ENGINEERING PHYSICS

Dr. Leonardo C. Medina, Jr.

1. Velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is maximum at
(a) mean position
(b) extreme position
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
2. The number of waves that can be set up in a medium in one sec. is called
(a) wavelength
(b) wave amplitude
(c) wave frequency
(d) wave period
3. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is independent of
(a) the mass of the planet
(b) the radius of the planet
(c) the mass of the satellite
(d) all are true.
4. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time period
(a) decreases by 2%
(b) increases by 1%
(c) decreases by 1%
(d) increases by 2%.
5. In the case of damped motion the forces acted upon the particles are
(a) restoring force
(b) frictional force
(c) the external periodic force
(d) both restoring force and frictional force.
6. Hooke’s laws give us a relation between
(a) stress and strain
(b) Poisson’s ratio
(c) potential energy and height
(d) velocity and mass.
7. Relation between Young’s modulus Y and bulk modulus k and the
Poisson’s ratio σ is
(a) Y = 3k(1 + 2σ)
(b) k = Y(1 + 2σ)
(c) Y = 3k(1 – 2σ)
(d) k = 3Y(1 – 2σ).
8. Quartz and phosphor bronze are used for the suspension wires of
galvanometers because they
(a) are highly plastic
(b) are highly elastic

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 (c) have negligible elastic after effect
(d) have high elastic after effect.
9. Shearing strain is possible only in
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) both solids and liquids
(d) gases.
10. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio between
(a) rigidity modulus and Young’s modulus
(b) Young’s modulus and bulk modulus
(c) Young’s modulus and modulus of rigidity
(d) lateral strain and modulus of rigidity.
11. The Young’s modulus of rubber is
(a) zero
(b) 100 N/m2
(c) less than that for steel
(d) greater than that for steel.
12. For all materials the frictional force is always
(a) perpendicular to the direction of motion
(b) along the direction of motion
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(d) none of these.
13. For all materials the coefficient of friction is always
(a) less than one
(b) greater than one
(c) equal to one
(d) none of these.
14. Out of the following statements which one is not correct?
(a) the friction which comes into play when a body is sliding is known as
dynamic friction
(b) the friction which comes into play when the body does not move
though being pulled by a force is called static friction.
(c) the coefficient of static friction can be defined as equal to the tangent
of the angle of friction.
(d) the work done to overcome friction results in the large amount of
power loss.
15. When a body is moving along an inclined plane, the direction of frictional
force is always
(a) perpendicular to the direction of motion
(b) along the direction of motion
(c) opposite to the direction of motion
(d) none of these.
16. The coefficient of friction is minimum for
(a) static friction

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 (b) dynamic friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) both (a) and (b).
17. Moment of inertia of a body depends on its
(a) mass only
(b) axis of rotation only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
18. The work done by a torque in rotating a body about an axis is equal to the
change in
(a) rotational K.E. of the body
(b) moment of the momentum of the body
(c) translational K.E. of the body
(d) all are true.
19. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and same
diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top of an inclined
plane which will reach the bottom first
(a) the solid cylinder
(b) the hollow cylinder
(c) both will reach the same time
(d) none of these
20. When a charge is given to a soap bubble, it shows
(a) decrease in size
(b) no change in size
(c) an increase in size
(d) sometimes an increase and sometimes a decrease in size.
21. With rise of temperature which of the following forces can increase
(a) elastic force
(b) frictional force
(c) force due to surface tension
(d) viscous force.
22. What is surface tension of boiling water?
(a) zero
(b) 100 times that at 27°C
(c) infinity
(d) half of its value at room temperature.
23. Liquid drops always occupy minimum surface area on account of
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) refractive index
(d) gravitational energy
24. Small drops of mercury are practically spherical because of
(a) predominant S.T. force
(b) predominant gravitational force

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 (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) color of mercury.
25. Small liquid drops assume spherical shape because
(a) gravitational force acts upon the drop
(b) atmospheric pressure exerts a force on a liquid drop
(c) volume of spherical drop is minimum
(d) liquid tends to have the minimum surface area due to surface tension.
26. A drop of water breaks into two droplets of equal size. In this process which of
the following statements is correct.
(a) the sum of temperature of the two droplets together is equal to the original
temperature
(b) the sum of surface areas of the droplets is equal to the surface area of the
original drop
(c) the sum of masses of the droplets is equal to the original mass of the drop
(d) the sum of the radii of the two droplets is equal to the radius of the original
drop.
27. When sugar is added to water, the surface tension of sugar solution is
(a) more than that of water
(b) same as that of water
(c) less than that of water
(d) sometimes more and sometimes less than that of water.
28. In a human body the blood pressure is the greatest at
(a) brain
(b) hands
(c) Abdomen
(d) feet.
29. The value of Reynolds number signifies
(a) whether the flow is stream lined or turbulent
(b) high surface tension of the liquid
(c) whether the flow is vertical or horizontal
(d) all the above.
30. Viscosity is a transport phenomenon explained using the concept of transfer
of
(a) mass
(b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy
(d) momentum.
31. Viscosity is closely similar to
(a) density
(b) velocity
(c) friction
(d) surface tension.

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32. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) it will spread as a thin layer
(b) it will remain on it as sphere
(c) it will partly be spherical and partly a thin film
(d) it will float as a distorted drop on the water surface.
33. When a magnet is broken, each piece becomes a complete magnet because
(a) the number of electrons in one piece are different from that of the other
(b) each piece becomes a complete magnet since molecular magnets cannot be
broken
(c) the density of atoms in the pieces are different
(d) none of these.
34. Since the induced magnetic moments in a diamagnetic substance in a magnetic
field oppose the applied field, the diamagnetic susceptibility is
(a) negative
(b) small positive value
(c) zero
(d) large positive value.
35. For a diamagnetic substance the susceptibility is
(a) positive and very small
(b) positive and very large
(c) negative and very small
(d) zero.
36. All materials have
(a) paramagnetic property
(b) diamagnetic property
(c) ferromagnetic property
(d) ferri-magnetic property
37. Which of the following materials has a very high positive susceptibility?
(a) diamagnetic material
(b) ferromagnetic material
(c) paramagnetic material
(d) anti ferromagnetic material
38. The deflection at the centre of the tangent galvanometer is
(a) directly depending on the tangent of the deflection
(b) inversely depending on the tangent of the deflection
(c) directly depending on sin θ
(d) all the above are false.
39. The unit of relative permeability of a medium is
(a) henry
(b) no unit
(c) newton
(d) meter/sec.

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40. Substances having a net atomic or molecular magnetic dipole moment zero
(because atoms of several electrons with their orbital and spin magnetic
moments adding vectorially to zero) are called
(a) paramagnetic materials
(b) ferrites
(c) ferromagnetic materials
(d) diamagnetic materials.
41. Which of the following element is a dia-magnetic one?
(a) mercury
(b) iron
(c) BaTiO3
(d) nickel.
42. In paramagnetism
(a) the susceptibility varies inversely with temperature
(b) the susceptibility varies directly with temperature
(c) independent of temperature the susceptibility
(d) all the above are not true.
43. A hydrogen atom is paramagnetic and a hydrogen molecule is
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of these.
44. At Curie temperature
(a) ferromagnetism vanishes and the substance attains paramagnetic behavior
(b) ferromagnetism becomes dominant
(c) ferromagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
all the above are true
45. The magnetic elements of earth’s magnetic field are
(a) dip and magnetic induction
(b) total flux and declination
(c) horizontal intensity
(d) horizontal intensity, declination and dip.
46. The magnetic needle in a tangent galvanometer is short. This is
(a) to have the interaction between aluminum needle and magnetic needle is
small
(b) to have greater interaction between the two
(c) to bring the reading to zero
(d) to have both the poles in the same field due to the current in the coil.
47. If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, the
field in the core will be
(a) slightly greater since bismuth is paramagnetic
(b) remains the same
(c) slightly less since bismuth is diamagnetic
(d) all the above are untrue.

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48. The flux density describes the
(a) dimension of a magnet
(b) strength of the poles of a magnet
(c) distance between the two poles of a magnet
(d) none of the above.
49. A magnetic needle when kept in a non-
uniform magnetic field experiences
(a) a force but not a torque
(b) a torque but not a force
(c) neither a force nor a torque
(d) both a force and a torque.
50. When the distance between two charged particles is halved the coulomb force
between them becomes
(a) one fourth of the initial force
(b) four times the initial force
(c) double the initial force
(d) one-half of the initial force.
51. When a charged body is brought near an uncharged conductor on the insulating
stand,
(a) the nearer end of the conductor acquires the same charge while the farther
end opposite charge
(b) no charge is induced on the conductor
(c) the nearer end of the conductor acquires opposite charge and the farther end
the same charge
(d) none of the above is correct.
52. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) electrostatic force obeys inverse square law while gravitational force
does not
(b) both gravitational force and electrostatic force are repulsive in nature
(c) gravitational force is much weaker than electrostatic force
(d) all the above are true.
53. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser does not depend upon
(a) area of the plates
(b) medium between the plates
(c) distance between the plates
( d) nature of the material of the plates.
54. If a dielectric is placed between the plates, the capacitance
(a) decreases
(b) remains constant
(c) becomes zero
(d) increases

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55. Asymmetric molecules have permanent dipole moment even in the absence of
an external field. This is because
(a) in such molecules the centers of charges coincide
(b) in such molecules the centers of charges do not coincide
(c) in some cases they coincide and in other cases they do not coincide
(d) all the above statements are false.
56. Which one of the following is a polar molecule
(a)H2O
(b)H2
(c) O2
(d) CO2.
57. Potential difference between two points under the field of an electric charge is
the work done is moving a unit positive charge
(a) from ∞ to the mid-point of the line joining the points
(b) from the charge to ∞
(c) from one point to the other
(d) all the above are false.
58. The dipole moment of the water molecule is
(a) 108 Debye unit
(b) 8.84 Debye unit
(c) Zero Debye unit
(d) 1.84 Debye unit.
59. The dimensions of potential difference are
(a) MLT–2
(b) MLT 2
(c) ML2
(d) ML2T–3A–1.
60. Charge given to a conductor is
(a) directly proportional to the voltage
(b) inversely proportional to the voltage
(c) equal to the voltage
(d) none of these
61. Capacitor is a device used
(a) to conduct charges
(b) to store charges
(c) to reduce the potential difference
(d) to reduce the current.
62. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) When capacitors are connected in series, the effective capacitance will be
greater than the smallest individual capacitance
(b) The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by
increasing the separation of the plates
(c) When the condensers are connected in parallel the effective capacity will
be less than the individual capacitance

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 (d) all the above three statements are false.
63. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two
plates is reduced to one third and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance
(a) remains the same
(b) is doubled
(c) increases to five times
(d) increases to six times.
64. The e.m.f. of a cell is equal to the potential difference between its
terminals when it is in the open circuit i.e.,
(a) when a current of any value is drawn from the cell
(b) when a current of 2 amp current is drawn from the cell
(c) when no current is drawn from the cell
(d) all the above are true.
65. Which type of the following sources of energy is required to maintain
a p.d. in an electric circuit?
(a) chemical reactions as in cells
(b) rotating a coil in a magnetic field
(c) by converting light energy due to electrical energy
(d) all the above three sources.
66. The unit of electrical conductivity is
(a) ohm meter
(b) meter/ohm
(c) ohm/meter
(d) all the above are wrong.
67. The resistance R of a conductor depends on
(a) the density of the metal
(b) color of the metal
(c) molecular weight of the metal
(d) all the above are false.
68. The low temperature coefficient of a material is the one in which the
resistance
(a) increases slowly with decrease of temperature
(b) increases slowly with increase of temperature
(c) increases with increase of temperature
(d) increases with decrease of temperature.
69. Kirchhoff’s laws are presented as
(a) ΣI = 1, ΣIR = 0
(b) ΣIR = 0, ΣI = ΣE
(c) ΣI = 0, ΣIR = ΣE
(d) ΣR = 0, ΣI = 0.
70. The cause for the resistance in the conductor is due to
(a) vibration of electrons
(6) collisions of electrons on atoms

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 (c) magnitude of the charge of the electron
(d) none of these.
71. The current flowing through a conductor depends on
(a) quantity of charge carriers
(b) charge and voltage
(c) resistance and voltage
(d) resistance alone.
72. The material having negative temperature coefficient of resistance is
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silicon
(d) water.
73. A proton is moving perpendicular to a magnetic field
(a) gains momentum in opposite direction of motion
(b) the proton did not gain any momentum
(c) the magnetic field will not affect the motion of proton
(d) the proton bends to an arc of circle.
74. The probability of an electron colliding with an atom is higher if
(a) length and radius of the conductor are small
(b) length is small
(c) radius is large
(d) length of the conductor is higher and radius is smaller.
75. Constantan, nichrome and manganin are used for making standard resistance
because their
(a) resistivity is low
(b) density is high
(c) resistivity is high
(d) temperature coefficient of resistance is high.
76. A proton is 1849 times heavier than electron. At 300 K, the average random
velocity of the electron is
(a) 143 times that of the proton
(b) 123 times that of the proton
(c) 1849 times that of the proton
(d) 43 times that of the proton.
77. Though a number of charge carriers in a given volume remains
the same and independent in a metal, the resistivity of a metal
increases as the temperature increases because
(a) the mobility remains constant
(b) the mobility of the electron increases as temperature
increases
(c) the mobility of the electron decreases as the temperature
increases

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 (d) all the above are false.
78. Which device can convert all electrical energy into heat
(a) radiator
(b) convertor
(c) generator
(d) resistor.
79. The resultant flow of a current in the absence of an electric field in a
conductor is
(a) minimum
(b) zero
(c) maximum
(d) has a negative value.
80. The relation connecting the coefficient of thermal conductivity and electrical
conductivity is known as
(a) Boltzmann’s law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) Ohm’s law
(d) Wiedemann-Franz law.
81. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a
(a) high resistance in series
(b) low resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in parallel.
82. The principle of a transformer is
(a) self induction
(b) joule heating
(c) mutual induction
(d) Ohm’s law.
83. The frequency of the domestic power supply is of the order of
(a) 220 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 100 Hz
(d) 150 Hz.
84. A storage battery of e.m.f. 8 volt and internal resistance 0.5 Q is
being charged by a 120 volt d.c. supply using a series resistor of
15.5 Q. The terminal voltage of the battery during charging is
(a) 1.52 V
(b) 6.2 V
(c)2 V
(d) 11.5 V.

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 85. In a potentiometer set-up a cell of e.m.f. 1.25 volt gives a balance
point at 0.35 m length of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another
cell, and the balance point shifts to 0.63 m; what is the e.m.f. of the
second cell?
(a) 1.25 V
(b) 2.25 V
(c) 3.25 V
(d) 4.25 V.
86. A galvanometer scale is divided into 100 equal divisions and a current of
2.5 mA required to produce a full scale division. The current required to produce
a deflection of 40 division is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 3 mA
(c) 2 mA
(d) 1 mA.
87. The acceleration of an electron in an electric field of intensity 100
kV/m
(a) 100 x 102 m/s2
(b) 0.01 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.76 x 1016 m/s2
(d) 11.21 x1015 m/s2.
88. Current is flowing through a conductor of resistance 10 Q. Indicate in
which of the following cases maximum heat will be generated
(a) 4.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(b) 3.9 amp current for 3 minutes
(c) 1.0 amp current for 4 minutes
(d) 1 amp current for 5 minutes.
89. The resistance of the shunt to be used to divert 60% of the total
current is 200 Q. The resistance of the galvanometer is approximately
(a)733 a
(b)33 Q
(c)3.3 a
(d)133 a.
90. A superconductor at superconducting state
(a) requires larger power to carry even small current
(b) has no thermal losses but has high resistivity
(c) has no resistivity and no thermal losses associated with the
passage of large current
(d) all the above are true.
91. Masses of three wires of the same material are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and the
lengths in the ratio 3:2:1. Electrical resistance of these wires will be in the
ratio
(a) 27 : 6 : 1
(b) 1 : 27 : 6
(c) 1 : 2 : 3

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 (d) 27 : 54 : 2.
92. If a metallic rod has no p.d. applied across it, then the mean velocity of free
electron is
(a) proportional to absolute temperature
(b) inversely proportional to T
(c) directly proportional to jf
(d) directly proportional to T2.
93. A copper wire is subjected to a p.d. of V volt. If the p.d. is doubled
(a) the drift velocity is doubled
(b) the drift velocity remains the same
(c) the drift velocity is reduced to one fifth of the initial value
(d) the drift velocity is increased to 5 times the initial value.
94. A steady current is passing through a linear conductor of non-uniform
cross-section. The current density in the conductor is
(a) independent of the area of cross-section
(6) inversely proportional to the area of cross-section
(c) inversely proportional to the square of the area of cross-section
(d) all the above are false.
95. Two unequal resistances are connected in series across a battery. Which of
the following statements is true?
(a) potential difference across each resistance is same
(6) potential difference across smaller resistance is lower
(c) potential difference across smaller resistance is higher
(d) potential difference can be higher or lower in any resistance.
96. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is
(a) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
(b) greater than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
(c) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being discharged
(d) less than its e.m.f. if the cell is being charged
(e) is equal to its e.m.f. if the cell is in open circuit.

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