a. $6,667 billion

Given Answer: c. $5,650 billion

Question: Q16. According to the equation of exchange, if total output is 2,000 units, the velocity
of money is 5, and the money supply is $1,000, the average price per transaction will be

Correct Answer: b. $2.50

Given Answer: d. $7.50

Question: Q19. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset
by a change in velocity.
Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q28. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q31. It is possible for the economy to still experience an increase in the money supply
when the Fed increases the reserve requirement.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q35. If the Federal Reserve System wanted to tighten the money supply, the most
powerful combination of actions would be to

Correct Answer: d. raise reserve requirement, raise the discount rate, and sell government
securities

Given Answer: c. lower reserve requirements, raise the discount rate, and buy government
securities

Question: Q36. The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the

Correct Answer: c. discount rate

Given Answer: a. prime rate


Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >
EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 3

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Review Assessment: Exam 3

User Wai Hung Poon

Submitted 11/29/12 9:36 PM

Name Exam 3

Status Completed

Score 80 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct A lower price level causes

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (c)

Correct Answer: Correct both (a) and (c)

Question 2 text Question 2 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect In the simple Keynesian model, if aggregate expenditures exceed current output,
inventories will ________ and businesses will ___________ output.

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect decrease; decrease

Correct Answer: Correct decrease; increase


Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to the Keynesian analysis, as income increases, the marginal propensity to
consume will rise.

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct Along the composite aggregate supply curve,

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct may be either positive or negative

Correct Answer: Correct may be either positive or negative

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct Higher prices reduce the purchasing power of financial assets owned by households.

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True


Correct Answer: True

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The consumption function shows the relationship between the income received by the
economy’s households and the

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output

Correct Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct The aggregate demand curve is the sum of individual demand curves in the economy.

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 9 text Question 9 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The monetarist school is more similar to the Keynesian school than the classical school.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the aggregate supply curve is horizontal,

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of
income.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct agriculture

Correct Answer: Correct agriculture


Question 14 text Question 14 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Checkable deposits are counted as part of the U.S. money supply.

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect A transfer of money from a NOW account to a money market fund causes

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer: Correct M1 to fall

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1 by the CPI.

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct Savings deposits are not counted as part of the M1 measure of the U.S. money supply.

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct The U.S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks and
checkable deposits is referred to as

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct M1

Correct Answer: Correct M1

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct COLA is a form of indexation.

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct The amount of money a bank can lend

Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Correct Answer: Correct is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct A decrease in the level of required reserves will decrease a bank’s ability to extend
loans.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct The bulk of the M1 money supply is made up of

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct checkable deposits

Correct Answer: Correct checkable deposits

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Correct The formula for finding a price index for a fixed basket of goods in the current year is

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year

Correct Answer: Correct price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct Assume total reserves are $1 million, checkable deposits are $5 million, and the reserve
requirement is 10 percent. What are the excess reserves?

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct $500,000

Correct Answer: Correct $500,000

Question 27 text Question 27 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect moral suasion

Correct Answer: Correct open-market operations

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct The functions carried out by the Federal Reserve Banks include

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above


Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Federal Reserve System was established by the National Banking Act of 1864.

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct The discount rate is

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct set by the Federal Reserve Bank

Correct Answer: Correct set by the Federal Reserve Bank

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct discount rate

Correct Answer: Correct discount rate

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System is

Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct independent within the U.S. government

Correct Answer: Correct independent within the U.S. government

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Financial Services Modernization Act

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies

Correct Answer: Correct eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance
companies

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct 7 members

Correct Answer: Correct 7 members

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct The First Bank of the United States was chartered by

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the federal government

Correct Answer: Correct the federal government

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct Cash transactions account for about 20 percent of the value of transactions.

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Federal Reserve currently exercises credit control over

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct stock market purchases

Correct Answer: Correct stock market purchases

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct Constant-dollar GDP can be converted into current-dollar GDP by multiplying the real
GDP by the implicit price deflators

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct The GDP excludes the production of services for which no monetary transaction takes
place.

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct National income is equivalent to total earnings in the form of wages, rent, interest, and
profits.

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following represents a transfer payment?

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a Social Security benefit payment

Correct Answer: Correct a Social Security benefit payment

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct Purchasing power parity shows how many units of currency are needed in one country

Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country

Correct Answer: Correct to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country

Question 44 text Question 44 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect A transfer payment is a payment of money in return for which no current goods or
services are produced.

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Correct Answer: Correct a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 46 text Question 46 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The existence of undistributed corporate profits tends to cause

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect personal income to be larger than disposable personal income

Correct Answer: Correct national income to be larger than personal income


Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct The GDP counts durable goods only during their year of production.

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 text Question 48 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Net national product is equal to

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect GNP plus corporate profits

Correct Answer: Correct GNP minus capital consumption allowances

Question 49 text Question 49 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5 percent,
then

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect nominal GDP did not change

Correct Answer: Correct real GDP per capital did not change

Question 50 text Question 50 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Disposable personal income is equal to

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect NI plus personal taxes


Correct Answer: Correct PI minus personal taxes

OK

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Funds that earn a fixed rate of interest and must be held for a stipulated period of
time are known as
Correct Answer: time deposits

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Assume the following: M = $500; V = 10; and P = $10. If the money supply then
increases by 50 percent while total transactions triple, the new value of the price level
will be:
Correct Answer: $5

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The multiple expansion of the money supply is made possible because money
withdrawn from one bank finds its way into other banks.
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in reserve requirements immediately increases the money supply.
Correct Answer: False
Question 6 0 out of 2 points
Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio
is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
Correct Answer: $50,000

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


If a bank has legal reserves of $1 million, a reserve requirement of 10 percent, and
checkable deposits of $6 million, it can extend its checkable deposits by
Correct Answer: $4 million

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The ease with which an asset can be converted into the medium of exchange is called
Correct Answer: liquidity
Question 12 0 out of 2 points
The Treasury issues all paper currency today.
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The GDP in the United States is reported quarterly in terms of
Correct Answer: annual rates

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Correct Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following constitutes the largest component of NI in the United States?
Correct Answer: compensation of employees
Question 18 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Disposable personal income is equal to
Correct Answer: PI minus personal taxes

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The total earnings arising from the production of the GDP is known as
Correct Answer: national income

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Gross domestic product measures the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country by
Correct Answer: both domestic and foreign resources

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following four
major sectors?
Correct Answer: consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports
Question 24 0 out of 2 points
The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If the MPC is five-sixths, the size of the multiplier is 6.
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The condition required for equilibrium to exist according to Keynesian analysis is
that
Correct Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian consumption function, if disposable income
Correct Answer: increases, both planned saving and planned consumption will
increase

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a self-regulating market would
Correct Answer: eliminate shortages or surpluses through price changes

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Correct Answer: True
Question 30 0 out of 2 points
Along the composite aggregate supply curve,
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is in equilibrium and suddenly the level of planned investment
increases by $2 billion, national income will increase by
Correct Answer: more than $2 billion because of MPC

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is an example of supply-side economics?
Correct Answer: reducing marginal income tax rates

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Factors that help determine the level of planned investment include
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


As the economy expands, it requires less and less investment.
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Classical economists believed that
Correct Answer: the economy naturally tended toward full employment
Question 36 0 out of 2 points
Critics of supply-side economics claim that it
Correct Answer: increases federal debt

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


If the Fed sells securities on the open market, this will
Correct Answer: decrease banks’ excess reserves

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Reserve requirements on nonpersonal time deposits cannot exceed 9 percent.
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Correct Answer: personal checks
Question 42 0 out of 2 points
All members of the Board of Governors are members of the Fed’s Open Market
Committee.
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
Correct Answer: Treasury bills

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Correct Answer: 1913

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal
Reserve System.
Correct Answer: False
Question 48 0 out of 2 points
The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 did not
Correct Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Each Federal Reserve Bank can issue Federal Reserve notes.
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Correct Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act
Selected Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies
Correct Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Selected Answer: lower the discount rate
Correct Answer: sell securities in the open market

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


In setting reserve requirements, the Fed divides deposits into which of the following
two broad categories?
Selected Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts
Correct Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The official term of office of the chairman of the Fed is
Selected Answer: 4 years
Correct Answer: 4 years

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System are
appointed by the U. S. President.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


According to monetarists, the money supply ought to be changed
Selected Answer: at the discretion of the President
Correct Answer: at a constant annual rate, regardless of economic conditions

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount
window.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 is likely to result in fewer
financial institutions.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


A major weakness of the National Banking System was the perverse elasticity of the
money supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to
member banks’ reserves.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The First Bank of the United States was chartered by
Selected Answer: the federal government
Correct Answer: the federal government

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the
largest share?
Selected Answer: credit cards
Correct Answer: cash

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are made within legal limits by
Selected Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If M equals $40, V equals 16, and Q equals 16, then P equals $40.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The transactions approach to the equation of exchange can be expressed as MV = PQ.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of goods and services is included in the CPI?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


COLA clauses are usually based on the
Selected Answer: CPI
Correct Answer: CPI

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


When a person takes cash to the bank and deposits it in a checking account,
Selected Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Correct Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural
industries have
Selected Answer: increased about 40 percent
Correct Answer: increased slightly

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply is more likely to be inflationary when
Selected Answer: the economy is at full employment
Correct Answer: the economy is at full employment

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Money is defined as
Selected Answer: anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods
and services
Correct Answer: anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods
and services

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


The current base year for the CPI is 1985.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


The CPI does not necessarily make adjustments for improvement in the quality of
goods and services in the market basket.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


If a worker’s nominal wage moves from $180 per week in a base period to $300 per
week subsequently, but the real wage rises to only $240, we can conclude that
Selected Answer: the price level has increased by 25 percent
Correct Answer: the price level has increased by 25 percent

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


A formula for determining how much a bank can extend loans through the creation of
checkable deposits is
Selected Answer: excess reserves + the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: excess reserves/the reserve requirement

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The classical economists held that the rate of interest would equate planned
investment and planned saving, so that all saving would eventually be invested.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The value of the marginal propensity to consume
Selected Answer: is always between 0 and 1
Correct Answer: is always between 0 and 1

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure in the U.S. economy includes spending for U.S. output by
Selected Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign
Correct Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Classical economists believed that
Selected Answer: the economy naturally tended toward full employment
Correct Answer: the economy naturally tended toward full employment

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The Keynesian AS curve is
Selected Answer: upward sloping
Correct Answer: flat because of unemployed resources

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following explains the downward slope of the aggregate demand curve?
Selected Answer: higher prices reduce the household’s real wealth
Correct Answer: higher prices reduce the household’s real wealth

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


According to the classical economists, unemployment was a temporary deviation
from equilibrium, and certain forces in the economy would return it to full
employment. Such forces did not include
Selected Answer: discretionary government spending
Correct Answer: discretionary government spending

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-
thirds, total output will increase by
Selected Answer: $45 billion
Correct Answer: $90 billion

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, the economy will be in equilibrium when
Selected Answer: the government’s budget is balanced
Correct Answer: planned leakages equal planned injections

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


If the MPC is five-sixths, the size of the multiplier is 6.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The slope of the consumption function equals the
Selected Answer: marginal propensity to consume
Correct Answer: marginal propensity to consume

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


If household incomes go up and almost all the increases are spent on consumer
goods,
Selected Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high
Correct Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The aggregate supply curve is
Selected Answer: a curve showing the quantities of total output that will be offered
for sale at various price levels
Correct Answer: a curve showing the quantities of total output that will be offered
for sale at various price levels

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


To reduce personal income to disposable personal income,
Selected Answer: personal taxes are deducted
Correct Answer: personal taxes are deducted

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we could
conclude that
Selected Answer: the general price level fell during the year
Correct Answer: the general price level fell during the year

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Because of the value of things produced in households,
Selected Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output
Correct Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Excluding criminal activities, the underground economy in the United States is
equivalent in value to approximately what percentage of the GDP?
Selected Answer: 10 to 15 percent
Correct Answer: 10 to 15 percent

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Selected Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In national income accounting, machine depreciation is treated as a cost of
production, but damage to a region’s air quality is not.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, leisure is a significant element in developing an accurate
measure of
Selected Answer: the standard of living
Correct Answer: the standard of living

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Selected Answer: real GDP per capital did not change
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is
considered a(n)
Selected Answer: intermediate good
Correct Answer: intermediate good
Question 48 2 out of 2 points
The GDP implicit price deflators take into account price changes, as well as some
changes in the quality of various products.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The GDP does not include raw materials used up in the productive process.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The best measure of a change in the standard of living is the change in
Selected Answer: real per capita disposable income
Correct Answer: real per capita disposable income

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Funds that earn a fixed rate of interest and must be held for a stipulated period of
time are known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: time deposits

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Assume the following: M = $500; V = 10; and P = $10. If the money supply then
increases by 50 percent while total transactions triple, the new value of the price level
will be:
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $5

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The multiple expansion of the money supply is made possible because money
withdrawn from one bank finds its way into other banks.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in reserve requirements immediately increases the money supply.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio
is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $50,000

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


If a bank has legal reserves of $1 million, a reserve requirement of 10 percent, and
checkable deposits of $6 million, it can extend its checkable deposits by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $4 million

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The ease with which an asset can be converted into the medium of exchange is called
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: liquidity

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


The Treasury issues all paper currency today.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The GDP in the United States is reported quarterly in terms of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: annual rates

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following constitutes the largest component of NI in the United States?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: compensation of employees

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
Disposable personal income is equal to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: PI minus personal taxes

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The total earnings arising from the production of the GDP is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: national income

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Gross domestic product measures the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: both domestic and foreign resources

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following four
major sectors?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports
Question 24 0 out of 2 points
The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If the MPC is five-sixths, the size of the multiplier is 6.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The condition required for equilibrium to exist according to Keynesian analysis is
that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian consumption function, if disposable income
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increases, both planned saving and planned consumption will
increase

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a self-regulating market would
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: eliminate shortages or surpluses through price changes
Question 29 0 out of 2 points
According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Along the composite aggregate supply curve,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


If the economy is in equilibrium and suddenly the level of planned investment
increases by $2 billion, national income will increase by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: more than $2 billion because of MPC

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is an example of supply-side economics?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: reducing marginal income tax rates

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Factors that help determine the level of planned investment include
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 34 0 out of 2 points
As the economy expands, it requires less and less investment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Classical economists believed that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the economy naturally tended toward full employment

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


Critics of supply-side economics claim that it
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: increases federal debt

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


If the Fed sells securities on the open market, this will
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: decrease banks’ excess reserves

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Reserve requirements on nonpersonal time deposits cannot exceed 9 percent.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: personal checks

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


All members of the Board of Governors are members of the Fed’s Open Market
Committee.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Treasury bills

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 1913

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal
Reserve System.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 did not
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Each Federal Reserve Bank can issue Federal Reserve notes.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 50 0 out of 2 points
One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


According to the equation of exchange, if total output and velocity are constant, a 20
percent increase in the money supply leads to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


A standard of deferred payment is most essential in a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: credit economy

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


Funds that earn a fixed rate of interest and must be held for a stipulated period of
time are known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: time deposits

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


When money enables us to convert excess goods into money and retain the money, it
is acting as a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: store of value

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the velocity of money can have an effect similar to that of an increase
in the money supply.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The multiple expansion of the money supply is made possible because money
withdrawn from one bank finds its way into other banks.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


If M triples, V remains the same, and Q doubles, then P rises.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 10 0 out of 2 points
Assume the following: M = $500; V = 10; and Q = 500. From the equation of
exchange, the value of P is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $10

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirements, the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: less the possible expansion of the money supply

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


COLA is a form of indexation.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


The GDP is the current market value of final goods and services produced by the
nation’s economy over a period of time.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Personal consumption expenditures account for approximately two-thirds of the GDP
in the United States.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 15 0 out of 2 points
Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes
to yield real per capita disposable income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Gross national product measures the current market value of final output produced
within a country by both domestic and foreign resources.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


Discharges of chemicals from a paper plant that pollute a nearby river represent an
example of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: social costs

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are
produced and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the underground economy
Question 20 0 out of 2 points
Constant-dollar GDP and real GDP are the same thing.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


An increase in business inventories would be included in the investment component
of GDP.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Constant-dollar GDP can be converted into current-dollar GDP by multiplying the
real GDP by the implicit price deflators
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


In national income accounting, machine depreciation is treated as a cost of
production, but damage to a region’s air quality is not.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The receipt of a Social Security benefit check would be considered part of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: PI
Question 25 0 out of 2 points
Instead of having one central bank, the Federal Reserve in effect has 12 district
banks, each with some amount of autonomy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as
the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: federal funds rate

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is built around
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 12 district banks

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Legislation has been introduced in Congress that would have required the Fed to
reduce inflation to zero percent.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Any bank reserves over and above the level of required reserves are known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: excess reserves
Question 30 0 out of 2 points
In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: personal checks

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: their member banks

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Cash transactions account for about 20 percent of the value of transactions.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary
Policy Report.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


If a Federal Reserve Bank wanted to tighten the money supply, it would
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: raise the discount rate
Question 35 0 out of 2 points
Within certain limits, the reserve requirement for checkable deposits are established
by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The range of reserve requirements that the Board of Governors can set for net
transaction accounts is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 3 to 14 percent

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Various estimates of the multiplier for the U.S. economy place it between 2 and 3,
depending on the level of employment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 40 0 out of 2 points
The multiplier is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The higher the propensity to save, the larger the size of the multiplier.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the classical economists, unemployment was a temporary deviation
from equilibrium, and certain forces in the economy would return it to full
employment. Such forces did not include
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: discretionary government spending

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


If the marginal propensity to consume were two-thirds, the multiplier would be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 3

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


In the Keynesian income-expenditure graph, total savings at each level of national
income is indicated by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the vertical distance between the consumption function and the 45-
degree line
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
The relationship between the marginal propensity to consume and the marginal
propensity to save is such that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: MPC + MPS = 1

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, the economy will be in equilibrium when
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: planned leakages equal planned injections

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


If planned investment increases by $20 billion, other things remaining the same,
planned saving eventually will increase by $20 billion, regardless of the size of the
multiplier.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Total planned consumption
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: exceeds total income at very low levels of output
Question 50 0 out of 2 points
The aggregate demand curve
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: shows the amounts of real output that will be demanded at various
price levels

ECON125-HK1. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK1) > CONTROL


PANEL > GRADEBOOK > MODIFY GRADE > GRADE ATTEMPT

Grade Assessment Exam 3 Name Exam 3


User Siu Ying Mandy Chan
Status Completed
Score 100 out of 100 points
Instructions
Clear Attempt Click Clear Attempt to clear this user’s attempt.
Clear Attempt
Comments Modify Comments

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are initiated by the
Given Answer: Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Board of Governors

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Given Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Given Answer: their member banks
Correct Answer: their member banks

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The official term of office of the chairman of the Fed is
Given Answer: 4 years
Correct Answer: 4 years

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a correct statement?
Given Answer: the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy
Correct Answer: the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The present membership in the Federal Reserve System includes
Given Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation
Correct Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The chair of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve is
Given Answer: appointed by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: appointed by the U.S. President

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Given Answer: 1913
Correct Answer: 1913
Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System is
Given Answer: independent within the U.S. government
Correct Answer: independent within the U.S. government

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Changes in the discount rate are initiated by
Given Answer: Federal Reserve Banks
Correct Answer: Federal Reserve Banks

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Given Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply
Correct Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One reason the Federal Reserve System was set up was to
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Given Answer: two-thirds
Correct Answer: two-thirds

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Given Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP does not measure
Given Answer: external costs
Correct Answer: external costs

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When final sales are larger than GDP,
Given Answer: a net decrease in inventories took place
Correct Answer: a net decrease in inventories took place

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Excluded from the GDP are
Given Answer: nonmonetary transactions
Correct Answer: nonmonetary transactions

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The current-dollar GDP can be converted into a constant-dollar GDP by
Given Answer: dividing by a price index
Correct Answer: dividing by a price index

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The measurements of business cycles tend to be exaggerated as a result of the GDP
treatment of
Given Answer: durable goods
Correct Answer: durable goods

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we could
conclude that
Given Answer: the general price level fell during the year
Correct Answer: the general price level fell during the year

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The difference between the cost of raw materials and the price of the final good is
known as
Given Answer: value added
Correct Answer: value added

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP and NI figures are not equal because
Given Answer: depreciation and indirect taxes are included in GDP but not in NI
Correct Answer: depreciation and indirect taxes are included in GDP but not in NI

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To reduce personal income to disposable personal income,
Given Answer: personal taxes are deducted
Correct Answer: personal taxes are deducted

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Given Answer: intermediate goods
Correct Answer: intermediate goods
Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The national income accounts for the United States are prepared by the
Given Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Correct Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a bank has $60,000 in legal reserves and is subject to a 10 percent reserve
requirement, it could have outstanding checkable deposits to the extent of
Given Answer: $600,000
Correct Answer: $600,000

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the monetary equation of exchange, MV=PQ, P stands for
Given Answer: average price
Correct Answer: average price

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Anything that would cause people to want to hold more of their money as cash and
less in the form of checkable deposits would
Given Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply
Correct Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Assume the following: M=$500; V=10; and Q=500. From the equation of exchange,
the value of P is
Given Answer: $10
Correct Answer: $10
Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The bulk of the M1 money supply is made up of
Given Answer: checkable deposits
Correct Answer: checkable deposits

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the equation of exchange, an increase in either velocity or the money
supply will
Given Answer: cause PQ to rise
Correct Answer: cause PQ to rise

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Trading in a barter economy requires
Given Answer: a double coincidence of wants
Correct Answer: a double coincidence of wants

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The amount of money a bank can lend
Given Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The quantity theory of money assumes that
Given Answer: the national economy tends to operate at full employment
Correct Answer: the national economy tends to operate at full employment
Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Given Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio
is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of
Given Answer: $50,000
Correct Answer: $50,000

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If you want to deflate the current price of something to eliminate the effect of
inflation,
Given Answer: divide the number by the price index
Correct Answer: divide the number by the price index

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A standard of deferred payment is most essential in a
Given Answer: credit economy
Correct Answer: credit economy

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Prior to Keynes, the prevailing viewpoint concerning equilibrium in the economy
was that of
Given Answer: classical economics
Correct Answer: classical economics
Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
According to the Keynesian theory, inflation
Given Answer: can occur when aggregate expenditure exceeds output at full
employment
Correct Answer: can occur when aggregate expenditure exceeds output at full
employment

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Given Answer: the reciprocal of MPS
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the Keynesian analysis, government spending
Given Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments
Correct Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the Keynesian model, if planned saving is greater than planned investment,
Given Answer: unemployment will rise
Correct Answer: unemployment will rise

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports
Given Answer: may be either positive or negative
Correct Answer: may be either positive or negative
Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Income earned by the productive resources does not include
Given Answer: transfer of payments
Correct Answer: transfer of payments

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is
likely to
Given Answer: increase total output in the United States
Correct Answer: increase total output in the United States

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If household incomes go up and almost all the increases are spent on consumer
goods,
Given Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high
Correct Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Given Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment
Correct Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The classical economic doctrine held that the normal equilibrium position of the
economy was one of
Given Answer: full employment
Correct Answer: full employment
Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
One major difference between Keynesian analysis and classical theory is that the
classical theory assumes
Given Answer: full employment as a norm
Correct Answer: full employment as a norm

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP
Given Answer: a shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: a shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Given Answer: two-thirds
Correct Answer: two-thirds

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In dollar value, the nominal GDP in the United States is in the vicinity of
Given Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion
Correct Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The current-dollar GDP can be converted into a constant-dollar GDP by
Given Answer: multiplying by a price index
Correct Answer: dividing by a price index
Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The GDP and NI figures are not equal because
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: depreciation and indirect taxes are included in GDP but not in NI

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Given Answer: intermediate goods
Correct Answer: intermediate goods

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP does not measure
Given Answer: military costs
Correct Answer: external costs

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Disposable personal income is equal to
Given Answer: PI minus personal taxes
Correct Answer: PI minus personal taxes

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Purchasing power parity shows how many units of currency are needed in one
country
Given Answer: to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country
Correct Answer: to buy the same amount of output that one unit of currency buys in
another country
Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are
produced and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as
Given Answer: the underground economy
Correct Answer: the underground economy

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is
considered
Given Answer: a capital consumption allowance
Correct Answer: an intermediate good

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The measure of income received by persons from all sources is known as
Given Answer: personal income
Correct Answer: personal income

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Personal income does not include
Given Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: undistributed corporate profits

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Given Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Given Answer: their member banks
Correct Answer: their member banks

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The range of reserve requirements that the Board of Governors can set for net
transaction accounts is
Given Answer: 0 to 9 percent
Correct Answer: 3 to 14 percent

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Changes in the discount rate are initiated by
Given Answer: Federal Reserve Banks
Correct Answer: Federal Reserve Banks

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System is
Given Answer: independent within the U.S. government
Correct Answer: independent within the U.S. government

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the
Given Answer: discount rate
Correct Answer: discount rate

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
Given Answer: Treasury bills
Correct Answer: Treasury bills

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are made within legal limits by
Given Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Membership in the Federal Reserve System is
Given Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks
Correct Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One reason the Federal Reserve System was set up was to
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Members of the Board of Governors are
Given Answer: selected by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: selected by the U.S. President

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The present membership in the Federal Reserve System includes
Given Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation
Correct Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation
Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If household incomes go up and almost all the increases are spent on consumer
goods,
Given Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high
Correct Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, the point of equilibrium income
Given Answer: must correspond to the full-employment level
Correct Answer: can be anywhere along the 45-degree line

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The size of planned consumption is influence to a considerable extent by
Given Answer: how much income people are receiving
Correct Answer: how much income people are receiving

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Given Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment
Correct Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The classical theory states that
Given Answer: supply creates its own demand
Correct Answer: supply creates its own demand
Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?
Given Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the classical economists, unemployment was a temporary deviation
from equilibrium, and certain forces in the economy would return it to full
employment. Such forces did not include
Given Answer: price competition
Correct Answer: discretionary government spending

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure in the U.S. economy includes spending for U.S. output by
Given Answer: households, businesses, and all governments except foreign ones
Correct Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The higher the marginal propensity to consume, the
Given Answer: larger the size of the multiplier
Correct Answer: larger the size of the multiplier

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Income earned by the productive resources does not include
Given Answer: transfer of payments
Correct Answer: transfer of payments
Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In the Keynesian analysis, government spending
Given Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments
Correct Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the classical approach, if planned savings increases,
Given Answer: the rate of interest will fall
Correct Answer: the rate of interest will fall

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the equation of exchange MV = PQ, V stands for
Given Answer: average rate of turnover of the money supply
Correct Answer: average rate of turnover of the money supply

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Given Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Excess reserves are the amount of money a bank
Given Answer: has in excess of its required reserves
Correct Answer: has in excess of its required reserves

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the monetary equation of exchange, MV=PQ, P stands for
Given Answer: the Producer Price Index
Correct Answer: average price

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The amount of money a bank can lend
Given Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The quantity theory of money assumes that
Given Answer: the velocity of money varies with changes in interest rates
Correct Answer: the national economy tends to operate at full employment

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When a person takes cash to the bank and deposits it in a checking account,
Given Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Correct Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a period of full employment, if M increases and V remains constant, the most
likely result is
Given Answer: an increase in the value of P
Correct Answer: an increase in the value of P

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A standard of deferred payment is most essential in a
Given Answer: barter economy
Correct Answer: credit economy

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Assume the following: M=$500; V=10; and P=$10. If the money supply then
increases by 50 percent while total transactions triple, the new value of the price level
will be:
Given Answer: $5
Correct Answer: $5

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to modern economists, the velocity of money is affected by
Given Answer: interest rates and expected price changes
Correct Answer: interest rates and expected price changes

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If you want to deflate the current price of something to eliminate the effect of
inflation,
Given Answer: divide the number by the price index
Correct Answer: divide the number by the price index

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a bank has $60,000 in legal reserves and is subject to a 10 percent reserve
requirement, it could have outstanding checkable deposits to the extent of
Given Answer: $6 million
Correct Answer: $600,000

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When a person takes cash to the bank and deposits it in a checking account,
Given Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Correct Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The value of money is based on
Given Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy
Correct Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Trading in a barter economy requires
Given Answer: a double coincidence of wants
Correct Answer: a double coincidence of wants

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the equation of exchange MV = PQ, V stands for
Given Answer: total transactions in the economy
Correct Answer: average rate of turnover of the money supply

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If you want to deflate the current price of something to eliminate the effect of
inflation,
Given Answer: multiply the number by the price index
Correct Answer: divide the number by the price index

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a period of full employment, if M increases and V remains constant, the most
likely result is
Given Answer: an increase in the value of P
Correct Answer: an increase in the value of P

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirements, the
Given Answer: less the possible expansion of the money supply
Correct Answer: less the possible expansion of the money supply

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures
Given Answer: changes in the prices received by producers
Correct Answer: changes in the prices received by producers

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The current base period for the CPI is
Given Answer: 1982-1984
Correct Answer: 1982-1984

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In calculating a price index, the period to which prices in all other periods are
compared is known as the
Given Answer: base period
Correct Answer: base period

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A bank can actually create money by
Given Answer: lending its excess reserves
Correct Answer: lending its excess reserves

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Given Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The formula for finding a price index for a fixed basket of goods in the current year is
Given Answer: price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year
Correct Answer: price of basket in current year/price of basket in base year

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The interest rate at which depository institutions borrow reserves from the Federal
Reserve is known as the
Given Answer: discount rate
Correct Answer: discount rate

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Members of the Board of Governors are
Given Answer: selected by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: selected by the U.S. President

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Given Answer: their member banks
Correct Answer: their member banks
Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Each Federal Reserve Bank
Given Answer: is controlled by its own Board of Directors
Correct Answer: is controlled by its own Board of Directors

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is built around
Given Answer: 12 district banks
Correct Answer: 12 district banks

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Given Answer: abusive banking practices were prevalent
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The range of reserve requirements that the Board of Governors can set for net
transaction accounts is
Given Answer: 3 to 14 percent
Correct Answer: 3 to 14 percent

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The First Bank of the United States was chartered by
Given Answer: the federal government
Correct Answer: the federal government
Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The present membership in the Federal Reserve System includes
Given Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation
Correct Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The official term of office of the chairman of the Fed is
Given Answer: 4 years
Correct Answer: 4 years

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Within certain limits, the reserve requirement for checkable deposits are established
by
Given Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
Given Answer: 7 members
Correct Answer: 7 members

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Planned consumption and planned investment are
Given Answer: two important components of aggregate expenditure
Correct Answer: two important components of aggregate expenditure

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Given Answer: price level
Correct Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If household incomes go up and almost all the increases are spent on consumer
goods,
Given Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high
Correct Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The condition required for equilibrium to exist according to Keynesian analysis is
that
Given Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages
Correct Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One major difference between Keynesian analysis and classical theory is that the
classical theory assumes
Given Answer: full employment as a norm
Correct Answer: full employment as a norm

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports
Given Answer: may be either positive or negative
Correct Answer: may be either positive or negative

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the Keynesian model, if planned saving is greater than planned investment,
Given Answer: unemployment will rise
Correct Answer: unemployment will rise

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?
Given Answer: agriculture
Correct Answer: agriculture

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the classical approach, if planned savings increases,
Given Answer: the rate of interest will fall
Correct Answer: the rate of interest will fall

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the Keynesian analysis, government spending
Given Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments
Correct Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The classical economic doctrine held that the normal equilibrium position of the
economy was one of
Given Answer: rising prices
Correct Answer: full employment

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is
likely to
Given Answer: reduce total output in the United States
Correct Answer: increase total output in the United States

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The measure of income received by persons from all sources is known as
Given Answer: gross domestic product
Correct Answer: personal income

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The existence of undistributed corporate profits tends to cause
Given Answer: national income to be smaller than NNP
Correct Answer: national income to be larger than personal income

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the United States, leisure is a significant element in developing an accurate
measure of
Given Answer: the standard of living
Correct Answer: the standard of living

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Discharges of chemicals from a paper plant that pollute a nearby river represent an
example of
Given Answer: social costs
Correct Answer: social costs

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Given Answer: intermediate goods
Correct Answer: intermediate goods

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Net national product is equal to
Given Answer: GNP plus corporate profits
Correct Answer: GNP minus capital consumption allowances

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Real GDP refers to nominal GDP adjusted for
Given Answer: price changes
Correct Answer: price changes

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The difference between GDP and final sales equals
Given Answer: net inventory change
Correct Answer: net inventory change

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP
Given Answer: a shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: a shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Gross domestic product measures the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country
Given Answer: by both domestic and foreign resources
Correct Answer: by both domestic and foreign resources
Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The current-dollar GDP can be converted into a constant-dollar GDP by
Given Answer: dividing by a price index
Correct Answer: dividing by a price index

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If total production of goods and services for a given quarter is $2,000 billion
(seasonally adjusted), the GDP will be reported at an annual rate of
Given Answer: $8,000 billion
Correct Answer: $8,000 billion

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If real GDP increases by 5 percent and the population increases by 10 percent during
the same period, real per capital income
Given Answer: decreases
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a correct statement?
Selected Answer: the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy
Correct Answer: the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy
Question 3 2 out of 2 points
The range of reserve requirements that the Board of Governors can set for net
transaction accounts is
Selected Answer: 3 to 14 percent
Correct Answer: 3 to 14 percent

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are initiated by the
Selected Answer: Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Board of Governors

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses
Selected Answer: Treasury bills
Correct Answer: Treasury bills

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The present membership in the Federal Reserve System includes
Selected Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation
Correct Answer: less than half of the commercial banks in the nation

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Members of the Board of Governors are
Selected Answer: selected by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: selected by the U.S. President

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
Selected Answer: 7 members
Correct Answer: 7 members

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Selected Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


If a bank has excess reserves,
Selected Answer: its reserves are greater than its liabilities
Correct Answer: it can make a loan if it wishes

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Within certain limits, the reserve requirement for checkable deposits are established
by
Selected Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


The usual term of office of members of the Board of Governors is
Selected Answer: 5 years
Correct Answer: 14 years

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The GDP and NI figures are not equal because
Selected Answer: depreciation and indirect taxes are included in GDP but not in NI
Correct Answer: depreciation and indirect taxes are included in GDP but not in NI

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The measure of income received by persons from all sources is known as
Selected Answer: personal income
Correct Answer: personal income

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, the nation with the highest per capita GDP is
Selected Answer: Norway
Correct Answer: United States

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Selected Answer: cleaning your own house
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The GDP measures the value of
Selected Answer: final goods and services
Correct Answer: final goods and services

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Selected Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
Discharges of chemicals from a paper plant that pollute a nearby river represent an
example of
Selected Answer: social costs
Correct Answer: social costs

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by
Selected Answer: subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned
resources in foreign countries
Correct Answer: both (a) and (c)

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Social costs are associated with
Selected Answer: government programs for the disadvantaged
Correct Answer: deterioration of the natural environment

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The receipt of a Social Security benefit check would be considered part of
Selected Answer: GDP
Correct Answer: PI

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If total production of goods and services for a given quarter is $2,000 billion
(seasonally adjusted), the GDP will be reported at an annual rate of
Selected Answer: $8,000 billion
Correct Answer: $8,000 billion
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we could
conclude that
Selected Answer: the general price level fell during the year
Correct Answer: the general price level fell during the year

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


In dollar value, the nominal GDP in the United States is in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion
Correct Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Income earned by the productive resources does not include
Selected Answer: transfer of payments
Correct Answer: transfer of payments

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The size of planned consumption is influence to a considerable extent by
Selected Answer: how much income people are receiving
Correct Answer: how much income people are receiving

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Selected Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment
Correct Answer: levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure in the U.S. economy includes spending for U.S. output by
Selected Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign
Correct Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


If household incomes go up and almost all the increases are spent on consumer
goods,
Selected Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high
Correct Answer: the marginal propensity to consume is high

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Planned consumption and planned investment are
Selected Answer: two important components of aggregate expenditure
Correct Answer: two important components of aggregate expenditure

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Prior to Keynes, the prevailing viewpoint concerning equilibrium in the economy
was that of
Selected Answer: classical economics
Correct Answer: classical economics

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The classical theory states that
Selected Answer: supply creates its own demand
Correct Answer: supply creates its own demand
Question 34 2 out of 2 points
According to the Keynesian theory, inflation
Selected Answer: can occur when aggregate expenditure exceeds output at full
employment
Correct Answer: can occur when aggregate expenditure exceeds output at full
employment

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


The relationship between an initial increase in planned investment and the resulting
increase in income is known as the
Selected Answer: capital consumption effect
Correct Answer: multiplier effect

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


In the Keynesian analysis, government spending
Selected Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments
Correct Answer: refers to spending by federal, state, and local governments

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


According to the classical economists, unemployment was a temporary deviation
from equilibrium, and certain forces in the economy would return it to full
employment. Such forces did not include
Selected Answer: discretionary government spending
Correct Answer: discretionary government spending

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Excess reserves are the amount of money a bank
Selected Answer: has in excess of its required reserves
Correct Answer: has in excess of its required reserves
Question 39 2 out of 2 points
Assume the following: M=$500; V=10; and Q=500. From the equation of exchange,
the value of P is
Selected Answer: $10
Correct Answer: $10

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures
Selected Answer: changes in the prices received by producers
Correct Answer: changes in the prices received by producers

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


When a person takes cash to the bank and deposits it in a checking account,
Selected Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Correct Answer: that act directly and immediately changes one kind of money into
another kind of money
Question 44 2 out of 2 points
The quantity theory of money assumes that
Selected Answer: the national economy tends to operate at full employment
Correct Answer: the national economy tends to operate at full employment

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Anything that would cause people to want to hold more of their money as cash and
less in the form of checkable deposits would
Selected Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply
Correct Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks and
checkable deposits is referred to as
Selected Answer: M2
Correct Answer: M1

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The current base period for the CPI is
Selected Answer: 1982-1984
Correct Answer: 1982-1984

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


If a worker receives a weekly nominal wage of $300 and the CPI is 125, the real
wage is approximately
Selected Answer: $200
Correct Answer: $240
Question 49 2 out of 2 points
The value of money is based on
Selected Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy
Correct Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy

Question 50
If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $1.50
Correct Answer: $0.67

COURSES > ECON125-HK. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS >


ASSIGNMENTS&EXAM > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: MIDTERM EXAM

Review Assessment: Midterm Exam

Name: Midterm Exam


Status :Completed
Score:95 out of 100 points
Instructions:This exam consists of 80 equally weighed questions. Always pick the
single best answer. Questions that are skipped or are submitted with multiple answers
will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1
1.25 of 1.25 points
A monopolist will choose a level of output that sets

Selected Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.


Correct Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 2
0 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in?

Selected Answer: a. Between the first and the second units of output.
Correct Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.
Feedback: b, after 3 units of output

Question 3
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following statements is true?

Selected Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Correct Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Feedback: Correct

Question 4
0 of 1.25 points

Which of the following formulas shows total profit?

Selected Answer: a. P ? ATC

Correct Answer: b. (P ? ATC)Q


Feedback: b, (P-ATC)Q. Profit per unit times the number of units of output sold
equals total profit.

Question 5
1.25 of 1.25 points

Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because

Selected Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice


competitors.
Correct Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice
competitors.
Feedback: Correct

Question 6
1.25 of 1.25 points

An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that:

Selected Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is
added, output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than
the previous unit.
Correct Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is
added, output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than
the previous unit.
Feedback: Correct

Question 7
1.25 of 1.25 points

In the short-run, an increase in demand results in a(n)

Selected Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
Correct Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
Feedback: Correct

Question 8
1.25 of 1.25 points

If you earn $80,000 a year and acquiring cable TV service costs you $150 per year,
your demand for cable is likely to be:
Selected Answer: d. inelastic.

Correct Answer: d. inelastic.

Feedback: Correct

Question 9
1.25 of 1.25 points

Economic profit is

Selected Answer: c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
Correct Answer: c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
Feedback: Correct

Question 10
0 of 1.25 points

If a store advertises that it will match the prices of any competitor, it is most likely
that consumers will:

Selected Answer: e. pay lower prices at all stores.


Correct Answer: a. pay higher prices at all stores.
Feedback: a. Guaranteed price matching schemes give all firms a disincentive to
cut prices, and thus it is likely that the level of prices will, in general, be higher.

Question 11
1.25 of 1.25 points

The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a

Selected Answer: c. cartel.

Correct Answer: c. cartel.

Feedback: Correct
Question 12
1.25 of 1.25 points

The problem of scarcity,

Selected Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.


Correct Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.
Feedback: Correct

Question 13
1.25 of 1.25 points

According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of


ice-cream and pizzas such that

Selected Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility
per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Correct Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility
per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Feedback: Correct

Question 14
1.25 of 1.25 points

Why do people specialize and trade?

Selected Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Correct Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Feedback: Correct

Question 15
1.25 of 1.25 points

The income elasticity of widgets is negative; the cross elasticity between widgets and
gadgets is negative. Widgets are a(n):
Selected Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Correct Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Feedback: Correct

Question 16
1.25 of 1.25 points

When people have very little time to respond to price changes, demand becomes

Selected Answer: b. less elastic .

Correct Answer: b. less elastic .

Feedback: Correct

Question 17
1.25 of 1.25 points

As compared to perfect competition, monopolies

Selected Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits,


and generate deadweight loss.
Correct Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits,
and generate deadweight loss.
Feedback: Correct

Question 18
1.25 of 1.25 points

A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices:

Selected Answer: if it is trying to deter entry.


Correct Answer: if it is trying to deter entry.
Feedback: Correct

Question 19
1.25 of 1.25 points
The concept of opportunity cost is based on the principle of:

Selected Answer: scarcity.

Correct Answer: scarcity.

Feedback: Correct

Question 20
1.25 of 1.25 points

We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:

Selected Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Feedback: Correct

Question 21
1.25 of 1.25 points

If foreign officials make it time-consuming and complicated to get goods through


customs, this is an example of a:

Selected Answer: d. nontariff trade barrier.


Correct Answer: d. nontariff trade barrier.
Feedback: Correct

Question 22
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics?

Selected Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic
study.
Correct Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic
study.
Feedback: Correct
Question 23
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?

Selected Answer: b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade


Correct Answer: b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Feedback: Correct

Question 24
1.25 of 1.25 points

Hal sells tennis shoes. Hal wants to increase his revenues, so he raises his prices. This
strategy will only work if demand is

Selected Answer: c. inelastic.

Correct Answer: c. inelastic.

Feedback: Correct

Question 25
1.25 of 1.25 points

The firm?s short-run production function, or total product curve, is a relationship that
shows:

Selected Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition
of a variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital)
constant, or fixed.
Correct Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition
of a variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital)
constant, or fixed.
Feedback: Correct

Question 26
1.25 of 1.25 points
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents

Selected Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches
its lowest point.
Correct Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches
its lowest point.
Feedback: Correct

Question 27
1.25 of 1.25 points

According to the marginal principle, if the marginal benefit is far greater than the
marginal cost, than a rational individual will

Selected Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 28
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production?

Selected Answer: b. $89

Correct Answer: b. $89

Feedback: Correct

Question 29
1.25 of 1.25 points

If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then:
Selected Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Correct Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Feedback: Correct

Question 30
1.25 of 1.25 points

Refer to the graph below. Which of the following factors can cause a move from point
d to points g or h?

Selected Answer: d. All of the above.

Correct Answer: d. All of the above.

Feedback: Correct

Question 31
1.25 of 1.25 points

James has enough money to buy a car at the market price from fifteen years ago, but
today it?s only half of what he would need. Which principle does this represent?

Selected Answer: Reality

Correct Answer: Reality

Feedback: Correct

Question 32
1.25 of 1.25 points

In a monopolistically competitive market, what will cause the entry of new firms to
stop?
Selected Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Correct Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Feedback: Correct

Question 33
1.25 of 1.25 points

Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?

Selected Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on
the quantity is uncertain.
Correct Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on
the quantity is uncertain.
Feedback: Correct

Question 34
1.25 of 1.25 points

Under a policy of average-cost pricing,

Selected Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where
price equals average cost.
Correct Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where
price equals average cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 35
1.25 of 1.25 points

As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand:

Selected Answer: c. decreases.

Correct Answer: c. decreases.


Feedback: Correct

Question 36
1.25 of 1.25 points

The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the


following principle:

Selected Answer: a. The marginal principle.


Correct Answer: a. The marginal principle.
Feedback: Correct

Question 37
1.25 of 1.25 points

Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because:

Selected Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Correct Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Feedback: Correct

Question 38
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that there is a particularly good wheat harvest this year, and at the same time,
medical reports indicate that increased grain consumption improves health. What will
happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of wheat?

Selected Answer: e. Quantity will increase, but the change in price depends on
the relative size of the shift.
Correct Answer: e. Quantity will increase, but the change in price depends on
the relative size of the shift.
Feedback: Correct
Question 39
1.25 of 1.25 points

A perfectly competitive firm is operating at an output where price is greater than


marginal cost. Therefore:

Selected Answer: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.


Correct Answer: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.
Feedback: Correct

Question 40
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is NOT an example of a marginal decision?

Selected Answer: c. If I hire ten workers to produce tables, what will be the
average cost per table?
Correct Answer: c. If I hire ten workers to produce tables, what will be the
average cost per table?
Feedback: Correct

Question 41
1.25 of 1.25 points

A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied by
an entire industry is a

Selected Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.


Correct Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.
Feedback: Correct

Question 42
1.25 of 1.25 points

For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run


equilibrium,

Selected Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 43
1.25 of 1.25 points

Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because:

Selected Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.


Correct Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.
Feedback: Correct

Question 44
1.25 of 1.25 points

If your new business (in which you have invested $50,000, which you previously kept
in savings, earning 10% interest) earns an accounting profit of $30,000 in the first
year, and you had previously been employed as a ditch-digger, earning $10,000 per
year, your economic profit is:

Selected Answer: d. 15,000.

Correct Answer: d. 15,000.

Feedback: Correct

Question 45
1.25 of 1.25 points

According to the Law of Supply,

Selected Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Correct Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Feedback: Correct

Question 46
1.25 of 1.25 points

If Country 1 is absolutely better at producing all goods than Country 2, which of the
following is most likely to be true?

Selected Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.


Correct Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.
Feedback: Correct

Question 47
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the marginal product of labor is increasing,

Selected Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.


Correct Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.
Feedback: Correct

Question 48
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common?

Selected Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same
amount of income.
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same
amount of income.
Feedback: Correct

Question 49
1.25 of 1.25 points

In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must:

Selected Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.


Correct Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.
Feedback: Correct
Question 50
1.25 of 1.25 points

Market systems are desirable because

Selected Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.


Correct Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.
Feedback: Correct

Question 51
1.25 of 1.25 points

If Y = 600 - 3X, what is the vertical intercept?

Selected Answer: d. 600

Correct Answer: d. 600

Feedback: Correct

Question 52
1.25 of 1.25 points

In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the


market price be?

Selected Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.


Correct Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 53
1.25 of 1.25 points

Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because:

Selected Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.


Correct Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.
Feedback: Correct

Question 54
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?

Selected Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit
remains above marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit
remains above marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 55
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are

Selected Answer: b. an inferior good.

Correct Answer: b. an inferior good.

Feedback: Correct

Question 56
1.25 of 1.25 points

What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition:

Selected Answer: c. Many firms, differentiated product, and no artificial barriers


to entry.
Correct Answer: c. Many firms, differentiated product, and no artificial barriers
to entry.
Feedback: Correct

Question 57
1.25 of 1.25 points
What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza?

Selected Answer: $1.50

Correct Answer: $1.50

Feedback: Correct

Question 58
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium?

Selected Answer: d. All of the above.

Correct Answer: d. All of the above.

Feedback: Correct

Question 59
1.25 of 1.25 points

If Y = 200 + 2X, what is the slope of this line?

Selected Answer: c. 2

Correct Answer: c. 2

Feedback: Correct

Question 60
1.25 of 1.25 points

Why are monopoly markets considered to be inefficent?

Selected Answer: d. because they restrict output, creating a deadweight loss


Correct Answer: d. because they restrict output, creating a deadweight loss
Feedback: Correct

Question 61
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the firm has economies of scale in the long run, then the long-run average cost
curve is:

Selected Answer: c. downward-sloping.


Correct Answer: c. downward-sloping.
Feedback: Correct

Question 62
1.25 of 1.25 points

At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing,

Selected Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Correct Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Feedback: Correct

Question 63
1.25 of 1.25 points

In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called:

Selected Answer: c. Fixed cost.

Correct Answer: c. Fixed cost.

Feedback: Correct

Question 64
1.25 of 1.25 points
The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC:

Selected Answer: a. increases.

Correct Answer: a. increases.

Feedback: Correct

Question 65
1.25 of 1.25 points

Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour?

Selected Answer: one hour of studying


Correct Answer: one hour of studying
Feedback: Correct

Question 66
1.25 of 1.25 points

As compared to the short-run elasticity of supply, in the long run, the elasticity of
supply will usually:

Selected Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).


Correct Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).
Feedback: Correct

Question 67
1.25 of 1.25 points
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because:

Selected Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.


Correct Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.
Feedback: Correct

Question 68
1.25 of 1.25 points

Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the


following shows the effect on the computer market?

Selected Answer: b. Graph B

Correct Answer: b. Graph B

Feedback: Correct

Question 69
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then

Selected Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.


Correct Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.
Feedback: Correct

Question 70
1.25 of 1.25 points

When firms act together to set prices:

Selected Answer: e. all of the above

Correct Answer: e. all of the above


Feedback: Correct

Question 71
1.25 of 1.25 points

In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers?

Selected Answer: d. centrally planned economy


Correct Answer: d. centrally planned economy
Feedback: Correct

Question 72
0 of 1.25 points

In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for gasoline is estimated to be about
0.11. In the long run, studies suggest that it is about 0.9. How can you best explain
this difference?

Selected Answer: a. The supply of gasoline is likely to increase in the long run.
Correct Answer: c. Consumers are more able to make different choices given
more time to adapt.
Feedback: c, consumer adapt. In the short run, it is difficult to make different
choices about transportation. However, in the long run, consumers can adapt to
changing gas prices in a number of ways, such as choice of a different car or a
different place to live. Thus elasticity increases dramatically in the long run (though it
is still inelastic).

Question 73
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change in
supply moves equilibrium to:

Selected Answer: d. Point b

Correct Answer: d. Point b


Feedback: Correct

Question 74
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. Marginal utility is:

Selected Answer: a. greater at points u and v than at points w and x.


Correct Answer: a. greater at points u and v than at points w and x.
Feedback: Correct

Question 75
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose a firm responds to underpricing by another firm by choosing a price so low


that neither firm can profit. This strategy is known as

Selected Answer: d. the grim trigger strategy.


Correct Answer: d. the grim trigger strategy.
Feedback: Correct

Question 76
1.25 of 1.25 points

The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?

Selected Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.


Correct Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.
Feedback: Correct

Question 77
1.25 of 1.25 points

An economist's notion of costs differs from an accountant's notion of costs as follows:

Selected Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of


nonpurchased inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
Correct Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of
nonpurchased inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
Feedback: Correct

Question 78
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that all of the fast-food restaurants in the entire world are purchased by one
firm. Relative to the current (competitive) price and quantity (and assuming that
nothing else has changed), we would expect the monopolist to:

Selected Answer: d. sell less and charge more.


Correct Answer: d. sell less and charge more.
Feedback: Correct

Question 79
1.25 of 1.25 points

Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with:

Selected Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.


Correct Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.
Feedback: Correct

Question 80
1.25 of 1.25 points

A firm's variable costs

Selected Answer: d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.


Correct Answer: d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.
Feedback: Correct

Question 1 0 out of 1.25 points


Company X and Company Y have reached a price-fixing agreement. If one company
cheats on the agreement, the other will cheat on the agreement in the next month. This
strategy is known as
Selected Answer: b. the duopoly price strategy.
Correct Answer: a. the tit-for-tat strategy.
Feedback: a, tit-for-tat

Question 2 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
Selected Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.
Correct Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.
Feedback: Correct

Question 3 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If Y = 200 + 2X, what is the slope of this line?
Selected Answer: c. 2
Correct Answer: c. 2
Feedback: Correct

Question 4 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Marginal utility is the
Selected Answer: b. additional happiness gained by consuming one more unit of a
good.
Correct Answer: b. additional happiness gained by consuming one more unit of a
good.
Feedback: Correct

Question 5 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following formulas shows total profit?
Selected Answer: b. (P ? ATC)Q
Correct Answer: b. (P ? ATC)Q
Feedback: Correct
Question 6 1.25 out of 1.25 points
If a store advertises that it will match the prices of any competitor, it is most likely
that consumers will:
Selected Answer: a. pay higher prices at all stores.
Correct Answer: a. pay higher prices at all stores.
Feedback: Correct

Question 7 0 out of 1.25 points


A friend offers you a Coke, a Pepsi, or a Diet Coke. You don't like Diet Coke, so after
some thought, you take the Pepsi. What is the opportunity cost of your choice?
Selected Answer: the Coke plus the Diet Coke
Correct Answer: the Coke
Feedback: The opportunity cost is the Coke that you gave up to get the Pepsi.

Question 8 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium?
Selected Answer: d. All of the above.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Feedback: Correct

Question 9 1.25 out of 1.25 points


At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing,
Selected Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Correct Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost
curve.
Feedback: Correct

Question 10 1.25 out of 1.25 points


As compared to perfect competition, monopolies
Selected Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits, and
generate deadweight loss.
Correct Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits, and
generate deadweight loss.
Feedback: Correct

Question 11 1.25 out of 1.25 points


A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied
by an entire industry is a
Selected Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.
Correct Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.
Feedback: Correct

Question 12 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The firm?s short-run production function, or total product curve, is a relationship that
shows:
Selected Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition of
a variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital)
constant, or fixed.
Correct Answer: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition of a
variable input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital) constant,
or fixed.
Feedback: Correct

Question 13 1.25 out of 1.25 points


When people have very little time to respond to price changes, demand becomes
Selected Answer: b. less elastic .
Correct Answer: b. less elastic .
Feedback: Correct
Question 14 1.25 out of 1.25 points
A monopolist will choose a level of output that sets
Selected Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
Correct Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 15 1.25 out of 1.25 points


When firms act together to set prices:
Selected Answer: e. all of the above
Correct Answer: e. all of the above
Feedback: Correct

Question 16 0 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following would be expected to have the MOST elastic demand?
Selected Answer: a. all motor vehicles
Correct Answer: d. Ford Taurus
Feedback: d, Ford Taurus. Elasticity increases with the number of substitutes. There
are few substitutes for motor vehicles in general, and many substitutes for a Ford
Taurus.

Question 17 1.25 out of 1.25 points


In a monopolistically competitive market, what will cause the entry of new firms to
stop?
Selected Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Correct Answer: d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
Feedback: Correct

Question 18 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. Which of the following factors can cause a move from
point d to points g or h?

Selected Answer: d. All of the above.


Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Feedback: Correct

Question 19 1.25 out of 1.25 points


In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called:
Selected Answer: c. Fixed cost.
Correct Answer: c. Fixed cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 20 0 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following statements best describes total utility?
Selected Answer: c. Total utility increases at an increasing rate with each good a
consumer purchases.
Correct Answer: b. Total utility increases at a decreasing rate with each good a
consumer purchases.
Feedback: b, increases at a decreasing rate. Total utility is the satisfaction that
consumer gets from whatever amount of products that he or she consumes. However,
since marginal utility, the change in satisfaction from consuming an additional unit, is
assumed to be diminishing, total utility increases at a decreasing rate as more goods
are purchased.

Question 21 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production?
Selected Answer: b. $89
Correct Answer: b. $89
Feedback: Correct
Question 22 1.25 out of 1.25 points
If your new business (in which you have invested $50,000, which you previously
kept in savings, earning 10% interest) earns an accounting profit of $30,000 in the
first year, and you had previously been employed as a ditch-digger, earning $10,000
per year, your economic profit is:
Selected Answer: d. 15,000.
Correct Answer: d. 15,000.
Feedback: Correct

Question 23 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. Marginal utility is:

Selected Answer: a. greater at points u and v than at points w and x.


Correct Answer: a. greater at points u and v than at points w and x.
Feedback: Correct

Question 24 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Market systems are desirable because
Selected Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.
Correct Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.
Feedback: Correct

Question 25 1.25 out of 1.25 points


An economist's notion of costs differs from an accountant's notion of costs as
follows:
Selected Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of nonpurchased
inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
Correct Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of nonpurchased
inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
Feedback: Correct

Question 26 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Suppose that all of the fast-food restaurants in the entire world are purchased by one
firm. Relative to the current (competitive) price and quantity (and assuming that
nothing else has changed), we would expect the monopolist to:
Selected Answer: d. sell less and charge more.
Correct Answer: d. sell less and charge more.
Feedback: Correct

Question 27 0 out of 1.25 points


A natural monopoly occurs when
Selected Answer: d. the exit of the first firm would make the second firm
unprofitable.
Correct Answer: a. the entry of a second firm would make both firms unprofitable.
Feedback: a.

Question 28 1.25 out of 1.25 points


A firm's variable costs
Selected Answer: d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.
Correct Answer: d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.
Feedback: Correct

Question 29 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because
Selected Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice
competitors.
Correct Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice
competitors.
Feedback: Correct

Question 30 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then:
Selected Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Correct Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
Feedback: Correct

Question 31 1.25 out of 1.25 points


According to the Law of Supply,
Selected Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Correct Answer: d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity supplied.
Feedback: Correct

Question 32 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If the marginal product of labor is increasing,
Selected Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.
Correct Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.
Feedback: Correct

Question 33 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents
Selected Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches its
lowest point.
Correct Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches its
lowest point.
Feedback: Correct
Question 34 1.25 out of 1.25 points
In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must:
Selected Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.
Correct Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.
Feedback: Correct

Question 35 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The problem of scarcity,
Selected Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.
Correct Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.
Feedback: Correct

Question 36 1.25 out of 1.25 points


We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
Selected Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
Feedback: Correct

Question 37 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a
Selected Answer: c. cartel.
Correct Answer: c. cartel.
Feedback: Correct

Question 38 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Under a policy of average-cost pricing,
Selected Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where price
equals average cost.
Correct Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where price
equals average cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 39 0 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. Along the line corresponding to points a and b, the
following statement(s) is/are true:

Selected Answer: c. For any value of X beyond point a, the value of X is greater
than the corresponding value of Y.
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Feedback: d, all of the above

Question 40 1.25 out of 1.25 points


As compared to the short-run elasticity of supply, in the long run, the elasticity of
supply will usually:
Selected Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).
Correct Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).
Feedback: Correct

Question 41 1.25 out of 1.25 points


In the short run, the price elasticity of demand for gasoline is estimated to be about
0.11. In the long run, studies suggest that it is about 0.9. How can you best explain
this difference?
Selected Answer: c. Consumers are more able to make different choices given more
time to adapt.
Correct Answer: c. Consumers are more able to make different choices given more
time to adapt.
Feedback: Correct
Question 42 1.25 out of 1.25 points
According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of
ice-cream and pizzas such that
Selected Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility per
dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Correct Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility per
dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Feedback: Correct

Question 43 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?

Selected Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 44 0 out of 1.25 points


Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour?
Selected Answer: $5.00
Correct Answer: one hour of studying
Feedback: one hour of studying

Question 45 0 out of 1.25 points


The concept of opportunity cost is based on the principle of:
Selected Answer: poverty.
Correct Answer: scarcity.
Feedback: Scarcity
Question 46 1.25 out of 1.25 points
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
Selected Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on
the quantity is uncertain.
Correct Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on the
quantity is uncertain.
Feedback: Correct

Question 47 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Hal sells tennis shoes. Hal wants to increase his revenues, so he raises his prices. This
strategy will only work if demand is
Selected Answer: c. inelastic.
Correct Answer: c. inelastic.
Feedback: Correct

Question 48 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following statements is true?
Selected Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Correct Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
Feedback: Correct

Question 49 0 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following is not a type of product differentiation?
Selected Answer: b. location
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are types of product differentiation
Feedback: e. Anything that distinguishes one product from another is a type of
differentiation. Even products that are identical but sold in different locations can be
differentiated.

Question 50 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because:
Selected Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Correct Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for
cheating.
Feedback: Correct

Question 51 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the
following principle:
Selected Answer: a. The marginal principle.
Correct Answer: a. The marginal principle.
Feedback: Correct

Question 52 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC:

Selected Answer: a. increases.


Correct Answer: a. increases.
Feedback: Correct
Question 53 1.25 out of 1.25 points
If Country 1 is absolutely better at producing all goods than Country 2, which of the
following is most likely to be true?
Selected Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.
Correct Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.
Feedback: Correct

Question 54 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then
Selected Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.
Correct Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.
Feedback: Correct

Question 55 1.25 out of 1.25 points


In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers?
Selected Answer: d. centrally planned economy
Correct Answer: d. centrally planned economy
Feedback: Correct

Question 56 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Use the information in this table to answer the question.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Selected Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
Correct Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
Feedback: Correct
Question 57 1.25 out of 1.25 points
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium,
Selected Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal
cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 58 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If foreign officials make it time-consuming and complicated to get goods through
customs, this is an example of a:
Selected Answer: d. nontariff trade barrier.
Correct Answer: d. nontariff trade barrier.
Feedback: Correct

Question 59 1.25 out of 1.25 points


A perfectly competitive firm is operating at an output where price is greater than
marginal cost. Therefore:
Selected Answer: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.
Correct Answer: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.
Feedback: Correct

Question 60 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common?

Selected Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount
of income.
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Feedback: Correct

Question 61 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because:
Selected Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.
Correct Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.
Feedback: Correct

Question 62 1.25 out of 1.25 points


The income elasticity of widgets is negative; the cross elasticity between widgets and
gadgets is negative. Widgets are a(n):
Selected Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Correct Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Feedback: Correct

Question 63 0 out of 1.25 points


According to the duopolists' dilemma,
Selected Answer: c. two firms are better off if one chooses a high price while the
other chooses a low price.
Correct Answer: b. two firms both choose a low price, although both would be
better off with the high price.
Feedback: b, both pick a low price.

Question 64 1.25 out of 1.25 points


According to the marginal principle, if the marginal benefit is far greater than the
marginal cost, than a rational individual will
Selected Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Correct Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 65 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If Y = 600 - 3X, what is the vertical intercept?
Selected Answer: d. 600
Correct Answer: d. 600
Feedback: Correct

Question 66 0 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following best explains why there are diminishing returns in the short
run?
Selected Answer: In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have
less to work with, and output increases at a increasing rate.
Correct Answer: In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have less
to work with, and output increases at a decreasing rate.
Feedback: Some inputs are fixed, so output increases at a decreasing rate.

Question 67 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because:
Selected Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.
Correct Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.
Feedback: Correct

Question 68 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Why do people specialize and trade?
Selected Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Correct Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
Feedback: Correct
Question 69 1.25 out of 1.25 points
An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that:
Selected Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is
added, output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than
the previous unit.
Correct Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is added,
output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than the
previous unit.
Feedback: Correct

Question 70 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because:
Selected Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.
Correct Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.
Feedback: Correct

Question 71 1.25 out of 1.25 points


In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the
market price be?
Selected Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.
Correct Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.
Feedback: Correct

Question 72 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the
following shows the effect on the computer market?

Selected Answer: b. Graph B


Correct Answer: b. Graph B
Feedback: Correct

Question 73 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in?

Selected Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.


Correct Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.
Feedback: Correct

Question 74 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with:
Selected Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.
Correct Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.
Feedback: Correct

Question 75 1.25 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following is a competitive business firm able to control:
Selected Answer: c. The amount of output it produces
Correct Answer: c. The amount of output it produces
Feedback: Correct

Question 76 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are
Selected Answer: b. an inferior good.
Correct Answer: b. an inferior good.
Feedback: Correct
Question 77 1.25 out of 1.25 points
Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics?
Selected Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic study.
Correct Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic study.
Feedback: Correct

Question 78 1.25 out of 1.25 points


If the firm has economies of scale in the long run, then the long-run average cost
curve is:
Selected Answer: c. downward-sloping.
Correct Answer: c. downward-sloping.
Feedback: Correct

Question 79 0 out of 1.25 points


A Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) illustrates the concept of scarcity. Which item
will be most likely to result in a shift of the PPC outward, indicating the ability to
produce more goods?
Selected Answer: a decrease in the price of steel
Correct Answer: an increase in population
Feedback: an increase in population

Question 80 0 out of 1.25 points


Which of the following is true of a monopoly?
Selected Answer: a. A monopoly always charges the highest possible price.
Correct Answer: c. The monopoly?s demand curve and the market demand curve
are one and the same.
Feedback: c.

COURSES > ECON125-HK. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS >


ASSIGNMENTS&EXAM > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: FINAL EXAM
Review Assessment: Final Exam

Name: Final Exam


Status :Completed
Score:95 out of 100 points
Instructions:This exam consists of 80 equally weighed questions. Always pick the
single best answer. Questions that are skipped or are submitted with multiple answers
will be scored as incorrect.
Question 1
0 of 1.25 points

According to the Q-theory of investment:

Selected Answer: b. firms will invest more when future GDP growth is predicted.
Correct Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Feedback: c, firms invest more when their stock price is high

Question 2
1.25 of 1.25 points

Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output?

Selected Answer: b. an increase in government spending


Correct Answer: b. an increase in government spending
Feedback: Correct

Question 3
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________.

Selected Answer: c. not change, fall

Correct Answer: c. not change, fall

Feedback: Correct

Question 4
1.25 of 1.25 points

If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause?

Selected Answer: d. The demand for labor has decreased.


Correct Answer: d. The demand for labor has decreased.
Feedback: Correct

Question 5
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is the best example of cyclical unemployment?

Selected Answer: c. The aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during
recessions, so it temporarily lays off workers.
Correct Answer: c. The aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during
recessions, so it temporarily lays off workers.
Feedback: Correct

Question 6
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following groups is primarily responsible for setting monetary policy,
such as open-market operations?

Selected Answer: c. The Federal Open Market Committee


Correct Answer: c. The Federal Open Market Committee
Feedback: Correct

Question 7
0 of 1.25 points

Which of the following will cause an INCREASE in aggregate demand?

Selected Answer: a. a decrease in the price level

Correct Answer: b. an increase in the money supply


Feedback: b, increase money supply

Question 8
1.25 of 1.25 points

According to real business cycle theory,

Selected Answer: d. business cycles are caused by technology shocks.


Correct Answer: d. business cycles are caused by technology shocks.
Feedback: Correct

Question 9
1.25 of 1.25 points

The unemployment rate is likely to understate the rate of actual unemployment


because:

Selected Answer: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as


unemployed.
Correct Answer: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as
unemployed.
Feedback: Correct

Question 10
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is an example of a government transfer payment?


Selected Answer: d. the food stamps issued to persons in an antipoverty program
Correct Answer: d. the food stamps issued to persons in an antipoverty program
Feedback: Correct

Question 11
1.25 of 1.25 points

The expected real interest rate

Selected Answer: e. is difficult to measure.


Correct Answer: e. is difficult to measure.
Feedback: Correct

Question 12
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following will shift the Keynesian aggregate supply curve?

Selected Answer: d. a change in oil prices


Correct Answer: d. a change in oil prices
Feedback: Correct

Question 13
1.25 of 1.25 points

If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken?

Selected Answer: c. 7%

Correct Answer: c. 7%

Feedback: Correct

Question 14
1.25 of 1.25 points

In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______.

Selected Answer: b. fall, not change

Correct Answer: b. fall, not change

Feedback: Correct

Question 15
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose the economy of Duckland produces 3 pizzas at $5 a pizza, 6 gallons of ice


cream at $3 a gallon, and 5 cases of soda pop at $10 a case. The gross domestic
product of Duckland is

Selected Answer: a. $83.

Correct Answer: a. $83.

Feedback: Correct

Question 16
1.25 of 1.25 points

Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________.

Selected Answer: c. Keynesian economics, the real business cycle theory


Correct Answer: c. Keynesian economics, the real business cycle theory
Feedback: Correct

Question 17
1.25 of 1.25 points
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of:
Selected Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Correct Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Feedback: Correct

Question 18
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the capital stock increases:

Selected Answer: c. the aggregate production function will shift upward.


Correct Answer: c. the aggregate production function will shift upward.
Feedback: Correct

Question 19
1.25 of 1.25 points

Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?

Selected Answer: d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings


not based on rational evidence.
Correct Answer: d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings
not based on rational evidence.
Feedback: Correct

Question 20
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year?

Selected Answer: b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.


Correct Answer: b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.
Feedback: Correct

Question 21
1.25 of 1.25 points
If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, then

Selected Answer: d. the slope of the consumption function increases.


Correct Answer: d. the slope of the consumption function increases.
Feedback: Correct

Question 22
1.25 of 1.25 points

The difference between real GDP and nominal GDP is that

Selected Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while
real GDP controls for changes in prices.
Correct Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while
real GDP controls for changes in prices.
Feedback: Correct

Question 23
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience

Selected Answer: a. capital deepening.


Correct Answer: a. capital deepening.
Feedback: Correct

Question 24
1.25 of 1.25 points

Assuming a classical aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause a
decrease in output?

Selected Answer: e. None of the above are true.


Correct Answer: e. None of the above are true.
Feedback: Correct

Question 25
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose a farmer sells wheat to a miller for $400 and the miller grinds the wheat into
flour. The flour is sold to a bakery for $750. The bakery uses the flour to produce
$1,250 worth of bread. Assume the bakery has no other input to production. In the
production of the bread, the value added by the bakery is

Selected Answer: a. $500.

Correct Answer: a. $500.

Feedback: Correct

Question 26
0 of 1.25 points

Suppose currency held by the public is $100, $250 is held in checkable deposits, $50
is held in travelers' checks, and $500 is held in money market mutual funds.
Assuming no money is held in any other account, the value of M1 is

Selected Answer: a. $100.

Correct Answer: c. $400.


Feedback: c, $400

Question 27
1.25 of 1.25 points

Investment spending is very

Selected Answer: d. procyclical.

Correct Answer: d. procyclical.

Feedback: Correct

Question 28
1.25 of 1.25 points
Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment?

Selected Answer: b. Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the


typewriter industry permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the
skills to get a job in the computer industry.
Correct Answer: b. Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the
typewriter industry permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the
skills to get a job in the computer industry.
Feedback: Correct

Question 29
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate good?

Selected Answer: e. paint sold to a consumer to use on his house


Correct Answer: e. paint sold to a consumer to use on his house
Feedback: Correct

Question 30
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5 marks
= $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany?

Selected Answer: d. $2.0

Correct Answer: d. $2.0

Feedback: Correct

Question 31
0 of 1.25 points

Assuming that capital is fixed, as the amount of labor in the economy increases, total
output
Selected Answer: d. increases at a decreasing rate.
Correct Answer: b. decreases at a decreasing rate.
Feedback: b, increases at a decreasing rate

Question 32
1.25 of 1.25 points

For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be:

Selected Answer: d. elementary education.


Correct Answer: d. elementary education.
Feedback: Correct

Question 33
1.25 of 1.25 points

What is the effect of government spending on capital deepening?

Selected Answer: c. Government spending can increase capital deepening when it


is used to build infrastructures such as roads and bridges.
Correct Answer: c. Government spending can increase capital deepening when it
is used to build infrastructures such as roads and bridges.
Feedback: Correct

Question 34
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that the reserve ratio is 0.2 and that banks loan out all their excess reserves.
If a person deposits $100 cash in a bank, checking account balances will increase by

Selected Answer: d. $500.

Correct Answer: d. $500.

Feedback: Correct

Question 35
1.25 of 1.25 points
If John quits his job to find a new job in a different city, John is considered

Selected Answer: b. frictionally unemployed.


Correct Answer: b. frictionally unemployed.
Feedback: Correct

Question 36
1.25 of 1.25 points

At the full-employment level of output,

Selected Answer: c. the labor market is in equilibrium.


Correct Answer: c. the labor market is in equilibrium.
Feedback: Correct

Question 37
1.25 of 1.25 points

In a closed economy, if government spending increases:

Selected Answer: c. either consumption or investment or both must decrease.


Correct Answer: c. either consumption or investment or both must decrease.
Feedback: Correct

Question 38
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply, which of the following would
accomplish that goal?

Selected Answer: a. sell bonds to the private sector


Correct Answer: a. sell bonds to the private sector
Feedback: Correct

Question 39
1.25 of 1.25 points
Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer?

Selected Answer: d. a decrease in unemployment benefits paid out during an


expansion
Correct Answer: d. a decrease in unemployment benefits paid out during an
expansion
Feedback: Correct

Question 40
1.25 of 1.25 points

What is the definition of a recession?

Selected Answer: b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive quarters.


Correct Answer: b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive quarters.
Feedback: Correct

Question 41
1.25 of 1.25 points

Sources of external funds of a financial intermediary are known as

Selected Answer: a. liabilities.

Correct Answer: a. liabilities.

Feedback: Correct

Question 42
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest rate
is

Selected Answer: c. 5%.

Correct Answer: c. 5%.


Feedback: Correct

Question 43
1.25 of 1.25 points

An increase in the real interest rate:

Selected Answer: c. decreases the quantity of investment.


Correct Answer: c. decreases the quantity of investment.
Feedback: Correct

Question 44
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about investment?

Selected Answer: b. Investment refers to the purchases of stocks and bonds.


Correct Answer: b. Investment refers to the purchases of stocks and bonds.
Feedback: Correct

Question 45
1.25 of 1.25 points

___________ interest rates are quoted in the market, while ___________ interest rates
are adjusted for inflation.

Selected Answer: b. Nominal, real

Correct Answer: b. Nominal, real

Feedback: Correct

Question 46
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the economy is at full employment, which of the following is true?

Selected Answer: b. There is no cyclical unemployment.


Correct Answer: b. There is no cyclical unemployment.
Feedback: Correct

Question 47
1.25 of 1.25 points

Why is it difficult to compare real per capita GDP across countries?

Selected Answer: b. because exchange rates are determined by supply and


demand for traded goods and financial assets and do not reflect the value of many
goods that determine living standards
Correct Answer: b. because exchange rates are determined by supply and
demand for traded goods and financial assets and do not reflect the value of many
goods that determine living standards
Feedback: Correct

Question 48
1.25 of 1.25 points

Financial intermediaries

Selected Answer: b. reduce risk through diversification.


Correct Answer: b. reduce risk through diversification.
Feedback: Correct

Question 49
1.25 of 1.25 points

Trade deficits are likely to lead to future increases in consumption if

Selected Answer: a. the trade deficits support current investment.


Correct Answer: a. the trade deficits support current investment.
Feedback: Correct

Question 50
1.25 of 1.25 points

Money serves as a unit of account because


Selected Answer: d. prices are quoted in terms of money.
Correct Answer: d. prices are quoted in terms of money.
Feedback: Correct

Question 51
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the

Selected Answer: a. wealth effect.

Correct Answer: a. wealth effect.

Feedback: Correct

Question 52
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve?

Selected Answer: d. changes in the stock of labor or capital


Correct Answer: d. changes in the stock of labor or capital
Feedback: Correct

Question 53
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following are examples of items used as money?

Selected Answer: e. All of the above are true.


Correct Answer: e. All of the above are true.
Feedback: Correct

Question 54
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose there are 2,000 people in the nation of Utopia. Of the people over 16 years
old, 1,500 are employed, and 100 are unemployed and looking for work, and 400 are
unemployed and are not looking for work. The labor force participation rate in Utopia
is:

Selected Answer: c. 80%.

Correct Answer: c. 80%.

Feedback: Correct

Question 55
1.25 of 1.25 points

Money serves as a store of value because

Selected Answer: b. its value is preserved between transactions.


Correct Answer: b. its value is preserved between transactions.
Feedback: Correct

Question 56
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose?

Selected Answer: d. C, D and E only

Correct Answer: d. C, D and E only

Feedback: Correct

Question 57
1.25 of 1.25 points
If people transfer money from their checking account to their savings account

Selected Answer: b. M1 falls and M2 remains constant.


Correct Answer: b. M1 falls and M2 remains constant.
Feedback: Correct

Question 58
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is an example of convergence?

Selected Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly
than that of a rich nation.
Correct Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly
than that of a rich nation.
Feedback: Correct

Question 59
1.25 of 1.25 points

During the Great Depression, banks failed because:

Selected Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must
collapse if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Correct Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must
collapse if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Feedback: Correct

Question 60
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following will decrease the supply of labor?

Selected Answer: d. an increase in income taxes


Correct Answer: d. an increase in income taxes
Feedback: Correct

Question 61
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following will cause aggregate demand to increase?

Selected Answer: a. an increase in the money supply


Correct Answer: a. an increase in the money supply
Feedback: Correct

Question 62
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the CPI is 350 in Year 1 and 420 in Year 2, what is the inflation rate?

Selected Answer: b. 20%

Correct Answer: b. 20%

Feedback: Correct

Question 63
1.25 of 1.25 points

Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is:

Selected Answer: c. A poor country growing rapidly.


Correct Answer: c. A poor country growing rapidly.
Feedback: Correct

Question 64
1.25 of 1.25 points

Suppose a computer manufacturer develops a new method of processing that allows


them to make more computers with the same amount of input. This is an example of

Selected Answer: b. technological progress.


Correct Answer: b. technological progress.
Feedback: Correct

Question 65
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Consumer Price Index
(CPI) and the GDP deflator?

Selected Answer: d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for quality
improvements in goods.
Correct Answer: d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for quality
improvements in goods.
Feedback: Correct

Question 66
1.25 of 1.25 points

The relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP demanded is
called

Selected Answer: c. aggregate demand.


Correct Answer: c. aggregate demand.
Feedback: Correct

Question 67
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the natural rate of unemployment for the economy is 5% and the current rate of
unemployment is 4%, which of the following is true?

Selected Answer: a. Cyclical unemployment is negative.


Correct Answer: a. Cyclical unemployment is negative.
Feedback: Correct

Question 68
1.25 of 1.25 points

According to the ___________, investment spending depends positively on the


expected future growth of GDP, while the _____________ model suggests that a
downturn in GDP reduces investment, causing an additional decrease in GDP.

Selected Answer: b. accelerator theory, multiplier-accelerator


Correct Answer: b. accelerator theory, multiplier-accelerator
Feedback: Correct

Question 69
1.25 of 1.25 points

When the level of national output is zero, total consumption is

Selected Answer: c. equal to autonomous consumption.


Correct Answer: c. equal to autonomous consumption.
Feedback: Correct

Question 70
1.25 of 1.25 points

An increase in the capital stock

Selected Answer: a. shifts up the short-run production function, causing output to


increase at all positive levels of labor.
Correct Answer: a. shifts up the short-run production function, causing output to
increase at all positive levels of labor.
Feedback: Correct

Question 71
1.25 of 1.25 points

If the cost of a basket of goods is $125 in 1989, $135 in 1990, and $150 for 1991,
assuming 1991 is the base year, the CPI for 1989 is

Selected Answer: e. 83.

Correct Answer: e. 83.

Feedback: Correct
Question 72
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is an example of a durable good?

Selected Answer: b. a television

Correct Answer: b. a television

Feedback: Correct

Question 73
1.25 of 1.25 points

The study of the economy as it operates at full employment is called

Selected Answer: c. classical economics.


Correct Answer: c. classical economics.
Feedback: Correct

Question 74
1.25 of 1.25 points

A consumer buys a new house. In which GDP category does this count?

Selected Answer: b. Investment

Correct Answer: b. Investment

Feedback: Correct

Question 75
1.25 of 1.25 points

Currency is:

Selected Answer: b. an asset to the public and a liability of the Fed.


Correct Answer: b. an asset to the public and a liability of the Fed.
Feedback: Correct

Question 76
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is considered to be included in the underground economy?

Selected Answer: b. gambling winnings not reported on your taxes


Correct Answer: b. gambling winnings not reported on your taxes
Feedback: Correct

Question 77
1.25 of 1.25 points

In an open economy, exports _______ national income, and imports ________


national income.

Selected Answer: b. increase, reduce

Correct Answer: b. increase, reduce

Feedback: Correct

Question 78
1.25 of 1.25 points

The government budget deficit and the trade deficit are known as the twin deficits
because:

Selected Answer: d. in an open economy, increased government budget deficits


can reduce exports and increase imports, increasing the trade deficit.
Correct Answer: d. in an open economy, increased government budget deficits
can reduce exports and increase imports, increasing the trade deficit.
Feedback: Correct

Question 79
1.25 of 1.25 points
Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that information,
what can you say about output?

Selected Answer: d. Any of the above answers are possible.


Correct Answer: d. Any of the above answers are possible.
Feedback: Correct

Question 80
1.25 of 1.25 points

Which of the following is NOT an example of government spending?

Selected Answer: c. A retired person receives a Social Security payment.


Correct Answer: c. A retired person receives a Social Security payment.
Feedback: Correct

A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied by
an entire industry is a d. short-run market supply curve.
A firm's variable costs d. are determined by quantity of output produced by a firm.
A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices: c. if it
is trying to deter entry.
A monopolist sets the price of a good by choosing the level of output and then b.
setting the price according to the market demand curve.
R d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
A natural monopoly occurs when a. the entry of a second firm would make both
firms unprofitable.
A perfectly competitive firm is operating at an output where price is greater than
marginal cost. Therefore: a. the firm should produce more to maximize profit.
According to the Law of Supply, d. the higher the price, the larger the quantity
supplied.
According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of
ice-cream and pizzas such that a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the
marginal utility per dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar
spent on pizza.
An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that: a. with a fixed
amount of capital, as more and more labor is added, output increases at a decreasing
rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than the previous unit.
As compared to perfect competition, monopolies a. reduce consumer surplus,
create positive economic profits, and generate deadweight loss.
As more firms enter the market, which of the following is true? a. Demand for each
firm decreases.
As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand: c.
decreases.
At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing, a. the
marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost curve.
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on the quantity is
uncertain.
Economic profit is c. total revenue minus the total of explicit and implicit costs.
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium, e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal cost.
Hal sells tennis shoes. Hal wants to increase his revenues, so he raises his prices. This
strategy will only work if demand is c. inelastic.
If foreign officials make it time-consuming and complicated to get goods through
customs, this is an example of a: d. nontariff trade barrier.
If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then: c. your nominal income hasn't
changed, but your real income has increased.
If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then a. the two
products are substitutes.
If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are b. an inferior good.
If the firm has economies of scale in the long run, then the long-run average cost
curve is: c. downward-sloping.
If the marginal product of labor is increasing, a. output is increasing at an
increasing rate.
If Y = 600 - 3X, what is the vertical intercept? d. 600
If you earn $80,000 a year and acquiring cable TV service costs you $150 per year,
your demand for cable is likely to be: d. inelastic.
In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the
market price be? b. Price will be equal to average cost.
In a monopolistically competitive market, what will cause the entry of new firms to
stop? d. A decrease in economic profit down to zero.
In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must: c. Decrease the
price on all units sold.
In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called: c. Fixed cost.
In the short-run, an increase in demand results in a(n) a. greater increase in the
equilibrium price than in the long-run.
In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers? d. centrally
planned economy
Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour? b. one hour of
studying
Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with: d. Selling
an additional unit of output.
Marginal utility is the b. additional happiness gained by consuming one more unit
of a good.
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents d. the output at which the long-run
average cost curve reaches its lowest point.
Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because: a. marginal revenue is less
than price in both industries.
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because: b. there are no
barriers to entry in either industry.
Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because: c. consumers
gain from increased variety.
Refer to the graph below. Along the line corresponding to points a and b, the
following statement(s) is/are true: d. All of the above.
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common? c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change in
supply moves equilibrium to: d. Point b
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?
c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains above marginal
cost.
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in? b. After three units of
output are produced.
Refer to the graph below. Which of the following factors can cause a move from point
d to points g or h? d. All of the above.
Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the
penalties for cheating.
Suppose a firm responds to underpricing by another firm by choosing a price so low
that neither firm can profit. This strategy is known as d. the grim trigger strategy.
Suppose that all of the fast-food restaurants in the entire world are purchased by one
firm. Relative to the current (competitive) price and quantity (and assuming that
nothing else has changed), we would expect the monopolist to: d. sell less and
charge more.
Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production? b. $89
Suppose that there is a particularly good wheat harvest this year, and at the same time,
medical reports indicate that increased grain consumption improves health. What will
happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of wheat? e. Quantity will increase,
but the change in price depends on the relative size of the shift.
Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the
following shows the effect on the computer market? b. Graph B
The concept of opportunity cost is based on the principle of: d. scarcity.
The firm?s short-run production function, or total product curve, is a relationship that
shows: d. The amount of output that can be obtained from the addition of a variable
input (i.e. labor), while holding at least one other input (i.e. capital) constant, or fixed.
The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC: a. increases.
The key feature of an oligopoly is that: d. Firms act strategically.
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a c.
cartel.
The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the
following principle: a. The marginal principle.
The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
b. The price of the good changes drastically.
The problem of scarcity, d. exists because human wants exceed available
resources.
Under a policy of average-cost pricing, a. the government picks a point on the
demand curve where price equals average cost.
Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice competitors.
We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition: c. Many firms,
differentiated product, and no artificial barriers to entry.
What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza? b. $1.50
What is the marginal cost of the second slice of pizza? a. $1.50
When firms act together to set prices: e. all of the above
Which of the following best explains why there are diminishing returns in the short
run? b. In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have less to
work with, and output increases at a decreasing rate.
Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium? d. All
of the above.
Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?
b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Which of the following formulas shows total profit? b. (P ? ATC)Q
Which of the following is not a type of product differentiation? e. All of the above
are types of product differentiation
Which of the following is NOT an example of a marginal decision? c. If I hire ten
workers to produce tables, what will be the average cost per table?
Which of the following is true of a monopoly? c. The monopoly?s demand curve
and the market demand curve are one and the same.
Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics? e. None of the
above; all are within the scope of economic study.
Which of the following statements best describes total utility? b. Total utility
increases at a decreasing rate with each good a consumer purchases.
Which of the following statements is correct? c. Jorge has the absolute and
comparative advantage in pies.
Which of the following statements is true? d. If marginal cost is greater than average
variable cost, average variable cost must be increasing.
Which of the following would be expected to have the MOST elastic demand? d.
Ford Taurus
Why are monopoly markets considered to be inefficent? d. because they restrict
output, creating a deadweight loss
Why do people specialize and trade? a. Because each person can consume more by
specializing and trading.
___________ interest rates are quoted in the market, while ___________ interest rates
are adjusted for inflation. b. Nominal, real
A consumer buys a new house. In which GDP category does this count? b.
Investment
According to real business cycle theory, d. business cycles are caused by
technology shocks.
According to supply-side economists, higher tax rates e. may reduce tax
revenues by discouraging economic activity.
According to the ___________, investment spending depends positively on the
expected future growth of GDP, while the _____________ model suggests that a
downturn in GDP reduces investment, causing an additional decrease in GDP. b.
accelerator theory, multiplier-accelerator
An increase in the capital stock a. shifts up the short-run production function,
causing output to increase at all positive levels of labor.
An increase in the real interest rate: c. decreases the quantity of investment.
Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output? b. an increase in government spending
At the full-employment level of output, c. the labor market is in equilibrium.
Automatic stabilizers in the economy smooth business cycles by: a. increasing
transfer payments during recessions and increasing tax collections during inflationary
periods.
Consider the Keynesian cross model. If output exceeds the equilibrium level of
output, then b. firms experience an increase in inventories and respond by reducing
production.
Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________. c. Keynesian
economics, the real business cycle theory
Economists are concerned that the CPI may actually overstate the true annual increase
in the cost of living. Why is this a problem? c. Because increases in Social
Security are related to the increase in the CPI, and the federal budget will increase too
fast.
Financial intermediaries b. reduce risk through diversification.
For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be: d.
elementary education.
If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken? c. 7%
If John quits his job to find a new job in a different city, John is considered b.
frictionally unemployed.
If nominal interest rates are high but there is still a high level of investment, it is likely
that: c. the inflation rate is high, and thus the real interest rate is low.
If people transfer money from their checking account to their savings account b. M1
falls and M2 remains constant.
If prices increase but the level of national output is held constant, than nominal GDP
________ and real GDP __________. e. increases, does not change
If the capital stock increases: c. the aggregate production function will shift
upward.
If the cost of a basket of goods is $125 in 1989, $135 in 1990, and $150 for 1991,
assuming 1991 is the base year, the CPI for 1989 is e. 83.
If the economy is at full employment, which of the following is true? b. There is
no cyclical unemployment.
If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, then d. the slope of the
consumption function increases.
If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest rate
is c. 5%.
If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5 marks
= $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany? d. $2.0
If the real GDP growth rate of a country is 7%, how many years will it take for real
GDP to double? b. 10 years
If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause? d. The demand for labor has decreased.
In a closed economy, if government spending increases: c. either consumption or
investment or both must decrease.
In an open economy, exports _______ national income, and imports ________
national income. b. increase, reduce
In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______. b. fall, not change
Investment spending is very d. procyclical.
Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?
d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings not based on
rational evidence.
Money serves as a store of value because b. its value is preserved between
transactions.
National output that is not consumed is called c. savings.
Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is: c. A poor country
growing rapidly.
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
Some economists argue that cutting the capital gains tax is desirable because: b.
individuals will be more likely to sell stock that has increased in value, and tax
revenues will rise.
Sources of external funds of a financial intermediary are known as a. liabilities.
Suppose a computer manufacturer develops a new method of processing that allows
them to make more computers with the same amount of input. This is an example of
b. technological progress.
Suppose a farmer sells wheat to a miller for $400 and the miller grinds the wheat into
flour. The flour is sold to a bakery for $750. The bakery uses the flour to produce
$1,250 worth of bread. Assume the bakery has no other input to production. In the
production of the bread, the value added by the bakery is a. $500.
Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience a. capital deepening.
Suppose that a U.S. corporation has a plant in Malaysia. Income from that plant is part
of the company's annual earnings, but how is it counted in the national income
accounts? c. It counts toward both gross national product (GNP) but not toward
gross domestic product (GDP).
Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year? b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.
Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________. c. not change, fall
Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose? d. C, D and E only
Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that information,
what can you say about output? d. Any of the above answers are possible.
Suppose there are 2,000 people in the nation of Utopia. Of the people over 16 years
old, 1,500 are employed, and 100 are unemployed and looking for work, and 400 are
unemployed and are not looking for work. The labor force participation rate in Utopia
is: c. 80%.
Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the a. wealth effect.
The expected real interest rate e. is difficult to measure.
The GDP deflator: c. is an index of how prices change over time.
The government budget deficit and the trade deficit are known as the twin deficits
because: d. in an open economy, increased government budget deficits can reduce
exports and increase imports, increasing the trade deficit.
The investment spending curve is a. a negative relationship between real interest
rates and investment.
The stock of high-powered money, or the monetary base, is bank reserves plus
currency held by the public. Which of the following would change the stock of high-
powered money? d. The Fed buys bonds from the public sector.
The U. S. Federal Reserve is controlled by: d. the Chairman of the Fed and the Board
of Governors.
The unemployment rate is likely to understate the rate of actual unemployment
because: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as unemployed.
Trade deficits are likely to lead to future increases in consumption if a. the trade
deficits support current investment.
What is the definition of a recession? b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive
quarters.
What is the effect of government spending on capital deepening? c. Government
spending can increase capital deepening when it is used to build infrastructures such
as roads and bridges.
When the level of national output is zero, total consumption is c. equal to
autonomous consumption.
Which of the following are examples of items used as money? e. All of the above
are true.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the natural rate of unemployment?
b. The natural rate of unemployment differs between developed countries.
Which of the following is an example of a contractionary fiscal policy? b.
increased taxes
Which of the following is an example of a durable good? b. a television
Which of the following is an example of a government transfer payment? d. the food
stamps issued to persons in an antipoverty program
Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer? d. a decrease in
unemployment benefits paid out during an expansion
Which of the following is an example of convergence? e. The GDP per capita of
a poor nation grows more quickly than that of a rich nation.
Which of the following is considered to be included in the underground economy?
b. gambling winnings not reported on your taxes
Which of the following is NOT a reason why the aggregate demand curve is
downward-sloping? c. When the price level rises, consumers will substitute to
other, less-expensive goods, and the quantity demanded will fall.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the Consumer Price Index
(CPI) and the GDP deflator? d. Neither the CPI nor the GDP deflator adjusts for
quality improvements in goods.
Which of the following is NOT an example of government spending? c. A retired
person receives a Social Security payment.
Which of the following is NOT an intermediate good? e. paint sold to a
consumer to use on his house
Which of the following is the best example of cyclical unemployment? c. The
aircraft industry has sharply reduced sales during recessions, so it temporarily lays off
workers.
Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment? b.
Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the typewriter industry
permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the skills to get a job in the
computer industry.
Which of the following will cause aggregate demand to increase? a. an increase in
the money supply
Which of the following will decrease the supply of labor? d. an increase in income
taxes
Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve? d. changes
in the stock of labor or capital
Which of the following will shift the Keynesian aggregate supply curve? d. a change
in oil prices
Why is it difficult to compare real per capita GDP across countries? b. because
exchange rates are determined by supply and demand for traded goods and financial
assets and do not reflect the value of many goods that determine living standards
Why was fiscal policy more effective in the early 1960s than in the late 1960s?
d. because the change in the early 1960s was expected to be permanent while the
change in the late 1960s was known to be temporary
The following table gives production possibilities for an economy that can produce
two goods: lobsters and boats. Graph the production possibilities curve (PPC), given
the information in Table 1-1, and putting lobsters on the horizontal axis. Use your
graph to answer the question: As this economy produces more and more lobsters, the
slope of the PPC:
Correct Answer: a. increases.
What is the marginal benefit of the fourth slice of pizza?
Correct Answer: $1.50
Suppose that an additional unit of output would require 5 additional hours of labor
and 7 additional units of materials. If the wage is $15 per hour and the price of
materials is $2 per unit, what is the marginal cost of production?
Correct Answer: b. $89
An upward-sloping short-run marginal cost curve shows that:
Correct Answer: a. with a fixed amount of capital, as more and more labor is added,
output increases at a decreasing rate, and thus each unit is more expensive than the
previous unit.
As more firms enter the market, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: a. Demand for each firm decreases.
If Y = 200 + 2X, what is the slope of this line?
Correct Answer: c. 2
As compared to perfect competition, monopolies
Correct Answer: a. reduce consumer surplus, create positive economic profits, and
generate deadweight loss.
In the short run, the cost that is independent of the amount of output produced is
called:
Correct Answer: c. Fixed cost.
Under a policy of average-cost pricing,
Correct Answer: a. the government picks a point on the demand curve where price
equals average cost.
A curve showing the relationship between price and the quantity of output supplied
by an entire industry is a
Correct Answer: d. short-run market supply curve.
Which of the following conditions exist in long-run competitive equilibrium?
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Why are monopoly markets considered to be inefficent?
Correct Answer: d. because they restrict output, creating a deadweight loss
Technology improves, reducing the cost of producing computers. Which of the
following shows the effect on the computer market?
Correct Answer: b. Graph B
Consider the effect of the following on the market for chocolate: There is an increase
in the price of cacao,an input to chocolate production, and at the same time, a
successful advertising campaign convinces consumers that chocolate is even more
desirable. Which of the following best explains the effect on the chocolate market?
Correct Answer: c. The equilibrium price of chocolate will rise, but the effect on the
quantity is uncertain.
The overall demand for a product will NOT change in which of the following cases?
Correct Answer: b. The price of the good changes drastically.
Joe can choose between working one more hour at a wage of $5, watching TV for an
hour, or studying for an hour. He chooses to work, but his second choice would have
been to study. What is the opportunity cost of working for an hour?
Correct Answer: one hour of studying
A monopolist will choose a level of output that sets
Correct Answer: d. marginal revenue equal to marginal cost.
As compared to the short-run elasticity of supply, in the long run, the elasticity of
supply will usually:
Correct Answer: a. increase (become more elastic).
If the demand for baked potatoes increases as a person?s income decreases, potatoes
are
Correct Answer: b. an inferior good.
An economist's notion of costs differs from an accountant's notion of costs as
follows:
Correct Answer: c. Economic cost includes the opportunity costs of nonpurchased
inputs; accounting cost includes only actual cash payments.
In the short-run, an increase in demand results in a(n)
Correct Answer: a. greater increase in the equilibrium price than in the long-run.
The output decisions of a monopolistically competitive firm are based on the
following principle:
Correct Answer: a. The marginal principle.
A Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) illustrates the concept of scarcity. Which
item will be most likely to result in a shift of the PPC outward, indicating the ability
to produce more goods?
Correct Answer: an increase in population
Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) represents
Correct Answer: d. the output at which the long-run average cost curve reaches its
lowest point.
A monopolist sets the price of a good by choosing the level of output and then
Correct Answer: b. setting the price according to the market demand curve.
James has enough money to buy a car at the market price from fifteen years ago, but
today it?s only half of what he would need. Which principle does this represent?
Correct Answer: Reality
In which type of economy does the government decide what to produce, how to
produce, and how to distribute goods and services to consumers?
Correct Answer: d. centrally planned economy
Refer to the graph below. Along the line corresponding to points a and b, the
following statement(s) is/are true:
Correct Answer: d. All of the above.
Use the following table to answer the question. What is the marginal cost of the
second slice of pizza?
Correct Answer: $1.50
Refer to the graph below. Starting at point a, an increase in demand with no change
in supply moves equilibrium to:
Correct Answer: d. Point b
Why do people specialize and trade?
Correct Answer: a. Because each person can consume more by specializing and
trading.
For the typical firm in a monopolisitically competitive market in long-run
equilibrium,
Correct Answer: e. the price is greater than both marginal revenue and marginal cost.
As price falls along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand:
Correct Answer: c. decreases.
Refer to the graph below. Along this budget line, what do points j, e, and x have in
common?
Correct Answer: c. All three combinations can be obtained with the same amount of
income.
Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: d. If marginal cost is greater than average variable cost, average
variable cost must be increasing.
If the marginal product of labor is increasing,
Correct Answer: a. output is increasing at an increasing rate.
A natural monopoly occurs when
Correct Answer: a. the entry of a second firm would make both firms unprofitable.
Under price leadership, a price war may be triggered when a firm lowers price
because
Correct Answer: d. Firms interpret price changes as an attempt to underprice
competitors.
If prices fall but what you earn stays the same, then:
Correct Answer: your nominal income hasn't changed, but your real income has
increased.
In order to increase the amount of output sold, a monopoly must:
Correct Answer: c. Decrease the price on all units sold.
Which of the following does NOT restrict the free flow of goods between nations?
Correct Answer: b. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Which of the following questions is outside the scope of economics?
Correct Answer: e. None of the above; all are within the scope of economic study.
If Country 1 is absolutely better at producing all goods than Country 2, which of the
following is most likely to be true?
Correct Answer: a. Both countries can gain from trade.
Monopolistic competition is similar to perfect competition because:
Correct Answer: b. there are no barriers to entry in either industry.
According to the marginal principle, if the marginal benefit is far greater than the
marginal cost, than a rational individual will
Correct Answer: c. stop the activity when the marginal benefit is equal to the
marginal cost.
In a monopolistically competitive industry in long-run equilibrium, what will the
market price be?
Correct Answer: b. Price will be equal to average cost.
Monopolistic competition is similar to monopoly because:
Correct Answer: a. marginal revenue is less than price in both industries.
At levels of output where the firm's short-run average cost curve is increasing,
Correct Answer: a. the marginal cost curve is above the short-run average cost curve.
Which of the following would be expected to have the MOST elastic demand?
Correct Answer: d. Ford Taurus
Strategies such as the grim trigger, tit-for-tat, and guaranteed price matching help
keep cartels together because:
Correct Answer: b. they reduce the rewards and/or increase the penalties for cheating.
Often a firm will spend money to lobby government officials to allow the firm to act
as a monopolist. This process is known as
Correct Answer: e. rent seeking.
Which of the following statements best describes total utility?
Correct Answer: b. Total utility increases at a decreasing rate with each good a
consumer purchases.
The problem of scarcity,
Correct Answer: d. exists because human wants exceed available resources.
Market systems are desirable because
Correct Answer: a. they facilitate exchange and specialization.
We say that that countries have become more economically interdependent because:
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are reasons for increased interdependence.
According to the utility-maximization rule, consumers will choose combinations of
ice-cream and pizzas such that
Correct Answer: a. on the last unit of each good consumed, the marginal utility per
dollar spent on ice-cream is equal to the marginal utility per dollar spent on pizza.
Monopolistic competition may be beneficial to society because:
Correct Answer: c. consumers gain from increased variety.
Which of the following best explains why there are diminishing returns in the short
run?
Correct Answer: In the short run, some inputs are fixed, so variable inputs have less
to work with, and output increases at a decreasing rate.
Suppose a firm responds to underpricing by another firm by choosing a price so low
that neither firm can profit. This strategy is known as
Correct Answer: d. the grim trigger strategy.
A monopolist may choose prices that are very close to competitive prices:
Correct Answer: if it is trying to deter entry.
If the cross elasticity of demand between two products is 6.0, then
Correct Answer: a. the two products are substitutes.
If your new business (in which you have invested $50,000, which you previously
kept in savings, earning 10% interest) earns an accounting profit of $30,000 in the
first year, and you had previously been employed as a ditch-digger, earning $10,000
per year, your economic profit is:
Correct Answer: d. 15,000.
Refer to the graph below. What can be said about the consumption of six burgers?
Correct Answer: c. Six burgers are not sufficient because marginal benefit remains
above marginal cost.
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, OPEC, attempts to set world oil
prices by limiting the production of member nations. This is an example of a
Correct Answer: c. cartel.
Refer to the graph below. When do diminishing returns set in?
Correct Answer: b. After three units of output are produced.
Use the information in this table to answer the question. Which of the following
statements is correct?
Correct Answer: c. Jorge has the absolute and comparative advantage in pies.
According to the duopolists' dilemma,
Correct Answer: b. two firms both choose a low price, although both would be better
off with the high price.
The income elasticity of widgets is negative; the cross elasticity between widgets
and gadgets is negative. Widgets are a(n):
Correct Answer: d. inferior good and a complement to gadgets.
Marginal revenue equals the change in total revenue associated with:
Correct Answer: d. Selling an additional unit of output.
A friend offers you a Coke, a Pepsi, or a Diet Coke. You don't like Diet Coke, so
after some thought, you take the Pepsi. What is the opportunity cost of your choice?
Correct Answer: the Coke
Suppose that the reserve ratio is 0.2 and that banks loan out all their excess reserves.
If a person deposits $100 cash in a bank, checking account balances will increase by
Correct Answer: d. $500.
The investment spending curve is
Correct Answer: a. a negative relationship between real interest rates and investment.
What is the definition of a recession?
Correct Answer: b. A decrease in real GDP for two consecutive quarters.
Which of the following groups is primarily responsible for setting monetary policy,
such as open-market operations?
Correct Answer: c. The Federal Open Market Committee
The U. S. Federal Reserve is controlled by:
Correct Answer: d. the Chairman of the Fed and the Board of Governors.
The stock of high-powered money, or the monetary base, is bank reserves plus
currency held by the public. Which of the following would change the stock of high-
powered money?
Correct Answer: d. The Fed buys bonds from the public sector.
If the natural rate of unemployment for the economy is 5% and the current rate of
unemployment is 4%, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: a. Cyclical unemployment is negative.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the natural rate of
unemployment?
Correct Answer: b. The natural rate of unemployment differs between developed
countries.
Economic models in which demand determines output in the short run are known as
___________, while economic theory that emphasizes the role of technology shocks
as a cause of economic fluctuations is known as ____________.
Correct Answer: c. Keynesian economics, the real business cycle theory
If the real GDP growth rate of a country is 7%, how many years will it take for real
GDP to double?
Correct Answer: b. 10 years
If a project costs $600 today and pays a return of $642 next year, what is the highest
interest rate at which the project should be undertaken?
Correct Answer: c. 7%
If we observe that both wages and employment in a nation decrease, what is the most
likely cause?
Correct Answer: d. The demand for labor has decreased.
Suppose that the government increases taxes. In the short run, prices will _______
and output will ________.
Correct Answer: c. not change, fall
Which of the following is an example of a contractionary fiscal policy?
Correct Answer: b. increased taxes
Refer to the graph below. The country inside of the red circle is:
Correct Answer: c. A poor country growing rapidly.
Money serves as a store of value because
Correct Answer: b. its value is preserved between transactions.
When the level of national output is zero, total consumption is
Correct Answer: c. equal to autonomous consumption.
The study of the economy as it operates at full employment is called
Correct Answer: c. classical economics.
Which of the following is NOT an intermediate good?
Correct Answer: e. paint sold to a consumer to use on his house
Suppose you notice that when the price level falls, the real value of your money
increases. This induces you to increase your level of consumption. This is an example
of the
Correct Answer: a. wealth effect.
During the Great Depression, banks failed because:
Correct Answer: c. no bank keeps 100% of deposits on hand, and thus must collapse
if all savers try to withdraw funds at once.
Which of the following is the best example of structural unemployment?
Correct Answer: b. Typewriters have largely been replaced by computers, so the
typewriter industry permanently lays off workers. These workers do not have the
skills to get a job in the computer industry.
Economists are concerned that the CPI may actually overstate the true annual
increase in the cost of living. Why is this a problem?
Correct Answer: c. Because increases in Social Security are related to the increase in
the CPI, and the federal budget will increase too fast.
If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real interest
rate is
Correct Answer: c. 5%.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about investment?
Correct Answer: b. Investment refers to the purchases of stocks and bonds.
Suppose that you have the choice of five investments: A, B, C, D, and E, with
expected returns of $103, $106, $110, $115, and $120, respectively. If the cost of each
investment is $100 and the real interest rate is 8%, which investments will you
choose?
Correct Answer: d. C, D and E only
Refer to the graph below. Inventory buildup exists when the level of output is:
Correct Answer: c. y1
The unemployment rate is likely to understate the rate of actual unemployment
because:
Correct Answer: c. discouraged workers are not officially counted as unemployed.
Why is it difficult to compare real per capita GDP across countries?
Correct Answer: b. because exchange rates are determined by supply and demand for
traded goods and financial assets and do not reflect the value of many goods that
determine living standards
Which of the following is an example of convergence?
Correct Answer: e. The GDP per capita of a poor nation grows more quickly than that
of a rich nation.
Suppose a computer manufacturer develops a new method of processing that allows
them to make more computers with the same amount of input. This is an example of
Correct Answer: b. technological progress.
Which of the following are examples of items used as money?
Correct Answer: e. All of the above are true.
Assuming a Keynesian aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause an
increase in output?
Correct Answer: b. an increase in government spending
In the long run, the decrease in taxes will cause prices to _____ and output to
_______.
Correct Answer: b. fall, not change
What is the effect of government spending on capital deepening?
Correct Answer: c. Government spending can increase capital deepening when it is
used to build infrastructures such as roads and bridges.
Why was fiscal policy more effective in the early 1960s than in the late 1960s?
Correct Answer: d. because the change in the early 1960s was expected to be
permanent while the change in the late 1960s was known to be temporary
If the capital stock increases:
Correct Answer: c. the aggregate production function will shift upward.
Financial intermediaries
Correct Answer: b. reduce risk through diversification.
In a closed economy, if government spending increases:
Correct Answer: c. either consumption or investment or both must decrease.
National output that is not consumed is called
Correct Answer: c. savings.
If prices increase but the level of national output is held constant, than nominal GDP
________ and real GDP __________.
Correct Answer: e. increases, does not change
Money serves as a unit of account because
Correct Answer: d. prices are quoted in terms of money.
Sources of external funds of a financial intermediary are known as
Correct Answer: a. liabilities.
If the economy is at full employment, which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: b. There is no cyclical unemployment.
If the CPI is 350 in Year 1 and 420 in Year 2, what is the inflation rate?
Correct Answer: b. 20%
Trade deficits are likely to lead to future increases in consumption if
Correct Answer: a. the trade deficits support current investment.
Currency is:
Correct Answer: b. an asset to the public and a liability of the Fed.
Automatic stabilizers in the economy smooth business cycles by:
Correct Answer: a. increasing transfer payments during recessions and increasing tax
collections during inflationary periods.
Which of the following will shift the classical aggregate supply curve?
Correct Answer: d. changes in the stock of labor or capital
If the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply, which of the following would
accomplish that goal?
Correct Answer: a. sell bonds to the private sector
The expected real interest rate
Correct Answer: e. is difficult to measure.
The relationship between the price level and the quantity of real GDP demanded is
called
Correct Answer: c. aggregate demand.
If the price of a hamburger is 3 marks in Germany and the exchange rate is 1.5
marks = $1, what is the dollar price of a hamburger in Germany?
Correct Answer: d. $2.0
The GDP deflator:
Correct Answer: c. is an index of how prices change over time.
Assuming a classical aggregate supply curve, which of the following will cause a
decrease in output?
Correct Answer: e. None of the above are true.
Suppose that you observe that nominal GDP has increased. Based on that
information, what can you say about output?
Correct Answer: d. Any of the above answers are possible.
According to real business cycle theory,
Correct Answer: d. business cycles are caused by technology shocks.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why the aggregate demand curve is
downward-sloping?
Correct Answer: c. When the price level rises, consumers will substitute to other,
less-expensive goods, and the quantity demanded will fall.
In an open economy, exports _______ national income, and imports ________
national income.
Correct Answer: b. increase, reduce
An increase in the real interest rate:
Correct Answer: c. decreases the quantity of investment.
Suppose a newspaper publisher provides computers for all the reporters and does not
fire any employees. This firm is said to experience
Correct Answer: a. capital deepening.
Refer to the graph below. The reason why this consumption function is upward
sloping has to do with the value of:
Correct Answer: c. The marginal propensity to consume.
The difference between real GDP and nominal GDP is that
Correct Answer: b. nominal GDP is the value of GDP in current dollars, while real
GDP controls for changes in prices.
Suppose that the government announces that next year, there will be a temporary tax
surcharge of 20%. What would you expect to happen to consumer spending next
year?
Correct Answer: b. Consumer spending would decrease, but only slightly.
According to supply-side economists, higher tax rates
Correct Answer: e. may reduce tax revenues by discouraging economic activity.
Which of the following will cause an INCREASE in aggregate demand?
Correct Answer: b. an increase in the money supply
Investment spending is very
Correct Answer: d. procyclical.
Which of the following will cause aggregate demand to increase?
Correct Answer: a. an increase in the money supply
For the poorest developing countries, the best use of investment funds may be:
Correct Answer: d. elementary education.
Keynes referred to investors as having "animal spirits." What did he mean by that?
Correct Answer: d. Investors may have pessimistic or optimistic mood swings not
based on rational evidence.
An increase in the capital stock
Correct Answer: a. shifts up the short-run production function, causing output to
increase at all positive levels of labor.
Question 18 1.25 out of 1.25 points
According to the Q-theory of investment:
Selected Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Correct Answer: c. firms will invest more when their stock prices are high.
Feedback: Correct

Question 75 0 out of 1.25 points


In a simple economy with no government, savings must be equal to investment.
Therefore, all other things equal, a higher level of savings will mean:
Selected Answer: a. a higher level of gross investment.
Correct Answer: e. all of the above.
Feedback: e, all of the above.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Instead of having one central bank, the Federal Reserve in effect has 12 district
banks, each with some amount of autonomy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Various studies have recommended changes in the Federal Reserve structure and
policy that include
Selected Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress
Correct Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


If the Fed buys securities on the open market, this will
Selected Answer: increase banks’ excess reserves
Correct Answer: increase banks’ excess reserves

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve today no longer has control over stock market margins
requirements.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Selected Answer: their member banks
Correct Answer: their member banks

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If a commercial bank is short of reserves, it can obtain funds by
Selected Answer: borrowing from another commercial bank
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 9 2 out of 2 points
The largest 80 banks in the United States control about
Selected Answer: 70% of all banking assets
Correct Answer: 70% of all banking assets

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Selected Answer: credit cards
Correct Answer: personal checks

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act
Selected Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies
Correct Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Raising the reserve requirement or the discount rate always decreases the money
supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Branch banking can now be carried our regionally and even nationally.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


An increase in the price level adds to the value of the nominal GDP but not to the real
GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Selected Answer: taxes
Correct Answer: intermediate goods

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, Japan has highest per capita GDP in the world.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Selected Answer: two-thirds
Correct Answer: two-thirds
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Selected Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Because of the value of things produced in households,
Selected Answer: the GDP value is adjusted upward
Correct Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Personal income does not include
Selected Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: undistributed corporate profits

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The GDP implicit price deflators take into account price changes, as well as some
changes in the quality of various products.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
The difference between GDP and final sales equals
Selected Answer: net inventory change
Correct Answer: net inventory change

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Selected Answer: the change in real GDP equaled the change in nominal GDP
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The consumption function shows the relationship between the income received by the
economy’s households and the
Selected Answer: amount businesses plans to spend on investment
Correct Answer: amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is part of Keynesian economic theory?
Selected Answer: businesses adjust their level of output to meet the demand for
output
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, the economy will be in equilibrium when
Selected Answer: the labor force is fully employed
Correct Answer: planned leakages equal planned injections
Question 29 2 out of 2 points
As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The multiplier is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The classical economists held that the rate of interest would equate planned
investment and planned saving, so that all saving would eventually be invested.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The 45-degree line in the Keynesian income-expenditure graph indicates
Selected Answer: the size of the multiplier
Correct Answer: points where total output is equal to aggregate expenditure

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


In the four-sector Keynesian model,
Selected Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure
Correct Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Selected Answer: the reciprocal of MPS
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, as income increases, the marginal propensity to
consume will rise.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure (AE) equals
Selected Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)
Correct Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The curve that shows quantities of total real output that will be offered for sale at
various price levels is called the
Selected Answer: yield curve
Correct Answer: aggregate supply curve

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a basic theoretical feature of self-regulating markets was that
Selected Answer: unsold inventory would never occur
Correct Answer: lower wages and prices would eliminate unemployment and unsold
inventory

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when
Selected Answer: planned I is greater than planned S
Correct Answer: planned I is greater than planned S

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures
Selected Answer: the prices charged by manufacturers
Correct Answer: changes in the prices received by producers

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


If M triples, V remains the same, and Q doubles, then P rises.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The Treasury issues all paper currency today.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1 by the
CPI.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $0.67
Correct Answer: $0.67

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


If a worker receives a weekly nominal wage of $300 and the CPI is 125, the real
wage is approximately
Selected Answer: $240
Correct Answer: $240
Question 50 2 out of 2 points
The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its
reserves by the reserve requirement.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The first attempt at centralized banking in the United States was the Federal Reserve
System.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


If a Federal Reserve Bank wanted to tighten the money supply, it would
Selected Answer: lower the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: raise the discount rate

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


In setting reserve requirements, the Fed divides deposits into which of the following
two broad categories?
Selected Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts
Correct Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Selected Answer: 1913
Correct Answer: 1913
Question 5 0 out of 2 points
Most monetary transactions in the United States are done by electronic banking.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Membership in the Federal Reserve System is
Selected Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks
Correct Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Selected Answer: raise the discount rate
Correct Answer: sell securities in the open market

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


If the Fed desires to expand the money supply, it will raise the discount rate.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The primary function of the Fed’s Board of Governors is to formulate U.S. monetary
policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 10 0 out of 2 points
Assume total reserves are $1 million, checkable deposits are $5 million, and the
reserve requirement is 10 percent. What are the excess reserves?
Selected Answer: $1 million
Correct Answer: $500,000

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The chair of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve is
Selected Answer: appointed by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: appointed by the U.S. President

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are initiated by the
Selected Answer: Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Board of Governors

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 did not
Selected Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System
Correct Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure (AE) equals
Selected Answer: C + I + G
Correct Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The new classical school holds that rational expectations tends to defeat the goals of
monetary policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If planned investment increases by $30 billion and, as a result, national output
increases by $60 billion, the value of the multiplier is
Selected Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 2

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


If the aggregate supply curve is horizontal,
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


One major difference between Keynesian analysis and classical theory is that the
classical theory assumes
Selected Answer: full employment as a norm
Correct Answer: full employment as a norm

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The relationship between the marginal propensity to consume and the marginal
propensity to save is such that
Selected Answer: MPC = 1/MPS
Correct Answer: MPC + MPS = 1

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Income earned by the productive resources does not include
Selected Answer: transfer of payments
Correct Answer: transfer of payments

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is an example of supply-side economics?
Selected Answer: lowering the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: reducing marginal income tax rates

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If the marginal propensity to consume were two-thirds, the multiplier would be
Selected Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 3

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


“Supply creates its own demand” is an expression of
Selected Answer: Say’s Law
Correct Answer: Say’s Law

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The marginal propensity to consume is
Selected Answer: the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on
consumer goods
Correct Answer: the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on
consumer goods

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how
much did your real income rise?
Selected Answer: 16.7 percent
Correct Answer: 8.33 percent

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The amount of money a bank can lend
Selected Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


According to the equation of exchange, if total output and velocity are constant, a 20
percent increase in the money supply leads to
Selected Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level
Correct Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


CPI refers to the
Selected Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The most liquid measure of the U.S. money supply is M1.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The PPI is an index of the price level of aggregate output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Federal Reserve banks stand ready to convert dollars into gold upon demand.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 36 2 out of 2 points
In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


If a $1,000 cash deposit is made in a bank where the reserve requirement is 10
percent, then the maximum total loans in the form of checkable deposits that may be
made as a result of that cash deposit is
Selected Answer: $9,000
Correct Answer: $9,000

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural
industries have
Selected Answer: remained about the same
Correct Answer: increased slightly

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Selected Answer: cleaning your own house
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The national income accounts for the United States are prepared by the
Selected Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Correct Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Question 41 2 out of 2 points
A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Selected Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we could
conclude that
Selected Answer: the general price level fell during the year
Correct Answer: the general price level fell during the year

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The GDP makes no measurement of the deterioration of the natural environment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Personal income does not include
Selected Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Question 46 2 out of 2 points
Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


National income is equivalent to total earnings in the form of wages, rent, interest,
and profits.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If total production of goods and services for a given quarter is $2,000 billion
(seasonally adjusted), the GDP will be reported at an annual rate of
Selected Answer: $8,000 billion
Correct Answer: $8,000 billion

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Net national product is equal to
Selected Answer: GNP plus corporate profits
Correct Answer: GNP minus capital consumption allowances

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Selected Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Question 1 2 out of 2 points
Instead of having one central bank, the Federal Reserve in effect has 12 district
banks, each with some amount of autonomy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Various studies have recommended changes in the Federal Reserve structure and
policy that include
Selected Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress
Correct Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


If the Fed buys securities on the open market, this will
Selected Answer: increase banks’ excess reserves
Correct Answer: increase banks’ excess reserves

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,
Selected Answer: both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve today no longer has control over stock market margins
requirements.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by
Selected Answer: their member banks
Correct Answer: their member banks

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If a commercial bank is short of reserves, it can obtain funds by
Selected Answer: borrowing from another commercial bank
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The largest 80 banks in the United States control about
Selected Answer: 70% of all banking assets
Correct Answer: 70% of all banking assets

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


In terms of the dollar value of payment, which of the following comprises the largest
share?
Selected Answer: credit cards
Correct Answer: personal checks

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act
Selected Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies
Correct Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Raising the reserve requirement or the discount rate always decreases the money
supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Branch banking can now be carried our regionally and even nationally.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


An increase in the price level adds to the value of the nominal GDP but not to the real
GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Selected Answer: taxes
Correct Answer: intermediate goods

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, Japan has highest per capita GDP in the world.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Selected Answer: two-thirds
Correct Answer: two-thirds

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Selected Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Because of the value of things produced in households,
Selected Answer: the GDP value is adjusted upward
Correct Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Personal income does not include
Selected Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: undistributed corporate profits

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The GDP implicit price deflators take into account price changes, as well as some
changes in the quality of various products.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The difference between GDP and final sales equals
Selected Answer: net inventory change
Correct Answer: net inventory change

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Selected Answer: the change in real GDP equaled the change in nominal GDP
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The consumption function shows the relationship between the income received by the
economy’s households and the
Selected Answer: amount businesses plans to spend on investment
Correct Answer: amount they plan to spend on currently produced final output

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is part of Keynesian economic theory?
Selected Answer: businesses adjust their level of output to meet the demand for
output
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian model, the economy will be in equilibrium when
Selected Answer: the labor force is fully employed
Correct Answer: planned leakages equal planned injections

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The multiplier is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The classical economists held that the rate of interest would equate planned
investment and planned saving, so that all saving would eventually be invested.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 32 0 out of 2 points
The 45-degree line in the Keynesian income-expenditure graph indicates
Selected Answer: the size of the multiplier
Correct Answer: points where total output is equal to aggregate expenditure

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


In the four-sector Keynesian model,
Selected Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure
Correct Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The multiplier is equal to
Selected Answer: the reciprocal of MPS
Correct Answer: the reciprocal of MPS

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, as income increases, the marginal propensity to
consume will rise.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure (AE) equals
Selected Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)
Correct Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)
Question 37 0 out of 2 points
The curve that shows quantities of total real output that will be offered for sale at
various price levels is called the
Selected Answer: yield curve
Correct Answer: aggregate supply curve

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a basic theoretical feature of self-regulating markets was that
Selected Answer: unsold inventory would never occur
Correct Answer: lower wages and prices would eliminate unemployment and unsold
inventory

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when
Selected Answer: planned I is greater than planned S
Correct Answer: planned I is greater than planned S

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures
Selected Answer: the prices charged by manufacturers
Correct Answer: changes in the prices received by producers

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


If M triples, V remains the same, and Q doubles, then P rises.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
The Treasury issues all paper currency today.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1 by the
CPI.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Double coincidence of wants is associated with a barter economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $0.67
Correct Answer: $0.67

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


If a worker receives a weekly nominal wage of $300 and the CPI is 125, the real
wage is approximately
Selected Answer: $240
Correct Answer: $240

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its
reserves by the reserve requirement.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The first attempt at centralized banking in the United States was the Federal Reserve
System.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


If a Federal Reserve Bank wanted to tighten the money supply, it would
Selected Answer: lower the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: raise the discount rate

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


In setting reserve requirements, the Fed divides deposits into which of the following
two broad categories?
Selected Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts
Correct Answer: transaction accounts and nonpersonal time accounts

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established in
Selected Answer: 1913
Correct Answer: 1913

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


Most monetary transactions in the United States are done by electronic banking.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Membership in the Federal Reserve System is
Selected Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks
Correct Answer: required of national banks and open to state banks

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Selected Answer: raise the discount rate
Correct Answer: sell securities in the open market
Question 8 0 out of 2 points
If the Fed desires to expand the money supply, it will raise the discount rate.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The primary function of the Fed’s Board of Governors is to formulate U.S. monetary
policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


Assume total reserves are $1 million, checkable deposits are $5 million, and the
reserve requirement is 10 percent. What are the excess reserves?
Selected Answer: $1 million
Correct Answer: $500,000

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The chair of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve is
Selected Answer: appointed by the U.S. President
Correct Answer: appointed by the U.S. President

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are initiated by the
Selected Answer: Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Board of Governors
Question 13 2 out of 2 points
The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 did not
Selected Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System
Correct Answer: require all commercial banks to join the Federal Reserve System

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure (AE) equals
Selected Answer: C + I + G
Correct Answer: C + I + G + (X – IM)

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The new classical school holds that rational expectations tends to defeat the goals of
monetary policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If planned investment increases by $30 billion and, as a result, national output
increases by $60 billion, the value of the multiplier is
Selected Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 2
Question 18 2 out of 2 points
If the aggregate supply curve is horizontal,
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


One major difference between Keynesian analysis and classical theory is that the
classical theory assumes
Selected Answer: full employment as a norm
Correct Answer: full employment as a norm

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The relationship between the marginal propensity to consume and the marginal
propensity to save is such that
Selected Answer: MPC = 1/MPS
Correct Answer: MPC + MPS = 1

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Income earned by the productive resources does not include
Selected Answer: transfer of payments
Correct Answer: transfer of payments

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is an example of supply-side economics?
Selected Answer: lowering the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: reducing marginal income tax rates
Question 23 2 out of 2 points
If the marginal propensity to consume were two-thirds, the multiplier would be
Selected Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 3

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


“Supply creates its own demand” is an expression of
Selected Answer: Say’s Law
Correct Answer: Say’s Law

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The marginal propensity to consume is
Selected Answer: the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on
consumer goods
Correct Answer: the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on
consumer goods

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, equilibrium will occur where planned injections
equal planned leakages.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 28 0 out of 2 points
Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how
much did your real income rise?
Selected Answer: 16.7 percent
Correct Answer: 8.33 percent

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The amount of money a bank can lend
Selected Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


According to the equation of exchange, if total output and velocity are constant, a 20
percent increase in the money supply leads to
Selected Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level
Correct Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


CPI refers to the
Selected Answer: both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: both (b) and (c)

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The most liquid measure of the U.S. money supply is M1.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The PPI is an index of the price level of aggregate output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Federal Reserve banks stand ready to convert dollars into gold upon demand.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


If a $1,000 cash deposit is made in a bank where the reserve requirement is 10
percent, then the maximum total loans in the form of checkable deposits that may be
made as a result of that cash deposit is
Selected Answer: $9,000
Correct Answer: $9,000

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural
industries have
Selected Answer: remained about the same
Correct Answer: increased slightly

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be entered in the GDP?
Selected Answer: cleaning your own house
Correct Answer: cleaning your own house

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The national income accounts for the United States are prepared by the
Selected Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Correct Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Selected Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we could
conclude that
Selected Answer: the general price level fell during the year
Correct Answer: the general price level fell during the year

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The GDP makes no measurement of the deterioration of the natural environment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Personal income does not include
Selected Answer: undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: undistributed corporate profits

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


National income is equivalent to total earnings in the form of wages, rent, interest,
and profits.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If total production of goods and services for a given quarter is $2,000 billion
(seasonally adjusted), the GDP will be reported at an annual rate of
Selected Answer: $8,000 billion
Correct Answer: $8,000 billion

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Net national product is equal to
Selected Answer: GNP plus corporate profits
Correct Answer: GNP minus capital consumption allowances

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following represents a transfer payment?
Selected Answer: a Social Security benefit payment
Correct Answer: a Social Security benefit payment

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


If a bank has legal reserves of $1 million, a reserve requirement of 10 percent, and
checkable deposits of $6 million, it can extend its checkable deposits by
Selected Answer: $4 million
Correct Answer: $4 million

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


If banks had $10 million in legal reserves, $110 million in checkable deposits, and a
10 percent reserve requirement, they would have to reduce checkable deposits by $10
million or increase reserves by $1 million.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of goods and services is included in the CPI?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI reads 150, prices have increased 50 percent since the base year.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Funds that earn a fixed rate of interest and must be held for a stipulated period of
time are known as
Selected Answer: time deposits
Correct Answer: time deposits

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following tend to be at a disadvantage in periods of rising prices?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: people with fixed incomes

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Question 9 2 out of 2 points
The current base period for the CPI is
Selected Answer: 1982–1984
Correct Answer: 1982–1984

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $0.67
Correct Answer: $0.67

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The value of money is based on
Selected Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy
Correct Answer: the goods and services that a given amount of money will buy

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1 by the
CPI.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between an initial increase in planned investment and the resulting
increase in income is known as the
Selected Answer: multiplier effect
Correct Answer: multiplier effect
Question 14 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following emphasizes government spending as a countercyclical
approach to create economic expansion?
Selected Answer: Keynesian economics
Correct Answer: Keynesian economics

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Assume a marginal propensity to consume of three-fourths. If private planned
investment decreases by $10 billion and government spending increases by $13
billion, the national income will increase by
Selected Answer: $12 billion
Correct Answer: $12 billion

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Say’s Law states that
Selected Answer: demand generates supply
Correct Answer: supply generates demand

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Factors that help determine the level of planned investment include
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Net exports are excluded in the calculation of the national income.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
The aggregate demand curve tends to be
Selected Answer: downward sloping
Correct Answer: downward sloping

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The classical theory states that
Selected Answer: supply creates its own demand
Correct Answer: supply creates its own demand

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Total planned consumption
Selected Answer: exceeds total income at very low levels of output
Correct Answer: exceeds total income at very low levels of output

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Critics of supply-side economics claim that it
Selected Answer: increases federal debt
Correct Answer: increases federal debt

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports
Selected Answer: may be either positive or negative
Correct Answer: may be either positive or negative

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Keynes stated that equilibrium could exist at any level of employment or
unemployment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The condition required for equilibrium to exist according to Keynesian analysis is
that
Selected Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages
Correct Answer: total planned injections must be equal to total planned leakages

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The GDP does not include
Selected Answer: intermediate goods
Correct Answer: intermediate goods

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The total value added in the production of a final good
Selected Answer: exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive
resources used in the production
Correct Answer: equals the price of the final good

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, leisure is a significant element in developing an accurate
measure of
Selected Answer: the standard of living
Correct Answer: the standard of living

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Final sales are always larger than the GDP.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The GDP in the United States is reported quarterly in terms of
Selected Answer: annual rates
Correct Answer: annual rates

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a reason for publishing quarterly reports on the GDP?
Selected Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists
Correct Answer: a full year’s statistics are not useful to economists

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


A factor not indicated by the GDP measurement that would tend to raise the standard
of living for the same GDP is a(n)
Selected Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services
Correct Answer: shift toward production of consumer-oriented goods and services

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following constitutes the largest component of NI in the United States?
Selected Answer: compensation of employees
Correct Answer: compensation of employees

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


When final sales are less than GDP, a net reduction in inventory has taken place.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The value of leisure is not taken into consideration in GDP accounting.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately
Selected Answer: two-thirds
Correct Answer: two-thirds

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


Electronic banking does not include
Selected Answer: direct deposit of paychecks
Correct Answer: credit cards

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


If a bank has excess reserves,
Selected Answer: it can make a loan if it wishes
Correct Answer: it can make a loan if it wishes
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
Share draft accounts at credit unions are a type of transaction account.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Branch banking can now be carried our regionally and even nationally.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


Members of the Board of Governors are appointed for five-year terms.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Cash transactions account for about 20 percent of the value of transactions.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


One reason the Federal Reserve System was set up was to
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
Selected Answer: 7 members
Correct Answer: 7 members

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Selected Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Competition in U.S. banking has been increased by
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Any bank reserves over and above the level of required reserves are known as
Selected Answer: excess reserves
Correct Answer: excess reserves

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve currently exercises credit control over
Selected Answer: home financing
Correct Answer: stock market purchases

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Assume a reserve requirement of 10 percent. A commercial bank has total reserves of
$100,000, excess reserves of $25,000, and total checkable deposits outstanding of
$750,000) If the reserve requirement were increased to 15 percent,
Selected Answer: the bank would have no alternative but to decrease its checkable
deposits
Correct Answer: the bank would be $12,500 short of required reserves

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Raising the reserve requirement or the discount rate always decreases the money
supply.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are made within legal limits by
Selected Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Board of Governors

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not part of the Federal Reserve System?
Selected Answer: the Council of Economic Advisers
Correct Answer: the Council of Economic Advisers

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Selected Answer: sell securities in the open market
Correct Answer: sell securities in the open market

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The Reigle-Neal Act was passed by Congress in 1932 to regulate banking.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
If depositors withdraw their funds and create a shortage of reserves, bankers
Selected Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed
Correct Answer: can borrow reserves from the Fed

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The discount rate is
Selected Answer: set by the Federal Reserve Bank
Correct Answer: set by the Federal Reserve Bank

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System was established by the National Banking Act of 1864.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The purpose of open-market operations is to
Selected Answer: influence the flow of credit and money
Correct Answer: influence the flow of credit and money

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The First Bank of the United States was chartered by
Selected Answer: the federal government
Correct Answer: the federal government
Question 11 2 out of 2 points
The greater the level of excess reserves, the lower the Federal Funds rate will be.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 is likely to result in fewer
financial institutions.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Electronic banking does not include
Selected Answer: direct deposit of paychecks
Correct Answer: credit cards

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


If the MPC is five-sixths, the size of the multiplier is 6.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


According to classical economists, the aggregate supply curve is
Selected Answer: vertical only in the long run
Correct Answer: vertical in both the long run and the short run

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, as income increases, the marginal propensity to
consume will rise.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


As disposable income increases, the total amount of planned consumption increases.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Factors that help determine the level of planned investment include
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The consumption function shows
Selected Answer: that the amount of national income determines the rate at which
the economy consumes its resources
Correct Answer: that households’ incomes determine how much the households will
spend for consumer goods

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


As the economy expands, it requires less and less investment.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


According to the classical approach, if planned savings increases,
Selected Answer: the rate of interest will fall
Correct Answer: the rate of interest will fall

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


In the Keynesian model, the most important influence on planned consumption is
Selected Answer: disposable income
Correct Answer: disposable income

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


According to Keynes, in deciding whether to increase or decrease planned
investment, businesses will be guided primarily by
Selected Answer: the rate of interest
Correct Answer: expected profits

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The relationship between an initial increase in planned investment and the resulting
increase in income is known as the
Selected Answer: multiplier effect
Correct Answer: multiplier effect

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Say’s Law implies that
Selected Answer: markets do not clear
Correct Answer: production generates income, which is all spent to purchase what
was produced

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Gross national product measures the current market value of final output produced
within a country by both domestic and foreign resources.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Discharges of chemicals from a paper plant that pollute a nearby river represent an
example of
Selected Answer: social costs
Correct Answer: social costs

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The measure of income received by persons from all sources is known as
Selected Answer: personal income
Correct Answer: personal income

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The GDP figure does not accurately reflect economic welfare because
Selected Answer: the value of goods produced in the home is usually overstated
Correct Answer: it does not include nonmonetary transactions

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


To reduce personal income to disposable personal income,
Selected Answer: personal taxes are deducted
Correct Answer: personal taxes are deducted

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, Japan has highest per capita GDP in the world.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The best measure of a change in the standard of living is the change in
Selected Answer: real per capita disposable income
Correct Answer: real per capita disposable income

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Because of the value of things produced in households,
Selected Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output
Correct Answer: GDP is probably somewhat smaller than true total output

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


An increase in business inventories would be included in the investment component
of GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The national income accounts for the United States are prepared by the
Selected Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Correct Answer: U.S. Department of Commerce
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
The total value added in the production of a final good
Selected Answer: equals the price of the final good
Correct Answer: equals the price of the final good

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are
produced and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as
Selected Answer: the underground economy
Correct Answer: the underground economy

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following tend to be at a disadvantage in periods of rising prices?
Selected Answer: people with fixed incomes
Correct Answer: people with fixed incomes

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of goods and services is included in the CPI?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
The GDP Implicit Price Deflator is the broadest index of price changes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $0.67
Correct Answer: $0.67

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in the level of required reserves will decrease a bank’s ability to extend
loans.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its
reserves by the reserve requirement.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


In the monetary equation of exchange, MV = PQ, P stands for
Selected Answer: purchases
Correct Answer: average price

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


A formula for determining how much a bank can extend loans through the creation of
checkable deposits is
Selected Answer: excess reserves/the reserve requirement
Correct Answer: excess reserves/the reserve requirement

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


When money enables us to convert excess goods into money and retain the money, it
is acting as a
Selected Answer: store of value
Correct Answer: store of value

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


COLA clauses are usually based on the
Selected Answer: CPI
Correct Answer: CPI

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


One problem associated with the National Banking System was
Selected Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply
Correct Answer: the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


All members of the Board of Governors are members of the Fed’s Open Market
Committee.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The interest rate at which commercial banks lend to their customers with the best
collateral is known as
Selected Answer: prime rate
Correct Answer: prime rate

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as
the
Selected Answer: federal funds rate
Correct Answer: federal funds rate

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


If the Fed desires to expand the money supply, it will raise the discount rate.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Branch banking can now be carried our regionally and even nationally.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Decisions on the Fed’s buying and selling of government securities to control the
U.S. money supply are made by
Selected Answer: the Board of Governors
Correct Answer: the Federal Open Market Committee

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


According to monetarists, the money supply ought to be changed
Selected Answer: at a constant annual rate, regardless of economic conditions
Correct Answer: at a constant annual rate, regardless of economic conditions

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The Reigle-Neal Act was passed by Congress in 1932 to regulate banking.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Interest rate ceilings were phased out by the Depository Institutions Deregulation and
Monetary Control Act of 1980.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Today, the number of commercial banks in the United States is about
Selected Answer: 8,000
Correct Answer: 8,000

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would
Selected Answer: sell securities in the open market
Correct Answer: sell securities in the open market
Question 13 2 out of 2 points
By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to
member banks’ reserves.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following explains the downward slope of the aggregate demand curve?
Selected Answer: higher prices reduce the household’s real wealth
Correct Answer: higher prices reduce the household’s real wealth

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The higher the propensity to save, the larger the size of the multiplier.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


As the economy expands, it requires less and less investment.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 18 2 out of 2 points
If planned investment increases by $20 billion, other things remaining the same,
planned saving eventually will increase by $20 billion, regardless of the size of the
multiplier.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure in the U.S. economy includes spending for U.S. output by
Selected Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign
Correct Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


According to Keynes, the aggregate supply curve is
Selected Answer: vertical only in the long run
Correct Answer: vertical only in the long run

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


One major difference between Keynesian analysis and classical theory is that the
classical theory assumes
Selected Answer: full employment as a norm
Correct Answer: full employment as a norm

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Higher prices reduce the purchasing power of financial assets owned by households.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 23 2 out of 2 points
The classical theory states that
Selected Answer: supply creates its own demand
Correct Answer: supply creates its own demand

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


According to the classical economists, demand creates its own supply.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


The aggregate supply curve is
Selected Answer: a curve showing the quantities of goods and services that
households will provide at various price levels
Correct Answer: a curve showing the quantities of total output that will be offered
for sale at various price levels

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Equilibrium in the Keynesian model is
Selected Answer: stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages
Correct Answer: stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The GDP does not measure
Selected Answer: military costs
Correct Answer: external costs
Question 28 2 out of 2 points
The measurements of business cycles tend to be exaggerated as a result of the GDP
treatment of
Selected Answer: durable goods
Correct Answer: durable goods

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP grew by 5 percent during one year and population also grew by 5
percent, then
Selected Answer: real GDP per capital did not change
Correct Answer: real GDP per capital did not change

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, the nation with the highest per capita GDP is
Selected Answer: United States
Correct Answer: United States

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Net national product is equal to
Selected Answer: GNP minus capital consumption allowances
Correct Answer: GNP minus capital consumption allowances

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Gross domestic product measures the value of all final goods and services produced
within a country by
Selected Answer: both domestic and foreign resources
Correct Answer: both domestic and foreign resources
Question 33 2 out of 2 points
To reduce personal income to disposable personal income,
Selected Answer: personal taxes are deducted
Correct Answer: personal taxes are deducted

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The best measure of a change in the standard of living is the change in
Selected Answer: real per capita disposable income
Correct Answer: real per capita disposable income

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The GDP counts durable goods only during their year of production.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Dividends are included in national income but not in personal income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are
produced and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as
Selected Answer: the underground economy
Correct Answer: the underground economy

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The multiple expansion of the money supply is made possible because money
withdrawn from one bank finds its way into other banks.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The amount of money a bank can lend
Selected Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements
Correct Answer: is inversely related to its reserve requirements

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


If M equals $40, V equals 16, and Q equals 16, then P equals $40.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


If the reserve requirement were cut in half, the banking system’s ability to extend
loans would be
Selected Answer: increased by 25 percent
Correct Answer: nearly doubled

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


In a price index, the quantity of goods and services being measured between two
periods
Selected Answer: must be held constant
Correct Answer: must be held constant

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


If a worker’s nominal wage moves from $180 per week in a base period to $300 per
week subsequently, but the real wage rises to only $240, we can conclude that
Selected Answer: the price level has increased by 25 percent
Correct Answer: the price level has increased by 25 percent

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


According to modern economists, the velocity of money is affected by
Selected Answer: interest rates and expected price changes
Correct Answer: interest rates and expected price changes

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


If a worker receives a weekly nominal wage of $300 and the CPI is 125, the real
wage is approximately
Selected Answer: $240
Correct Answer: $240

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Anything that would cause people to want to hold more of their money as cash and
less in the form of checkable deposits would
Selected Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply
Correct Answer: reduce the multiple expansion of the money supply

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI reads 150, prices have increased 50 percent since the base year.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


An increase in the money supply is more likely to be inflationary when
Selected Answer: the economy is at full employment
Correct Answer: the economy is at full employment

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes
to yield real per capita disposable income.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Disposable personal income is equal to
Selected Answer: PI minus personal taxes
Correct Answer: PI minus personal taxes

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, leisure is a significant element in developing an accurate
measure of
Selected Answer: the standard of living
Correct Answer: the standard of living

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


If real GDP increases by 5 percent and the population increases by 10 percent during
the same period, real per capital income
Selected Answer: decreases
Correct Answer: decreases

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The GDP does not measure
Selected Answer: external costs
Correct Answer: external costs

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


GDP overstates national income because it does not make any adjustment for national
debt.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Undistributed corporate profits are included in national income but not in personal
income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, the nation with the highest per capita GDP is
Selected Answer: United States
Correct Answer: United States

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


In terms of purchasing power parity, Japan has highest per capita GDP in the world.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


In dollar value, the nominal GDP in the United States is in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion
Correct Answer: between 10 and 12 trillion

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The value of leisure is not taken into consideration in GDP accounting.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Most national wealth in the United States is held in the private sector.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following emphasizes government spending as a countercyclical
approach to create economic expansion?
Selected Answer: Keynesian economics
Correct Answer: Keynesian economics
Question 14 2 out of 2 points
The value of the marginal propensity to consume
Selected Answer: is always between 0 and 1
Correct Answer: is always between 0 and 1

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The aggregate supply curve is
Selected Answer: a curve showing the quantities of total output that will be offered
for sale at various price levels
Correct Answer: a curve showing the quantities of total output that will be offered
for sale at various price levels

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


In the classical model, a basic theoretical feature of self-regulating markets was that
Selected Answer: lower wages and prices would eliminate unemployment and
unsold inventory
Correct Answer: lower wages and prices would eliminate unemployment and unsold
inventory

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net exports
Selected Answer: may be either positive or negative
Correct Answer: may be either positive or negative

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


According to the Keynesian analysis, the point of equilibrium income
Selected Answer: can be anywhere along the 45-degree line
Correct Answer: can be anywhere along the 45-degree line
Question 19 2 out of 2 points
If the marginal propensity to consume were two-thirds, the multiplier would be
Selected Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 3

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Aggregate expenditure in the U.S. economy includes spending for U.S. output by
Selected Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign
Correct Answer: households, businesses, and governments, both domestic and
foreign

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


In the Keynesian model, whenever unplanned inventory increases occur in the
economy, production is likely to
Selected Answer: remain unchanged
Correct Answer: slow down

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


The aggregate demand curve tends to be
Selected Answer: downward sloping
Correct Answer: downward sloping
Question 24 2 out of 2 points
If the marginal propensity to consume were four-fifths, the size of the multiplier
would be 5.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


In the four-sector Keynesian model,
Selected Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure
Correct Answer: increased exports increase aggregate expenditure

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


One reason the Federal Reserve System was set up was to
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The Financial Services Modernization Act
Selected Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies
Correct Answer: eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and
insurance companies

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve today no longer has control over stock market margins
requirements.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The official term of office of the chairman of the Fed is
Selected Answer: 4 years
Correct Answer: 4 years

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


The first attempt at centralized banking in the United States was the Federal Reserve
System.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as
the
Selected Answer: federal funds rate
Correct Answer: federal funds rate

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The usual term of office of members of the Board of Governors is
Selected Answer: 14 years
Correct Answer: 14 years

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Various studies have recommended changes in the Federal Reserve structure and
policy that include
Selected Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress
Correct Answer: placing monetary policy in the control of Congress

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to
member banks’ reserves.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has
Selected Answer: 6 members
Correct Answer: 7 members

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Changes in reserve requirements are initiated by the
Selected Answer: Board of Governors
Correct Answer: Board of Governors

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve System is completely independent of the government.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The Glass Steagall Act was passed in 1932 to prevent ruinous competition in the
banking industry.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 39 2 out of 2 points
If banks have $10 million in legal reserves, $70 million in checkable deposits, and a
reserve requirement of 10 percent, they can still expand the money supply by
Selected Answer: $30 million
Correct Answer: $30 million

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of goods and services is included in the CPI?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


According to the equation of exchange, an increase in either velocity or the money
supply will
Selected Answer: cause PQ to rise
Correct Answer: cause PQ to rise

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


A price index number
Selected Answer: is always greater than 100 if prices have risen during the period
in question
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 44 2 out of 2 points
According to the equation of exchange, if total output and velocity are constant, a 20
percent increase in the money supply leads to
Selected Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level
Correct Answer: a 20 percent increase in price level

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


In a period of full employment, if M increases and V remains constant, the most
likely result is
Selected Answer: an increase in the value of P
Correct Answer: an increase in the value of P

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


If the CPI is 150, the value of the dollar now compared to in the base period is
Selected Answer: $0.67
Correct Answer: $0.67

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The higher the reserve requirement,
Selected Answer: the less the money supply can expand
Correct Answer: the less the money supply can expand

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Excess reserves are the amount of money a bank
Selected Answer: has in excess of its required reserves
Correct Answer: has in excess of its required reserves
Question 49 0 out of 2 points
Only wages or income can be indexed to the CPI.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS


(ECON125-HK2) > TOOLS > MY GRADES > VIEW ATTEMPTS > REVIEW
ASSESSMENT: EXAM 3
End navigation links
Review Assessment: Exam 3
User Hon Fai Yeung
Submitted 9/4/12 10:29 PM
Name Exam 3
Status Completed
Score 82 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Correct The discount rate is
Question 1 answers
Selected Answer: Correct set by the Federal Reserve Bank
Correct Answer: Correct set by the Federal Reserve Bank

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Correct If a Federal Reserve Bank wanted to tighten the money supply, it would
Question 2 answers
Selected Answer: Correct raise the discount rate
Correct Answer: Correct raise the discount rate

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Correct Each Federal Reserve Bank can issue Federal Reserve notes.
Question 3 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Federal Reserve System is built around
Question 4 answers
Selected Answer: Correct 12 district banks
Correct Answer: Correct 12 district banks

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Correct Legislation has been introduced in Congress that would have required the
Fed to reduce inflation to zero percent.
Question 5 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Correct The purpose of open-market operations is to
Question 6 answers
Selected Answer: Correct influence the flow of credit and money
Correct Answer: Correct influence the flow of credit and money

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Correct Members of the Board of Governors are appointed for five-year terms.
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 text Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect The Fed’s ability to influence the money supply through its open-market
operations is independent of a commercial bank’s desire to make loans.
Question 8 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 text Question 9 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 seeks to restrict
competition between insurance companies and banks.
Question 9 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect True
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 text Question 10 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Regarding the Board of Governors of each Federal Reserve Bank,
Question 10 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect one member must represent labor
Correct Answer: Correct two-thirds of the members must be nonbankers

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Correct The interest rate at which commercial banks lend to their customers with the
best collateral is known as
Question 11 answers
Selected Answer: Correct prime rate
Correct Answer: Correct prime rate

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Correct Branch banking can now be carried our regionally and even nationally.
Question 12 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Correct If a commercial bank is short of reserves, it can obtain funds by
Question 13 answers
Selected Answer: Correct all of the above
Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Correct A price index number
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Correct all of the above
Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Correct The value or purchasing power of the dollar can be obtained by dividing $1
by the CPI.
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Correct Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.
Question 16 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Correct If you want to deflate the current price of something to eliminate the effect
of inflation,
Question 17 answers
Selected Answer: Correct divide the number by the price index
Correct Answer: Correct divide the number by the price index

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Correct The ease with which an asset can be converted into the medium of exchange
is called
Question 18 answers
Selected Answer: Correct liquidity
Correct Answer: Correct liquidity

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the equation of exchange MV = PQ, V stands for
Question 19 answers
Selected Answer: Correct average rate of turnover of the money supply
Correct Answer: Correct average rate of turnover of the money supply

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Correct The current base period for the CPI is
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Correct 1982–1984
Correct Answer: Correct 1982–1984

Question 21 text Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Savings deposits are not counted as part of the M1 measure of the U.S.
money supply.
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect False
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Correct COLA is a form of indexation.
Question 22 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Correct According to the equation of exchange, if total output and velocity are
constant, a 20 percent increase in the money supply leads to
Question 23 answers
Selected Answer: Correct a 20 percent increase in price level
Correct Answer: Correct a 20 percent increase in price level

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in
nonagricultural industries have
Question 24 answers
Selected Answer: Correct increased slightly
Correct Answer: Correct increased slightly

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Correct The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a
standard of deferred payment.
Question 25 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True
Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points
Correct Personal income does not include
Question 26 answers
Selected Answer: Correct undistributed corporate profits
Correct Answer: Correct undistributed corporate profits

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Correct The best measure of a change in the standard of living is the change in
Question 27 answers
Selected Answer: Correct real per capita disposable income
Correct Answer: Correct real per capita disposable income

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Correct The total value added in the production of a final good
Question 28 answers
Selected Answer: Correct equals the price of the final good
Correct Answer: Correct equals the price of the final good

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Correct The GDP does not include raw materials used up in the productive process.
Question 29 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Correct Final sales are always larger than the GDP.
Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Correct The national income accounts for the United States are prepared by the
Question 31 answers
Selected Answer: Correct U.S. Department of Commerce
Correct Answer: Correct U.S. Department of Commerce

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Correct Disposable personal income is equal to
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct PI minus personal taxes
Correct Answer: Correct PI minus personal taxes

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Correct The difference between GDP and final sales equals
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct net inventory change
Correct Answer: Correct net inventory change

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Correct The measurements of business cycles tend to be exaggerated as a result of
the GDP treatment of
Question 34 answers
Selected Answer: Correct durable goods
Correct Answer: Correct durable goods

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Correct The value of leisure is not taken into consideration in GDP accounting.
Question 35 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 text Question 36 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect If real GDP increased and nominal GDP decreased during the same year, we
could conclude that
Question 36 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect the general price level increased during the year
Correct Answer: Correct the general price level fell during the year

Question 37 text Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Social costs are associated with
Question 37 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect government programs for the disadvantaged
Correct Answer: Correct deterioration of the natural environment

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Correct As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will
increase.
Question 38 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Correct According to the classical approach, if planned savings increases,
Question 39 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the rate of interest will fall
Correct Answer: Correct the rate of interest will fall

Question 40 text Question 40 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect The change in the level of planned spending that results from a change in
the price level is indicated by the movement of the economy along a given
Question 40 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: Correct aggregate demand curve

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Correct In a measure of aggregate expenditures for the national economy, net
exports
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct may be either positive or negative
Correct Answer: Correct may be either positive or negative

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Correct The purpose of the Keynesian analysis is to explain what determines the
Question 42 answers
Selected Answer: Correct levels of national income, output, and employment
Correct Answer: Correct levels of national income, output, and employment

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the Keynesian model, the most important influence on planned
consumption is
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct disposable income
Correct Answer: Correct disposable income
Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points
Correct According to the classical economists, demand creates its own supply.
Question 44 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 text Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Aggregate demand curves tend to be very flat.
Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect True
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 text Question 46 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect “A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in
equilibrium output.” This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called
the
Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect consumption function
Correct Answer: Correct multiplier effect

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Correct The consumption function shows the relationship between the income
received by the economy’s households and the
Question 47 answers
Selected Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final
output
Correct Answer: Correct amount they plan to spend on currently produced final
output

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Correct If the economy is in equilibrium and suddenly the level of planned
investment increases by $2 billion, national income will increase by
Question 48 answers
Selected Answer: Correct more than $2 billion because of MPC
Correct Answer: Correct more than $2 billion because of MPC

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the Keynesian model, whenever unplanned inventory increases occur in
the economy, production is likely to
Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Correct slow down
Correct Answer: Correct slow down

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Correct Keynes recommended the use of government deficit spending to overcome
widespread unemployment.
Question 50 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

OK

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


TOOLS > MY GRADES > VIEW ATTEMPTS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 3

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Review Assessment: Exam 3

User Sin Man Lau

Submitted 11/28/12 8:06 PM

Name Exam 3

Status Completed

Score 86 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct Real GDP refers to nominal GDP adjusted for

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct price changes


Correct Answer: Correct price changes

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct The unregulated portion of the economy involving goods and services that are produced
and exchanged without monetary transactions is known as

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the underground economy

Correct Answer: Correct the underground economy

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct The existence of undistributed corporate profits tends to cause

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct national income to be larger than personal income

Correct Answer: Correct national income to be larger than personal income

Question 4 text Question 4 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known
as

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect real GDP

Correct Answer: Correct national income

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct The portion of the GDP that takes the form of consumer goods and services is
approximately

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct two-thirds

Correct Answer: Correct two-thirds

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct The total earnings arising from the production of the GDP is known as

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct national income

Correct Answer: Correct national income

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct The GDP in the United States is reported quarterly in terms of

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct annual rates

Correct Answer: Correct annual rates

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct If real GDP increases by 5 percent and the population increases by 10 percent during
the same period, real per capital income

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decreases

Correct Answer: Correct decreases


Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in the price level adds to the value of the nominal GDP but not to the real
GDP.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct The value of leisure is not taken into consideration in GDP accounting.

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct The portion of NI in the United States that takes the form of compensation of
employees amounts to

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct approximately three-fourths

Correct Answer: Correct approximately three-fourths

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce.

Question 12 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct The CPI does not necessarily make adjustments for improvement in the quality of
goods and services in the market basket.

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct A standard of deferred payment is most essential in a

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct credit economy

Correct Answer: Correct credit economy

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct The quantity theory of money assumes that

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the national economy tends to operate at full employment

Correct Answer: Correct the national economy tends to operate at full employment

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Correct If the CPI in City A is 150 and the CPI in City B is 135,

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct none of the above

Correct Answer: Correct none of the above

Question 17 text Question 17 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect If the money supply is $350 and PQ is $1,400, according to the quantity theory of
money, the velocity of money is

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect 7.5

Correct Answer: Correct 4.0

Question 18 text Question 18 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The inflation index that is most favored by economists is the

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect Consumer Price Index

Correct Answer: Correct GDP Implicit Price Deflation

Question 19 text Question 19 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Included in the official U.S. money supply are

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct checkable deposits


Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the equation of exchange MV = PQ, V stands for

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct average rate of turnover of the money supply

Correct Answer: Correct average rate of turnover of the money supply

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct A decrease in reserve requirements immediately increases the money supply.

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct The CPI measures price changes for only about two-thirds of all spending.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level.

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False


Correct Answer: False

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Indexation is a good means of reducing inflation.

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary
policy in controlling inflation.

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct Say’s Law states that

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct supply generates demand

Correct Answer: Correct supply generates demand

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct Equilibrium in the Keynesian model is


Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages

Correct Answer: Correct stable as long as planned injections are equal to planned leakages

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures,

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output

Correct Answer: Correct inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct The multiplier is the relationship between the initial change in aggregate expenditure
and the resulting change in income.

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct Keynes recommended the use of government deficit spending to overcome widespread
unemployment.

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True


Question 31 text Question 31 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely.

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not one of the four major sectors of the economy to which
GDP is allocated?

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct agriculture

Correct Answer: Correct agriculture

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct The value of the marginal propensity to consume

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct is always between 0 and 1

Correct Answer: Correct is always between 0 and 1

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct The new classical school holds that rational expectations tends to defeat the goals of
monetary policy.

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True


Correct Answer: True

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct Along the composite aggregate supply curve,

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to Keynes, in deciding whether to increase or decrease planned investment,


businesses will be guided primarily by

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct expected profits

Correct Answer: Correct expected profits

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct Aggregate expenditure (AE) equals

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct C + I + G + (X – IM)

Correct Answer: Correct C + I + G + (X – IM)

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct Permanent members of the Federal Open Market Committee include


Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct Electronic banking does not include

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct credit cards

Correct Answer: Correct credit cards

Question 40 text Question 40 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors.

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not a correct statement?

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy

Correct Answer: Correct the U.S. Senate must approve any major change in Fed policy

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 is likely to result in fewer financial i
nstitutions.

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct One problem associated with the National Banking System was

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Correct Answer: Correct the perverse elasticity of the money supply

Question 44 text Question 44 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Changing the discount rate

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect is a function of the federal Reserve Banks without any review by
the Board of Governors

Correct Answer: Correct provides a signal that the Fed wants to encourage an expansion or contra
ction of the money supply

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct The official term of office of the chairman of the Fed is

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct 4 years


Correct Answer: Correct 4 years

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct Any bank reserves over and above the level of required reserves are known as

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct excess reserves

Correct Answer: Correct excess reserves

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Reigle-Neal Act was passed by Congress in 1932 to regulate banking.

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the Federal Open Market Committee desired to tighten credit, it would

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct sell securities in the open market

Correct Answer: Correct sell securities in the open market

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct During the so-called wildcat banking period in the United States,

Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Correct Answer: Correct both (a) and (b)

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Federal Reserve Banks are owned by

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct their member banks

Correct Answer: Correct their member banks

OK

Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 64 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Unemployment
Selected Answer: usually increases whenever real GDP decreases
Correct Answer: usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


All people in the noninstitutional population are counted as members of the labor
force.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 3 2 out of 2 points
Since 1970, a sizable part of the growth of the U.S. labor force has been due to
Selected Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force
Correct Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Part-time workers who want full-time employment but cannot find it are considered
underemployed.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is sometimes called the inflation threshold rate of
unemployment.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Among the world’s major industrial countries, the nation with the lowest
unemployment rate in 2005 was
Selected Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Persons who do not work because of bad weather or vacation are part of
Selected Answer: cyclical unemployment
Correct Answer: the employed labor force
Question 8 0 out of 2 points
U.S. workers tend to be both geographically and occupationally immobile.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following types of workers has decreased as a percentage of the U.S.
labor force in recent decades?
Selected Answer: unskilled workers
Correct Answer: unskilled workers

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946
Selected Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment
Correct Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The amount of unemployment that arises because workers are temporarily between
jobs or new entrants to the labor force is known as
Selected Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Underemployment includes employed workers not performing at full capacity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 13 2 out of 2 points
Credit restrictions that increase the size of down payments and shorten loan
maturities promote economic expansion.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


An advantage of public works over transfer payments as a means of reducing
unemployment is that
Selected Answer: public works require using a large amount of capital goods and
producing a large amount of supplies
Correct Answer: public works require using a large amount of capital goods and
producing a large amount of supplies

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Demand-pull inflation occurs whenever the economy is at full employment and total
demand for goods and services
Selected Answer: is less than total supply
Correct Answer: is greater than total supply

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Stagflation is a mixture of
Selected Answer: low inflation and high unemployment
Correct Answer: high inflation and high unemployment

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Crowding out occurs when unemployment compensation increases and income taxes
are held constant.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 18 2 out of 2 points
The U.S. experience with expansionary measures from 1930 to 1945
Selected Answer: repudiated the pump-priming theory
Correct Answer: repudiated the pump-priming theory

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The most effective way for the government to develop a surplus as a contractionary
measure is to increase taxes and hold or decrease spending.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


One lesson learned from the U.S. deficit spending of the 1930s was that direct
spending for transfer payments stimulated the economy more than spending on public
works.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


During the 1980s, hyperinflation was usually associated with
Selected Answer: the U.S. economy
Correct Answer: Latin American economies

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The Phillips curve shows a trade-off between unemployment and inflation.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True
Question 23 2 out of 2 points
The higher the economy’s level of capacity utilization, the lower will be the rate of
unemployment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Government policies designed to lower aggregate demand in order to combat
inflation are known as
Selected Answer: contractionary policies
Correct Answer: contractionary policies

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this
action
Selected Answer: has no impact on the multiplier effect
Correct Answer: decreases the multiplier to one

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


During the expansion phase of the business cycle, profit margins increase due to a
widening cost-price relationship.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


A recession is defined as a period in which real GDP is negative for two consecutive
quarters.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


During a contraction in the business cycle, the multiplier effect leads to cumulative
declines in output, employment, and income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Psychological forces have no effect on business fluctuations.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Selected Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Since the Great Depression, business cycles have not been an issue in the United
States.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


In an expanding economy,
Selected Answer: profit margins decrease
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Selected Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Economic indexes whose upward and downward turning points generally precede the
peaks and troughs of general business activity are known as
Selected Answer: roughly preceding indicators
Correct Answer: leading indicators

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the most valid expression of a theory of underconsumption
as a cause of business cycles?
Selected Answer: people want more goods than the economy is capable of
producing; therefore, they must cut their consumption expectations
Correct Answer: income equals production, but not all income is used for current
purchasing power

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s cyclical
movements.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


During the expansion phase of the business cycle, we would normally expect to see
real income ________, price level ________, and unemployment rate_______.
Selected Answer: increasing; increasing; decreasing
Correct Answer: increasing; increasing; decreasing

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The median income of white households is greater than the median income of all
households in the United States.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Channeling people according to sex or race into particular occupations tends to
Selected Answer: lower the wage rate in these occupations
Correct Answer: lower the wage rate in these occupations

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve measures the per capita annual income of individuals.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The distribution of world income is
Selected Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Compared to the Gini coefficient for income distribution, the value of the Gini
coefficient for the distribution of wealth would be
Selected Answer: higher
Correct Answer: higher

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The total number of people in poverty has changed little since the late 1960s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The value of the Gini coefficient has increased since the 1960s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


If a single household received all income, the Gini coefficient would
Selected Answer: have a value of 1
Correct Answer: have a value of 1

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


According to the Department of Commerce, a person living alone constitutes a
single-person family.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is a disincentive to leave welfare?
Selected Answer: lower taxes
Correct Answer: decrease in real income

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


The goal of every economic system should be the elimination of income inequality.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Employment discrimination refers to
Selected Answer: differing economic opportunities based on personal
characteristics
Correct Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Most of the unemployment experienced during the Great Depression was
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: cyclical

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is sometimes called the inflation threshold rate of
unemployment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 3 0 out of 2 points
The organization that develops and recommends to the U.S. President national
economic policies to foster maximum employment, production, and purchasing power
is the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Council of Economic Advisers

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The total labor force includes all persons in the noninstitutional population who are
either working or seeking work.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


In order to be effective, the minimum wage must be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: above the market wage

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


In recent years, the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has been among
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: black workers

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


Part-time workers who want full-time employment but cannot find it are considered
underemployed.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 8 0 out of 2 points
If you are “between jobs,” you are considered to be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: frictionally unemployed

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The Council of Economic Advisors is directly responsible to the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: U.S. President

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 is also known as the Deficit
Reduction Act.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following has not been outsourced from the U.S.?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: residential construction

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Since 1930, U.S. agriculture employment
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: has decreased while agricultural output has increased
Question 13 0 out of 2 points
The level of business activity at any time is affected by the trend, seasonal variations,
random fluctuations, and cyclical fluctuations.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


During a trough in the business cycle, the economy eventually reaches the bottleneck
stage.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The underconsumption theory is classified as a real or physical cause of the business
cycle.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Economists use the phrase “business cycle” when discussing
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: fluctuations in total output around the trend

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Question 18 0 out of 2 points
Business cycles can be described as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


Prior to 2006, the most severe trough in a U.S. business cycle since the Great
Depression occurred in 1982.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Inventory depletion can lead to increased production.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


A recession is defined as a period in which real GDP is negative for two consecutive
quarters.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s cyclical
movements.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 23 0 out of 2 points
The innovation theory is classified among the real or physical causes of the business
cycle.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


In an expanding economy,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


The term “recession” refers to a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


An equitable distribution of income is based on an objective standard, such as the
perceived productivity of the individual.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 28 0 out of 2 points
The New Economy is one of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: information

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure to
determine poverty.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


The goal of every economic system should be the elimination of income inequality.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The official poverty threshold line is adjusted annually for
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: inflation

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households
Question 33 0 out of 2 points
If a single household received all income, the Gini coefficient would
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: have a value of 1

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


A country with an equal distribution of income will have a higher standard of living
than a country with a more unequal distribution of income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Household wealth refers to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: net worth

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The value of the Gini coefficient has increased since the 1960s.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population equally.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


To most effectively combat inflation by raising taxes, the government should
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: target funds that would otherwise be spent on consumption or
investment

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies included
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect on the economy that results from a government budget
deficit is known as a fiscal stimulus.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


The policies of the New Deal in the 1930s, in an effort to alleviate unemployment,
paralleled those of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Keynesian analysis

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


Cost-push inflation is characterized by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the wage-price spiral

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


If business leaders thought an existing tax credit provision on new investment might
be suspended because of inflation, this would cause
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: investment spending to accelerate

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using tax financing to fund an increase in government spending,
which is designed to lower unemployment, is that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


The trade-off between unemployment and inflation is usually shown by the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Phillips curve

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


Stagflation is a mixture of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: high inflation and high unemployment

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


To combat inflation, President Nixon resorted to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: compulsory wage and price controls

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


Fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy when used to
increase aggregate demand during periods of serious unemployment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Inflation and unemployment can never exist at the same time.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Crowding out occurs when unemployment compensation increases and income taxes
are held constant.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The policies of the New Deal in the 1930s, in an effort to alleviate unemployment,
paralleled those of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Keynesian analysis

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


During an inflationary period caused by excessive aggregate expenditure, which type
of government budget would most effectively combat inflation?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a surplus budget

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Cost-push inflation is initiated by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: either (b) or (c)

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would increase aggregate expenditure?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


By the late 1960s, record investment levels, high levels of consumption, and large
government outlays generated inflationary pressures in the U.S. economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


If the Fed is following policies to reduce inflation, it is most likely to be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: lowering the money supply

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The progressive income tax serves as an automatic stabilizer for the U.S. economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


During the 1980s, hyperinflation was usually associated with
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Latin American economies
Question 9 0 out of 2 points
To most effectively combat inflation by raising taxes, the government should
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: target funds that would otherwise be spent on consumption or
investment

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


If the federal government is seeking to reduce large budget deficits, the flexibility of
fiscal policy is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: limited when trying to combat unemployment

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following statements is correct?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: cost-push inflation can occur in either a fully employed economy
or an underemployed economy

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this
action
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: decreases the multiplier to one

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


In the late 1960s, a 10 percent surcharge on U.S. personal and corporate income taxes
was imposed as an expansionary measure.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. unemployment rate excludes unemployed workers who are not actively
seeking work.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act set a 1983 U.S. inflation rate target
of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Among the world’s major industrial countries, the nation with the lowest
unemployment rate in 2005 was
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


Part-time workers who want full-time employment but cannot find it are considered
underemployed.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


The federal minimum wage law seeks to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: create a floor for wages

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: telephone survey

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Because of increases in the minimum wage, new entrants into the labor force find it
easier to find employment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional
unemployment in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: full-employment unemployment rate

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The Humphrey-Hawkins Act set a 1983 unemployment target of 3 percent for adult
unemployment.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


In order to be effective, the minimum wage must be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: above the market wage

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The number and the percentage of U.S. workers in labor unions have decreased in the
past decade.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


In recent years, the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has been among
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: black workers

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Involuntary inventory accumulation may occur during the contracting phase of the
business cycle.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. economy has experienced no minor cycles since World War II.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Population growth and wars are examples of external forces affecting the economy’s
cyclical movements.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


During the contraction phase of the business cycle,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: prices fall relative to costs, reducing profit margins

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


In an expanding economy,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The long-run average change in real GDP is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the trend

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s cyclical
movements.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


A recession is defined as a period when the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: real GDP falls for two consecutive quarters

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


The term “recession” refers to a
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 39 0 out of 2 points
The Gini coefficient index
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: is another way of expressing income inequality

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


Channeling people according to sex or race into particular occupations tends to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: lower the wage rate in these occupations

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A country with an equal distribution of income will have a higher standard of living
than a country with a more unequal distribution of income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve measures the degree to which incomes are distributed.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


In 2004, the top 5 percent of households earned approximately
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 50 percent of aggregate income
Question 44 0 out of 2 points
Although the number of jobs requiring computer knowledge has increased, these jobs
are found primarily in low-wage industries.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


In 2004, households with incomes less than $22,629 received
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 3.4 percent of aggregate income

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


If income were distributed solely according to productivity, some individuals would
not receive any income.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


The fact that women in large numbers choose careers in education and nursing may
be the result of occupational segregation.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


An income distribution in which all households receive exactly the same income is
referred to as a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income
Question 49 0 out of 2 points
A minimum wage rate job raises a family out of poverty.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The value of the Gini coefficient has increased since the 1960s.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

ECON125-HK1. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK1) > CONTROL


PANEL > GRADEBOOK > MODIFY GRADE > GRADE ATTEMPT

Grade Assessment Exam 4 Name Exam 4


User Siu Ying Mandy Chan
Status Completed
Score 98 out of 100 points
Instructions
Clear Attempt Click Clear Attempt to clear this user’s attempt.
Clear Attempt
Comments Modify Comments

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Given Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following types of workers has decreased as a percentage of the U.S.
labor force in recent decades?
Given Answer: unskilled workers
Correct Answer: unskilled workers

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978
Given Answer: set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by
1983 and zero inflation by 1988
Correct Answer: set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by
1983 and zero inflation by 1988

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes those
Given Answer: under age 16
Correct Answer: under age 16

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If workers are changing jobs voluntarily and it takes a while for them to find new
jobs, they are an example of
Given Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is usually
Given Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment
Correct Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Most of the unemployment experienced during the Great Depression was
Given Answer: cyclical
Correct Answer: cyclical

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In recent years, the U.S. labor force has experienced
Given Answer: an increase in the percentage of females
Correct Answer: an increase in the percentage of females

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Among the world's major industrial countries, the nation with the lowest
unemployment rate is
Given Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The U.S. civilian labor force does not include
Given Answer: members of the armed services
Correct Answer: members of the armed services

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Council of Economic Advisors is directly responsible to the
Given Answer: U.S. President
Correct Answer: U.S. President

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment corresponds roughly to the sum of
Given Answer: frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the Humphrey-Hawkins Act's
unemployment and inflation targets is correct?
Given Answer: neither was met by 1983
Correct Answer: neither was met by 1983

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The most effective means of stimulating the economy during a recession is for the
federal government to
Given Answer: increase spending and hold taxes
Correct Answer: increase spending and hold taxes

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation
are known as
Given Answer: automatic stabilizers
Correct Answer: automatic stabilizers

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using public works to reduce unemployment is that
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,
Given Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation
Correct Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A cost associated with an economic depression
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Fiscal policy deals with
Given Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A decrease in the economy's capacity utilization rate
Given Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate
Correct Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To increase employment, the most effective type of government budget would be a
Given Answer: deficit budget
Correct Answer: deficit budget

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Stagflation refers to
Given Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation
Correct Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation
Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Government demand-management policies that are used to try to increase the
equilibrium level of output in the economy are known as
Given Answer: expansionary policies
Correct Answer: expansionary policies

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the U.S. government increases spending, the U.S. Treasury
Given Answer: does not have the legal right to issue currency to pay for the
spending
Correct Answer: does not have the legal right to issue currency to pay for the
spending

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that the government is considering a policy to combat unemployment. If the
government pays for increased spending by borrowing funds that otherwise would
have been used for consumption and investment,
Given Answer: the positive effect of increased government spending is offset by a
reduction in private spending
Correct Answer: the positive effect of increased government spending is offset by a
reduction in private spending

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, all persons, unrelated or related
who occupy a housing unit comprise
Given Answer: a household
Correct Answer: a household
Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The distribution of world income is
Given Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term "lowest fifth"
indicates
Given Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families
Correct Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Compared to the Gini coefficient for income distribution, the value of the Gini
coefficient for the distribution of wealth would be
Given Answer: higher
Correct Answer: higher

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The official poverty threshold line is adjusted annually for
Given Answer: inflation
Correct Answer: inflation

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Given Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.
Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Employment discrimination refers to
Given Answer: differing economic opportunities offered to persons according to
their productivity
Correct Answer: differing economic opportunities based on personal characteristics

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a single household received all income, the Gini coefficient would
Given Answer: have a value of 1
Correct Answer: have a value of 1

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Geographically, a higher percentage of the poor live in the
Given Answer: South
Correct Answer: South

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The curve that indicates how far actual income distribution differs from a perfectly
equal income distribution is called the
Given Answer: Lorenz curve
Correct Answer: Lorenz curve

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as
Given Answer: a family
Correct Answer: a family
Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The New Economy is one of
Given Answer: information
Correct Answer: information

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In 2001, households with incomes less than $17,900 received
Given Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Monetary theorists maintain that to eliminate the business cycle, it is necessary to
eliminate
Given Answer: bank creation of checkable deposits
Correct Answer: bank creation of checkable deposits

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The term "recession" refers to a
Given Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters
Correct Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Given Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the pattern of the business cycle, generally
Given Answer: costs lag behind prices
Correct Answer: costs lag behind prices

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Given Answer: random fluctuation
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Given Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following rises during a contraction and falls during the expansion
phase of the business cycle?
Given Answer: unemployment
Correct Answer: unemployment

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Given Answer: psychological
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Given Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Given Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning major cycles is incorrect?
Given Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II
Correct Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Agricultural explanations of the business cycle are not as important today as they
were 50 to 75 years ago, because today
Given Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy
Correct Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Today, the U.S. unemployment rate among black teenagers is
Given Answer: the highest rate among all U.S. workers
Correct Answer: the highest rate among all U.S. workers

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes those
Given Answer: under age 16
Correct Answer: under age 16

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


By the late 1950s, the unemployment rate generally accepted as consistent with full
employment was about
Given Answer: 4 percent
Correct Answer: 4 percent

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In recent years the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has been among
Given Answer: adult males
Correct Answer: adult males

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Given Answer: increased as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 set a specific 1983 target
for adult unemployment of
Given Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which type of unemployment is the most difficult to cure?
Given Answer: structural
Correct Answer: structural

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Council of Economic Advisors is directly responsible to the
Given Answer: U.S. President
Correct Answer: U.S. President

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Employment act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office should
endeavor to
Given Answer: maximize employment
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since 1970, a sizable part of the growth of the U.S. labor force has been due to
Given Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force
Correct Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The increased entry of women and young people into the U.S. labor force from 1960-
1980 led to
Given Answer: increased unemployment
Correct Answer: reduced unemployment

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is usually
Given Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment
Correct Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In recent years, the U.S. labor force has experienced
Given Answer: an increase in the percentage of females
Correct Answer: an increase in the percentage of females

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


To increase employment, the most effective type of government budget would be a
Given Answer: balanced budget
Correct Answer: deficit budget

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A decrease in the economy's capacity utilization rate
Given Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate
Correct Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An advantage of public works over transfer payments as a means of reducing
unemployment is that
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: public works require using a large amount of capital goods and
producing a large amount of supplies

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Fiscal drag refers to the
Given Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus
Correct Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Suppose that the government is considering a policy to combat unemployment. If the
government pays for increased spending by borrowing funds that otherwise would
have been used for consumption and investment,
Given Answer: the negative effect of increased government spending is augmented
by a reduction in private spending
Correct Answer: the positive effect of increased government spending is offset by a
reduction in private spending

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When the U.S. Treasury sells bonds to the public to finance government spending and
then the Fed buys the bonds through open-market purchases, the Fed is
Given Answer: monetizing the debt
Correct Answer: monetizing the debt

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A cost associated with an economic depression
Given Answer: is the loss of goods and services that are not produced
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using tax financing to fund an increase in government spending,
which is designed to lower unemployment, is that
Given Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment
Correct Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment
Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
When trying to increase aggregate demand during a period of serious unemployment,
Given Answer: fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
Correct Answer: fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies included
Given Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies
Correct Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Stagflation refers to
Given Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation
Correct Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The U.S. expansion of the 1960s was augmented by
Given Answer: balanced budgets
Correct Answer: escalation of the war in Vietnam

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the
underinvestment theory?
Given Answer: monetary
Correct Answer: spending and saving
Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Given Answer: a devaluation in the nation's currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation's currency

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Agricultural explanations of the business cycle are not as important today as they
were 50 to 75 years ago, because today
Given Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy
Correct Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Given Answer: seasonal variation
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During the trough of the business cycle
Given Answer: all of the above occur
Correct Answer: all of the above occur

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The term "recession" refers to a
Given Answer: fall in the rate of increase of real per capita GDP
Correct Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Monetary theorists maintain that to eliminate the business cycle, it is necessary to
eliminate
Given Answer: bank creation of checkable deposits
Correct Answer: bank creation of checkable deposits

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Given Answer: psychological
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the pattern of the business cycle, generally
Given Answer: costs lag behind prices
Correct Answer: costs lag behind prices

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Given Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Given Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The New Economy is one of
Given Answer: information
Correct Answer: information

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?
Given Answer: the average income of U.S. households
Correct Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The federal government began to measure poverty in the
Given Answer: 1990s
Correct Answer: 1960s

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Channeling people according to sex or race into particular occupations tends to
Given Answer: lower the wage rate in these occupations
Correct Answer: lower the wage rate in these occupations

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The curve that indicates how far actual income distribution differs from a perfectly
equal income distribution is called the
Given Answer: Lorenz curve
Correct Answer: Lorenz curve

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In 2001, households with incomes less than $17,900 received
Given Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An income distribution in which all households receive exactly the same income is
referred to as
Given Answer: an equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: an equal distribution of income

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Employment discrimination refers to
Given Answer: differing economic opportunities based on personal characteristics
Correct Answer: differing economic opportunities based on personal characteristics

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Given Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The distribution of world income is
Given Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Household wealth refers to
Given Answer: net worth
Correct Answer: net worth

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If income were distributed equally, the Gini coefficient would
Given Answer: equal zero
Correct Answer: equal zero

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Geographically, a higher percentage of the poor live in the
Given Answer: West
Correct Answer: South

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as
Given Answer: a family
Correct Answer: a family

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The percentage of the population classified as poor in 2001 was approximately
Given Answer: 12 percent
Correct Answer: 12 percent
Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Geographically, a higher percentage of the poor live in the
Given Answer: South
Correct Answer: South

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Household wealth refers to
Given Answer: net worth
Correct Answer: net worth

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, all persons, unrelated or related
who occupy a housing unit comprise
Given Answer: a household
Correct Answer: a household

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve of perfect equality is a
Given Answer: upward sloping line from the origin
Correct Answer: upward sloping line from the origin

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a Lorenz curve were constructed for the distribution of wealth, the curve would
Given Answer: indicate less inequality for wealth than income
Correct Answer: indicate greater inequality for wealth than income
Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In 1998, the top 5 percent of households earned approximately
Given Answer: 20 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 20 percent of aggregate income

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?
Given Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households
Correct Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Given Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In 2001, households with incomes less than $17,900 received
Given Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 3.5 percent of aggregate income

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term "lowest fifth"
indicates
Given Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families
Correct Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The distribution of world income is
Given Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,
Given Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation
Correct Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The policies of the New Deal in the 1930s, is an effort to alleviate unemployment,
paralleled those of
Given Answer: Keynesian analysis
Correct Answer: Keynesian analysis

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following would increase aggregate expenditure?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Stagflation refers to
Given Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation
Correct Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During an inflationary period with full employment or near-full employment,
Given Answer: lower disbursements for unemployment compensation will
moderate inflation
Correct Answer: lower disbursements for unemployment compensation will
moderate inflation

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using public works to reduce unemployment is that
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The most effective means of stimulating the economy during a recession is for the
federal government to
Given Answer: increase spending and hold taxes
Correct Answer: increase spending and hold taxes

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation
are known as
Given Answer: automatic stabilizers
Correct Answer: automatic stabilizers

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An advantage of public works over transfer payments as a means of reducing
unemployment is that
Given Answer: public works require using a large amount of capital goods and
producing a large amount of supplies
Correct Answer: public works require using a large amount of capital goods and
producing a large amount of supplies

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When the U.S. Treasury sells bonds to the public to finance government spending and
then the Fed buys the bonds through open-market purchases, the Fed is
Given Answer: monetizing the debt
Correct Answer: monetizing the debt

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A decrease in the economy's capacity utilization rate
Given Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate
Correct Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Fiscal policy deals with
Given Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If workers are changing jobs voluntarily and it takes a while for them to find new
jobs, they are an example of
Given Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment
Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Unemployment
Given Answer: usually increases whenever real GDP decreases
Correct Answer: usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The U.S. civilian labor force does not include
Given Answer: members of the armed services
Correct Answer: members of the armed services

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946, passed by the U.S. Congress after World War II,
Given Answer: made the U.S. government responsible for achieving and
maintaining full employment
Correct Answer: made the U.S. government responsible for achieving and
maintaining full employment

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 set a specific 1983 target
for adult unemployment of
Given Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946
Given Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment
Correct Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment
Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
In recent years, the U.S. labor force has experienced
Given Answer: an increase in the percentage of females
Correct Answer: an increase in the percentage of females

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978
Given Answer: set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by
1983 and zero inflation by 1988
Correct Answer: set the goals for the U.S. economy as 4 percent unemployment by
1983 and zero inflation by 1988

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Employment act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office should
endeavor to
Given Answer: stabilize prices
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The increased entry of women and young people into the U.S. labor force from 1960-
1980 led to
Given Answer: reduced unemployment
Correct Answer: reduced unemployment

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Given Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Among the world's major industrial countries, the nation with the lowest
unemployment rate is
Given Answer: Japan
Correct Answer: Japan

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment corresponds roughly to the sum of
Given Answer: frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Given Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Given Answer: random fluctuation
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Given Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Given Answer: held in disrepute by most economists
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a phase of the business cycle?
Given Answer: compression
Correct Answer: compression

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Agricultural explanations of the business cycle are not as important today as they
were 50 to 75 years ago, because today
Given Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy
Correct Answer: agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total economy

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During the trough of the business cycle
Given Answer: little investment in plant and equipment occurs
Correct Answer: all of the above occur

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In an expanding economy,
Given Answer: prices rise faster than costs
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the pattern of the business cycle, generally
Given Answer: costs and prices move simultaneously
Correct Answer: costs lag behind prices

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Given Answer: monetary
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A recession is defined as a period when the
Given Answer: real GDP falls by at least 5 percent in a single quarter
Correct Answer: real GDP falls for two consecutive quarters

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies included
Selected Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies
Correct Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


An advantage of a transfer payments over public works as a means of reducing
unemployment is that transfer payments
Selected Answer: generate more secondary and tertiary employment
Correct Answer: provide more direct aid to those suffering most from
unemployment

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using tax financing to fund an increase in government spending,
which is designed to lower unemployment, is that
Selected Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment
Correct Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would increase aggregate expenditure?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The policies of the New Deal in the 1930s, is an effort to alleviate unemployment,
paralleled those of
Selected Answer: Keynesian analysis
Correct Answer: Keynesian analysis

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation
are known as
Selected Answer: automatic stabilizers
Correct Answer: automatic stabilizers

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies that are used to try to increase the
equilibrium level of output in the economy are known as
Selected Answer: expansionary policies
Correct Answer: expansionary policies

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal policy deals with
Selected Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using public works to reduce unemployment is that
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal drag refers to the
Selected Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus
Correct Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Stagflation refers to
Selected Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation
Correct Answer: sluggish production combined with inflation

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Suppose that the government is considering a policy to combat unemployment. If the
government pays for increased spending by borrowing funds that otherwise would
have been used for consumption and investment,
Selected Answer: the positive effect of increased government spending is offset by
a reduction in private spending
Correct Answer: the positive effect of increased government spending is offset by a
reduction in private spending

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


An income distribution in which all households receive exactly the same income is
referred to as
Selected Answer: an equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: an equal distribution of income

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


One of the problems with official poverty statistics is that they
Selected Answer: omit in-kind transfers, such as food stamps
Correct Answer: omit in-kind transfers, such as food stamps

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following contributes to income inequality?
Selected Answer: discrimination
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Geographically, a higher percentage of the poor live in the
Selected Answer: South
Correct Answer: South
Question 17 2 out of 2 points
In 1998, the top 5 percent of households earned approximately
Selected Answer: 20 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 20 percent of aggregate income

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve of perfect equality is a
Selected Answer: upward sloping line from the origin
Correct Answer: upward sloping line from the origin

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The curve that indicates how far actual income distribution differs from a perfectly
equal income distribution is called the
Selected Answer: Lorenz curve
Correct Answer: Lorenz curve

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as
Selected Answer: a family
Correct Answer: a family

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The New Economy is one of
Selected Answer: information
Correct Answer: information
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
The federal government began to measure poverty in the
Selected Answer: 1960s
Correct Answer: 1960s

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Selected Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis.

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


If income were distributed equally, the Gini coefficient would
Selected Answer: equal zero
Correct Answer: equal zero

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term "lowest fifth"
indicates
Selected Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families
Correct Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The Council of Economic Advisors is directly responsible to the
Selected Answer: U.S. President
Correct Answer: U.S. President
Question 27 2 out of 2 points
If workers are changing jobs voluntarily and it takes a while for them to find new
jobs, they are an example of
Selected Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


By the late 1950s, the unemployment rate generally accepted as consistent with full
employment was about
Selected Answer: 4 percent
Correct Answer: 4 percent

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following types of workers has decreased as a percentage of the U.S.
labor force in recent decades?
Selected Answer: unskilled workers
Correct Answer: unskilled workers

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Selected Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


In recent years the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has been among
Selected Answer: adult males
Correct Answer: adult males
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
Which type of unemployment is the most difficult to cure?
Selected Answer: structural
Correct Answer: structural

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Unemployment
Selected Answer: usually decreases whenever nominal GDP increases
Correct Answer: usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes those
Selected Answer: under age 16
Correct Answer: under age 16

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Since 1930, U.S. agriculture employment
Selected Answer: has decreased while agricultural output also has decreased
Correct Answer: has decreased while agricultural output has increased

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946
Selected Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment
Correct Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


In recent years, the U.S. labor force has experienced
Selected Answer: an increase in the percentage of females
Correct Answer: an increase in the percentage of females

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The Employment act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office should
endeavor to
Selected Answer: stabilize prices
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Selected Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The term "recession" refers to a
Selected Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters
Correct Answer: period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive quarters

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation's currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation's currency

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a phase of the business cycle?
Selected Answer: compression
Correct Answer: compression
Question 43 2 out of 2 points
According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Selected Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the
underinvestment theory?
Selected Answer: spending and saving
Correct Answer: spending and saving

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


The highest and lowest levels of economic activity during the business cycle are
called
Selected Answer: nadirs and zeniths
Correct Answer: peaks and troughs

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Selected Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Question 48 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Selected Answer: psychological
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Selected Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Selected Answer: random fluctuation
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation
are known as
Selected Answer: automatic stabilizers
Correct Answer: fiscal dividends

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this
action
Selected Answer: decreases the multiplier to one
Correct Answer: decreases the multiplier to one
Question 3 0 out of 2 points
Government policies designed to decrease the marginal propensity to consume would
promote maximum output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The Kennedy administration’s guidepost for wage increases was related to
Selected Answer: productivity increases
Correct Answer: productivity increases

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies that are used to try to increase the
equilibrium level of output in the economy are known as
Selected Answer: expansionary policies
Correct Answer: expansionary policies

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,
Selected Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation
Correct Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The major economic problem faced by President Ford’s administration was
stagflation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 8 0 out of 2 points
During the Great Depression, the rate of unemployment in the United States reached
a high of
Selected Answer: 10 percent
Correct Answer: 25 percent

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Jawboning by the Carter Administration proved to be an unsuccessful contractionary
policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal drag refers to the
Selected Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

c unemployment,

a. monetary and fiscal policies are likely to be equally effective


b. monetary policy is likely to be more effective than fiscal policy
*c. fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
d. laissez-faire policy is likely to be most effective
Correct Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

c unemployment,
a. monetary and fiscal policies are likely to be equally effective
b. monetary policy is likely to be more effective than fiscal policy
*c. fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
d. laissez-faire policy is likely to be most effective

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal policy deals with
Selected Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


To increase employment, the most effective type of government budget would be a
Selected Answer: deficit budget
Correct Answer: deficit budget

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Compared to its position during the late 1970s, the Phillips curve for the U.S.
economy in the 1980s appeared to
Selected Answer: shift to the right
Correct Answer: shift to the left

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


In order to be effective, the minimum wage must be
Selected Answer: above the market wage
Correct Answer: above the market wage

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment never changes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Increases in the federal minimum wage directly affects only a small percentage of
U.S. workers.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The Humphrey-Hawkins Act’s target rates for unemployment and inflation were
reached by their target date of 1983.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional
unemployment in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the
Selected Answer: full-employment unemployment rate
Correct Answer: full-employment unemployment rate

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Selected Answer: telephone survey
Correct Answer: telephone survey

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office
should endeavor to
Selected Answer: stabilize prices
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 set a specific annual inflation rate target of 3 percent.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Much of the unemployment associated with recessions is cyclical in nature.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Foreign outsourcing refers to the
Selected Answer: selling of Treasury bonds to foreigners
Correct Answer: exporting of domestic jobs

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act set a 1983 U.S. inflation rate target
of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Selected Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Stabilizing measures by the federal government eliminate the business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning major cycles is incorrect?
Selected Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II
Correct Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


During the expansion phase of the business cycle, profit margins increase due to a
widening cost-price relationship.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The theory of rational expectations is classified as a psychological cause of the
business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Selected Answer: psychological
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A noticeable drop in the level of business activity is known as a
Selected Answer: recession
Correct Answer: contraction

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The innovation theory is classified among the real or physical causes of the business
cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Selected Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Selected Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The measurement of a business cycle is obtained by adjusting the real GDP for
seasonal variation, the trend, and random fluctuations.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the most valid expression of a theory of underconsumption
as a cause of business cycles?
Selected Answer: income equals production, but not all income is used for current
purchasing power
Correct Answer: income equals production, but not all income is used for current
purchasing power

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Prior to 2006, the most severe trough in a U.S. business cycle since the Great
Depression occurred in 1982.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the theory of
“real business cycles?”
Selected Answer: physical
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The poverty rate for female householders without a husband present exceeds the
poverty rate for blacks and Hispanics.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 40 2 out of 2 points
The fact that women in large numbers choose careers in education and nursing may
be the result of occupational segregation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population equally.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Welfare caseloads tend to fluctuate with
Selected Answer: business cycles
Correct Answer: business cycles

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Unemployment insurance is a form of in-kind transfer payment to reduce poverty.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


Labor market discrimination on the basis of sex or race is usually person-specific
rather than a general labor practice.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
Employment discrimination refers to
Selected Answer: differing economic opportunities offered to persons according to
their productivity
Correct Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The official poverty threshold line is adjusted annually for
Selected Answer: inflation
Correct Answer: inflation

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Compared to the Gini coefficient for income distribution, the value of the Gini
coefficient for the distribution of wealth would be
Selected Answer: higher
Correct Answer: higher

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


The poverty rate for blacks is almost three times that for whites.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The distribution of world income is
Selected Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal
Question 50 2 out of 2 points
The Lorenz curve shows the
Selected Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


According to the rational expectations theory,
Selected Answer: the easy expansion of the money supply by banks eventually
leads to excess productive capacity
Correct Answer: the expected results of government anticyclical measures are offset
by the actions of businesses and individuals

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


A hurricane is considered an external force in business cycle analysis.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Cost changes generally lag behind price changes during the business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The long-run average change in real GDP is known as
Selected Answer: the trend
Correct Answer: the trend

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Selected Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Selected Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The period when the level of business activity has dropped as far as it is going to
drop in a particular business cycle is known as the trough.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the theory of
“real business cycles?”
Selected Answer: physical
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the
underinvestment theory?
Selected Answer: spending and saving
Correct Answer: spending and saving

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


In the pattern of the business cycle, generally
Selected Answer: costs lag behind prices
Correct Answer: costs lag behind prices

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Interest rates usually rise during the contraction phase of the business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Prior to 2006, the most severe trough in a U.S. business cycle since the Great
Depression occurred in 1982.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment never changes.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The highest unemployment rate in the United States in recent years has been among
adult females.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The federal minimum wage law seeks to
Selected Answer: create a floor for wages
Correct Answer: create a floor for wages

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is usually
Selected Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment
Correct Answer: higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946
Selected Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment
Correct Answer: gave no specific definition for maximum employment

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The demand for unskilled workers has been growing as a percent of total U.S. labor
force in recent years.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 set a specific 1983 target
for adult unemployment of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The full-employment unemployment rate is identical to the inflation threshold rate of
unemployment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The labor force participation rate is
Selected Answer: the civilian labor force as a percentage of the total labor force
Correct Answer: the civilian labor force as a percentage of the civilian
noninstitutional population

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Maximum employment was not defined in the Employment Act of 1946.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes members of the armed services stationed outside
the United States.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Service-oriented jobs make up more than three-quarters of total employment in the
U.S. labor force.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure to
determine poverty.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Labor market discrimination on the basis of sex or race is usually person-specific
rather than a general labor practice.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


A country with an equal distribution of income will have a higher standard of living
than a country with a more unequal distribution of income.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


In 2004, households with incomes less than $22,629 received
Selected Answer: 3.4 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 3.4 percent of aggregate income

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


The biggest disincentive to employment for those on welfare is the effect of taxes as
they earn income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


An income distribution in which all households receive exactly the same income is
referred to as a(n)
Selected Answer: equal distribution of income
Correct Answer: equal distribution of income

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


If a Lorenz curve were constructed for the distribution of wealth, the curve would
Selected Answer: indicate greater inequality for wealth than income
Correct Answer: indicate greater inequality for wealth than income

Question 33 0 out of 2 points


Household wealth is defined as income minus liabilities.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The value of the Gini coefficient has increased since the 1960s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The federal government began to measure poverty in the
Selected Answer: 1960s
Correct Answer: 1960s

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The curve that indicates how far actual income distribution differs from a perfectly
equal income distribution is called the
Selected Answer: Lorenz curve
Correct Answer: Lorenz curve

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The poverty rate for female householders without a husband present exceeds the
poverty rate for blacks and Hispanics.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The only way the government can engage in deficit spending is by increasing
spending while holding or decreasing taxes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Out-of-control inflation that creates severe economic distortions is known as
Selected Answer: deflation
Correct Answer: hyperinflation

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


When the U.S. Treasury sells bonds to the public to finance government spending and
then the Fed buys the bonds through open-market purchases, the Fed is
Selected Answer: monetizing the debt
Correct Answer: monetizing the debt

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


If business leaders thought an existing tax credit provision on new investment might
be suspended because of inflation, this would cause
Selected Answer: investment spending to accelerate
Correct Answer: investment spending to accelerate

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using tax financing to fund an increase in government spending,
which is designed to lower unemployment, is that
Selected Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment
Correct Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


An advantage of transfer payments over public works as a means of reducing
unemployment is that transfer payments
Selected Answer: are unlikely to decrease unintended excess inventories of
consumer goods
Correct Answer: provide more direct aid to those suffering most from
unemployment

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


In the late 1960s, a 10 percent surcharge on U.S. personal and corporate income taxes
was imposed as an expansionary measure.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 45 0 out of 2 points
Investment tax credits are a monetary policy device.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The Kennedy administration’s guidepost for wage increases was related to
Selected Answer: productivity increases
Correct Answer: productivity increases

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies that are used to try to increase the
equilibrium level of output in the economy are known as
Selected Answer: expansionary policies
Correct Answer: expansionary policies

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If the government wants to generate a surplus as a contractionary measure, the most
effective method of doing so is to
Selected Answer: increase taxes and hold or decrease spending
Correct Answer: increase taxes and hold or decrease spending

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Government policies designed to lower aggregate demand in order to combat
inflation are known as
Selected Answer: contractionary policies
Correct Answer: contractionary policies
Question 50 2 out of 2 points
During the 1990–1991 recession, the U.S. government’s large budget deficits and
budget reduction commitments limited its ability to use fiscal policy to stimulate the
economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The U.S. experience with expansionary measures from 1930 to 1945
Selected Answer: repudiated the pump-priming theory
Correct Answer: repudiated the pump-priming theory

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect on the economy that results from a government budget
deficit is known as a fiscal stimulus.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


If the government builds a dam, as opposed to spending more on welfare payments, it
will have a greater multiplier effect.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


Deflation and disinflation are synonymous terms.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 5 2 out of 2 points
A disadvantage of using tax financing to fund an increase in government spending,
which is designed to lower unemployment, is that
Selected Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment
Correct Answer: the taxes may absorb funds that would otherwise be used for
consumption or investment

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Unemployment compensation is an example of an automatic economy stabilizer.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


A major weakness of using public works as an expansionary device involves the long
period of time needed to plan and begin the project.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


If government spending is used to bolster the level of economic activity, the type of
financing available to the U.S. government that would increase aggregate spending
the most is
Selected Answer: borrowing from banks
Correct Answer: borrowing from banks

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies included
Selected Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies
Correct Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The trade-off between unemployment and inflation is usually shown by the
Selected Answer: Phillips curve
Correct Answer: Phillips curve

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


A disadvantage of using public works to reduce unemployment is that
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The progressive income tax serves as an automatic stabilizer for the U.S. economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Stagflation suggests a rate of inflation near zero.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


According to the Department of Commerce, a person living alone constitutes a
single-person family.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 15 2 out of 2 points
If the percentage of the population that is below the poverty line has decreased, then
the number of
Selected Answer: poor may have increased
Correct Answer: poor may have increased

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Unemployment insurance is a form of in-kind transfer payment to reduce poverty.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The curve that indicates how far actual income distribution differs from a perfectly
equal income distribution is called the
Selected Answer: Lorenz curve
Correct Answer: Lorenz curve

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


Statistics indicate that because of government transfer programs, households in the
four lower quintiles now receive a much larger share of aggregate income than in
1970.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The poverty threshold line for a family of four in 2004 was
Selected Answer: between $10,000 and $15,000
Correct Answer: about $19,200

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Employment discrimination refers to
Selected Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences
Correct Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


For many welfare recipients, taking a job reduces income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


The distribution of world income is
Selected Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If income were distributed solely according to productivity, some individuals would
not receive any income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Although the number of jobs requiring computer knowledge has increased, these jobs
are found primarily in low-wage industries.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 25 2 out of 2 points
The New Economy is one of
Selected Answer: information
Correct Answer: information

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


A noticeable drop in the level of business activity is known as a
Selected Answer: contraction
Correct Answer: contraction

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


Through 2005, the most serious U.S. trough since the Great Depression was the one
that occurred in
Selected Answer: 1974–1975
Correct Answer: 1982

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Selected Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


A hurricane is considered an external force in business cycle analysis.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 30 2 out of 2 points
In an expanding economy,
Selected Answer: prices rise faster than costs
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


During a contraction in the business cycle, the multiplier effect leads to cumulative
declines in output, employment, and income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Since the Great Depression, business cycles have not been an issue in the United
States.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Stabilizing measures by the federal government eliminate the business cycle.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 35 0 out of 2 points
An example of an external force affecting the business cycle is
Selected Answer: a change in business attitudes toward investment
Correct Answer: a change in the discount rate by the Fed

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Inventory depletion can lead to increased production.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The period when the level of business activity has dropped as far as it is going to
drop in a particular business cycle is known as the trough.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


By the late 1950s, the unemployment rate generally accepted as consistent with full
employment was about
Selected Answer: 4 percent
Correct Answer: 4 percent

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act set a 1983 U.S. inflation rate target
of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes members of the armed services stationed outside
the United States.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


Unemployment caused by an imbalance between the skills possessed by workers and
the skills demanded in labor markets is known as
Selected Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: structural unemployment

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


In recent years, the U.S. labor force has experienced
Selected Answer: an increase in the percentage of females
Correct Answer: an increase in the percentage of females

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following types of workers has decreased as a percentage of the U.S.
labor force in recent decades?
Selected Answer: unskilled workers
Correct Answer: unskilled workers
Question 45 2 out of 2 points
The Employment Act of 1946 makes the government responsible for maintaining
maximum employment, production, and purchasing power.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The idea of the natural rate of unemployment is that
Selected Answer: the market system requires that a pool of unemployed people be
available to limit the power of workers
Correct Answer: frictional and structural causes prevent employment in the
economy from ever becoming 100 percent of the labor force

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Part-time workers who want full-time employment but cannot find it are considered
underemployed.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


A sizable part of increases in the U.S. labor force in the past few decades has been
due to the influx of women.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The Council of Economic Advisors is directly responsible to the
Selected Answer: U.S. President
Correct Answer: U.S. President
Question 50 0 out of 2 points
Frictional unemployment is caused primarily by automation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 72 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation
are known as
Selected Answer: fiscal dividends
Correct Answer: automatic stabilizers

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this
action
Selected Answer: decreases the multiplier to one
Correct Answer: decreases the multiplier to one

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


Government policies designed to decrease the marginal propensity to consume would
promote maximum output.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 4 2 out of 2 points
The Kennedy administration’s guidepost for wage increases was related to
Selected Answer: productivity increases
Correct Answer: productivity increases

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies that are used to try to increase the
equilibrium level of output in the economy are known as
Selected Answer: expansionary policies
Correct Answer: expansionary policies

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


In terms of the impact on aggregate expenditure of alternative methods of raising
additional revenue for government spending,
Selected Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation
Correct Answer: borrowing from banks is more effective than borrowing from the
public, which is more effective than taxation

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The major economic problem faced by President Ford’s administration was
stagflation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


During the Great Depression, the rate of unemployment in the United States reached
a high of
Selected Answer: 10 percent
Correct Answer: 25 percent
Question 9 2 out of 2 points
Jawboning by the Carter Administration proved to be an unsuccessful contractionary
policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal drag refers to the
Selected Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

c unemployment,

a. monetary and fiscal policies are likely to be equally effective


b. monetary policy is likely to be more effective than fiscal policy
*c. fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
d. laissez-faire policy is likely to be most effective
Correct Answer: slowing effect on the economy that results from a government
budget surplus

c unemployment,

a. monetary and fiscal policies are likely to be equally effective


b. monetary policy is likely to be more effective than fiscal policy
*c. fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy
d. laissez-faire policy is likely to be most effective
Question 11 2 out of 2 points
Fiscal policy deals with
Selected Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


To increase employment, the most effective type of government budget would be a
Selected Answer: deficit budget
Correct Answer: deficit budget

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Compared to its position during the late 1970s, the Phillips curve for the U.S.
economy in the 1980s appeared to
Selected Answer: shift to the right
Correct Answer: shift to the left

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


In order to be effective, the minimum wage must be
Selected Answer: above the market wage
Correct Answer: above the market wage

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment never changes.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Increases in the federal minimum wage directly affects only a small percentage of
U.S. workers.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The Humphrey-Hawkins Act’s target rates for unemployment and inflation were
reached by their target date of 1983.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional
unemployment in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the
Selected Answer: full-employment unemployment rate
Correct Answer: full-employment unemployment rate

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Selected Answer: telephone survey
Correct Answer: telephone survey

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office
should endeavor to
Selected Answer: stabilize prices
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 set a specific annual inflation rate target of 3 percent.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Much of the unemployment associated with recessions is cyclical in nature.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Foreign outsourcing refers to the
Selected Answer: selling of Treasury bonds to foreigners
Correct Answer: exporting of domestic jobs

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act set a 1983 U.S. inflation rate target
of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Selected Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Stabilizing measures by the federal government eliminate the business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following statements concerning major cycles is incorrect?
Selected Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II
Correct Answer: the United States has experienced ten major cycles since World
War II

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


During the expansion phase of the business cycle, profit margins increase due to a
widening cost-price relationship.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The theory of rational expectations is classified as a psychological cause of the
business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the rational
expectations theory?
Selected Answer: psychological
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A noticeable drop in the level of business activity is known as a
Selected Answer: recession
Correct Answer: contraction

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


The innovation theory is classified among the real or physical causes of the business
cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are
Selected Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems
Correct Answer: more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Business cycles can be described as
Selected Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend
Correct Answer: fluctuations around a long-term growth trend

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The measurement of a business cycle is obtained by adjusting the real GDP for
seasonal variation, the trend, and random fluctuations.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is the most valid expression of a theory of underconsumption
as a cause of business cycles?
Selected Answer: income equals production, but not all income is used for current
purchasing power
Correct Answer: income equals production, but not all income is used for current
purchasing power

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Prior to 2006, the most severe trough in a U.S. business cycle since the Great
Depression occurred in 1982.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following categories of business cycle theories includes the theory of
“real business cycles?”
Selected Answer: physical
Correct Answer: psychological

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The poverty rate for female householders without a husband present exceeds the
poverty rate for blacks and Hispanics.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The fact that women in large numbers choose careers in education and nursing may
be the result of occupational segregation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 41 2 out of 2 points
Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population equally.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Welfare caseloads tend to fluctuate with
Selected Answer: business cycles
Correct Answer: business cycles

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Unemployment insurance is a form of in-kind transfer payment to reduce poverty.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


Labor market discrimination on the basis of sex or race is usually person-specific
rather than a general labor practice.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Employment discrimination refers to
Selected Answer: differing economic opportunities offered to persons according to
their productivity
Correct Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences
Question 46 2 out of 2 points
The official poverty threshold line is adjusted annually for
Selected Answer: inflation
Correct Answer: inflation

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Compared to the Gini coefficient for income distribution, the value of the Gini
coefficient for the distribution of wealth would be
Selected Answer: higher
Correct Answer: higher

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


The poverty rate for blacks is almost three times that for whites.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The distribution of world income is
Selected Answer: very unequal
Correct Answer: very unequal

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows the
Selected Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis
Correct Answer: cumulative percent of income on the vertical axis and the
cumulative percent of families on the horizontal axis
Question 1 2 out of 2 points
The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional
unemployment in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the
Selected Answer: full-employment unemployment rate
Correct Answer: full-employment unemployment rate

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


The increased entry of women and young people into the U.S. labor force from
1960–1980 led to
Selected Answer: a more experienced workforce
Correct Answer: increased unemployment

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment never changes.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Persons who do not work because of bad weather or vacation are part of
Selected Answer: the employed labor force
Correct Answer: the employed labor force

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


Unemployment caused by automation would be broadly classified as
Selected Answer: cyclical
Correct Answer: structural

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


In recent years, the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has been among
Selected Answer: black workers
Correct Answer: black workers

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


All people in the noninstitutional population are counted as members of the labor
force.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 set a specific 1983 target
for adult unemployment of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946, passed by the U.S. Congress after World War II,
Selected Answer: made the U.S. government responsible for achieving and
maintaining full employment
Correct Answer: made the U.S. government responsible for achieving and
maintaining full employment

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The organization that develops and recommends to the U.S. President national
economic policies to foster maximum employment, production, and purchasing power
is the
Selected Answer: Council of Economic Advisers
Correct Answer: Council of Economic Advisers
Question 11 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the Humphrey-Hawkins Act’s
unemployment and inflation targets is correct?
Selected Answer: the unemployment rate was met but not the inflation target
Correct Answer: neither was met by 1983

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Selected Answer: telephone survey
Correct Answer: telephone survey

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


In terms of its ability to combat inflation, the most effective restraint on installment
loans would require a
Selected Answer: higher down payment and longer loan maturity
Correct Answer: higher down payment and shorter loan maturity

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


During an inflationary period, the Federal Reserve is most likely to
Selected Answer: lower reserve requirements
Correct Answer: raise the discount rate

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Stagflation suggests a rate of inflation near zero.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
Crowding out occurs when unemployment compensation increases and income taxes
are held constant.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


If the government wants to generate a surplus as a contractionary measure, the most
effective method of doing so is to
Selected Answer: increase taxes and hold or decrease spending
Correct Answer: increase taxes and hold or decrease spending

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


A cost associated with an economic depression
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Government demand-management policies included
Selected Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies
Correct Answer: both monetary and fiscal policies

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal policy is likely to be more effective than monetary policy when used to
increase aggregate demand during periods of serious unemployment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 21 0 out of 2 points
The Reagan administration’s Economic Recovery Tax Act of 1981
Selected Answer: eliminated tax credits on new investment
Correct Answer: reduced the top marginal income tax rate

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


The Federal Reserve usually increases interest rates during inflationary periods.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


A decrease in the economy’s capacity utilization rate
Selected Answer: has no impact on the unemployment rate
Correct Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Changing the discount rate is a tool of fiscal policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Unemployment compensation is an example of an automatic economy stabilizer.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


One of the problems with official poverty statistics is that they
Selected Answer: omit in-kind transfers, such as food stamps
Correct Answer: omit in-kind transfers, such as food stamps

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Statistics indicate that because of government transfer programs, households in the
four lower quintiles now receive a much larger share of aggregate income than in
1970.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Labor market discrimination on the basis of sex or race is usually person-specific
rather than a general labor practice.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


As incomes rise, transfer benefits to the poor decrease.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Nonfamily households earn less than 50 percent of the income earned by family
households.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Household wealth refers to
Selected Answer: net worth
Correct Answer: net worth

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


A country with an equal distribution of income will have a higher standard of living
than a country with a more unequal distribution of income.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The Gini coefficient index
Selected Answer: is another way of expressing income inequality
Correct Answer: is another way of expressing income inequality

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The percentage of the population classified as poor in 2004 was approximately
Selected Answer: 21 percent
Correct Answer: 12 percent

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve of perfect equality is a
Selected Answer: upward sloping line from the origin
Correct Answer: upward sloping line from the origin

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


A minimum wage rate job raises a family out of poverty.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The fact that women in large numbers choose careers in education and nursing may
be the result of occupational segregation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Measuring the intensity of the business cycle requires
Selected Answer: eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data
Correct Answer: eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


In an expanding economy,
Selected Answer: prices rise faster than costs
Correct Answer: prices rise faster than costs

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


During a trough in the business cycle, the economy eventually reaches the bottleneck
stage.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


A noticeable drop in the level of business activity is known as a
Selected Answer: contraction
Correct Answer: contraction

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The impact of the 2005 hurricanes in Florida would be an example of a random
fluctuation in business activity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


During the trough of the business cycle,
Selected Answer: consumers postpone purchases of durable goods
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following rises during a contraction and falls during the expansion
phase of the business cycle?
Selected Answer: unemployment
Correct Answer: unemployment

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Since the Great Depression, business cycles have not been an issue in the United
States.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


During a contraction in the business cycle, the multiplier effect leads to cumulative
declines in output, employment, and income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina is an
example of
Selected Answer: random fluctuation
Correct Answer: random fluctuation

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Interest rates usually rise during the contraction phase of the business cycle.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Selected Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Selected Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices
Correct Answer: increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 80 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


During the trough of the business cycle,
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be considered an internal force that helps move the
economy out of a trough?
Selected Answer: the replacement of depleted inventories
Correct Answer: higher interest rates

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Interest rates usually rise during the contraction phase of the business cycle.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The underinvestment theory is classified as a monetary cause of the business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s cyclical
movements.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Recurring fluctuations in business activity over the course of one year are known as
Selected Answer: seasonal variations
Correct Answer: seasonal variations

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


A recession occurs whenever there’s a decline in real GDP for two or more
successive quarters.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The roughly coincident indicators have their upward and downward turning points
prior to the upward and downward turning points of real GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Stabilizing measures by the federal government eliminate the business cycle.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 11 2 out of 2 points
During the expansion phase of the business cycle, profit margins increase due to a
widening cost-price relationship.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The theory of rational expectations is classified as a psychological cause of the
business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Measuring the intensity of the business cycle requires
Selected Answer: eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data
Correct Answer: eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Persons who do not work because of bad weather or vacation are part of
Selected Answer: the employed labor force
Correct Answer: the employed labor force

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Part-time workers who want full-time employment but cannot find it are considered
underemployed.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
A sizable part of increases in the U.S. labor force in the past few decades has been
due to the influx of women.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 set a specific unemployment rate target of 4 percent.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Today, the U.S. unemployment rate among black teenagers is
Selected Answer: the highest rate among all U.S. workers
Correct Answer: the highest rate among all U.S. workers

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The organization that develops and recommends to the U.S. President national
economic policies to foster maximum employment, production, and purchasing power
is the
Selected Answer: Council of Economic Advisers
Correct Answer: Council of Economic Advisers

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The total U.S. labor force excludes those
Selected Answer: under age 16
Correct Answer: under age 16
Question 21 2 out of 2 points
If workers are changing jobs voluntarily and it takes a while for them to find new
jobs, they are an example of
Selected Answer: frictional unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is the rate of unemployment we would expect to
find
Selected Answer: when there is no inflation in the economy
Correct Answer: when all unemployment is structural or frictional

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If you are “between jobs,” you are considered to be
Selected Answer: frictionally unemployed
Correct Answer: frictionally unemployed

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 does not require that the administration in office
should endeavor to
Selected Answer: stabilize prices
Correct Answer: stabilize prices

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Selected Answer: telephone survey
Correct Answer: telephone survey
Question 26 2 out of 2 points
During an inflationary period, the Federal Reserve is most likely to
Selected Answer: raise the discount rate
Correct Answer: raise the discount rate

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


In terms of its ability to combat inflation, the most effective restraint on installment
loans would require a
Selected Answer: higher down payment and shorter loan maturity
Correct Answer: higher down payment and shorter loan maturity

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The policies of the New Deal in the 1930s, in an effort to alleviate unemployment,
paralleled those of
Selected Answer: Keynesian analysis
Correct Answer: Keynesian analysis

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The Kennedy administration’s guidepost for wage increases was related to
Selected Answer: productivity increases
Correct Answer: productivity increases

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Wage and price controls were imposed on the U.S. economy to suppress inflation in
1972.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 31 2 out of 2 points
A decrease in the economy’s capacity utilization rate
Selected Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate
Correct Answer: tends to increase the unemployment rate

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Unemployment compensation is an example of an automatic economy stabilizer.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Debtors tend to benefit more from inflation than creditors do.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. economy failed to achieve full employment levels of output during the
1960s despite increased government spending
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Keynesian analysis provides the basis for demand-management policies designed to
stimulate high levels of employment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 36 0 out of 2 points
If the government must borrow during an inflationary period, it is less inflationary to
borrow idle funds rather than funds that would otherwise be spent.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


During the 1990–1991 recession, the U.S. government’s large budget deficits and
budget reduction commitments limited its ability to use fiscal policy to stimulate the
economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. experience between 1931 and 1945 indicated that transfer payments combat
unemployment better than spending on public works.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Union membership in the United States has fallen to less than 15 percent of the
workforce.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The federal government began to measure poverty in the
Selected Answer: 1960s
Correct Answer: 1960s

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


Because their earnings are highest, married couples between the ages of 35-54 hold
the largest share of wealth in the United States.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a group of two or more persons
living together who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption is known as a
Selected Answer: family
Correct Answer: family

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


In 2004, households with incomes less than $22,629 received
Selected Answer: 3.4 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: 3.4 percent of aggregate income

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Statistics indicate that because of government transfer programs, households in the
four lower quintiles now receive a much larger share of aggregate income than in
1970.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The percentage of the population classified as poor in 2004 was approximately
Selected Answer: 12 percent
Correct Answer: 12 percent

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?
Selected Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households
Correct Answer: the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term “lowest fifth”
indicates
Selected Answer: the smallest twenty percent of families
Correct Answer: the poorest twenty percent of families

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If a Lorenz curve were constructed for the distribution of wealth, the curve would
Selected Answer: indicate greater inequality for wealth than income
Correct Answer: indicate greater inequality for wealth than income

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population equally.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


The Gini coefficient index
Selected Answer: is another way of expressing income inequality
Correct Answer: is another way of expressing income inequality

Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 90 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Involuntary inventory accumulation may occur during the contracting phase of the
business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The impact of the 2005 hurricanes in Florida would be an example of a random
fluctuation in business activity.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force affecting the business cycle is
Selected Answer: a change in the discount rate by the Fed
Correct Answer: a change in the discount rate by the Fed

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s cyclical
movements.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


An example of an external force in business fluctuations is
Selected Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency
Correct Answer: a devaluation in the nation’s currency

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The statistical indicators of business cycle changes contain
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Through 2005, the most serious U.S. trough since the Great Depression was the one
that occurred in
Selected Answer: 1982
Correct Answer: 1982

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would not be considered an internal force that helps move the
economy out of a trough?
Selected Answer: higher interest rates
Correct Answer: higher interest rates

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


A recession occurs whenever there’s a decline in real GDP for two or more
successive quarters.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The long-run average change in real GDP is known as
Selected Answer: the trend
Correct Answer: the trend

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


As the economy moves into the trough of the business cycle, there is a sizable
reduction in the output of capital goods.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


During a contraction in the business cycle, the multiplier effect leads to cumulative
declines in output, employment, and income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The psychological theory of the business cycle is
Selected Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle
Correct Answer: incorporated into practically all other theories of the cycle

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The farther the Lorenz curve bows away from the line of income inequality, the
greater is the inequality of income distribution.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The goal of every economic system should be the elimination of income inequality.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Employment discrimination refers to
Selected Answer: differing economic opportunities based on personal
characteristics
Correct Answer: wage differentials based on productivity differences

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population equally.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The official poverty threshold line is adjusted annually for
Selected Answer: inflation
Correct Answer: inflation

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


The biggest disincentive to employment for those on welfare is the effect of taxes as
they earn income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure to
determine poverty.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is a disincentive to leave welfare?
Selected Answer: decrease in real income
Correct Answer: decrease in real income

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Labor market discrimination on the basis of sex or race is usually person-specific
rather than a general labor practice.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If a single household received all income, the Gini coefficient would
Selected Answer: have a value of 1
Correct Answer: have a value of 1

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The Lorenz curve shows
Selected Answer: how income is distributed
Correct Answer: how income is distributed
Question 25 0 out of 2 points
According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, all persons, unrelated or related,
who occupy a housing unit comprise
Selected Answer: an extended family unit
Correct Answer: a household

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


U.S. workers tend to be both geographically and occupationally immobile.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Because of increases in the minimum wage, new entrants into the labor force find it
easier to find employment.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


Today, the full-employment unemployment rate in the United States is generally
agreed to be
Selected Answer: 4 to 5 percent
Correct Answer: 5 to 6 percent

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The natural rate of employment corresponds roughly to the sum of
Selected Answer: cyclical unemployment plus structural unemployment
Correct Answer: frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment
Question 30 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following has not been outsourced from the U.S.?
Selected Answer: residential construction
Correct Answer: residential construction

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The Humphrey-Hawkins Act’s target rates for unemployment and inflation were
reached by their target date of 1983.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Many economists believe that increases in the minimum wage tend to create a labor
surplus.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The Employment Act of 1946 set a specific annual inflation rate target of 3 percent.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act set a 1983 U.S. inflation rate target
of
Selected Answer: 3 percent
Correct Answer: 3 percent
Question 35 2 out of 2 points
The Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act of 1978 is also known as the Deficit
Reduction Act.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Since 1970, a sizable part of the growth of the U.S. labor force has been due to
Selected Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force
Correct Answer: the entry of more women into the labor force

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


The natural rate of unemployment is sometimes called the inflation threshold rate of
unemployment.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


If business leaders thought an existing tax credit provision on new investment might
be suspended because of inflation, this would cause
Selected Answer: investment spending to accelerate
Correct Answer: investment spending to accelerate

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


To most effectively combat inflation by raising taxes, the government should
Selected Answer: target funds that would otherwise be spent on consumption or
investment
Correct Answer: target funds that would otherwise be spent on consumption or
investment

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The expansionary effect on the economy that results from a government budget
deficit is known as a fiscal stimulus.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


During an inflationary period caused by excessive aggregate expenditure, which type
of government budget would most effectively combat inflation?
Selected Answer: a surplus budget
Correct Answer: a surplus budget

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Fiscal policy deals with
Selected Answer: the government budget
Correct Answer: the government budget

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


The most effective means of stimulating the economy during a recession is for the
federal government to
Selected Answer: increase spending and hold taxes
Correct Answer: increase spending and hold taxes

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Jawboning by the Carter Administration proved to be an unsuccessful contractionary
policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


President Carter adopted voluntary wage and price standards as a means of
combating inflation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


The Phillips curve shows the trade-off between
Selected Answer: inflation and interest rates
Correct Answer: unemployment and inflation

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Crowding out occurs when unemployment compensation increases and income taxes
are held constant.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


An advantage of transfer payments over public works as a means of reducing
unemployment is that transfer payments
Selected Answer: provide more direct aid to those suffering most from
unemployment
Correct Answer: provide more direct aid to those suffering most from
unemployment
Question 49 2 out of 2 points
Credit restrictions that increase the size of down payments and shorten loan
maturities promote economic expansion.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


A major force leading the U.S. economy to full employment after the Great
Depression was
Selected Answer: government spending for World War II
Correct Answer: government spending for World War II

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS


(ECON125-HK2) > EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 4
End navigation links
Review Assessment: Exam 4
User Hon Fai Yeung
Submitted 9/5/12 6:11 AM
Name Exam 4
Status Completed
Score 92 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Correct A recession occurs whenever there’s a decline in real GDP for two or more
successive quarters.
Question 1 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Correct The impact of hurricanes on the level of business activity in North Carolina
is an example of
Question 2 answers
Selected Answer: Correct random fluctuation
Correct Answer: Correct random fluctuation

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Correct The term “recession” refers to a
Question 3 answers
Selected Answer: Correct period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive
quarters
Correct Answer: Correct period of decline in real GDP over two consecutive
quarters

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Correct During the expansion phase of the business cycle, profit margins increase
due to a widening cost-price relationship.
Question 4 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the pattern of the business cycle, generally
Question 5 answers
Selected Answer: Correct costs lag behind prices
Correct Answer: Correct costs lag behind prices

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Correct Agricultural explanations of the business cycle are not as important today as
they were 50 to 75 years ago, because today
Question 6 answers
Selected Answer: Correct agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total
economy
Correct Answer: Correct agricultural production is a smaller portion of the total
economy

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Correct Economists use the phrase “business cycle” when discussing
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct fluctuations in total output around the trend
Correct Answer: Correct fluctuations in total output around the trend
Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points
Correct The long-run average change in real GDP is known as
Question 8 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the trend
Correct Answer: Correct the trend

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Correct Changes in the level of inventories are an internal force in the economy’s
cyclical movements.
Question 9 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Correct Population growth and wars are examples of external forces affecting the
economy’s cyclical movements.
Question 10 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Correct During the contraction phase of the business cycle,
Question 11 answers
Selected Answer: Correct prices fall relative to costs, reducing profit margins
Correct Answer: Correct prices fall relative to costs, reducing profit margins

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Correct Since the Great Depression, business cycles have not been an issue in the
United States.
Question 12 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Correct The underconsumption theory is classified as a real or physical cause of the
business cycle.
Question 13 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 text Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect A drop in the rate of inflation is known as
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect deflation
Correct Answer: Correct disinflation

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Correct Debtors tend to benefit more from inflation than creditors do.
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Correct Investment tax credits are a monetary policy device.
Question 16 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Correct The U.S. recession in 1974–1975 was characterized by stagflation.
Question 17 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Federal Reserve usually increases interest rates during inflationary
periods.
Question 18 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Correct During the 1990–1991 recession, the U.S. government’s large budget
deficits and budget reduction commitments limited its ability to use fiscal policy to
stimulate the economy.
Question 19 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 text Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect The Economic Recovery Tax Act of 1981 reduced personal income taxes by
25 percent over a three-year period.
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect False
Correct Answer: True

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Correct The U.S. economy failed to achieve full employment levels of output during
the 1960s despite increased government spending
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Correct Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and
inflation are known as
Question 22 answers
Selected Answer: Correct automatic stabilizers
Correct Answer: Correct automatic stabilizers

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Correct Cost-push inflation is characterized by
Question 23 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the wage-price spiral
Correct Answer: Correct the wage-price spiral

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Correct Keynesian analysis does not offer an adequate framework for dealing with
Question 24 answers
Selected Answer: Correct both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: Correct both (b) and (c)

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Correct Demand-pull inflation occurs whenever the economy is at full employment
and total demand for goods and services
Question 25 answers
Selected Answer: Correct is greater than total supply
Correct Answer: Correct is greater than total supply

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Correct Crowding out occurs when unemployment compensation increases and
income taxes are held constant.
Question 26 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Correct By the late 1950s, the unemployment rate generally accepted as consistent
with full employment was about
Question 27 answers
Selected Answer: Correct 4 percent
Correct Answer: Correct 4 percent

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Correct The official rate of unemployment is based on a(n)
Question 28 answers
Selected Answer: Correct telephone survey
Correct Answer: Correct telephone survey

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points


Correct A sizable part of increases in the U.S. labor force in the past few decades
has been due to the influx of women.
Question 29 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Correct The highest unemployment rate in the United States in recent years has been
among adult females.
Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Correct In recent years, the highest rate of unemployment among U.S. adults has
been among
Question 31 answers
Selected Answer: Correct black workers
Correct Answer: Correct black workers

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Correct All people in the noninstitutional population are counted as members of the
labor force.
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Correct Many economists believe that increases in the minimum wage tend to create
a labor surplus.
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 34 text Question 34 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Foreign outsourcing refers to the
Question 34 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect selling of Treasury bonds to foreigners
Correct Answer: Correct exporting of domestic jobs

Question 35 text Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Which type of unemployment is most likely to fall as a result of government
policies that stimulate aggregate demand?
Question 35 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect natural unemployment
Correct Answer: Correct cyclical unemployment

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points


Correct Which of the following types of workers has decreased as a percentage of
the U.S. labor force in recent decades?
Question 36 answers
Selected Answer: Correct unskilled workers
Correct Answer: Correct unskilled workers

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Correct The total labor force includes all persons in the noninstitutional population
who are either working or seeking work.
Question 37 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Correct Since 1970, U.S. union membership has
Question 38 answers
Selected Answer: Correct declined as a percentage of the labor force
Correct Answer: Correct declined as a percentage of the labor force

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Correct The biggest disincentive to employment for those on welfare is the effect of
taxes as they earn income.
Question 39 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Correct In 2004, the top 5 percent of households earned approximately
Question 40 answers
Selected Answer: Correct 50 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: Correct 50 percent of aggregate income

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Correct If the percentage of the population that is below the poverty line has
decreased, then the number of
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct poor may have increased
Correct Answer: Correct poor may have increased
Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points
Correct The Lorenz curve measures the degree to which incomes are distributed.
Question 42 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Correct Which of the following statements is not true?
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct since service industries are less likely to use technology,
they are more likely to be unionized
Correct Answer: Correct since service industries are less likely to use technology,
they are more likely to be unionized

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Correct As incomes rise, transfer benefits to the poor decrease.
Question 44 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Correct If everyone had the same income, the Lorenz curve would become the line
of income equality.
Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Lorenz curve of perfect equality is a
Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Correct upward sloping line from the origin
Correct Answer: Correct upward sloping line from the origin

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Correct The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure
to determine poverty.
Question 47 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Correct In 2004, households with incomes less than $22,629 received
Question 48 answers
Selected Answer: Correct 3.4 percent of aggregate income
Correct Answer: Correct 3.4 percent of aggregate income

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points


Correct The poverty rate for female householders without a husband present
exceeds the poverty rate for blacks and Hispanics.
Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Correct Poverty is a condition that randomly strikes all members of the population
equally.
Question 50 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

OK

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 4

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 4

User Kit Wah Lam

Submitted 10/18/13 9:40 PM

Name Exam 4

Status Completed
Score 88 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct The progressive income tax serves as an automatic stabilizer for the U.S. economy.

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 2 text Question 2 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect In the past few decades, the United States has not experienced any extended periods of

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect demand-pull inflation

Correct Answer: Correct deflation

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct The U.S. economy failed to achieve full employment levels of output during the 1960s
despite increased government spending

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the government must borrow during an inflationary period, it is less inflationary to
borrow idle funds rather than funds that would otherwise be spent.

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False


Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct To combat inflation, President Nixon resorted to

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct compulsory wage and price controls

Correct Answer: Correct compulsory wage and price controls

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct Several Latin American nations suffered from hyperinflation during the 1980s and
1990s.

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct Compared to its position during the late 1970s, the Phillips curve for the U.S. economy
in the 1980s appeared to

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct shift to the left

Correct Answer: Correct shift to the left

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct One lesson learned from the U.S. deficit spending of the 1930s was that direct spending
for transfer payments stimulated the economy more than spending on public works.

Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Correct The only way the government can engage in deficit spending is by increasing spending
while holding or decreasing taxes.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 10 text Question 10 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Which of the following situations prevailed in the United States in the early 1990s?

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect the Bush Administration wanted higher interest rates

Correct Answer: Correct the Fed and the Bush Administration were at odds about interest rates

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the government finances increased spending strictly through higher taxes, this action

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decreases the multiplier to one

Correct Answer: Correct decreases the multiplier to one

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct During the Great Depression, the rate of unemployment in the United States reached a
high of

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct 25 percent

Correct Answer: Correct 25 percent

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct Forces within the economy that naturally tend to counteract recessions and inflation are
known as
Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct automatic stabilizers

Correct Answer: Correct automatic stabilizers

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct The federal government employs an absolute rather than a relative measure to
determine poverty.

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct Statistics indicate that because of government transfer programs, households in the four
lower quintiles now receive a much larger share of aggregate income than in 1970.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct Geographically, a higher percentage of the poor live in the

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct South

Correct Answer: Correct South

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Lorenz curve measures the per capita annual income of individuals.

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False


Correct Answer: False

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct The federal government began to measure poverty in the

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct 1960s

Correct Answer: Correct 1960s

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct The biggest disincentive to employment for those on welfare is the effect of taxes as
they earn income.

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct The New Economy is one of

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct information

Correct Answer: Correct information

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following can you determine from a Lorenz curve of U.S. income
distribution?

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of
households

Correct Answer: Correct the percentage of income going to the lowest 20 percent of households
Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct Channeling people according to sex or race into particular occupations tends to

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct lower the wage rate in these occupations

Correct Answer: Correct lower the wage rate in these occupations

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct If new highly progressive tax laws are enacted, the resulting Lorenz curve will move to
the right-hand corner of the graph.

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Welfare caseloads tend to fluctuate with

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct business cycles

Correct Answer: Correct business cycles

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct Because their earnings are highest, married couples between the ages of 35-54 hold the
largest share of wealth in the United States.

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points

Correct The level of business activity at any time is affected by the trend, seasonal variations,
random fluctuations, and cyclical fluctuations.

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct The U.S. economy has experienced no minor cycles since World War II.

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct Measuring the intensity of the business cycle requires

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces
from the data

Correct Answer: Correct eliminating seasonal variations and identifiable random forces from the
data

Question 29 text Question 29 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect According to monetary theories of the business cycle, fluctuations are

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect less prevalent in those countries with modern banking systems

c 13) Monetary theorists maintain that to eliminate the business cycle, it is necessary to eliminate
a. money

b. currency

*c. bank creation of checkable deposits

d. bank reserves

Correct Answer: Correct more prevalent in countries with modern banking systems

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not a phase of the business cycle?

Question 30 answers

Selected Answer: Correct compression

Correct Answer: Correct compression

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct The long-run average change in real GDP is known as

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the trend

Correct Answer: Correct the trend

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Minor cycles have fluctuations which are noticeable and severe.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct As the economy approaches the peak phase of the cycle, profits will tend to
Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Correct Answer: Correct increase because of higher sales and higher prices

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct The impact of the 2005 hurricanes in Florida would be an example of a random
fluctuation in business activity.

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct The highest and lowest levels of economic activity during the business cycle are called

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct peaks and troughs

Correct Answer: Correct peaks and troughs

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct Psychological forces have no effect on business fluctuations.

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct A noticeable drop in the level of business activity is known as a

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct contraction


Correct Answer: Correct contraction

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct A recession is defined as a period in which real GDP is negative for two consecutive
quarters.

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct Since 1930, U.S. agriculture employment

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct has decreased while agricultural output has increased

Correct Answer: Correct has decreased while agricultural output has increased

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct The natural rate of unemployment is usually

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment

Correct Answer: Correct higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct The number and the percentage of U.S. workers in labor unions have decreased in the
past decade.

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Correct Frictional unemployment is caused primarily by automation.

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 43 text Question 43 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The Council of Economic Advisers includes the Secretary of the Treasury and the
Chairman of the Federal Reserve Board.

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect True

Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct The Employment Act of 1946 makes the government responsible for maintaining
maximum employment, production, and purchasing power.

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct If you are “between jobs,” you are considered to be

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct frictionally unemployed

Correct Answer: Correct frictionally unemployed

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct The natural rate of employment corresponds roughly to the sum of

Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Correct frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment

Correct Answer: Correct frictional unemployment plus structural unemployment

Question 47 text Question 47 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The labor force participation rate describes the civilian labor force as a percentage of
the civilian noninstitutional population.

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct The rate of unemployment that can be expected from normal frictional unemployment
in an otherwise fully employed labor force is known as the

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct full-employment unemployment rate

Correct Answer: Correct full-employment unemployment rate

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following statements concerning the Humphrey-Hawkins Act’s


unemployment and inflation targets is correct?

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct neither was met by 1983

Correct Answer: Correct neither was met by 1983

Question 50 text Question 50 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Unemployment

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect usually decreases whenever nominal GDP increases


Correct Answer: Correct usually increases whenever real GDP decreases

OK

Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 60 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Selected Answer: generating surpluses
Correct Answer: generating surpluses

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Selected Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, income is taxed only by the federal government.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 4 2 out of 2 points
Paying off the national debt brings about a(n)
Selected Answer: redistribution of income
Correct Answer: redistribution of income

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: is not affected at any level
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


A good tax must possess the characteristic of equality.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The U.S. national debt has declined continuously as a percentage of GDP since World
War II.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


Monetizing the debt causes
Selected Answer: the money supply to contract
Correct Answer: the money supply to rise
Question 9 2 out of 2 points
Passing the debt on to future generations has a different impact on individuals than it
does on the total economy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The U.S. Treasury often sells new bonds in order to raise money to pay off maturing
bonds.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


A proportional tax rate
Selected Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises
Question 14 0 out of 2 points
Unlike corporate debt, national debt possesses no productivity aspect.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget
Selected Answer: can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the
government finances spending with taxes on funds that would have been used for
private investment
Correct Answer: can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the government
finances spending with taxes on idle funds

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


The tax base is the percentage at which the tax is levied.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


A loan is said to be productive if it
Selected Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits
Correct Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Special Drawing Rights are issued by the International Monetary Fund and are a
principal source of international reserves.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 19 0 out of 2 points
In the balance of payments, the settlement account
Selected Answer: is unrelated to the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts
Correct Answer: must exactly offset the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The United States devalued the dollar twice in the 1970s to alleviate the world’s
dollar shortage.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen buys goods from a foreign merchant, the goods are usually paid
for by having the U.S. citizen send a personal check or dollars directly to the exporter.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Selected Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and
all official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a debit entry in the U.S. balance of payments?
Selected Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Question 24 0 out of 2 points
There is a correlation between the level of economic development of a nation and the
status of its balance of trade.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


Since unilateral transfers do not involve trading of goods or services, they are not
included in the current account.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not included in the current account of the balance of
payments?
Selected Answer: sales of military hardware to foreign governments
Correct Answer: sale of IBM stock to a foreign investor

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The capital account of the balance of payments includes the purchase and sale of
physical assets but not of financial assets.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The demand curve for foreign exchange is
Selected Answer: downward sloping
Correct Answer: downward sloping
Question 29 2 out of 2 points
The Bretton Woods system
Selected Answer: put the world on a system of fixed exchange rates
Correct Answer: put the world on a system of fixed exchange rates

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Although prices in the United States and France may be stable, changes in the
exchange rate between dollars and francs can make the actual cost of trade more
expensive for one or the other.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


The international exchange rate system, which was set up just after World War II,
continued (with some modifications) until the
Selected Answer: middle of the Vietnam War
Correct Answer: early 1970s

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Selected Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


The rate at which two currencies are exchanged for each other is the
Selected Answer: exchange rate
Correct Answer: exchange rate
Question 34 2 out of 2 points
Countries engage in trade because
Selected Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


As a result of a tariff on good X,
Selected Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell
more goods at a higher price
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


In dollar value, the United States is the largest importer in the world.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


One goal of the European Common Market was to
Selected Answer: discourage the free movement of capital and labor among
member nations
Correct Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A trading block that includes the United States, Mexico, and Canada was established
by the
Selected Answer: North American Free Trade Agreement
Correct Answer: North American Free Trade Agreement

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


Exports from China into the U.S. have most seriously impacted the
Selected Answer: automobile industry
Correct Answer: furniture industry

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


During the Uruguay round of GATT negotiations, the United States sought to
Selected Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Correct Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Selected Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Correct Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


CAFTA is an organization comprised of six South American countries.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


Although political arguments strongly favor free trade, most decisions affecting
international trade are made in the economic arena.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Beginning in 2002, Economic Monetary Union members no longer print their own
money.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The United States exports more to the Economic Union than it imports.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Selected Answer: tax on exports
Correct Answer: tax on imports

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


Consider a country that initially does not interfere with imports of a given good. If
the government then imposes a tariff on that good, the supply curve
Selected Answer: slopes upward less steeply
Correct Answer: shifts upward

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Historically, the international trade policies of the United States favored many import
restrictions until the early 1930s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The 1992 plan of the European Union calls for
Selected Answer: the complete mobility of economic resources across EU borders
Correct Answer: the complete mobility of economic resources across EU borders

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering under an
existing tariff is known as
Selected Answer: antidumping
Correct Answer: an escape clause

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The demand curve for foreign exchange is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: downward sloping

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Although prices in the United States and France may be stable, changes in the
exchange rate between dollars and francs can make the actual cost of trade more
expensive for one or the other.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


The dollar shortage of the 1950s came about because the economies of foreign
countries became competitive with the United States.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


The International Monetary Fund was established to stabilize exchange rates and to
provide temporary assistance to nations with deficit balance of payments.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The balance of trade includes
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: only merchandise exports and imports

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


If the rate of exchange between the U.S. dollar and the British pound were 1.00 to
$2.00, then a U.S. tourist buying a British product costing 600 would need to
exchange dollars in the amount of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: $1,200

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


Under a system of fixed exchange rates, excess demand for foreign currency at the
official exchange rate would cause
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the government to sell foreign currency to the country’s importers

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


In a system of managed or fixed exchange rates, the controlling
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: is performed by the central banks of the trading nations

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


Since unilateral transfers do not involve trading of goods or services, they are not
included in the current account.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Meetings among the leaders of the Group of Seven nations have directed the course
of international monetary policy in the last decade.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 14 0 out of 2 points


If the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Swiss franc changes from 75
cents per Swiss franc to $1 per Swiss franc, the dollar has depreciated, since its value
has declined.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


The United States devalued the dollar twice in the 1970s to alleviate the world’s
dollar shortage.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the importance of gold in international exchange has increased.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


The Byrd Amendment
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: allows companies to share tariff revenues

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


For an antidumping tariff to be imposed in the United States, competitive damage
from dumping must be shown.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The only factor determining whether a country can develop a comparative advantage
in production is the degree to which it has a highly skilled labor force.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following countries is not a member of the Economic Monetary Union?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: England

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


The Byrd Amendment seeks to penalize foreign exporters who dump products into
the United States.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


Exports from China into the U.S. have most seriously impacted the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: furniture industry

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


Perhaps the strongest argument for trade restrictions is that they protect U.S. workers
from low-wage foreign workers.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


Maquiladoras are export-oriented plants, often along the U.S.-Mexico border, that are
exempt from paying import duties on raw materials and parts used in making final
products.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


Using tariffs to support diversification of a nation’s industrial structure
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: is based on the need to make the economy less vulnerable to
demand fluctuations for its products

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a technical barrier
Question 28 0 out of 2 points
Exporting nations generally agree to voluntary restraint agreements in order to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: avoid more stringent trade barriers

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


The Uruguay round of GATT negotiations was encumbered by strong disagreements
over reducing domestic support of agriculture and subsidies of agricultural exports.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


During times of recession, retaining the domestic economy’s money at home is a
valid argument for restricting imports.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


A trading block that includes the United States, Mexico, and Canada was established
by the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: North American Free Trade Agreement

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


The Trade Expansion Act of 1962 was not intended to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: protect U.S. firms from foreign competition
Question 33 0 out of 2 points
As a result of a tariff on good X,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the size of the U.S. national debt relative to income
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: decreased and then increased

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


The United States will face bankruptcy if the national debt ever reaches a figure
higher than its GDP.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
a(n)
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


A consumption tax exempts saving from taxation.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 38 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: equality

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The effect of a tax is the same thing as the incidence of the tax.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: progressive

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


The government’s ability to repay the national debt is governed only by the total
assets of the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 43 0 out of 2 points
The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


The financial burden entailed in the paying of a tax is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: impact of the tax

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


An excise tax can be shifted relatively easily.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


A deficit budget adds to the national debt.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The gasoline tax is based on the principle of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: benefit received

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Refunding the debt refers to
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: selling new bonds to raise money to pay off maturing bonds

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


A proportional tax rate
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


The primary function of the Export-Import Bank is to assist in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: financing exports from the United States

Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Chile has been invited to join the European Union.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: a protective tariff
Question 4 0 out of 2 points
If a tariff is used to protect U.S. jobs,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: income is transferred from consumers to protected producers

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The United States exports more to the Economic Union than it imports.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 0 out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation policy implies that the United States will
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations

Question 7 0 out of 2 points


In a large and diversified economy like the United States, international trade usually
hurts more people domestically than it helps.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


The Maastricht Agreement calls for a common currency and a single central bank in
the European Union.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 9 0 out of 2 points
An argument for tariffs that has some validity is the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: infant-industry argument

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The rule of origin defines the maximum percentage of a country’s exported product
that can be sold in the United States.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


The Trade Expansion Act of 1974 restricted the authority of the president of the
United States to reduce tariffs.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


If trade between the United States and Canada were totally free of restrictions, the
incomes of most Canadian workers would decrease.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


The Uruguay round of GATT negotiations was encumbered by strong disagreements
over reducing domestic support of agriculture and subsidies of agricultural exports.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True
Question 14 0 out of 2 points
Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: domestic consumers of the good

Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Consider a tariff levied on the importer of a consumer good. The tariff is ultimately
paid by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: the consumer

Question 17 0 out of 2 points


A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering under an
existing tariff is known as
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: an escape clause

Question 18 0 out of 2 points


As the price of U.S. dollars decreases, more foreign currency is required to purchase
dollars.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


One factor that definitely did not contribute to the deficit in the U.S. balance of
payments during 2005 was
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: sales of military equipment to foreign nations

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


The international exchange rate system, which was set up just after World War II,
continued (with some modifications) until the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: early 1970s

Question 21 0 out of 2 points


In recent years, the IMF has altered its mission from one of providing long-term
loans to developing nations to one of providing short-run financial support for dealing
with balance-of-payments problems.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 0 out of 2 points


Under a fixed or controlled exchange rate system, if the United States wanted to
increase the value of the dollar, it could buy foreign currencies with dollars.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The Bretton Woods system included the idea of fixed exchange rates.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The Bretton Woods system
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: fixed exchange rates in terms of U.S. dollars

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


The best way to describe the international position of the U.S. dollar during the 1980s
is
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and then falling

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


There is a correlation between the level of economic development of a nation and the
status of its balance of trade.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 0 out of 2 points


The International Monetary Fund was established to stabilize exchange rates and to
provide temporary assistance to nations with deficit balance of payments.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 28 0 out of 2 points


In an attempt to solve the problem of the overvalued dollar in the early 1970s, the
United States
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: devalued the dollar, which made foreign exchange more expensive

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Overseas investments by U.S. citizens are recorded as credit items in the capital
account of the U.S. balance of payments.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 0 out of 2 points


Although prices in the United States and France may be stable, changes in the
exchange rate between dollars and francs can make the actual cost of trade more
expensive for one or the other.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 0 out of 2 points


If a U.S. farmer ships grain to Italy, this constitutes a debit transaction in Italy’s
balance of payments.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 32 0 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the importance of gold in international exchange has increased.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False
Question 33 0 out of 2 points
As foreign currency becomes less expensive in terms of the U.S. dollar,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: foreign goods become cheaper to U.S. citizens

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


A direct tax
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 35 0 out of 2 points


An excise tax can be shifted relatively easily.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: progressive

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A consumption tax exempts saving from taxation.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 0 out of 2 points


The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: tax base

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


A good tax must possess the characteristic of equality.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: generating surpluses

Question 42 0 out of 2 points


According to the concept of the full-employment balanced budget,
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: tax rates and government spending programs should be set up so as
to balance the budget at the full-employment income level

Question 43 0 out of 2 points


The United States will face bankruptcy if the national debt ever reaches a figure
higher than its GDP.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 0 out of 2 points


A proportional tax rate
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


The size of the national debt relative to GDP will not be reduced by
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: having creditors forgive part of the debt

Question 46 0 out of 2 points


Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: 60 percent

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


The government’s ability to repay the national debt is governed only by the total
assets of the economy.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine would require larger taxes from higher-income
groups.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the size of the U.S. national debt relative to income
Selected Answer: [None Given] z
Correct Answer: decreased and then increased

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


In the United States, income is taxed only by the federal government.
Selected Answer: [None Given]
Correct Answer: False

ECON125-HK1. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK1) > CONTROL


PANEL > GRADEBOOK > MODIFY GRADE > GRADE ATTEMPT

Grade Assessment Exam 5 Name Exam 5


User Kwan Lung Dragon Au
Status Completed
Score 98 out of 100 points
Instructions
Clear Attempt Click Clear Attempt to clear this user’s attempt.
Clear Attempt
Comments Modify Comments

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Given Answer: progressive
Correct Answer: progressive
Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A proportional tax rate
Given Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A national sales tax is a form of
Given Answer: consumption tax
Correct Answer: consumption tax

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The financial burden entailed in the paying of a tax is known as
Given Answer: the impact of the tax
Correct Answer: the impact of the tax

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is
Given Answer: an income tax
Correct Answer: an income tax

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a tax is economical,
Given Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected
Correct Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Given Answer: incidence of the tax
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Given Answer: tax base
Correct Answer: tax base

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A loan is said to be productive if it
Given Answer: increases the borrower's total output and profits
Correct Answer: increases the borrower's total output and profits

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The value added tax is a
Given Answer: indirect tax
Correct Answer: indirect tax

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the early decades of the U.S. economy, the primary purpose of taxation was to
Given Answer: cover the cost of government services
Correct Answer: cover the cost of government services
Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
Given Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households
Correct Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the government uses the budget as an economic stabilizer, the budget is most likely
to be in deficit during
Given Answer: a trough
Correct Answer: a trough

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The burden of a tax on a consumer good with very inelastic demand is usually
Given Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Correct Answer: shifted to the final consumer

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on
Given Answer: the diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: the diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Given Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Correct Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Dumping refers to the practice of
Given Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price
Correct Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Reciprocal Trade Agreement Act of 1934
Given Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs
Correct Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation policy implies that the United States will
Given Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations
Correct Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Given Answer: domestic consumers of the good
Correct Answer: domestic consumers of the good

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a product of international trade, according to the
principle of comparative advantage?
Given Answer: fewer options for consumers
Correct Answer: fewer options for consumers
Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Given Answer: a protective tariff
Correct Answer: a protective tariff

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage is associated with
Given Answer: specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: specialization and exchange

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The United States has used export subsidies to encourage the exportation of
Given Answer: agricultural products
Correct Answer: agricultural products

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Given Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


During the Uruguay round of GATT negotiations, the United States sought to
Given Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Correct Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be removed
Given Answer: when the industry has matured
Correct Answer: when the industry has matured

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As a result of a tariff on good X
Given Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since the Civil War, the international trade policies of the United States have been
generally
Given Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s
Correct Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is an affiliate of the
Given Answer: International Finance Corporation
Correct Answer: World Bank
Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Import quotas are
Given Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When Japanese investors who own hotels in Hawaii receive profits from their hotel
operations, the receipt of such profits is recorded in the balance of payments as a
Given Answer: current account item
Correct Answer: current account item

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Given Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Given Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a debit entry in the U.S. balance of payments?
Given Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Correct Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A credit in the U.S. balance of payments occurs
Given Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad
Correct Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the
balance of payments as a
Given Answer: debit in the capital account
Correct Answer: debit in the capital account

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Given Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Given Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Given Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of a credit item in the U.S. balance of payments would be
Given Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub
Correct Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Given Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments and the balance of trade are
Given Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other
Correct Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Appreciation of the dollar means that
Given Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Given Answer: 10 pesos
Correct Answer: 10 pesos
Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A freely floating exchange rate exists when
Given Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other
Correct Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the balance of payments, capital transactions include all
Given Answer: flows of capital investments between nations
Correct Answer: flows of capital investments between nations

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The rate at which two currencies are exchanged for each other is the
Given Answer: exchange rate
Correct Answer: exchange rate

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Given Answer: generating surpluses
Correct Answer: generating surpluses

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Given Answer: effect of the tax
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?
Given Answer: justifiability
Correct Answer: equality

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a tax is economical,
Given Answer: it has an economic impact on households
Correct Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Given Answer: regressive
Correct Answer: progressive
Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Given Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A loan is said to be productive if it
Given Answer: increases the present utility of the borrower's possessions
Correct Answer: increases the borrower's total output and profits

Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A direct tax
Given Answer: cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
Given Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households
Correct Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A proportional tax rate
Given Answer: falls as the tax base rises
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is
Given Answer: an income tax
Correct Answer: an income tax

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the government uses the budget as an economic stabilizer, the budget is most likely
to be in deficit during
Given Answer: a trough
Correct Answer: a trough

Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Given Answer: tax base
Correct Answer: tax base

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The burden of a tax on a consumer good with very inelastic demand is usually
Given Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Correct Answer: shifted to the final consumer

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a product of international trade, according to the
principle of comparative advantage?
Given Answer: fewer options for consumers
Correct Answer: fewer options for consumers

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The highest tariff rates in U.S. history were the result of the
Given Answer: Hawley-Smoot Tariff of 1930
Correct Answer: Hawley-Smoot Tariff of 1930
Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The most-favored-nation policy implies that the United States will
Given Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations
Correct Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations

Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Given Answer: domestic consumers of the good
Correct Answer: domestic consumers of the good

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be removed
Given Answer: when the industry has matured
Correct Answer: when the industry has matured

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Given Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Correct Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage is associated with
Given Answer: specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: specialization and exchange

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Reciprocal Trade Agreement Act of 1934
Given Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs
Correct Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs

Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Dumping refers to the practice of
Given Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price
Correct Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Given Answer: governments force industries to exchange
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The primary function of the Export-Import Bank is to assist in
Given Answer: financing exports from the United States
Correct Answer: financing exports from the United States

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation clause was created in the
Given Answer: Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934
Correct Answer: Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934
Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
During the Uruguay round of GATT negotiations, the United States sought to
Given Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Correct Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Given Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


One of the main purposes of the 1947 General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was to
Given Answer: promote free trade among nations
Correct Answer: promote free trade among nations

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Import quotas are
Given Answer: voluntary agreements by exporting countries to limit sales in a
foreign country
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for foreign exchange is
Given Answer: downward sloping
Correct Answer: downward sloping

Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Given Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An example of a credit item in the U.S. balance of payments would be
Given Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub
Correct Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This contributes
to a U.S.
Given Answer: surplus on capital account
Correct Answer: surplus on capital account

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


When Japanese investors who own hotels in Hawaii receive profits from their hotel
operations, the receipt of such profits is recorded in the balance of payments as a
Given Answer: current account item
Correct Answer: current account item

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments and the balance of trade are
Given Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other
Correct Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other

Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A debit item on the U.S. balance of payments is any transaction that
Given Answer: results in a loss by U.S. sellers
Correct Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A credit in the U.S. balance of payments occurs
Given Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad
Correct Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Given Answer: governments with a trade deficit
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Given Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that
Given Answer: is like an import
Correct Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A freely floating exchange rate exists when
Given Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other
Correct Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Given Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Given Answer: 10 pesos
Correct Answer: 10 pesos

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If domestic income is rising,
Given Answer: demand for foreign currency will fall
Correct Answer: imports will increase
Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
The rate at which two currencies are exchanged for each other is the
Given Answer: exchange rate
Correct Answer: exchange rate

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In the balance of payments, capital transactions include all
Given Answer: net deficit items
Correct Answer: flows of capital investments between nations

Question 1 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A direct tax
Given Answer: cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 2 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
Given Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households
Correct Answer: a greater sacrifice on lower income households

Question 3 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Given Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 4 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on
Given Answer: the diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: the diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 5 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is
Given Answer: an income tax
Correct Answer: an income tax

Question 6 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Given Answer: 40 percent
Correct Answer: 40 percent

Question 7 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The value added tax is a
Given Answer: indirect tax
Correct Answer: indirect tax

Question 8 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A loan is said to be productive if it
Given Answer: increases the borrower's total output and profits
Correct Answer: increases the borrower's total output and profits

Question 9 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The gasoline tax is based on the principle of
Given Answer: benefit received
Correct Answer: benefit received
Question 10 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?
Given Answer: equality
Correct Answer: equality

Question 11 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If the government uses the budget as an economic stabilizer, the budget is most likely
to be in deficit during
Given Answer: a trough
Correct Answer: a trough

Question 12 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Given Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 13 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Given Answer: incidence of the tax
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 14 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Given Answer: generating surpluses
Correct Answer: generating surpluses
Question 15 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
Paying off the national debt brings about
Given Answer: a redistribution of income
Correct Answer: a redistribution of income

Question 16 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The burden of a tax on a consumer good with very inelastic demand is usually
Given Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Correct Answer: shifted to the final consumer

Question 17 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is an affiliate of the
Given Answer: World Bank
Correct Answer: World Bank

Question 18 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Given Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 19 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage is associated with
Given Answer: specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: specialization and exchange
Question 20 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If a tariff is used to protect U.S. jobs,
Given Answer: income is transferred from consumers to protected producers
Correct Answer: income is transferred from consumers to protected producers

Question 21 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Since the Civil War, the international trade policies of the United States have been
generally
Given Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s
Correct Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s

Question 22 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The Trade Expansion Act of 1962 was not intended to
Given Answer: protect U.S. firms from foreign competition
Correct Answer: protect U.S. firms from foreign competition

Question 23 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The primary function of the Export-Import Bank is to assist in
Given Answer: financing exports from the United States
Correct Answer: financing exports from the United States

Question 24 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


If a tariff is increased to a level high enough to prevent any imports from entering the
country, the tariff has the same effect as
Given Answer: an embargo
Correct Answer: an embargo
Question 25 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Given Answer: a protective tariff
Correct Answer: a protective tariff

Question 26 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Selling a good at a lower price in a foreign country than in the home country is an
example of
Given Answer: dumping
Correct Answer: dumping

Question 27 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Import quotas are
Given Answer: subsidies to foreign producers to encourage them to trade
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 28 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Given Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 29 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


As a result of a tariff on good X
Given Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at the same price
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 30 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Given Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 31 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Given Answer: tax on exports
Correct Answer: tax on imports

Question 32 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The United States has used export subsidies to encourage the exportation of
Given Answer: agricultural products
Correct Answer: agricultural products

Question 33 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a product of international trade, according to the
principle of comparative advantage?
Given Answer: fewer options for consumers
Correct Answer: fewer options for consumers

Question 34 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a credit to the U.S. balance of payments?
Given Answer: Lloyd's of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S. resident
Correct Answer: Lloyd's of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S. resident
Question 35 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
An example of a credit item in the U.S. balance of payments would be
Given Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub
Correct Answer: a British tourist spending money at a U.S. nightclub

Question 36 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that
Given Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars
Correct Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars

Question 37 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Given Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 38 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Given Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 39 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A freely floating exchange rate exists when
Given Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other
Correct Answer: supply and demand forces are allowed to determine the rate at
which currencies are exchanged for each other
Question 40 Multiple Choice out of 2 points
If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Given Answer: 10 pesos
Correct Answer: 10 pesos

Question 41 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a debit entry in the U.S. balance of payments?
Given Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Correct Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria

Question 42 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The rate at which two currencies are exchanged for each other is the
Given Answer: exchange rate
Correct Answer: exchange rate

Question 43 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The balance of payments and the balance of trade are
Given Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other
Correct Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other

Question 44 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Given Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 45 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This contributes
to a U.S.
Given Answer: surplus on capital account
Correct Answer: surplus on capital account

Question 46 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A credit in the U.S. balance of payments occurs
Given Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad
Correct Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad

Question 47 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


Appreciation of the dollar means that
Given Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 48 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


The demand curve for foreign exchange is
Given Answer: downward sloping
Correct Answer: downward sloping

Question 49 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


A debit item on the U.S. balance of payments is any transaction that
Given Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners
Correct Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners

Question 50 Multiple Choice out of 2 points


An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Given Answer: encourage foreigners to invest in the United States
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Selected Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and
all official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments and the balance of trade are
Selected Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other
Correct Answer: two different things, but one is a part of the other

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the
balance of payments as a
Selected Answer: debit in the capital account
Correct Answer: debit in the capital account

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a credit to the U.S. balance of payments?
Selected Answer: Lloyd's of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S. resident
Correct Answer: Lloyd's of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S. resident

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Selected Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The rate at which two currencies are exchanged for each other is the
Selected Answer: exchange rate
Correct Answer: exchange rate

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


A credit in the U.S. balance of payments occurs
Selected Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad
Correct Answer: when U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


If domestic income is rising,
Selected Answer: imports will increase
Correct Answer: imports will increase

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Selected Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The balance of trade includes
Selected Answer: all debit and credit items
Correct Answer: only merchandise exports and imports
Question 11 2 out of 2 points
Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This contributes
to a U.S.
Selected Answer: surplus on capital account
Correct Answer: surplus on capital account

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a debit entry in the U.S. balance of payments?
Selected Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Correct Answer: More U.S. citizens vacation in Austria

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Appreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Selected Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


In the balance of payments, capital transactions include all
Selected Answer: flows of capital investments between nations
Correct Answer: flows of capital investments between nations

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


The burden of a tax on a consumer good with very inelastic demand is usually
Selected Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Correct Answer: shifted to the final consumer

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: 40 percent
Correct Answer: 40 percent

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


If a tax is economical,
Selected Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected
Correct Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Selected Answer: tax base
Correct Answer: tax base

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


A direct tax
Selected Answer: cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Selected Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Selected Answer: generating surpluses
Correct Answer: generating surpluses

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Selected Answer: incidence of the tax
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


In the early decades of the U.S. economy, the primary purpose of taxation was to
Selected Answer: cover the cost of government services
Correct Answer: cover the cost of government services

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


A national sales tax is a form of
Selected Answer: consumption tax
Correct Answer: consumption tax

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


The financial burden entailed in the paying of a tax is known as
Selected Answer: the impact of the tax
Correct Answer: the impact of the tax

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The gasoline tax is based on the principle of
Selected Answer: benefit received
Correct Answer: benefit received
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
The value added tax is a
Selected Answer: indirect tax
Correct Answer: indirect tax

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?
Selected Answer: equality
Correct Answer: equality

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation clause was created in the
Selected Answer: Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934
Correct Answer: Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The highest tariff rates in U.S. history were the result of the
Selected Answer: Hawley-Smoot Tariff of 1930
Correct Answer: Hawley-Smoot Tariff of 1930
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
Since the Civil War, the international trade policies of the United States have been
generally
Selected Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s
Correct Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The Trade Expansion Act of 1962 was not intended to
Selected Answer: protect U.S. firms from foreign competition
Correct Answer: protect U.S. firms from foreign competition

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Selected Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


As a result of a tariff on good X
Selected Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell
more goods at a higher price
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Import quotas are
Selected Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods
that can enter the country each year
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
The principle of comparative advantage is associated with
Selected Answer: specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: specialization and exchange

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


During the Uruguay round of GATT negotiations, the United States sought to
Selected Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Correct Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


The Reciprocal Trade Agreement Act of 1934
Selected Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs
Correct Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Selected Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Correct Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Dumping refers to the practice of
Selected Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price
Correct Answer: selling a product abroad at a price below cost or below the
domestic price
Question 47 2 out of 2 points
The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Selected Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Selected Answer: domestic consumers of the good
Correct Answer: domestic consumers of the good

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Selected Answer: a protective tariff
Correct Answer: a protective tariff

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation policy implies that the United States will
Selected Answer: give preference to North American nations in all trade matters
Correct Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


Paying off the national debt would redistribute income from the
Selected Answer: taxpayers to the major recipients of transfer payments
Correct Answer: taxpayers to the debt holders
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
The point at which the burden of a tax ultimately rests is known as the
Selected Answer: incidence of the tax
Correct Answer: incidence of the tax

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


A balanced federal budget
Selected Answer: can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the
government finances spending with taxes on idle funds
Correct Answer: can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the government
finances spending with taxes on idle funds

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


A good tax must possess the characteristic of equality.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 5 0 out of 2 points


The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Selected Answer: incidence of taxes
Correct Answer: total assets of the economy

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


The United States has had little success with the surplus aspect of balancing the
budget over the period of a business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
When the federal budget is used as a tool for economic stabilization, the ideal goal is
to
Selected Answer: balance the budget each year
Correct Answer: balance the budget over the entire business cycle

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine would require larger taxes from higher-income
groups.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Interest on the U.S. national debt adds to the federal deficit.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


The U.S. national debt has declined continuously as a percentage of GDP since World
War II.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


The burden of a tax on a consumer good with very inelastic demand is usually
Selected Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Correct Answer: shifted to the final consumer
Question 12 2 out of 2 points
According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
a(n)
Selected Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households
Correct Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


A deficit budget adds to the national debt.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


According to the concept of the full-employment balanced budget,
Selected Answer: tax rates and government spending programs should be set up so
as to balance the budget at the full-employment income level
Correct Answer: tax rates and government spending programs should be set up so as
to balance the budget at the full-employment income level

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is a(n)
Selected Answer: income tax
Correct Answer: income tax

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The gasoline tax is based on the principle of
Selected Answer: benefit received
Correct Answer: benefit received
Question 17 2 out of 2 points
In the United States, income is taxed only by the federal government.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


There is a correlation between the level of economic development of a nation and the
status of its balance of trade.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


One factor that definitely did not contribute to the deficit in the U.S. balance of
payments during 2005 was
Selected Answer: sales of military equipment to foreign nations
Correct Answer: sales of military equipment to foreign nations

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The balance of trade includes
Selected Answer: only merchandise exports and imports
Correct Answer: only merchandise exports and imports

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The Bretton Woods system included the idea of fixed exchange rates.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Selected Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If the rate of exchange between the U.S. dollar and the British pound were 1.00 to
$2.00, then a U.S. tourist buying a British product costing 600 would need to
exchange dollars in the amount of
Selected Answer: $1,200
Correct Answer: $1,200

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The Bretton Woods system
Selected Answer: fixed exchange rates in terms of U.S. dollars
Correct Answer: fixed exchange rates in terms of U.S. dollars

Question 25 0 out of 2 points


Foreign exchange refers to
Selected Answer: the goods and services of other countries
Correct Answer: the currencies of other countries

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The United States devalued the dollar twice in the 1970s to alleviate the world’s
dollar shortage.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 27 0 out of 2 points
The United States was running a large balance-of-trade deficit
Selected Answer: in the years following World War II
Correct Answer: from the late 1970s throughout the 1990s

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments is more like an income statement than a balance sheet.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 0 out of 2 points


One signal that the U.S. dollar was overvalued in the early 1970s was the
Selected Answer: volume of international trade
Correct Answer: recurring balance-of-trade deficits in the U.S.

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country experiencing a gold outflow
Selected Answer: experienced a decline in output
Correct Answer: experienced a decline in output

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
Depreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


In an attempt to solve the problem of the overvalued dollar in the early 1970s, the
United States
Selected Answer: devalued the dollar, which made foreign exchange more
expensive
Correct Answer: devalued the dollar, which made foreign exchange more expensive

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The Maastricht Agreement calls for a common currency and a single central bank in
the European Union.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage is associated with
Selected Answer: specialization and exchange
Correct Answer: specialization and exchange

Question 36 0 out of 2 points


The French franc is the common currency of the Economic Monetary Union.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
As a result of a tariff on good X,
Selected Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell
more goods at a higher price
Correct Answer: domestic producers of good X are better off because they sell more
goods at a higher price

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Selected Answer: tax on exports
Correct Answer: tax on imports

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Selling a good at a lower price in a foreign country than in the home country is an
example of
Selected Answer: dumping
Correct Answer: dumping

Question 40 0 out of 2 points


The newest trade association of which the United States is a member is
Selected Answer: WTA
Correct Answer: CAFTA

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The rule of origin defines the maximum percentage of a country’s exported product
that can be sold in the United States.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
Import quotas are
Selected Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods
that can enter the country each year
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Although political arguments strongly favor free trade, most decisions affecting
international trade are made in the economic arena.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Historically, the international trade policies of the United States favored many import
restrictions until the early 1930s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 0 out of 2 points


The argument that the government should impose tariffs in order to protect domestic
jobs ignores the impact of tariff policy on
Selected Answer: employees in domestic industries that compete with imports
Correct Answer: the country’s export-producing industries

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Tariff protection
Selected Answer: prevents the optimum use of scarce resources
Correct Answer: prevents the optimum use of scarce resources

Question 47 0 out of 2 points


As a result of a tariff, domestic consumers buy
Selected Answer: more units at a lower price
Correct Answer: fewer units at a higher price

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be removed
Selected Answer: when the industry has matured
Correct Answer: when the industry has matured

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Selected Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


One of the main purposes of the 1947 General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was to
Selected Answer: promote free trade among nations
Correct Answer: promote free trade among nations

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Selected Answer: tax on exports
Correct Answer: tax on imports
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
One goal of the European Common Market was to
Selected Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations
Correct Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Import quotas are
Selected Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods
that can enter the country each year
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The Uruguay round of GATT negotiations was encumbered by strong disagreements
over reducing domestic support of agriculture and subsidies of agricultural exports.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Exports from China into the U.S. have most seriously impacted the
Selected Answer: furniture industry
Correct Answer: furniture industry

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering under an
existing tariff is known as
Selected Answer: an escape clause
Correct Answer: an escape clause
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following, if successful, always results in a complete cessation of trade
in a certain product?
Selected Answer: a trading bloc
Correct Answer: an embargo

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


In rank order, the nations exporting the highest dollar value of merchandise into the
U.S. in 2005 were
Selected Answer: Canada, Japan, and China
Correct Answer: Canada, China, and Mexico

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of
Selected Answer: a technical barrier
Correct Answer: a technical barrier

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The North American Free Trade Agreement is likely to lead to
Selected Answer: increased employment in all U.S. industries
Correct Answer: decreased employment in some U.S. industries

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Selling a good at a lower price in a foreign country than in the home country is an
example of
Selected Answer: dumping
Correct Answer: dumping

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


The common currency of the Economic Monetary Union is the
Selected Answer: euro
Correct Answer: euro

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If Mexico levies an import quota on U.S. cars, the price of automobiles in the United
States is likely to rise.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Historically, the international trade policies of the United States favored many import
restrictions until the early 1930s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Chile has been invited to join the European Union.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Selected Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be removed
Selected Answer: when the industry has matured
Correct Answer: when the industry has matured

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


A direct tax
Selected Answer: cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Monetizing the debt causes
Selected Answer: the money supply to rise
Correct Answer: the money supply to rise

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Selected Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The size of the national debt relative to GDP will not be reduced by
Selected Answer: having creditors forgive part of the debt
Correct Answer: having creditors forgive part of the debt
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
The United States has had little success with the surplus aspect of balancing the
budget over the period of a business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the size of the U.S. national debt relative to income
Selected Answer: decreased and then increased
Correct Answer: decreased and then increased

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Selected Answer: total assets of the economy
Correct Answer: total assets of the economy

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The actual deficit is a poor measure of fiscal policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income
Question 27 2 out of 2 points
Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: 60 percent
Correct Answer: 60 percent

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: remains the same but changes individually
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


A direct tax is one that cannot be shifted.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Automobile license fees and gasoline taxes are based on the benefit-received theory
of taxation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
A loan is said to be productive if it
Selected Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits
Correct Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Selected Answer: progressive
Correct Answer: progressive

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


As interest rates rise,
Selected Answer: the likelihood of a surplus budget increases
Correct Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The International Monetary Fund was established to stabilize exchange rates and to
provide temporary assistance to nations with deficit balance of payments.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The international exchange rate system, which was set up just after World War II,
continued (with some modifications) until the
Selected Answer: early 1970s
Correct Answer: early 1970s

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Special Drawing Rights are
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: a collectively managed asset of the International Monetary Fund

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country experiencing a gold outflow
Selected Answer: experienced a decline in output
Correct Answer: experienced a decline in output

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Overseas investments by U.S. citizens are recorded as credit items in the capital
account of the U.S. balance of payments.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A nation on the gold standard would convert its currency into gold on demand.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Selected Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Selected Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the
balance of payments as a
Selected Answer: debit in the capital account
Correct Answer: debit in the capital account

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen buys goods from a foreign merchant, the goods are usually paid
for by having the U.S. citizen send a personal check or dollars directly to the exporter.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Selected Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Meetings among the leaders of the Group of Seven nations have directed the course
of international monetary policy in the last decade.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Since unilateral transfers do not involve trading of goods or services, they are not
included in the current account.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Selected Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and
all official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This contributes
to a U.S.
Selected Answer: deficit on capital account
Correct Answer: surplus on capital account

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following countries is not a member of the European Union?
Selected Answer: Switzerland
Correct Answer: Switzerland
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering under an
existing tariff is known as
Selected Answer: an escape clause
Correct Answer: an escape clause

Question 3 0 out of 2 points


For nations with relatively high wage rates,
Selected Answer: tariffs would improve the allocation of scarce resources
Correct Answer: the wage rates often reflect relatively high labor productivity

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of
Selected Answer: a technical barrier
Correct Answer: a technical barrier

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


The Trade Expansion Act of 1974 restricted the authority of the president of the
United States to reduce tariffs.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Maquiladoras are export-oriented plants, often along the U.S.-Mexico border, that are
exempt from paying import duties on raw materials and parts used in making final
products.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 7 2 out of 2 points
Using tariffs to support diversification of a nation’s industrial structure
Selected Answer: is based on the need to make the economy less vulnerable to
demand fluctuations for its products
Correct Answer: is based on the need to make the economy less vulnerable to
demand fluctuations for its products

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Selected Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost
Correct Answer: specialize in activities for which they have the lowest opportunity
cost

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


If the United States exports wheat to foreign countries that levy tariffs on wheat
imports, the probable result is that the price of wheat will
Selected Answer: rise in foreign countries
Correct Answer: rise in foreign countries

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Since the Civil War, the international trade policies of the United States have been
generally
Selected Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s
Correct Answer: in favor of free trade since the 1930s

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Tariff protection
Selected Answer: prevents the optimum use of scarce resources
Correct Answer: prevents the optimum use of scarce resources

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


Only in developing nations would one expect the value of either exports or imports to
exceed 200 percent of gross national product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Although political arguments strongly favor free trade, most decisions affecting
international trade are made in the economic arena.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


CAFTA is an organization comprised of six South American countries.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following factors can result in a nation developing a comparative
advantage?
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


In dollar value, the United States is the largest importer in the world.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Tariffs bring about a transfer of income from the consumer of the protected product
to domestic producers of the product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


A debit item on the U.S. balance of payments is any transaction that
Selected Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners
Correct Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners

Question 19 0 out of 2 points


The capital account includes income earned on investments made in prior years.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 20 0 out of 2 points


Balance-of-payments accounts are out of balance
Selected Answer: when exports are either greater or less than imports
Correct Answer: never

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


After World War II, most nations adopted some type of fixed or controlled exchange
rate system.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 23 0 out of 2 points


The dollar shortage in international exchange markets in the early 1950s was related
to
Selected Answer: large deficits in the U.S. balance of trade
Correct Answer: large surpluses in the U.S. balance of trade

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


In the balance of payments, capital transactions include all
Selected Answer: flows of capital investments between nations
Correct Answer: flows of capital investments between nations

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not included in the current account of the balance of
payments?
Selected Answer: sale of IBM stock to a foreign investor
Correct Answer: sale of IBM stock to a foreign investor

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The Bretton Woods system
Selected Answer: put the world on a system of fixed exchange rates
Correct Answer: put the world on a system of fixed exchange rates
Question 27 2 out of 2 points
A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Selected Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Appreciation of the U.S. dollar encourages travel abroad by U.S. citizens.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


The United States devalued the dollar twice in the 1970s to alleviate the world’s
dollar shortage.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


As the price of foreign exchange increases in terms of the U.S. dollar, U.S. products
become cheaper for foreigners to buy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Foreign exchange refers to
Selected Answer: the currencies of other countries
Correct Answer: the currencies of other countries
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
If domestic income is rising,
Selected Answer: imports will increase
Correct Answer: imports will increase

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is
Selected Answer: 10 pesos
Correct Answer: 10 pesos

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


If the cost of collecting a tax is low relative to the revenue generated, the tax is said
to be economical.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The financial burden entailed in the paying of a tax is known as the
Selected Answer: impact of the tax
Correct Answer: impact of the tax

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


A national sales tax is a form of a(n)
Selected Answer: consumption tax
Correct Answer: consumption tax
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: remains the same but changes individually
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


The tax base is the percentage at which the tax is levied.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Unlike corporate debt, national debt possesses no productivity aspect.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Paying off the national debt brings about a(n)
Selected Answer: redistribution of income
Correct Answer: redistribution of income

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Selected Answer: tax base
Correct Answer: tax base

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


If the primary purpose of taxes was to raise sufficient revenue to cover the costs of
government-provided services, a balanced budget would be an ongoing target.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following taxes is not collected from the consumer on the final sale of
goods and services?
Selected Answer: value-added tax
Correct Answer: value-added tax

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


A proportional tax rate
Selected Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises
Correct Answer: remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 48 0 out of 2 points


Using the budget as an economic stabilizer requires maintaining a continuous deficit.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is a(n)
Selected Answer: income tax
Correct Answer: income tax

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


As interest rates rise,
Selected Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises
Correct Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 82 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 0 out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Selected Answer: tax on exports
Correct Answer: tax on imports
Question 2 2 out of 2 points
One goal of the European Common Market was to
Selected Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations
Correct Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Import quotas are
Selected Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods
that can enter the country each year
Correct Answer: methods for reducing imports by limiting the quantity of goods that
can enter the country each year

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


The Uruguay round of GATT negotiations was encumbered by strong disagreements
over reducing domestic support of agriculture and subsidies of agricultural exports.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Exports from China into the U.S. have most seriously impacted the
Selected Answer: furniture industry
Correct Answer: furniture industry

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering under an
existing tariff is known as
Selected Answer: an escape clause
Correct Answer: an escape clause
Question 7 0 out of 2 points
Which of the following, if successful, always results in a complete cessation of trade
in a certain product?
Selected Answer: a trading bloc
Correct Answer: an embargo

Question 8 0 out of 2 points


In rank order, the nations exporting the highest dollar value of merchandise into the
U.S. in 2005 were
Selected Answer: Canada, Japan, and China
Correct Answer: Canada, China, and Mexico

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of
Selected Answer: a technical barrier
Correct Answer: a technical barrier

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


The North American Free Trade Agreement is likely to lead to
Selected Answer: increased employment in all U.S. industries
Correct Answer: decreased employment in some U.S. industries

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Selling a good at a lower price in a foreign country than in the home country is an
example of
Selected Answer: dumping
Correct Answer: dumping
Question 12 2 out of 2 points
The common currency of the Economic Monetary Union is the
Selected Answer: euro
Correct Answer: euro

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


If Mexico levies an import quota on U.S. cars, the price of automobiles in the United
States is likely to rise.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Historically, the international trade policies of the United States favored many import
restrictions until the early 1930s.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


Chile has been invited to join the European Union.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 2 out of 2 points


The trade barrier that involves levying one tariff rate for a certain amount of an
imported commodity and a higher tariff rate for quantities in excess of that amount is
the
Selected Answer: tariff quota
Correct Answer: tariff quota

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be removed
Selected Answer: when the industry has matured
Correct Answer: when the industry has matured

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


A direct tax
Selected Answer: cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: cannot be shifted

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Monetizing the debt causes
Selected Answer: the money supply to rise
Correct Answer: the money supply to rise

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Selected Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The size of the national debt relative to GDP will not be reduced by
Selected Answer: having creditors forgive part of the debt
Correct Answer: having creditors forgive part of the debt
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
The United States has had little success with the surplus aspect of balancing the
budget over the period of a business cycle.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the size of the U.S. national debt relative to income
Selected Answer: decreased and then increased
Correct Answer: decreased and then increased

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Selected Answer: total assets of the economy
Correct Answer: total assets of the economy

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The actual deficit is a poor measure of fiscal policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine of taxation is based on the
Selected Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income
Correct Answer: diminishing marginal utility of income

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: 60 percent
Correct Answer: 60 percent

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: remains the same but changes individually
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


A direct tax is one that cannot be shifted.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


Automobile license fees and gasoline taxes are based on the benefit-received theory
of taxation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


A loan is said to be productive if it
Selected Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits
Correct Answer: increases the borrower’s total output and profits

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Selected Answer: progressive
Correct Answer: progressive

Question 34 0 out of 2 points


As interest rates rise,
Selected Answer: the likelihood of a surplus budget increases
Correct Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


The International Monetary Fund was established to stabilize exchange rates and to
provide temporary assistance to nations with deficit balance of payments.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The international exchange rate system, which was set up just after World War II,
continued (with some modifications) until the
Selected Answer: early 1970s
Correct Answer: early 1970s

Question 37 0 out of 2 points


Special Drawing Rights are
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: a collectively managed asset of the International Monetary Fund

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country experiencing a gold outflow
Selected Answer: experienced a decline in output
Correct Answer: experienced a decline in output

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Overseas investments by U.S. citizens are recorded as credit items in the capital
account of the U.S. balance of payments.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 0 out of 2 points


A nation on the gold standard would convert its currency into gold on demand.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: True

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


An appreciation of the U.S. dollar would
Selected Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods
Correct Answer: discourage foreigners from buying U.S. goods

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the
Selected Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows
Correct Answer: total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the
balance of payments as a
Selected Answer: debit in the capital account
Correct Answer: debit in the capital account

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen buys goods from a foreign merchant, the goods are usually paid
for by having the U.S. citizen send a personal check or dollars directly to the exporter.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Selected Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Meetings among the leaders of the Group of Seven nations have directed the course
of international monetary policy in the last decade.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Since unilateral transfers do not involve trading of goods or services, they are not
included in the current account.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The balance of payments includes
Selected Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and
all official transactions and the statistical discrepancy
Correct Answer: the balance on current account, plus all capital transactions and all
official transactions and the statistical discrepancy

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This contributes
to a U.S.
Selected Answer: deficit on capital account
Correct Answer: surplus on capital account

Submitted 11/11/10 12:56 AM


Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 82 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Question 1 2 out of 2 points
Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Selected Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Appreciation of the U.S. dollar encourages travel abroad by U.S. citizens.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen buys goods from a foreign merchant, the goods are usually paid
for by having the U.S. citizen send a personal check or dollars directly to the exporter.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 0 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a nation’s domestic economic policy
Selected Answer: was unrelated to balance-of-payments adjustments
Correct Answer: was subordinate to balance-of-payments adjustments

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Since World War II, the importance of gold in international exchange has increased.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 6 2 out of 2 points


A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Selected Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following is not included in the current account of the balance of
payments?
Selected Answer: sale of IBM stock to a foreign investor
Correct Answer: sale of IBM stock to a foreign investor

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the
balance of payments as a
Selected Answer: debit in the capital account
Correct Answer: debit in the capital account

Question 9 0 out of 2 points


The summary of the flows of goods, services, assets, and currency in and out of a
country in a particular year is the
Selected Answer: balance of trade
Correct Answer: balance of payments

Question 10 0 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Selected Answer: the value of its currency to appreciate
Correct Answer: gold to flow out of the country to other countries

Question 11 0 out of 2 points


When the United States was under the gold standard,
Selected Answer: the value of the dollar floated against gold
Correct Answer: both (a) and (b)

Question 12 0 out of 2 points


A credit in the U.S. balance of payments occurs when
Selected Answer: U.S. consumers send money to foreign companies
Correct Answer: U.S. companies sell merchandise abroad

Question 13 0 out of 2 points


The course of international monetary policy is directed primarily by the
Selected Answer: International Monetary Fund
Correct Answer: leaders of the Group of Seven nations

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


Foreign exchange refers to
Selected Answer: the currencies of other countries
Correct Answer: the currencies of other countries

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


The capital account of the balance of payments includes the purchase and sale of
physical assets but not of financial assets.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 16 0 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country that is experiencing a gold outflow
Selected Answer: is experiencing a fall in output
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The Reciprocal Trade Agreement Act of 1934
Selected Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs
Correct Answer: was the first in a series of Congressional acts reducing tariffs

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Tariffs bring about a transfer of income from the consumer of the protected product
to domestic producers of the product.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Selected Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Devices that set up multiple exchange rates between the currencies of two nations are
known as
Selected Answer: exchange controls
Correct Answer: exchange controls

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The French franc is the common currency of the Economic Monetary Union.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
Question 22 2 out of 2 points
If a tariff is used to protect U.S. jobs,
Selected Answer: income is transferred from consumers to protected producers
Correct Answer: income is transferred from consumers to protected producers

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


If trade between the United States and Canada were totally free of restrictions, the
incomes of most Canadian workers would decrease.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 24 2 out of 2 points


The most-favored-nation policy implies that the United States will
Selected Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations
Correct Answer: extend concessions made in bilateral trade agreements to all other
nations

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The U.S.-Canada Free Trade Agreement
Selected Answer: seeks to phase out remaining tariffs
Correct Answer: seeks to phase out remaining tariffs

Question 26 2 out of 2 points


The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was replaced by the World
Trade Organization (WTO).
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 27 2 out of 2 points


During the Uruguay round of GATT negotiations, the United States sought to
Selected Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products
Correct Answer: liberalize trade in agricultural products

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


For an antidumping tariff to be imposed in the United States, competitive damage
from dumping must be shown.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


One goal of the European Common Market was to
Selected Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations
Correct Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


If the United States exports wheat to foreign countries that levy tariffs on wheat
imports, the probable result is that the price of wheat will
Selected Answer: rise in foreign countries
Correct Answer: rise in foreign countries

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The only factor determining whether a country can develop a comparative advantage
in production is the degree to which it has a highly skilled labor force.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 32 2 out of 2 points


If a tariff is increased to a level high enough to prevent any imports from entering the
country, the tariff has the same effect as
Selected Answer: an embargo
Correct Answer: an embargo

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Selected Answer: a protective tariff
Correct Answer: a protective tariff

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


In using the budget as an economic stabilizer, the United States has had the least
success in
Selected Answer: generating surpluses
Correct Answer: generating surpluses

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


A good tax must possess the characteristic of equality.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
a(n)
Selected Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households
Correct Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households

Question 37 2 out of 2 points


A consumption tax exempts saving from taxation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 0 out of 2 points


A sales tax is sometimes said to be regressive because the rate at which it is assessed
declines as more and more taxable items are purchased.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


In the early decades of the U.S. economy, the primary purpose of taxation was to
Selected Answer: cover the cost of government services
Correct Answer: cover the cost of government services

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


In the United States, income is taxed only by the federal government.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Refunding the debt refers to
Selected Answer: selling new bonds to raise money to pay off maturing bonds
Correct Answer: selling new bonds to raise money to pay off maturing bonds
Question 42 2 out of 2 points
The U.S. Treasury often sells new bonds in order to raise money to pay off maturing
bonds.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Relative to GDP, the U.S. national debt held by the public is now in the vicinity of
Selected Answer: 60 percent
Correct Answer: 60 percent

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


As interest rates rise,
Selected Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises
Correct Answer: the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Interest on the U.S. national debt adds to the federal deficit.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 47 2 out of 2 points
Which of the following taxes is not collected from the consumer on the final sale of
goods and services?
Selected Answer: value-added tax
Correct Answer: value-added tax

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Automobile license fees and gasoline taxes are based on the benefit-received theory
of taxation.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


The equality-of-sacrifice doctrine would require larger taxes from higher-income
groups.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 50 0 out of 2 points


A flat tax is a form of sales tax.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 96 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.

Question 1 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following would cause a credit to the U.S. balance of payments?
Selected Answer: Lloyd’s of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S.
resident
Correct Answer: Lloyd’s of London makes an insurance payment to a U.S. resident

Question 2 2 out of 2 points


Under a fixed or controlled exchange rate system, if the United States wanted to
increase the value of the dollar, it could buy foreign currencies with dollars.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 3 2 out of 2 points


The settlement account of the balance of payments
Selected Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed
Correct Answer: explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Under the gold standard, a country that is experiencing a gold outflow
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Depreciation of the dollar means that
Selected Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Question 6 2 out of 2 points
A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that
Selected Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars
Correct Answer: causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars

Question 7 2 out of 2 points


The IMF was
Selected Answer: created at Bretton Woods to facilitate international exchange
Correct Answer: created at Bretton Woods to facilitate international exchange

Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Under a system of floating exchange rates, increased demand of U.S. citizens for
Japanese goods will cause
Selected Answer: the Japanese yen to appreciate against the U.S. dollar
Correct Answer: the Japanese yen to appreciate against the U.S. dollar

Question 9 2 out of 2 points


A debit item on the U.S. balance of payments is any transaction that
Selected Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners
Correct Answer: makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners

Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Since unilateral transfers do not involve trading of goods or services, they are not
included in the current account.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Floating exchange rates are determined by the
Selected Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies
Correct Answer: forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 12 2 out of 2 points


In an attempt to solve the problem of the overvalued dollar in the early 1970s, the
United States
Selected Answer: devalued the dollar, which made foreign exchange more
expensive
Correct Answer: devalued the dollar, which made foreign exchange more expensive

Question 13 2 out of 2 points


If domestic income is rising,
Selected Answer: imports will increase
Correct Answer: imports will increase

Question 14 2 out of 2 points


The United States devalued the dollar twice in the 1970s to alleviate the world’s
dollar shortage.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 2 out of 2 points


U.S. balance-of-payments deficits can be financed either through changes in U.S.
official reserve assets or through changes in foreign official dollar holdings.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 16 2 out of 2 points
One signal that the U.S. dollar was overvalued in the early 1970s was the
Selected Answer: recurring balance-of-trade deficits in the U.S.
Correct Answer: recurring balance-of-trade deficits in the U.S.

Question 17 2 out of 2 points


The United States has used export subsidies to encourage the exportation of
Selected Answer: agricultural products
Correct Answer: agricultural products

Question 18 2 out of 2 points


Chile has been invited to join the European Union.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Countries engage in trade because
Selected Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial
Correct Answer: the exchange is mutually beneficial

Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Selected Answer: domestic consumers of the good
Correct Answer: domestic consumers of the good

Question 21 2 out of 2 points


The newest trade association of which the United States is a member is
Selected Answer: CAFTA
Correct Answer: CAFTA

Question 22 2 out of 2 points


A tariff is a
Selected Answer: tax on imports
Correct Answer: tax on imports

Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Which of the following, if successful, always results in a complete cessation of trade
in a certain product?
Selected Answer: an embargo
Correct Answer: an embargo

Question 24 0 out of 2 points


The Export-Import Bank is owned by 150 nations, including the United States.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False

Question 25 2 out of 2 points


The argument that the government should impose tariffs in order to protect domestic
jobs ignores the impact of tariff policy on
Selected Answer: the country’s export-producing industries
Correct Answer: the country’s export-producing industries

Question 26 0 out of 2 points


The value of U.S. exports is less than 10 percent of its GDP.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: False
Question 27 2 out of 2 points
The United States exports more to the Economic Union than it imports.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 28 2 out of 2 points


One goal of the European Common Market was to
Selected Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations
Correct Answer: abolish tariffs and import quotas among the member nations

Question 29 2 out of 2 points


For nations with relatively high wage rates,
Selected Answer: the wage rates often reflect relatively high labor productivity
Correct Answer: the wage rates often reflect relatively high labor productivity

Question 30 2 out of 2 points


A tariff designed to promote industrial development within a nation would be
classified as
Selected Answer: a protective tariff
Correct Answer: a protective tariff

Question 31 2 out of 2 points


The revenue and protective purposes of a tariff are largely incompatible.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 32 2 out of 2 points
A trading block that includes the United States, Mexico, and Canada was established
by the
Selected Answer: North American Free Trade Agreement
Correct Answer: North American Free Trade Agreement

Question 33 2 out of 2 points


If the United States exports wheat to foreign countries that levy tariffs on wheat
imports, the probable result is that the price of wheat will
Selected Answer: rise in foreign countries
Correct Answer: rise in foreign countries

Question 34 2 out of 2 points


The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Selected Answer: simplicity
Correct Answer: simplicity

Question 35 2 out of 2 points


A consumption tax is usually collected on
Selected Answer: none of the above
Correct Answer: none of the above

Question 36 2 out of 2 points


The actual deficit is a poor measure of fiscal policy.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
Question 37 2 out of 2 points
According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes impose
a(n)
Selected Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households
Correct Answer: greater sacrifice on lower-income households

Question 38 2 out of 2 points


In the past few decades, the tax system of the United States has been used to
redistribute income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 39 2 out of 2 points


If a tax is economical,
Selected Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected
Correct Answer: its cost of collection is small relative to the revenue collected

Question 40 2 out of 2 points


The best example of a direct tax is a(n)
Selected Answer: income tax
Correct Answer: income tax

Question 41 2 out of 2 points


The tax base is the percentage at which the tax is levied.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 2 out of 2 points


The U.S. income tax is based on the principle of
Selected Answer: ability to pay
Correct Answer: ability to pay

Question 43 2 out of 2 points


When the government uses tax revenue to pay off portions of the national debt, total
purchasing power in the economy
Selected Answer: remains the same but changes individually
Correct Answer: remains the same but changes individually

Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Interest on the U.S. national debt adds to the federal deficit.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 45 2 out of 2 points


A national sales tax would be considered regressive in relation to income.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 46 2 out of 2 points


The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the
Selected Answer: total assets of the economy
Correct Answer: total assets of the economy

Question 47 2 out of 2 points


The effect of a tax is the same thing as the incidence of the tax.
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False

Question 48 2 out of 2 points


If the cost of collecting a tax is low relative to the revenue generated, the tax is said
to be economical.
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True

Question 49 2 out of 2 points


In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government
Selected Answer: all of the above
Correct Answer: all of the above

Question 50 2 out of 2 points


In the early decades of the U.S. economy, the primary purpose of taxation was to
Selected Answer: cover the cost of government services
Correct Answer: cover the cost of government services

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS


(ECON125-HK2) > EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 5
End navigation links
Review Assessment: Exam 5
User Hon Fai Yeung
Submitted 9/5/12 6:20 AM
Name Exam 5
Status Completed
Score 86 out of 100 points
Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as
incorrect.
Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points
Correct If a tariff is increased to a level high enough to prevent any imports from
entering the country, the tariff has the same effect as
Question 1 answers
Selected Answer: Correct an embargo
Correct Answer: Correct an embargo

Question 2 text Question 2 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect A tariff is a
Question 2 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect tax on exports
Correct Answer: Correct tax on imports

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points


Correct During times of recession, retaining the domestic economy’s money at
home is a valid argument for restricting imports.
Question 3 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Correct The newest trade association of which the United States is a member is
Question 4 answers
Selected Answer: Correct CAFTA
Correct Answer: Correct CAFTA

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points


Correct Who does not gain when a tariff is imposed?
Question 5 answers
Selected Answer: Correct domestic consumers of the good
Correct Answer: Correct domestic consumers of the good

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Byrd Amendment
Question 6 answers
Selected Answer: Correct allows companies to share tariff revenues
Correct Answer: Correct allows companies to share tariff revenues
Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points
Correct The principle of comparative advantage holds that nations should
Question 7 answers
Selected Answer: Correct specialize in activities for which they have the lowest
opportunity cost
Correct Answer: Correct specialize in activities for which they have the lowest
opportunity cost

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points


Correct A provision that permits raising tariffs if domestic producers are suffering
under an existing tariff is known as
Question 8 answers
Selected Answer: Correct an escape clause
Correct Answer: Correct an escape clause

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points


Correct The only factor determining whether a country can develop a comparative
advantage in production is the degree to which it has a highly skilled labor force.
Question 9 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points


Correct An argument for tariffs that has some validity is the
Question 10 answers
Selected Answer: Correct infant-industry argument
Correct Answer: Correct infant-industry argument

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points


Correct As a result of a tariff, domestic consumers buy
Question 11 answers
Selected Answer: Correct fewer units at a higher price
Correct Answer: Correct fewer units at a higher price

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points


Correct A trading block that includes the United States, Mexico, and Canada was
established by the
Question 12 answers
Selected Answer: Correct North American Free Trade Agreement
Correct Answer: Correct North American Free Trade Agreement

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points


Correct If trade between the United States and Canada were totally free of
restrictions, the incomes of most Canadian workers would decrease.
Question 13 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 14 text Question 14 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect All members of the European Union are members of the Economic
Monetary Union.
Question 14 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect True
Correct Answer: False

Question 15 text Question 15 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Theoretically, a tariff imposed to protect an infant industry should be
removed
Question 15 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect when the industry becomes sufficiently diversified
Correct Answer: Correct when the industry has matured

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points


Correct If a tariff is used to protect U.S. jobs,
Question 16 answers
Selected Answer: Correct income is transferred from consumers to protected
producers
Correct Answer: Correct income is transferred from consumers to protected
producers

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points


Correct In rank order, the nations exporting the highest dollar value of merchandise
into the U.S. in 2005 were
Question 17 answers
Selected Answer: Correct Canada, China, and Mexico
Correct Answer: Correct Canada, China, and Mexico
Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points
Correct Passing the debt on to future generations has a different impact on
individuals than it does on the total economy.
Question 18 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points


Correct The U.S. Treasury often sells new bonds in order to raise money to pay off
maturing bonds.
Question 19 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points


Correct A consumption tax is usually collected on
Question 20 answers
Selected Answer: Correct none of the above
Correct Answer: Correct none of the above

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points


Correct The tax base is the percentage at which the tax is levied.
Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points


Correct According to the equality-of-sacrifice doctrine, proportional income taxes
impose a(n)
Question 22 answers
Selected Answer: Correct greater sacrifice on lower-income households
Correct Answer: Correct greater sacrifice on lower-income households

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points


Correct Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify
as a good tax?
Question 23 answers
Selected Answer: Correct equality
Correct Answer: Correct equality

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points


Correct A direct tax
Question 24 answers
Selected Answer: Correct cannot be shifted
Correct Answer: Correct cannot be shifted

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points


Correct A direct tax is one that cannot be shifted.
Question 25 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Correct A flat tax is a form of sales tax.
Question 26 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points


Correct Paying off the national debt would redistribute income from the
Question 27 answers
Selected Answer: Correct taxpayers to the debt holders
Correct Answer: Correct taxpayers to the debt holders

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points


Correct The major advantage of the flat tax is its
Question 28 answers
Selected Answer: Correct simplicity
Correct Answer: Correct simplicity

Question 29 text Question 29 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Value-added tax rates in Europe usually range between 5 and 10 percent.
Question 29 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect True
Correct Answer: False
Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points
Correct Unlike corporate debt, national debt possesses no productivity aspect.
Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points


Correct The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the
Question 31 answers
Selected Answer: Correct tax base
Correct Answer: Correct tax base

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points


Correct When the federal budget is used as a tool for economic stabilization, the
ideal goal is to
Question 32 answers
Selected Answer: Correct balance the budget over the entire business cycle
Correct Answer: Correct balance the budget over the entire business cycle

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points


Correct If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be
Question 33 answers
Selected Answer: Correct progressive
Correct Answer: Correct progressive

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points


Correct A sales tax is sometimes said to be regressive because the rate at which it is
assessed declines as more and more taxable items are purchased.
Question 34 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 35 text Question 35 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Under the gold standard, a country with a trade deficit should expect
Question 35 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect gold to flow into the country to other countries
Correct Answer: Correct gold to flow out of the country to other countries
Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points
Correct The International Monetary Fund was established to stabilize exchange
rates and to provide temporary assistance to nations with deficit balance of payments.
Question 36 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points


Correct Although prices in the United States and France may be stable, changes in
the exchange rate between dollars and francs can make the actual cost of trade more
expensive for one or the other.
Question 37 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points


Correct The balance of payments and the balance of trade are
Question 38 answers
Selected Answer: Correct two different things, but one is a part of the other
Correct Answer: Correct two different things, but one is a part of the other

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Correct In the 1970s, the value of the U.S. dollar in world financial markets
declined significantly.
Question 39 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True
Correct Answer: True

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points


Correct The dollar shortage in international exchange markets in the early 1950s
was related to
Question 40 answers
Selected Answer: Correct large surpluses in the U.S. balance of trade
Correct Answer: Correct large surpluses in the U.S. balance of trade

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points


Correct As the price of U.S. dollars decreases, more foreign currency is required to
purchase dollars.
Question 41 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points


Correct Foreign citizens have been increasing their ownership of U.S. assets. This
contributes to a U.S.
Question 42 answers
Selected Answer: Correct surplus on capital account
Correct Answer: Correct surplus on capital account

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points


Correct The capital account of the balance of payments includes the purchase and
sale of physical assets but not of financial assets.
Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points


Correct Under the gold standard, a country that is experiencing a gold outflow
Question 44 answers
Selected Answer: Correct all of the above
Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 45 text Question 45 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Appreciation of the dollar means that
Question 45 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange
Correct Answer: Correct fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points


Correct Under a fixed or controlled exchange rate system, if the United States
wanted to increase the value of the dollar, it could buy foreign currencies with dollars.
Question 46 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False
Correct Answer: False
Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points
Correct A decrease in the U.S. balance-of-payments surplus results when
Question 47 answers
Selected Answer: Correct more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile
Correct Answer: Correct more U.S. citizens vacation in Chile

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points


Correct Which of the following would cause a debit entry in the U.S. balance of
payments?
Question 48 answers
Selected Answer: Correct more U.S. citizens vacation in Austria
Correct Answer: Correct more U.S. citizens vacation in Austria

Question 49 text Question 49 0 out of 2 points


Incorrect Special Drawing Rights are issued by the
Question 49 answers
Selected Answer: Incorrect World Bank
Correct Answer: Correct International Monetary Fund

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points


Correct The best way to describe the international position of the U.S. dollar during
the 1980s is
Question 50 answers
Selected Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and
then falling
Correct Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and
then falling

OK

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 5

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 5


User Kit Wah Lam

Submitted 10/18/13 9:48 PM

Name Exam 5

Status Completed

Score 94 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Under a system of floating exchange rates, exchange rates are allowed to rise or fall
according to supply and demand.

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect False

Correct Answer: True

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct When a U.S. citizen invests in foreign assets, the transaction is recorded in the balance
of payments as a

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct debit in the capital account

Correct Answer: Correct debit in the capital account

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the balance of payments, the settlement account

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct must exactly offset the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts

Correct Answer: Correct must exactly offset the net deficit or surplus in the other accounts

Question 4 text Question 4 2 out of 2 points


Correct Floating exchange rates are determined by the

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Correct forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Correct Answer: Correct forces of supply of and demand for currencies

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the price of 1 peso in dollars is 10 cents, the price of 1 dollar in pesos is

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct 10 pesos

Correct Answer: Correct 10 pesos

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct Special Drawing Rights are issued by the International Monetary Fund and are a
principal source of international reserves.

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 7 text Question 7 2 out of 2 points

Correct Depreciation of the dollar means that

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Correct more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Correct Answer: Correct more dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct The balance of payments is an accounting statement that shows, between one nation
and the rest of the world, the

Question 8 answers
Selected Answer: Correct total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Correct Answer: Correct total values of goods, services, and payments flows

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct The best way to describe the international position of the U.S. dollar during the 1980s
is

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and then falling

Correct Answer: Correct rising sharply during the first half of the decade, and then falling

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct The IMF was

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct created at Bretton Woods to facilitate international exchange

Correct Answer: Correct created at Bretton Woods to facilitate international exchange

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct Appreciation of the dollar means that

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Correct Answer: Correct fewer dollars are required to purchase foreign exchange

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct The course of international monetary policy is directed primarily by the

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct leaders of the Group of Seven nations

Correct Answer: Correct leaders of the Group of Seven nations


Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct Since World War II, the importance of gold in international exchange has increased.

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct The capital account of the balance of payments includes the purchase and sale of
physical assets but not of financial assets.

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct The settlement account of the balance of payments

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was
financed

Correct Answer: Correct explains how the balance-of-payments deficit or surplus was financed

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct A nation on the gold standard would convert its currency into gold on demand.

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct The government’s ability to repay the national debt is governed only by the total
assets of the economy.

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct The federal government’s ability to repay the national debt is limited only by the

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total assets of the economy

Correct Answer: Correct total assets of the economy

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct The effect of a tax is the same thing as the incidence of the tax.

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct As interest rates rise,

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Correct Answer: Correct the cost of carrying the national debt rises

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct A national sales tax is a form of a(n)

Question 21 answers

Selected Answer: Correct consumption tax


Correct Answer: Correct consumption tax

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the cost of collecting a tax is low relative to the revenue generated, the tax is said to
be economical.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct A proportional tax rate

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Correct Answer: Correct remains unchanged as the tax base rises

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following is not a necessary characteristic for a tax to qualify as a good
tax?

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct equality

Correct Answer: Correct equality

Question 25 text Question 25 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The value-added tax is a(n)

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect income tax

Correct Answer: Correct indirect tax

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Correct A good tax must possess the characteristic of equality.

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct The value of an object on which a tax is levied is known as the

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct tax base

Correct Answer: Correct tax base

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct Paying off the national debt brings about a(n)

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct redistribution of income

Correct Answer: Correct redistribution of income

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct In using taxes as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth in the U.S.
economy, the government

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct An excise tax can be shifted relatively easily.

Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 31 text Question 31 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the tax increases as the tax base increases, the tax is said to be

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Correct progressive

Correct Answer: Correct progressive

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Passing the debt on to future generations has a different impact on individuals than it
does on the total economy.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 33 text Question 33 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Compared to the national debts of major European countries as a percentage of national
incomes, the U.S. national debt

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect falls in the highest ten percent

Correct Answer: Correct is at the lower end

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct Devices that set up multiple exchange rates between the currencies of two nations are
known as

Question 34 answers

Selected Answer: Correct exchange controls


Correct Answer: Correct exchange controls

Question 35 text Question 35 2 out of 2 points

Correct The French franc is the common currency of the Economic Monetary Union.

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct The principle of comparative advantage is associated with

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct specialization and exchange

Correct Answer: Correct specialization and exchange

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct In 2003, Japan restricted imports of beef from the United States because of fear of
“mad cow” disease. This an example of

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a technical barrier

Correct Answer: Correct a technical barrier

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct The North American Free Trade Agreement is likely to lead to

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct decreased employment in some U.S. industries

Correct Answer: Correct decreased employment in some U.S. industries

Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points


Correct The Trade Expansion Act of 1962 was not intended to

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct protect U.S. firms from foreign competition

Correct Answer: Correct protect U.S. firms from foreign competition

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following countries is not a member of the European Union?

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Switzerland

Correct Answer: Correct Switzerland

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct The United States has used export subsidies to encourage the exportation of

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct agricultural products

Correct Answer: Correct agricultural products

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct In rank order, the nations exporting the highest dollar value of merchandise into the
U.S. in 2005 were

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct Canada, China, and Mexico

Correct Answer: Correct Canada, China, and Mexico

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct The rule of origin defines the maximum percentage of a country’s exported product
that can be sold in the United States.

Question 43 answers
Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the United States exports wheat to foreign countries that levy tariffs on wheat
imports, the probable result is that the price of wheat will

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct rise in foreign countries

Correct Answer: Correct rise in foreign countries

Question 45 text Question 45 2 out of 2 points

Correct Chile has been invited to join the European Union.

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct The revenue and protective purposes of a tariff are largely incompatible.

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points

Correct Countries engage in trade because

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the exchange is mutually beneficial

Correct Answer: Correct the exchange is mutually beneficial


Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct An argument for tariffs that has some validity is the

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct infant-industry argument

Correct Answer: Correct infant-industry argument

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct The primary function of the Export-Import Bank is to assist in

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct financing exports from the United States

Correct Answer: Correct financing exports from the United States

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following, if successful, always results in a complete cessation of trade in
a certain product?

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct an embargo

Correct Answer: Correct an embargo

OK

Skip navigation links ECON125-HK2. ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (ECON125-HK2) >


EXAMS > REVIEW ASSESSMENT: EXAM 2

End navigation links

Review Assessment: Exam 2


User Ka Yan Li

Submitted 12/14/15 7:26 PM

Name Exam 2

Status Completed

Score90 out of 100 points

Instructions Always pick the single best answer. Blank answers will be scored as incorrect.

Question 1 text Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Correct One reason firms in monopolistic competition can charge different prices is that their
products are

Question 1 answers

Selected Answer: Correct differentiated

Correct Answer: Correct differentiated

Question 2 text Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Correct In monopolistic competition, there is no need for advertising.

Question 2 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 3 text Question 3 2 out of 2 points

Correct Suppose that a monopolist is producing an output level of 10,000 units. At that output
level, both MR and MC equal $5, AR equals $7, and ATC equals $6. Which of the following
statements is correct?

Question 3 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above


Question 4 text Question 4 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect In 1911, the Supreme Court established the rule of reason. This rule held that

Question 4 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct the Sherman Antitrust Act made only unreasonable restraints of trade
illegal

Question 5 text Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Correct Oligopoly is a market structure in which

Question 5 answers

Selected Answer: Correct there are relatively few producers

Correct Answer: Correct there are relatively few producers

Question 6 text Question 6 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of monopolistic competition, a firm maximizes profits where

Question 6 answers

Selected Answer: Correct MR equals MC

Correct Answer: Correct MR equals MC

Question 7 text Question 7 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect The greater the product differentiation,

Question 7 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect the less the price difference between competing firms

Correct Answer: Correct the less elastic a firm’s demand curve

Question 8 text Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Correct The marginal revenue curve of a monopolist is


Question 8 answers

Selected Answer: Correct below the AR line

Correct Answer: Correct below the AR line

Question 9 text Question 9 2 out of 2 points

Correct Public utilities are often called natural monopolies.

Question 9 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 10 text Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Correct A monopolist must produce a good for which there are no close substitutes.

Question 10 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 11 text Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Correct Firms in monopolistic competition sell a similar but differentiated product.

Question 11 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 12 text Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Correct No U.S. firm has ever obtained sufficient control over raw materials to develop a
monopoly or near monopoly on that basis.

Question 12 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False


Correct Answer: False

Question 13 text Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Correct The maximum profit of a monopolist occurs

Question 13 answers

Selected Answer: Correct where MR equals MC

Correct Answer: Correct where MR equals MC

Question 14 text Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following statements concerning the circular flow model is (are) correct?

Question 14 answers

Selected Answer: Correct planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow

Correct Answer: Correct planned investment spending is an injection into the circular flow

Question 15 text Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Correct A deficit federal budget always raises prices.

Question 15 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 16 text Question 16 2 out of 2 points

Correct In the simple circular flow model, if planned I exceeds planned S, then

Question 16 answers

Selected Answer: Correct all of the above

Correct Answer: Correct all of the above

Question 17 text Question 17 2 out of 2 points

Correct A balanced federal budget may affect the composition of total output by replacing
private spending with government spending.

Question 17 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 18 text Question 18 2 out of 2 points

Correct To have an increase in investment, consumption must decrease.

Question 18 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 19 text Question 19 2 out of 2 points

Correct An increase in planned savings, all else held constant, will always result in

Question 19 answers

Selected Answer: Correct a slowdown in the circular flow of income

Correct Answer: Correct a slowdown in the circular flow of income

Question 20 text Question 20 2 out of 2 points

Correct According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is greater
than planned saving during periods of full employment, there is a tendency for

Question 20 answers

Selected Answer: Correct prices to rise

Correct Answer: Correct prices to rise

Question 21 text Question 21 2 out of 2 points

Correct During times of full employment, the only way a firm can obtain additional resources is
to bid the resources away from other firms.

Question 21 answers
Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 22 text Question 22 2 out of 2 points

Correct The level of total output and the price level can be affected by changes in consumption.

Question 22 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 23 text Question 23 2 out of 2 points

Correct The total payment of resource income in the economy is equal to

Question 23 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the total value or cost of the output

Correct Answer: Correct the total value or cost of the output

Question 24 text Question 24 2 out of 2 points

Correct Which of the following are injections into the circular flow of income?

Question 24 answers

Selected Answer: Correct investment, government spending, and exports

Correct Answer: Correct investment, government spending, and exports

Question 25 text Question 25 2 out of 2 points

Correct A surplus federal budget always results in a decrease in total output.

Question 25 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 26 text Question 26 2 out of 2 points


Correct Inventory accumulation occurs whenever

Question 26 answers

Selected Answer: Correct output exceeds spending

Correct Answer: Correct output exceeds spending

Question 27 text Question 27 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under perfect competition, market price is determined by market demand and supply.

Question 27 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 28 text Question 28 2 out of 2 points

Correct If new firms enter a perfectly competitive industry, the market price of the finished
product will rise.

Question 28 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 29 text Question 29 2 out of 2 points

Correct The long-run average cost curve indicates

Question 29 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the lowest average costs of production at each level of output

Correct Answer: Correct the lowest average costs of production at each level of output

Question 30 text Question 30 2 out of 2 points

Correct If one firm in a perfectly competitive industry is somehow able to produce at a lower
cost than competing firms in the short run,

Question 30 answers
Selected Answer: Correct the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in
the long run

Correct Answer: Correct the competing firms will adopt similar production techniques in the long
run

Question 31 text Question 31 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Under conditions of perfect competition, marginal revenue

Question 31 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect exceeds average revenue

Correct Answer: Correct equals average revenue

Question 32 text Question 32 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if a firm is suffering a loss but AR is above
AFC, the firm should always continue to operate.

Question 32 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 33 text Question 33 2 out of 2 points

Correct Under conditions of perfect competition, if losses occur in an industry, market forces
may come into play to

Question 33 answers

Selected Answer: Correct reduce supply

Correct Answer: Correct reduce supply

Question 34 text Question 34 2 out of 2 points

Correct If economies of scale are present, a firm can enhance its profits by

Question 34 answers
Selected Answer: Correct operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale

Correct Answer: Correct operating at any larger scale up to the optimal scale

Question 35 text Question 35 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Elaine’s firm is in a perfectly competitive industry. Why doesn’t Elaine try to sell
more of her product by lowering its price below the market price?

Question 35 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect doing so would be considered unethical price chiseling

Correct Answer: Correct she can sell all she wants at the market price

Question 36 text Question 36 2 out of 2 points

Correct Consider a perfectly competitive firm for which MC equals ATC at the $10 level. If the
market price is $10,

Question 36 answers

Selected Answer: Correct the best the firm can do is to break even

Correct Answer: Correct the best the firm can do is to break even

Question 37 text Question 37 2 out of 2 points

Correct The lowest possible ATC curve is attained at the optimal scale of output.

Question 37 answers

Selected Answer: Correct True

Correct Answer: True

Question 38 text Question 38 2 out of 2 points

Correct In a perfectly competitive industry, if TR exceeds TC, then in the long run

Question 38 answers

Selected Answer: Correct new firms will enter the industry

Correct Answer: Correct new firms will enter the industry


Question 39 text Question 39 2 out of 2 points

Correct If the firm produces one more unit of output and total cost rises from $1,000 to $1,050,
marginal cost is

Question 39 answers

Selected Answer: Correct $50

Correct Answer: Correct $50

Question 40 text Question 40 2 out of 2 points

Correct The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are added
to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly smaller,
is the principle of

Question 40 answers

Selected Answer: Correct diminishing marginal returns

Correct Answer: Correct diminishing marginal returns

Question 41 text Question 41 2 out of 2 points

Correct If output changes in fixed proportion to a change in all of a firm’s productive


resources, the firm has

Question 41 answers

Selected Answer: Correct constant returns to scale

Correct Answer: Correct constant returns to scale

Question 42 text Question 42 2 out of 2 points

Correct If you are a sole proprietor of a firm, the value of the wage you could have earned
elsewhere is

Question 42 answers

Selected Answer: Correct an implicit cost


Correct Answer: Correct an implicit cost

Question 43 text Question 43 2 out of 2 points

Correct Whenever marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost,

Question 43 answers

Selected Answer: Correct profit increases if output increases

Correct Answer: Correct profit increases if output increases

Question 44 text Question 44 2 out of 2 points

Correct Marginal revenue is the increase in total revenue per additional unit of input.

Question 44 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 45 text Question 45 0 out of 2 points

Incorrect Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is

Question 45 answers

Selected Answer: Incorrect greater than average revenue

Correct Answer: Correct equal to average revenue

Question 46 text Question 46 2 out of 2 points

Correct The amount of payment necessary to attract a given productive resource away from its
best alternative use is the

Question 46 answers

Selected Answer: Correct opportunity cost

Correct Answer: Correct opportunity cost

Question 47 text Question 47 2 out of 2 points


Correct A firm’s break-even point occurs where

Question 47 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total revenue equals total cost

Correct Answer: Correct total revenue equals total cost

Question 48 text Question 48 2 out of 2 points

Correct So long as marginal cost is rising, average variable cost must rise.

Question 48 answers

Selected Answer: Correct False

Correct Answer: False

Question 49 text Question 49 2 out of 2 points

Correct Marginal cost can be determined best by observing changes in

Question 49 answers

Selected Answer: Correct total variable cost

Correct Answer: Correct total variable cost

Question 50 text Question 50 2 out of 2 points

Correct A graph of total fixed cost

Question 50 answers

Selected Answer: Correct is a straight horizontal line

Correct Answer: Correct is a straight horizontal line

OK

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ECON 125 Midterm Exam Please be sure to save at least every 15 minutes! 提交

Please be sure to save at least once every 15 minutes. If you leave this page without saving, or if y
our session times out, any answers you have not saved will be lost. The Submit for Grading button
will become available once you've answered all questions. Exams are not timed; you do not have t
o finish an exam in one sitting as long as you have saved your answers.

Q1. Economists divide productive resources into which of the following four broad categories?

CORRECT b. land, labor, capital, enterprise

Q2. Economics is the study of

CORRECT b. how people make choices and use resources

Q3. Which of the following is an example of marginal analysis?

CORRECT a. a fast food restaurant that only serves lunch and dinner trying to determine if it s
hould open for breakfast
Q4. The idea that what?s good for one person may not be good for all people is known as the

CORRECT b. fallacy of composition

Q5. The stock of labor talents and skills is known as

CORRECT c. human capital

Q6. An economy?s production possibilities curve could shift outward as a result of a(n)

CORRECT a. Increase in labor and capital

Q7. The ability to produce a good or service using fewer resources than other producers use is kno
wn as

CORRECT a. absolute advantage

Q8. Which of the following would shift a nation?s entire production possibilities curve outward?

CORRECT b. developing a more efficient technology

Q9. Which of the following is true of scarcity?

CORRECT d. it is a basic problem of economics that affects all nations

Q10. The opportunity cost of a choice is defined as the value of

CORRECT a. the next best alternative that must be sacrificed


Q11. The shifting or returning of government economic functions to individuals and firms in the ec
onomy is known as

CORRECT d. privatization

Q12. Government intervention becomes necessary when self-interest leads to

CORRECT c. the undermining of competition

Q13. Money that can be used to purchase capital goods is known as

CORRECT a. financial capital

Q14. The stronger the consumer demand is for a good or service,

CORRECT a. the higher its price

Q15. If shortages or surpluses exist in a market, what helps guide the market back to equilibrium?

CORRECT a. the invisible hand of competition

Q16. There are no government-regulated markets in the U. S. economy.

CORRECT b. false

Q17. If a good has perfectly inelastic demand,

CORRECT b. the same amount would be purchased regardless of price

Q18. An increase in demand will cause the demand curve to


CORRECT a. move to the right

Q19. A change in demand would be illustrated by

CORRECT c. a change in people?s preferences that causes them to buy either more or less than
before

Q20. The total quantity of a good that all buyers in the market would buy at various prices at a giv
en time is known as

CORRECT c. market demand

Q21. The law of supply states that

CORRECT d. Quantity offered by sellers of good or service is directly related to price

Q22. It is possible for a change in the price of one commodity to lead to a change in the demand fo
r another commodity.

CORRECT a. true

Q23. The quantity of goods demanded is a function of price alone.

CORRECT b. false

Q24. If demand and supply increase by the same amount, equilibrium price will rise.

CORRECT b. false

Q25. The change to total output resulting from using an additional unit of a productive resource is t
he

CORRECT d. marginal product

Q26. Implicit cost is an opportunity cost of doing business.

CORRECT a. true

Q27. A production function is

CORRECT b. the relationship between resource inputs and product output

Q28. Under perfectly competitive conditions, marginal revenue is equal to the price at which a goo
d is sold.

CORRECT a. true

Q29. Marginal product can never fall below zero.

CORRECT b. false

Q30. If the entry of new firms in a perfectly competitive industry substantially increases the market
demand for resources,

CORRECT b. this raises the market price of resources

Q31. Under perfect competition in the short run,

CORRECT b. more efficient firms can earn higher profits than less efficient firms

Q32. In the long run, under conditions of perfect competition, market forces come into play to
CORRECT c. eliminate profits

Q33. Perfect competition assumes free entry into a business or industry.

CORRECT a. true

Q34. If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, a firm should

CORRECT a. expand output

Q35. In first degree price discrimination,

CORRECT b. all consumer surplus is captured by the seller

Q36. Which of the following is always true of monopolists?

CORRECT d. they charge a price higher than marginal cost

Q37. A firm that is a price maker can

CORRECT a. limit output and raise prices

Q38. A monopoly can sell all that it desires at any given price.

CORRECT b. false

Q39. A monopolist that charges different prices to different buyers based on their elasticities of de
mand is practicing

CORRECT c. third degree price discrimination


Q40. In an oligopoly, the pricing policy of each firm is independent of that of other firms.

CORRECT b. false

Q41. Under conditions of monopolistic competition, a firm maximizes profits where

CORRECT d. MR equals MC

Q42. Monopolistic competition is a structure where,

CORRECT c. there are many firms

Q43. The Federal Trade Commission

CORRECT d. polices deceptive advertising

Q44. Selling at unreasonably low prices in order to destroy competing firms is known as

CORRECT d. predatory pricing

Q45. As the wage rate increases,

CORRECT c. the quantity demanded for labor decreases

Q46. The amount of unemployment that arises because workers are temporarily between jobs or ne
w entrants to the labor force is known as

CORRECT c. frictional unemployment

Q47. Most illegal immigrants are found in occupations


CORRECT d. that require little formal education

Q48. The wage below which a worker will not work is

CORRECT d. the reservation wage

Q49. Unemployment caused by an imbalance between the skills possessed by workers and the skill
s demanded in labor markets is known as

CORRECT a. structural unemployment

Q50. If sales in an industry decline,

CORRECT a. demand for additional labor also declines

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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q3. The international organization that replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade (GATT) is the

Correct Answer: c. World Trade Organization

Given Answer: b. Export-Import Bank

Question: Q8. Studies of income mobility show

Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time

Given Answer: b. a welfare trap exists over time

Question: Q14. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for

Correct Answer: c. employment to increase

Given Answer: b. prices to rise

Question: Q15. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?

Correct Answer: d. consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports


Given Answer: a. consumption, investment, government purchases, and transfer payments

Question: Q26. The U. S. money supply measure that consists of currency plus travelers checks
and checkable deposits is referred to as

Correct Answer: a. M1

Given Answer: d. M1 + M2

Question: Q28. Included in the official U. S. money supply are

Correct Answer: c. checkable deposits

Given Answer: a. U. S. government bonds

Question: Q45. The U. S. income tax is based on the principle of

Correct Answer: c. ability to pay

Given Answer: d. equality of sacrifice

Question: Q49. An appreciation of the U. S. dollar would

Correct Answer: b. discourage foreigners from buying U. S. goods

Given Answer: a. encourage foreigners to invest in the United States


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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q3. If a tariff is used to protect U. S. jobs,

Correct Answer: a. income is transferred from consumers to protected producers

Given Answer: d. the effect is neutral since imports are replaced by domestic goods

Question: Q6. Studies of income mobility show

Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time

Given Answer: b. a welfare trap exists over time

Question: Q11. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?

Correct Answer: d. consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports

Given Answer: a. consumption, investment, government purchases, and transfer payments

Question: Q29. Money is defined as

Correct Answer: b. anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods and services

Given Answer: d. notes issued by the U. S. Treasury and backed by gold

Question: Q31. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.
Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q37. A decrease in the economy?s capacity utilization rate

Correct Answer: b. tends to increase the unemployment rate

Given Answer: d. tends to have an unpredictable effect on the unemployment rate

Question: Q48. Appreciation of the U. S. dollar encourages travel abroad by U. S. citizens.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q3. If a tariff is used to protect U. S. jobs,

Correct Answer: a. income is transferred from consumers to protected producers

Given Answer: d. the effect is neutral since imports are replaced by domestic goods

Question: Q6. Studies of income mobility show

Correct Answer: c. many of the lower-income households climb to middle-income and even to
upper-income classes over time

Given Answer: b. a welfare trap exists over time

Question: Q11. The goods and services included in GDP are allocated to which of the following
four major sectors?
Correct Answer: d. consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports

Given Answer: a. consumption, investment, government purchases, and transfer payments

Question: Q29. Money is defined as

Correct Answer: b. anything that is commonly accepted in exchange for other goods and services

Given Answer: d. notes issued by the U. S. Treasury and backed by gold

Question: Q31. The primary function of the Fed?s Board of Governors is to formulate U. S.
monetary policy.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q37. A decrease in the economy?s capacity utilization rate

Correct Answer: b. tends to increase the unemployment rate

Given Answer: d. tends to have an unpredictable effect on the unemployment rate

Question: Q48. Appreciation of the U. S. dollar encourages travel abroad by U. S. citizens.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Exam 1

Question: Q22. In exercising the principle of comparative advantage, a nation with no absolute
advantage should produce a commodity in which it faces a lower opportunity cost than its trading
partners face.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Exam 2

Question: Q1. An example of an implicit cost is

Correct Answer: d. forgone interest when investing one's savings in one's own business

Given Answer: a. rent

Question: Q2. The concept of choosing the least-cost combination of resources for a given
amount of output is known as
Correct Answer: c. economic efficiency

Given Answer: b. the principle of diminishing marginal returns

Question: Q5. The principle which states that as more and more units of a variable resource are
added to a set of fixed resources, the resulting additions to output eventually become increasingly
smaller, is the principle of

Correct Answer: c. diminishing marginal returns

Given Answer: a. increasing production

Question: Q7. Marginal cost is equal to the increase in total cost per unit of input divided by
marginal product.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q15. The long-run average cost curve indicates

Correct Answer: a. the lowest average costs of production at each level of output

Given Answer: b. the lowest average costs of production for each plant size

Question: Q45. According to the simple circular flow concept, whenever planned investment is
greater than planned saving during a period of less than full employment, there is a tendency for

Correct Answer: c. employment to increase

Given Answer: b. prices to rise


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ECON 125 Exam 3

Question: Q4. In dollars, the nominal GDP in the United States is in 2005 was between:

Correct Answer: d. 11 and 13 trillion

Given Answer: b. 11 and 13 billion

Question: Q8. If nominal GDP is reported at $10,000 billion and the GDP implicit price deflator
is 150, the GDP in constant dollars is

Correct Answer: a. $6,667 billion

Given Answer: c. $5,650 billion

Question: Q18. Nominal wages can be converted into real wages by

Correct Answer: d. dividing the nominal wages by the CPI

Given Answer: a. multiplying the nominal wages by the CPI

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ECON 125 Exam 4

Question: Q5. An increase in the number of inexperienced workers in the labor force is likely to
increase the unemployment rate relative to the level of output.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

Question: Q18. In discussing the distribution of income among families, the term "lowest fifth"
indicates

Correct Answer: b. the poorest twenty percent of families

Given Answer: c. the smallest twenty percent of families

Question: Q38. Which of the following is an example of an automatic stabilizer?

Correct Answer: b. unemployment compensation

Given Answer: d. highway spending

Question: Q39. During the 1960s, tax cuts were used to promote economic expansion in the
United states.

Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false


Question: Q40. In the late 1960s, during President Johnson's administration,

Correct Answer: c. a 10 percent income tax surcharge was imposed

Given Answer: b. rationing was imposed

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ECON 125 Exam 5

Question: Q14. A balanced federal budget

Correct Answer: b. can have an expansionary effect on the economy if the government finances
spending with taxes on idle funds

Given Answer: a. cannot have an expansionary effect on the economy

Question: Q41. A credit item on the U.S. balance of payments is an item that

Correct Answer: b. causes foreigners to use up their U.S. dollars

Given Answer: a. makes U.S. dollars available to foreigners

Question: Q47. Meetings among the leaders of the Group of Eight nations have directed the
course of international monetary policy in the last decade.
Correct Answer: a. true

Given Answer: b. false

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ECON 125 Midterm Exam

Question: Q1. In Economics, Utility refers to

Correct Answer: b. the ability of a good to satisfy a want

Given Answer: a. the amount of electricity generated

Question: Q5. The idea that what's good for one person may not be good for all people is known
as the

Correct Answer: b. fallacy of composition


Given Answer: a. cause-effect fallacy

Question: Q35. A market structure in which two firms control the market is a

Correct Answer: d. duopoly

Given Answer: b. monopolistic competition

Question: Q39. The monopolist's demand curve

Correct Answer: a. coincides with the market demand curve

Given Answer: c. is above the market demand curve

Question: Q45. When unions cause wages to rise above the equilibrium wage,

Correct Answer: a. a surplus of labor results

Given Answer: b. a shortage of labor results

Question: Q47. The demand for a productive resource is

Correct Answer: b. derived from the demand for the good or service it produces

Given Answer: c. unrelated to the output it produces

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ECON 125 Final Exam

Question: Q22. Classical economists believed that

Correct Answer: b. occasional problems of unemployment could occur but would be quickly
eliminated by the system of self-regulating markets

Given Answer: d. the economy had several possible equilibrium output levels

Question: Q44. The U. S. income tax is based on the principle of

Correct Answer: c. ability to pay

Given Answer: d. equality of sacrifice

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ECON 125 Exam 2

Question: Q30. The major characteristic of a monopoly is

Correct Answer: a. the degree of control over price it can exercise

Given Answer: c. its price elasticity of demand

Question: Q45. A balanced federal budget

Correct Answer: c. may alter the composition of total output by substituting government spending
for private spending

Given Answer: d. can never have an expansionary effect on total output

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