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Topic 0: Intro Treasuries: Bills (Maturity under a year), Notes prevent speculative stock price declines and portfolio

event speculative stock price declines and portfolio (MVP): Portfolios that provide the
Four Axioms of Finance: 1. Investors prefer (1-10 yr maturity), Bonds (10-30 yr maturity) w/ reduce volatility. For a short sale, the bank profit lowest variacne among all possible portfolios of
more to less 2. Investors are risk averse semi annual coupon payments is a fee. The investor profit is the initial price risky assets (vertex of the efficient frontier)
(IMPORTANT FOR INVESTOR PREFERENCES) Municipal Bonds: Bonds issued by state & local minus the final price minus the fee minus If a two-asset portfolio is on the efficient
3. Money paid in the future is worth more than the govts, exempt from federal income tax & state dividends paid out while the stock was borrowed frontier, adjusting the weights will cause both
same amount today 4. Fin. markets are taxes in issuing states (T bills are not exempt (P0 – P1 – FEE – Dividends) returns and standard deviation to move in the
competitive, no arbitrage from state taxes). General Obligation Bonds are In 2007, SEC abolished it because the price same direction. If it is not, they will move in
Arbitrage Opportunity: Possibility of making backed by taxation power of the municipality, while should reflect both positive and negative views, opposite directions.
money from no money (e.g. borrowing at a risk Revenue Bonds are issued to finance specific and the rule was easy to circumvent. 2010: Perfect Positive Correlation: ρ12 = 1. Only
free rate and buying a risk-free asset with a higher projects (e.g. airports) and are riskier. Uptick rule instated for stocks that have fallen case with no gains from diversification
rate of return) Commercial paper: Short term corp loan 10% or more in a day Perfect Negative Correlation: ρ12 = -1. Gains
Relevant Statistics agreement (30-90 days) Topic 2A: Time Value of Money from diversification are maximal; Able to create a
Random Variable: Value representing outcome Corporate Bonds: Longer term, typically semi FV = Future Value, PV = Present Value, R = risk free portfolio. As ρ12 = 1 goes from 1 to -1,
of an uncertain event. Discreet (e.g. coin flip) or annual coupons, “senior” and “junior” classes of Yield: FV = PV • (1 + R)T gains from diversification rise (and the arc of the
Continuous (e.g. weight, returns) payout order in case of default Discount Factor (PV Factor): 1/(1+R)T efficient frontier widens)
Distribution: Likelihood of each possible event EQUITY (STOCK): Ownership in a firm. Dividends Yield to Maturity: R for a bond over multiple Investor Preferences
(e.g. 50% heads, 50% tails for a discreet outcome, are uncertain, indefinite maturity, risky with variable periods Any mean variance investor should choose an
normal distribution for continuous outcome). liquidity. Valuation: TVM + RISK ADJUSTMENT Zero Coupon Bonds: Implicit. Issued in primary efficient portfolio to benefit from diversification.
Normal dist.: 68% within 1 SD, 95% within 2 SD Common Stock: Voting Rights (JR) markets (T bonds), or financially engineered by The optimal portfolio along the efficient
Expected Value (E[Ri]): Avg outcome if an Preferred Stock: Non-Voting (SR) “stripping” coupon bonds. frontier depends on the investor’s preferences, in
event is repeated infinitely often. Probability- Bankruptcy Payout Order: 1. Govt (IRS) 2. Think of multiple payment bonds as an particular their risk aversion
weighted avg of possible outcomes; p(s) = Employees (Wages) 3. Senior Bondholders 4. Junior amalgamation of single payments of different Mean-variance investors want higher E[Ri] and
probability of event s happening Bondholders 5. Pref Stockholders 6. Com stockholders amounts, all using the FV formula. lower σi, and will trade off risk and return to
Derivatives: Securities whose cash flows depend on Annuity: Pays a fixed cash flow C for T periods. maximize expected utility.
the values of other financial assets, valued at TVM + PV = C • PV Factor Indifference Curve: graph of all combinations
risk + option adjustment. (e.g. options, futures) of two things (e.g. goods, securities) that offer
Variance (σ2ι): How much a variable fluctuates Call Option: Right to buy the underlying asset at a the same utility level U0 = U(E[RP], σP). People
around its mean specified price (Strike Price) on a specified date like being on the HIGHEST POSSIBLE
(Maturity) Put Option: Right to sell the underlying INDIFFERENCE CURVE (people prefer more to
asset… less). The more vertical an investor’s set of
Long Future: Obligation to buy the underlying indifference curves, the more risk averse
Standard Deviation (σi): Sqrt of variance. asset… Short Future: Obligation to sell the PV Factor =
ALSO KNOWN AS VOLATILITY they are (slope of ICs = risk aversion). A risk
underlying asset… (Two kinds of futures: Commodities Perpetuity: Pays a fixed cash flow C every neutral investor has totally vertical indifference
Covariance(Cov[Ri,Rj]): Avg. Of the products of or financial) period for ever (ie. T = ∞). Example: Consol curves
their deviations from the mean. Positive if the two Mutual Fund: Financial intermediary that pools
random variables tend to be unusually high at the bond. PV = C/R Mean-Variance Utility Equation:
investor funds to buy assets. Offer record U(RP) = E(RP) – 0.5•A•Var(RP)
same time, negative if one variable tends to be THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN INTEREST
keeping/administration, diversification and divisibility, RATE AND PRICE IS NEGATIVE A = Risk Aversion when A > 0
high when the other is low. The covariance of professional management, and lower transaction
something with itself is its variance. Federal Funds Rate: Rate that commercial When A = 0, investor is risk-neutral (doesn’t care
costs. Compete with ETFs (which trade all day) about risk), making the second part of the
banks charge on overnight loans among
Asset-Backed Securities: Bundling of existing themselves. Set by the Federal Open Market equation equal to zero.
securities (mortgages, corporate bonds, credit card Certainty Equivalent Rate of Return: Utility
Committee (FOMC) which in turn is chaired by
Solving for CAPM covariance: receivables), an example of Securitization Score of Risky Portfolios
Janet Yellen. Stock market rallies generally after
Securitization: Creating a security out of an asset NOW WE SEE what the optimal portfolio is:
unexpected rate cut announcements.
that was previously untraded Optimal Portfolio reconciles what is DESIRABLE
Topic 2B: Return Measures
Topic 1B: Financial Markets (indifference curves) with what is FEASIBLE
Effective Annual Rate (EAR): A way to
Equilibrium Price: Price at which the supply and calculate total interest over a year given that (efficient frontier). The point of tangency between
demand for something are equivalent interest is compounded m times per year. the efficient frontier and one of the investor’s
Primary Mkt: Market for new issues of securities. indifference curves indicates the optimal portfolio.
EAR = (1 + Quoted Rate / m)m – 1
Govt securities typically auctioned, corporate securities EAR (Continuous Compounding): T. 4A: Portfolio Selection w/ Riskless
typically underwritten by inv. Banks. Uniform Price Security
EARContCom = eQuoted Rate – 1
Sealed Bid Auctions > Multiple Price SBAs; people bid Annual Compounding, T years: KEY TAKEAWAY: A risk free asset Rf added to N
lower when they know they’re paying what they bid. FV = PV • (1 + R)T risky assets changes the efficient frontier to a
Underwriters: Syndicate of investment banks. straight line through the risk free rate, tangent to
Continuously Compounding, T years:
Correlation(ρij): Always between -1 and +1 Purchase securities from issuing company and resell to FV = PV • eR•T the efficient frontier calculated from risky assets
public Firm Commitment = Deliverable Contract, Annual Percentage Rate (APR): Quoted rate. only. The mixture of stocks that anyone is holding
To estimate mean, variance and covariance from Best Effort = implicit is constant; it’s the weightings of the risk free
Lenders are required by law to report it.
historical data, use sample counterparts of their Bookbuilding: Draw of investors committing to buy APR = Interest Per Period • # of Periods per asset that vary.
definitions: Preliminary Prospectus (“Red Herring”) becomes Year Risk-Free Return (Rf): A guaranteed return
prospectus after SEC approval which the IBs help with that is known for certain.
Annual Holding Period Return (ann.HPR):
Secondary Mkt: Market for already existing At time 0, you buy an investment for V(0) = PV. E[Rf] = Rf
securities. Investors generally trade through brokers; You reinvest all intermediate cash flows until date σf 2 = 0
they allow investors to trade without taking a position σf,I = 0 for any asset i
T. At time T, you sell the investment and the
themselves. Guarantee counterparty that investor can reinvested cash flows for a total price of V(T) = Constant over time. Proxy for Rf: Treasury Bills
pay for a security or deliver it One risky, one risk free asset:
3 Means of Broker Trade: Exchanges (NYSE), Over w = fraction of wealth invested in risky asset
Portfolio: Combination of N assets, with returns
the Counter Markets (which trade with dealers)
R1, R2,...,RN
(NASDAQ) and Electronic Communication Networks
Portfolio P has portfolio weights (percentage of
(Direct trade among investors)
wealth invested in asset i) of w1...wN. These FV
Call Auction: All investors get together at a fixed
weights sum to 1; A negative weight indicates a Holding Period Return (HPR):
time, orders are aggregated into S & D curves, and an
short position on an asset HPR = (Ending Price + Cash E[RP] =
equilibrium price is chosen (e.g. eBay, NYSE opening,
Portfolio return is the sum of each asset’s return Dividend)/Beginning Price – 1 E[Ri – Rf] = E[Ri] – E[Rf]
Sotheby’s)
multiplied by its corresponding portfolio weight; V(T) = Ending Price + Cash Dividend Since σf,I = 0, σP2 = w2 σi
Continuous Auction: Investors want to trade
Expected portfolio return substitutes E[R] for R V(0) = Beginning Price; Therefore: σP = |w| • σi
immediately on new information and for liquidity
Portfolio Variance for Two Securities: ann.HPR = (1 + HPR)1/T – 1
reasons. Order flow is fragmented and the price
For T in the ann.HPR equation, T should always
Sharpe Ratio (SRi): Return
bounces around the equilibrium price; being a dealer premium per unit of risk; ie. The
be in terms of years; semi annual means T = 0.5
becomes profitable
Recall: ρ12•σ2•σ2 = covariance(R1,R2) Ask Price: Dealer sell, investor buy price
Mult Period Realized Rtns, Arithmetic Avg: “Price of Risk”
1/T(r1 + r2 + r3 + … + rT)
Portfolio Variance for N Securities: Bid Price: Dealer buy, investor sell price
Used for forecasting return next period. NOT
SRi = E[Ri – Rf]/σi
Dealer is a market maker; holds inventory. In USE TO DETERMINE WHICH OF
equivalent per period return
exchange for the immediacy and liquidity he provides,
he takes a profit off of his bid ask spread
MPRR, Geometric Avg: A GIVEN SET OF
Limit Order: Buy x shares if price falls to P, sell x SECURITIES/PORTFOLIOS IS
Topic 1A: Financial Instruments shares if price rises to P THE BEST
Real Assets: Assets used to produce goods and Market Order: Buy/sell x shares at current price
Capital Allocation Line: Risk-Return
services (PPE, human capital, etc.) Stop-Loss/Stop-Buy Order: Sell if price falls to P,
Relationship for a portfolio with a risk free and a
Financial Assets: Claims on real assets (stocks, Buy if price rises to P
risky asset
bonds, derivatives, etc.) Determinants of the B-A Spread: Volume of trade Gives equivalent per period return CAL = Rf + SRi • σP
Diversification: Investing across multiple assets (high volume => narrower spread), Volatility of MPRR, Internal Rate of Return (IRR): Two Risky, One Risk Free Asset:
(instead of one) to reduce risk equilibrium price (High volatility => Wider Spread)
Tangency Portfolio maximizes SR.
Hedging: Taking an offsetting position in fin mkts and competition between market makers (aka dealers)
Mean-Variance Efficient (MVE) = Tangency Port.
to offset given risk (More competition => Narrower spread)
All investors hold combinations of the same two
FIXED INCOME SECURITIES: Bonds and Trading Costs: Explicit cost (commission to
“mutual funds”: The risk free asset and the
borrowing instruments (e.g. treasuries) with FIXED broker), Implicit cost (B-A Spread), Implicit cost
tangency portfolio. Risk aversion determines
cash flows (e.g. coupons or interest payments). for large orders (market impact; deep market =
C(t): Fixed cash flow at period t. fraction of wealth invested in the risk free
Must be valued using a time value of money (TVM) small market impact, thin market = big market
Dollar-weighted average return; return if one can portfolio; remainder invested in the tangency
adjustment. Payment schedule for $1k, 10 yr, 8% impact)
reinvest cash flows at this rate portfolio
semi annual coupon bond: Short Sale: Sell something by borrowing it then
later replacing it; profit comes if the price of the Topic 3: Portfolio Choice w/ 2 Risky Assets T. 4B: Port. Sel. w/ Multiple Risky Assets
security drops. Bearish/hedge investment. Three Investment Opportunity Set: All available Insurance Principle: As the number of non-
requirements: Short sale proceeds must remain risk-return combinations perfectly correlated assets in a portfolio increases,
with broker, investor must deposit collateral (post Efficient Portfolio: Port. w/ highest possible E[R] the risk is diversified away.
margin) as a guarantee to pay if price rises, and for a given σ Efficient Frontier: Set of efficient For a portfolio of N independent stocks with
short selling is subject to the Uptick Rule: Short portfolios, upper portion of the minimum variance weights 1/N each (ρij = 0):
can only be initiated after an uptick ($1/16) to frontier starting at the minimum variance σP2 = 1/N • Avg. Variance
Market Portfolio = Portfolio in which each risky As the graph shows, the deciles don’t lie along For every dollar you pay for a stock, you’re
asset I has weight wiM = Market capitalization of the SML. INCONSISTENT WITH CAPM, as alpha getting a certain amount of book value.
security/Total Market Capitalization; ie. Market ≠0 Price to Book Ratio (Mkt to Book):
Portfolio consists of all assets CAPM IS STRONGLY REJECTED BY DATA Market/Book
•Intercept (alpha) ≠ 0 Growth Firms: Low book to mkt ratio;
For a portfolio of N stocks with weights 1/N Capital Market Line (CML): Market portfolio’s CAL •Avg. portfolio returns deviate systematically investors think it’s worth a lot even though there
each (ρij ≠ 0): in equilibrium (in equilibrium, the tangency from SML; higher the beta, higher the deviation isn’t much value on the books (Apple)
σP2 = [1/N • Avg. Variance] + [(1- portfolio is the market portfolio) Fama-French (1992): Firms’ returns depend Value Firms: High B/M ratio; investors think it’s
(1/N) )• Avg. Covariance] on their size (mkt cap) and book/market (B/M) worth little even though there’s a lot of value on
As N approaches infinity, variance of the ratio the books (Yahoo, GM)
portfolio return approaches the average CML = B/M = Book value of equity/Market Cap Liquidation Value: Cash that can be extracted
covariance of returns, and the portfolio risk CAPM also predicts the relationship between risk Market Capitalization = Size selling/liquidating a firm’s assets
approaches the non-diversifiable risk and E[R] for individual securities: Avg annual returns higher for lower market cap Replacement Cost: Cost of replicating a firm’s
(aka covariance risk or systematic deciles, lower Mkt Cap deciles and higher B/M assets. If mkt price >>> replacement cost,
risk): Implicit. E.g. market risk, deciles competitors will move into this business
macroeconomic risk, industry specific risk Fama-French (1993): Two new sources of Tobin’s q:
Idiosyncratic risk (aka variance risk, systematic risk: q = Market Value/Replacement Cost
unique risk, diversifiable risk or non- 1. Size Factor (RSMB): Rtrn on a portfolio that (Equals 1 in the long run or you’ll see migration
systematic risk): Part of the risk of a large goes long small stocks and short big stocks into/out of businesses until it equals 1)
portfolio that can be diversified away (e.g. 2. Value Factor (RHML): Rtrn on a portfolio that Intrinsic Value (Fundamental Value): The
individual company earnings announcements) goes long high B/M stocks and short low B/M discounted value of the cash that can be taken
Extra return is proportional to risk contribution of
Therefore, total risk in holding a stock = stocks. out of a business during its remaining life
that security to the overall market.
systematic risk + idiosyncratic risk. (Warren Buffett).
CAPM Predicts that expected excess return This produces the “Three Factor Model”
Investors need to be compensated for Fundamental value of a stock at time 0:
of a security is linear in its beta: this is the AKA the AUGMENTED SML:
holding systematic risk.
Security Markets Line (SML)
Implementation Issues: With N stocks,
SML = E[Ri] = Rf + βi • E[RM – Rf]
one needs to estimate E[Rp], σP2, correlation
Under CAPM, all securities lie on the SML. Slope
between returns, and keep in mind that not Testing the three factor model: Regress excess If P0 < V0, E(HPR) > R and the stock is
of the CAPM is βi • E[RM – Rf]
all sets of estimates are internally consistent. return of asset I on excess return of the mkt, on underrated
SML LINE IS THE CAPM EQUATION LESS
Two solutions: RSMB and on RHML, delivering 3 betas for each If P0 > V0, E(HPR) < R and the stock is
THE ERROR COMPONENT
1. Index Models: All co-movement of asset: βiM, βiS, and βih. Then, regress average overrated
Y-INT OF SML: Rf
returns is captured by a few common factors
2. Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM):
Recall that beta measures the systematic risk of excess returns of the assets on the 3 betas in a
cross sectional regression.
Dividend Discount Model
holding a stock; the higher the risk, the more an
Implied expected returns in equilibrium
investor must be compensated for holding it. This causes R2 to go from .25 to .75 and alphas (DDM):
SINGLE INDEX MODEL: don’t differ from 0. (FAMA FRENCH ALPHA) Assume efficient market; P0 = V0
Depends on the
To separate idiosyncratic risk from systematic Cahart 4 Factor Model: Adds a momentum Use fundamental value equation repeatedly
Equilibrium Risk Premium = E[RM] - Rf
risk for security i, we can use regression factor (sort stocks by return over TTM: long a
The excess return on the market portfolio
analysis: portfolio of winners, short a portfolio of losers)
Flight to Quality: Investors moving their assets
into more stable assets (eg securities to gold) Delivers a return of 10% per year and a similar
Security Characteristic Line: The “regression alpha to the 3 factor model.
line” Problem with these strategies: Theoretical
SCL = Ri(t) – Rf = αi + βi(RM(t) – Rf) + errori(t) motivation absent
CAPM IMPLIES THAT ALPHA = 0 Return Anomalies & Market Efficiency
Beta (βι): Systematic risk of holding something SCL graph shows relationship between Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH): Market
excess return of stock vs. excess return of efficiency that results from competition. PRICES
βι = Cov(RM,Ri)/(σM2) market and solves for a slope of Bi. FULLY REFLECT ALL AVAILABLE
For two risky assets I and j, Cov(ei,ej) = 0. INFORMATION. Does not mean that stock Note: E(Pn) = E(Dn+1)+E(Pn+1)/(1+R)
In fact, beta can be estimated using linear
Topic 5: The CAPM regressions, typically using 60 months of data:
prices must go up on good news (must be
unexpected), or that the market cannot be
Case I: Zero Dividend
KEY CAPM TAKEAWAYS:
1. CAPM follows from equilibrium conditions in a outperformed (insider trading/risk adjustment) Growth:
frictionless mean-variance economy with rational Weak Form Efficiency: Prices reflect all Assume constant expected Dividends
investors ALPHA: Pos. or Neg. Difference between a security’s information contained in the history of past V0 = E(D1)/R
2. Prediction I: Everyone should hold a risk of the performance at a given beta and the SML. CAPM prices, including trends in prices. Evidence: P/E = 1/R
suggests that simple trading rules based on past
market portfolio and the risk-free asset (ie.
Everyone should hold a portfolio of stocks on the
predicts all alphas to be 0. Alpha of the market
portfolio is 0. prices don’t work; returns aren’t correlated over Case II: Constant
CML). Under CAPM, the market portfolio is the Αι = E[Ri] – Rf – βi[E[RM] – Rf], OR, rearranged: time
Random Walk: Stock price is a random walk:
Dividend Growth
tangency portfolio.
3. Prediction II: E[Ri] is a linear function of its Pt+1 = Pt + et+1. Returns are unpredictable, prices AKA Gordon’s Growth
reflect “fair” fundamental values, and prices react
beta (ie. Stocks should be on the SML)
4. A stock’s beta can be estimated using historical
Portfolio Alpha Formula:
to news immediately. Evidence: Stock prices Model (GGM)
close to random walk; returns nearly Assume expected dividends grow at rate g
data by linear regression (ie. Estimating SCL)
CAPM EQUATIONS: unpredictable at short horizons
SHORT TERM: Returns are functionally
unpredictable The Gordon Growth Equation:
Active management strategy: beat the market by V0 = E(D1)/(R – g), ie.
E[Ri] = Rf + βi • (E[RM] – Rf) + errori stock picking, timing, etc. However CAPM implies LONG TERM: Some evidence that returns are
predictable. Dividend Yield D/P is positively P0 = D0(1+g)/(R-g)
(This equation can also be used for analysis is unnecessary, and that every investor
correlated with subsequent returns. This does Price Dividend Ratio: Under GGM:
portfolios) should simply adopt a passive strategy.
βι = Cov(RM,Ri)/(σM2) GROSSMAN-STIGLITZ PARADOX: How can NOT necessarily imply that the market is
E(errori) = 0 market be efficient if everyone uses a passive inefficient.
Cov(errori, RM) = 0 strategy? Semi-Strong Form Efficiency: Prices reflect all
Net Present Value (NPV): Only undertake projects publicly available information (ie earnings
with NPV>0 (ie. E[Ri] < IRR announcements, stock splits, mergers, etc.).
aka Cost of Capital < IRR; HOWEVER, ALWAYS Empirical test: EVENT STUDY. EVIDENCE:
USE THE NPV RULE WHEN NPV RULE AND IRR Abnormal returns to trading on publicly available
RULE DIFFER. NPV uses the ‘correct’ rate, the cost info are zero on average and disappear quickly. Price-Earnings Ratio: Under GGM:
EQUILIBRIUM MODEL: SUPPLY = DEMAND of capital, to discount cash flows; IRR uses arbitrary Exceptions to SSFE: January Effect (increase in D0 = (1-b)•E0
•Predicts the relationship between risk and E[R] rate that makes NPV = 0. Further, when IRR is very stock prices for small caps in January), g = growth rate
and optimal portfolio choices high relative to cost of capital, it is unrealistic to Momentum, Post-Earnings Announcement/Post- b = “earning retention ratio”
•Invented in the 90s, Underlies much of modern assume reinvestment at a very high rate) IPO Drift (doing well or poorly in the short run The amount of earnings that aren’t paid out as
finance and most real financial decision making tends to impact the long run) dividends
•Answers two key questions: Problems with Testing EMH: Earnings Retention Ratio = Plowback
1.Which portfolios should investors hold in Data Mining: You’ll find what you’re looking for b = 1 – D0/E0
equilibrium? (even random samples appear to have patterns) (Recognize that D0 was subbed out for E0(1-b))
2. What is the Equilibrium retired return, Recall IRR Formula: Joint-Test Issue: Is the market inefficient or
E[R], or the equilibrium price of an Shareholders need to be diversified did you just adjust for risk incorrectly?
individual stock? Strong Form Efficiency: Do prices reflect all
Topic 5B: Beyond the CAPM
The CAPM identifies the tangency portfolio in relevant information, including inside
Testing CAPM: Fama-McBeth (1973)
equilibrium (hence, identifies investor portfolios) information? EVIDENCE: Corporate insiders earn
1. Regress excess returns of asset I on the excess
and derives equilibrium returns (hence, prices) abnormal returns. Markets are NOT strong
return of the market (SCL), delivering a beta for
SIX ASSUMPTIONS (some of which can be form efficient.
each asset i
relaxed): Topic 6: Equity Valuation
1. Mkt is competitive equilibrium 2. Common 2. Regress the average excess return on the beta
and an intercept (SML) (ie. a graph with average KEY TAKEAWAY: The key story of equity Practical impact of R: As E[R] rises, P must fall in
single-period investment horizon 3. All assets are valuation is growth. order to allow investors to be compensated
excess return on the y and beta on the x for each
tradeable (mkt portfolio) 4. NO TRANSACTION Book Value of Equity: more. P/E ratio and long term interest rates tend
stock)
COSTS OR TAXES 5. Investors are rational mean- Recall from FA: A = L + SE, ergo: to be inverses.
If the CAPM holds, then the intercept should be
variance optimizers with… 6. Homogenous Backward looking accounting measure Price/Sales Ratio: Useful for companies that
equal to zero and R2 should be high.
expectations (all investors agree on investment Equity = Assets – Liabilities massage their earnings (sales are harder to
The slope of this second regression should equal
opportunity set) (not generally equal to mkt value) fudge)
E[RM – Rf]
Because in equilibrium, supply = demand, Book Value per share:
Because individual stocks are too “noisy” in their Topic 6: Equity Valuation (Cont.)
tangency portfolio must be the portfolio of Equity/Shares outstanding
data, in practice testing the CAPM requires Growth Rate (g): g = b • ROE
all existing risky assets, the “market Market Value Per Share = Stock Price
forming portfolios of stocks (because betas are The better a company’s returns (given some of
portfolio” Forward looking measure
estimated more precisely for portfolios): Form 10 those returns being reinvested in the company,
Pi = Price of one share of risky asset i Book to Mkt Ratio:
deciles of lowest to highest beta stocks not handed out as dividends) the faster a
Ni = # of shares outstanding for risky asset i Book value per share/Stock Price company will grow.
Return on Equity (ROE): Return on equity inside •Note that the total transactional cost matters sell the bond and the reinvested coupons for •May explain why 30 year rates are typically
the firm for these limits, not only the cost of shorting or V(t). lower than 20 year rates.
ROE = Earnings/(BV of Equity) buying. •To find future value of the bond with reinvested Topic 8D: Interest Rate Management
The higher a company’s P/E ratio, the faster it is USEFUL STRATEGIES FOR THESE coupons, multiply each payment by the Interest Rate Sensitivity: Three factors:
growing. PROBLEMS: appropriate compounded interest rate First Order Effect: Bond prices and interest
Forward Looking P/E Ratio: P0/E1 1. TIME CHARTS V(t) = V(0)(1 + ann.HPR)t rates are negatively correlated
ann.HPR = (V(t)/V(0))1/t - 1 Maturity Matters: Prices of long term bonds
Fixed Income Securities (Cont.) are more sensitive to interest rate than those of
Forward Rate: Interest rate on a future loan short term bonds.
that is fixed today. The rate that would need to Convexity: An increase in a bond’s YTM results
prevail in the second year to make the long and in a smaller price decline than the price gain
short term investments equally attractive. associated with a decrease in equal magnitude
Different cash flows (neg and pos) below, f0(t) = forward 1 year lending rate t years of the YTM.
Can be derived from the following equation different times above. from now. Duration (Macaulay’s Duration) (D): The
stream: 2. ARB TABLES f0(1) = (1+y0(2))2/(1+y0(1)) – 1 average time you have to wait for your
More Generally: payments. Duration of a portfolio is a
weighted average of the durations of the
constituents.
•Used to determine how sensitive the price
Sensitivity of P/E ratio w/ respect to b: of a bond is to changes in yield
Pt(n): Price at time t of an n-year ZCB •All else equal, as the coupon rate increases,
Yt(n): Yield at time t of an n-year ZCB duration decreases, and vice versa.
If you have a ZCB for 1 year and 2 years, •Think “Zero coupon bond has a duration of t
you can approximate f(1) by subtracting years”, “coupon bond has a duration < t years”
2•ZCB2 – ZCB1 •Duration of a perpetuity: (1+y)/y
Yield Curve (Term Structure of Interest):
Topic 8: Fixed Income Securities The collection of YTMs on zero-coupon bonds.
In other words: KEY EQUATIONS: •Empirically, the slope of the yield curve is
= ROE-R/(R-g)2 actually a good predictor of GDP growth rate D = Average of cash flow times, weighted by
Coupon Rate = Coupon/Face Value
their contribution to the PV of the bond.
HOW SHOULD I SET MY DIVIDEND RATE?
If ROE > R: As B rises, forward looking PE ratio
Current Yield = Coupon/Price Expectations Hypothesis: To track relative changes in price when
Yield to Maturity = IRR
rises. Raise b, in effect plowing back more. The A benchmark model of the yield curve. YTM changes:
9 MAIN FEATURES OF BONDS:
firm is more profitable than investors require; EH says that the long-term rate is a
1. Issuer (e.g. govt, states, corporations) geometric average of current and expected
plow back more to grow more. 2. Term (# of years to maturity)
If ROE < R: As B rises, forward looking PE ratio future short rates.
•Short is < 1 year (T bills, CDs)
falls. Lower b, in effect plowing back less. The •Long is > 1 year (Consols, corporate bonds)
firm is less profitable than investors require; 3. Price v. Par Value
plow back less to compensate investors more. y = initial yield
•Par value = Face Value = Principal = Par 1.03: 2 year ZCB rate at time 0
Price and NPV: •Par Bond: P = F 1.02: 1 year ZCB rate at time 0
P0 = PV(future dividends) Implications: For a given yield change, LT
•Discount Bond: P < F (YTM is higher than 1.04: Expected 1 year ZCB rate at time 1
= PV(future net cash flows from assets in place) bonds are more sensitive. However, long term
the coupon rate) Typical yield curve shape is flat.
+ NPV(new projects) YIELDS are more stable (“anchored”).
•Premium Bond: P > F (YTM is lower than •All expected HPR are equalized in equilibrium.
NPV(new projects) also known as NPV(growth Convexity: curvature of a security’s price-yield
the coupon rate) •ST interest rates are more volatile than LT
opportunities) relationship.
4. Coupon (period, fixed/variable, interest rates.
NEVER INVEST IN NEW PROJECTS WITH •Duration approximates this relationship in
nominal/inflation indexed) ASSUMPTIONS:
NPV ≤ 0 a linear way, but in fact, it is convex.
•Coupon Rate: Total annual interest payment •No transaction costs
NPV(growth opps) = •When yields decline, price increase in bonds
per dollar face value (C/F) •No default
P0 of a stock – P0 w/ g=0 is underestimated by the duration formula. This
5. Currency (Yankee Bonds, Samurai Bonds) •Remember: Still interest rate risk
corrects for that.
DDM CASE III: Two- 6. Credit Risk (Risk free or defaultable)
7. Seniority & Security (senior, junior)
•Investors are risk-neutral profit maximizers
(investors choose the maturity of their bonds to
•The more convex a bond, the greater the
Stage DDM •Secured by some other assets/assets of the maximize holding period returns)
expected price increase for a given decrease in
yield and the smaller the expected price
In short: g doesn’t grow constantly forever. g issuer? Some income stream? •CONTROVERSIAL
decrease.
eventually tapers off. 8. Covenants (restrictions on additional issues, •All bonds are ZCBs
•With volatile interest rates, this is an
Consider 3 years of unconstrained growth dividends, and other actions) Consider the links between the forward rate (the
attractive asymmetry. Investors will have to pay
(GGM) followed by a steady state starting 9. Option Provisions no arbitrage equation):
more/accept lower yields for bonds with more
at 3 years after present at rate g. •Callability: After a certain period, issuer has
convexity.
the right to pay back the loan before it matures
•Putability: After a certain period, bondholder …and the EH theory’s prediction (not a no
has the right to demand payment of the loan arbitrage equation): We can augment our relative change to yield
before maturity
equation to make it more accurate now.
•Convertibility: After a certain period,
bondholder has the right to exchange the bond
This can be used to estimate future P/D, P/E and UNDER EH THEORY, forward rate =
for stocks of the issuer
b ratios. expected future 1 year interest rate.
Remember: you only need the final growth Yield to Maturity (YTM) Change in interest rate: Price risk and re-
investment risk.
rate (it’s implied by all dividends you have to
that date).
on annual pay coupon Duration Matching: Making the duration of
Remember: Simply extend (or contract) the bonds: Solve for the IRR assets and liabilities equal, making interest rate
formula for longer/shorter terms to the final Liquidity Preference sensitivity 0 (asset and liabilities change by the
same amount from changes in interest rates).
constant g.
Theory (LPH):
Topic 7: Arbitrage Problem with EH theory: Predicts a yield curve
Financial theory: that is flat on average.
Arbitrage: Zero-investment trading strategy Ct = Coupons
FT = Face Value •In fact, it is upward sloping 90% of time
that generates profit. •This derives from the risk-neutrality •Example: GM Pension fund has liabilities
No initial investment, non-negative cash flows at Effective Annual Yield = YTM
assumption in the EH theory; investors are not with duration of 15 years, assets with duration
all times, positive cash flows at some times. YTM ON SEMI-ANNUAL risk neutral of 5 years. DURATION MISMATCH. Why do we
On Wall Street, arbitrage can also refer to a •Expected returns for the next period are not care?
trading strategy that is expected to make a PAY COUPON BONDS: known; they are risky •Price Risk. When the interest rate falls,
profit (statistical arbitrage). 1. Find the semi annual IRR using the equation RISK AVERSE investors care about both the present value of the liabilities increases more
Recall: NO-ARBITRAGE CONDITION from before with r substituted for YTM expected short rate AND volatility than those of the assets.
There cannot be arb. opportunities; arbitrageurs Investors in long term bonds want to be •Reinvestment Risk. At the new interest
would trade aggressively to exploit them. compensated more for: rate, the assets could not be reinvested to make
WE CAN USE THE NO ARB CONDITION TO •tying up money for a long time the future payments.
COMPUTE RESTRICTIONS ON PRICES OF •facing price risk if they need to sell before Immunization Problems: Rebalancing
SECURITIES, AS WELL AS EXACT maturity required. Approximation that assumes flat term
DERIVATIVE PRICES Issuers of LT bonds will pay higher interest rates structure of interest, no risk from changing slope
Three implications of no arbitrage: 2. YTM is the corresponding APR: YTM = 2r of term structures/other shape changes, small
because they can lock it in for many years
Law of One Price: Two securities with the •Correspodning Effective Annual Yield: interest rate changes (matching convexity will
LIQUIDITY PREMIUM (LP): Risk premium
same payoffs must have the same price. (1+YTM/2)2-1 = (1+r)2 – 1 further improve duration matching).
associated with EH.
Replicating Portfolios: If a portfolio has the
same payoff as a security, the price of the
NEGATIVE CONVEX Weights will be w and 1-w, solve for DP using
the durations of the two different securities (e.g.
security must be equal to the price of the RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN 1 yr 30 yr). Once you have weights, multiply by
portfolio. •This makes the yield curve typically upward PV of the current assets and divide by PV of the
Dynamic Hedging Strategies: If a self- YTM AND PRICE sloping. securities.
financing trading strategy has the same final Bond Notes: •Forward rate is now greater than the
Realized Return on a bond = YTM IF AND expected future short rate (you’re locked in). Topic 9: Options & Derivatives
payoff as a security, the price of the security
ONLY IF: In effect, E is yield spread due to expected Derivative: Security with a payoff that depends
must be equal to the cost of the strategy.
1. Reinvest coupons at same rate (YTM) future changes in short rate (possibly pos or on the price of another security (the
(Think finding the two year zero price from
2. Hold the bond until maturity neg), while LP is yield spread due to liquidity underlying).
two given one year zero prices, today and
Because of thse conditions, Realized Return and premium (positive). YC is total yield spread. CALL OPTION: Right to BUY underlying at. At
a year from now)
YTM are generally different Segmented Markets Theory (Preferred expiration:
We can’t determine securities prices exactly
from No-Arbitrage because of unclear Realized Holding Period Return: Habitat Theory):
transactions costs. Buy bond for V(0) at time 0. Reinvest all •Different investors trade different term length
We can determine upper and lower bounds coupons until date t (t can be < T). At time t, bonds, creating different S/D spectrums
for the price.
PUT OPTION: Right to SELL underlying at. At PCP WITH DIVIDENDS BEFORE Hedge Ratio (Δ): Number of stocks (volume, •Example: $2mil for 1mil pounds for
Expiration: EXPIRATION: not type) in the replicating portfolio. each of the next five years (Exchange rate
swap)
•$1mil • short term interest rate
Remember: If we know the call price, we (floating leg) for $1mil • fixed rate of 8%
European Option: Can only be exercised at know the put price for the same strike and (fixed leg) for each of the next seven years
expiration (Index options) expiration date. (Interest Rate Swap).
American Option: Can be exercised at or Binomial Model: Line graphs that illustrate the •Derivatives market is $582Tril as of June
•Dynamic Hedging: Adjusting the number
before expiration (Single Stock Options) different options/probabilities of different 2010, $452T of which is interest rate swaps
of shares held to account for a changing hedge
•Call W/O Dividends: Never exercise changes happening For interest rate swaps, Party A pays
ratio.
before expiration. Lose downside protection and floating rate and party B pays fixed rate on
interest on the strike (converting from liquid Price of a European Put a notional principal (say, $100mil).
asset that can accrue interest into the stock). •Fixed Rate C is set so that PV of party A’s
This interest factor makes exercising early for Option Under BSM: leg = PV of Party B’s leg. NPV of all futures cash
puts a positive. flows is 0.
•Call W/ Dividends: MAYBE exercise We don’t need to know p exactly; we’re
before expiration. Potentially exercise to get solving for something that creates the same
dividends. Do it right before the dividend gets result regardless of outcome.
paid. Remember HW 3: X in the Xe-rT in the bond
IN THE MONEY: One would exercise the portion is equal to the loaned amount, not the For interest rate swaps, per example
Topic 10: Futures & Swaps
option. For a call: Stock Price > Strike. For a strike price of the call or put. (knowing the one year ZCB yield and the 2YZCB
Futures & Forwards: Deferred delivery
put: Stock Price < Strike.
OUT OF THE MONEY: One would not exercise BLACK-SCHOLES- contract of underlying assets.
•Unlike options, buyers and sellers are
yield), find the forward rates first, then calculate
PV of the floating leg, then set it equal to PV of
the option. For a call: Stock Price < Strike. For a
put: Stock Price > Strike.
MERTON FORMULA: OBLIGATED to buy and sell at the agreed upon the fixed leg.
FOUR ASSUMPTIONS: price at the agreed upon date. GRAPHS:
Remember: Calls get you leverage.
•Risk free interest rate is r. Constant and •Future: Traded on exchange. Marking to
Protective Put: Own a stock, afraid its price market (daily cash settlement), often
continuously compounded.
will drop. Buy a put on the stock at X=P0, paying
•Log of stock prices follows a normal distribution standardized contract.
the cost of the option in exchange for downside
with no jumps and a constant SD of σ •Forward: Over the counter. No cash
protection. transfer made until maturity, tailor made
•Stock pays a constant dividend yield of δ
•The same payoff as a long call with X=P0
•The stock and the RF asset can be traded all contract.
and a bond with a face value of X.
the time at no cost. •More customizable than options at the
Covered Call: At the money call options for a cost of liquidity.
stock you own seem expensive. Short a call on Price of a European Call Hedger: Combines position in cash market (C)
the stock at the money. Sell your upside in
exchange for the cost of the option. Option Under BSM: with futures position (F) to minimize risk from
cash price fluctuations.
Straddle and Strangle: You believe the price
Hedge Ratio: H = ΔPC / ΔPF
of the stock will either spike or tank very soon. A ΔPC change in spot commodity price leads to:
Bet on volatility: buy a call and a put. Pay the •A C• ΔPC change in wealth
cost of the options for profit if the stock •A F• ΔPF change in a position of F futures.
plummets or rises in value.
•Short Straddle: Short a call and a put,
betting that the market will not change much in No Arb:
the near future. •Convergence on settlement date of PFT and
Collar: Hold the stock, a put, and a short call. N(x) = Percentage of normal distribution P CT
Guarantees that the position won’t dip below a contained within x standard deviations to the •Cost of Carry Pricing prior to settlement
certain price at the cost of a certain amount of right of the mean (negative x means to the left). date. Includes Time Value of money (annual rate
upside. TABLE LOOKUP r), physical storage cost (annual rate s), and the
• X = $70, want to guarantee position is worth Intuition: If the stock is almost certain to be in leasing benefit (annual benefit l; aka the
at least $60 in 6 months. You believe price will the money at maturity (S0 > X), N(d1) roughly convenience yield).
rise, but not past 80. equals N(d2) roughly equals 1. Option price is
the adjusted intrinsic value:

Implications:
•Futures prices are more volatile than cash
Options (Cont.) (spot) prices.
Bull Spread: Long call X1, Short call X2. X1<X2 If the option is almost certain to be out of the •Long term futures prices are more volatile than
Bear Spread: Long call X2, Short Call X1, money, the option price is close to zero (as short term futures prices
X1<X2 N(d1) and N(d2) are roughly zero). Financial Futures:
Butterfly Spread: Long Call X1 + 2•Short Call •In general, the price is the risk adjusted
X2 + Long Call X3. X1<X2<X3 expected payment at maturity.
Intrinsic Value (of a call option): The value FIVE IMPACTS ON OPTION VALUES
of the right to exercise now. = max(0,S0 – X) (Increases):
•Option price is always greater than its Today’s stock price (S0): Lease rate = delta, the dividend yield rate.
intrinsic value. •Value of call RISES. Storage rate s = 0.
•Time Value of the option: Difference •Value of put FALLS. As stock price rises Futures & Swaps (Cont.)
between option price and intrinsic value. relative to strike price, call value rises and put Currency Futures & Options Extremely
Minimum value of a call option (adjusted value falls. popular, though they bear currency
intrinsic value): Present value of the payoff Exercise Price (X): volatility risk.
when forced today to decide whether to •Value of call FALLS. •US 5 year t bill yield of 2%, Japanese 5 year
exercise at T. = max(0,S0 – X•e-r•T) •Value of put RISES. As strike price rises BOJ yield of 1%; profit by borrowing in Japan
•As you are not forced to decide whether or relative to current price, call value falls and put and lending in US.
not to exercise at T, the AIV acts as a LOWER value rises. •With this method, one can find an exchange
BOUND for the value of the call option. SD of stock (σ): rate in five years at which one breaks even
PUT CALL PARITY (stocks w/o dividends •Value of call RISES. through this borrowing process (in this case, so
before expiration): Create a “synthetic” stock •Value of put RISES. d1 rises and d2 falls as long as the Japanese currency doesn’t
by buying a portfolio of European options and SD rises, causing C0 for both calls and puts to appreciate too much, you stand to profit).
the RF asset (in this case, a ZCB). rise due to increased volatility. Interest Rate Parity: Exchange rate futures
•Buy a call with strike X and expiration Time to Expiration (T): being used to hedge.
T, sell a put with strike X and expiration T, •Value of call RISES. More time means more
buy a ZCB with face X and maturity T. downside protection, more time means more
Returns form a straight line that lines up with a time to accrue interest on liquid assets before
stock. striking.
Payoff: •Value of put is INDETERMINATE. More
time means more downside protection, but it
also means delaying the receipt of the strike by
No Arbitrage implies PCP for European longer, missing out on interest. Depends upon r. This formula can be used in a sigma-style
options with strike X and exp. T: Interest Rate (r): equation, a-la:
•Value of call RISES. P0C = 2.03$/£
•Value of put FALLS. As the interest rate rUS = .05
rises, holding liquid investible assets becomes rUK = .07
more lucrative. Having the option to buy means P1F = 2.03(1.05/1.07)1 = 1.9921 $/£
Example of Arb. Opp: holding liquid capital that can be reinvested •(exchange rate 1 year later)
S = $110, X = $100, r = 0, C = $12, P = $5 (making the call value greater to compete); P2F = 2.03(1.05/1.07)2 = 1.9548 $/£
having the option to sell means you’re holding •(exchange rate 2 years later)
an asset that cannot be reinvested at the higher PV (£) = (1£ • 1.9921$/£)/(1.05) +
interest rate, lowering its value. (1£•1.9548$/£)/(1.05)2 = $3.6703
Implied Volatility: Every volatility has a PV ($) = C/1.05 + C/1.052 =$3.6703
corresponding BSM option price, and vice versa. C = $1.974
Implied volatility of options on the same This formula guarantees no arb.
stock should be equal, even with different Swap: Contract where two counterparties agree
strikes and expirations. to exchange one stream of cash flows against
Smile/Smirk Skew: Graph of ITM/OTM calls another (legs), calculated on a principal
and puts relative to their implied volatility.

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