REASONING - MENTAL ABILITY - APTITUDE

1. ‘Captain' is related to a ‘Team' in the same way as ‘Director' is related to

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee
(3) Organisation (4) Union
(5) Customer
2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt (2) Child
(3) Father (4) Niece
(5) Relation
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
4. If ‘fork' is called ‘plate', ‘plate' is called 'knife', ‘knife' is called ‘jug', ‘jug' is called ‘glass', ‘glass' is called ‘cup' and ‘cup' is called ‘fork', by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon (2) jug
(3) glass (4) saucer
(5) none of these
5. If ‘a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to ‘Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY'?
(1) 33 (2) 40
(3) 37 (4) 73
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these
7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta (2) Geeta
(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting
to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal
(3) Raman (4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T' and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Two (4) None
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J
11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position
of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) None of these
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # (2) 7
(3) U (4) 9
(5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(1) G$M (2) K9Q
(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU
(5) PCI
16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means ‘he has won','le ki ba' means ‘she has lost' and ‘in se pe' means ‘he always won'. Which word in that language means
‘he'?
(1) in (2) pe
(3) se (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter
remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these
19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «
(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:
Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels,
i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise
on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go' advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice
(vi)
21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa (2) Kamal
(3) Aman (4) Priyanka
(5) None of these
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap
(5) Come-watch
23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go (2) Fun
(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches
(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these
25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates (2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30
p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these
28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 11 (4) 13
(5) 9
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be
the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi
news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9 (2) 21
(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in
each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer
will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these'.

Letters M Q I N E Y U G R

Numeric 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Codes

Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?
31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?
(3) 17328 (4) ?7328
(5) None of these
32. GENIR
(1) ?173? (2) 6%39
(3) 6%79 (4) 61739
(5) None of these
33. QUERI
(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?
(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?
(5) None of these
34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42
(3) 1374? (4) 1%43
(5) None of these
35. UNGRE
(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś
(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691
(5) None of these
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
41. How is ‘cricket' written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket' is written as ‘do si ha'.
II. ‘play cricket now' is written as ‘ha si ma'.
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
43. When is Rahul's birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house.
Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972
(3) 526 (4) 487
(5) 251
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) None of these
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two
(3) One (4) Three
(5) All five
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359
(3) 487 (4) 526
(5) 972
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of
the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526
(3) 487 (4) 251
(5) 359
Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)

6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)

11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)

16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)

21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)

26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)

31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)

36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)

41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)

46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)
This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we
will cover General Knowledge. Please read this carefully.
Part I : General Awareness
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
 74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part - I

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)

6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)

16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)

21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a)

26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)

31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)

36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)

46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)

51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)

56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)

61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (d)

66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a)

71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)

Thank you for you suggestion in improving and correcting the sample paper.

The National Sports Award’s committee, headed by legendary athlete PT Usha, has announced this year’s awardees.
Khel Ratna 2010: Saina Nehwal
Saina Nehwal, the top shuttler in India has been selected for the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2010. The world number 2 has been honoured with
the country’s highest sports award after performing exceptionally in international arena. She won the Indian Open Grand Prix, the Singapore Open and the
Indonesian Open back to back.
Saina, who won the Padma Awards last year, was the first Indian girl to reach the singles quarterfinals at the Olympics in Beijing. She is also the first Indian to win
the World Junior Badminton Championships.
Arjuna Awards 2010
Krishna Punia (athletics), Joseph Abraham (athletics), Dinesh Kumar (boxing), Parimarjan Negi (chess), Jhulan Goswami (cricket), Deepak Mondal (football), Sunil
Chettri (football), Rajiv Tomar (wrestling), Sandeep Singh (hockey), Jasjit Kaur (hockey), Jajseer Singh (paralympics), Dinesh (kabaddi), Kapil Dev (volleyball),
Rehan Poncha (swimming), Sanjeev Rajput (shooting).
S. No. Year Name of the Sportsperson(s) Sport Discipline

01 1991-92 Viswanathan Anand Chess

02 1992-93 Geet Sethi Billiards

03 1993-94 Not Conferred

04 1994-95 Cdr. Homi D. Motivala and Lt. Cdr. P. K. Garg Yachting (Team Event)

05 1995-96 Karnam Malleswari Weightlifting

Tennis and
06 1996-97 Leander Paes and Nameirakpam Kunjarani (Joint)
Weightlifting respectively

07 1997-98 Sachin Tendulkar Cricket

08 1998-99 Jyotirmoyee Sikdar Athletics

09 1999-2000 Dhanraj Pillay Hockey

10 2000-01 Pullela Gopichand Badminton

11 2001-02 Abhinav Bindra Shooting

Anjali Ved Pathak Bhagwat and Shooting and

12 2002-03
K. M. Beenamol (Joint) Athletics respectively

13 2003-04 Anju Bobby George Athletics

14 2004-05 Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore Shooting

15 2005-06 Pankaj Advani Billiards & Snooker

16 2006-07 Manavjit Singh Sandhu Shooting

17 2007-08 Mahendra Singh Dhoni Cricket

18 2008-09 Mary Kom Boxing

 Vijender Singh Boxing
Sushil Kumar Wrestling

18 2009-10 Saina Nehwal Badminton

Happy Learning!!

The OSCAR awards for 2010 were announced on March 07, 2010 in a ceremony held at Kodak Theatre, Hollywood. Officially the awards should be called the 82nd
Academy Awards.
There was a tough competition between “Avtar” and “The Hurt Locker”. Avtar failed to win the maximum awards and could only manage three against six of The
Hurt Locker. This reminded me of Slumdog Millionaire that won 8 awards in OSCAR Awards 2009.
Best Picture
The Hurt Locker
Best Director
Kathryn Bigelow (for The Hurt Locker)
Best Actor
Jeff Bridges (for Crazy Heart, as Otis "Bad" Blake)
Best Actress
Sandra Bullock (for The Blind Side, as Leigh Anne Tuohy)
Best Supporting Actor
Christoph Waltz (for Inglourious Basterds, as Col. Hans Landa)
Best Supporting Actress
Mo'Nique ( for Precious: Based on the Novel "Push" by Sapphire, as Mary Lee Johnston)
Best Original Screenplay
The Hurt Locker – Mark Boal
Best Adapted Screenplay
Precious: Based on the Novel "Push" by Sapphire – Geoffrey Fletcher from Push by Sapphire
Best Animated Feature
Up – Pete Docter
Best Foreign Language Film
El Secreto de Sus Ojos (Argentina) in Spanish – Juan José Campanella
Best Original Score
Up – Michael Giacchino
Best Original Song
"The Weary Kind (Theme from Crazy Heart)" from Crazy Heart – Ryan Bingham and T-Bone Burnett
Some Fact about Oscars 2010:
1. The Hurt Locker was the most successful film winning 6 OSCAR awards. It was followed by Avatar with 3 awards.
2. Avatar and The Hurt Locker received maximum number of nominations (9 each)
3. Inglourious Basterds was the second most nominated film (8 nominations)
4. Avatar was director James Cameron's first feature film since Titanic in 1997 which won a record-tying 11 Oscars.
5. The Hurt Locker’s Director Kathryn Bigelow is the first woman to win the Academy Award for Best Picture and Academy Award for Best Director. She is the
second American woman to be nominated for the second award, the other being Sofia Coppola for Lost in Translation in 2003.

Here is a Sample Paper for Corporation Bank Probationary Officer Exam. Its is based on the question paper set in the year 2007 for General Awareness on Socio-
Economic Developments section of the question paper. We hope you will find it helpful.
1.
Mr. Gordon Brown has taken over as the Prime Minister of –
(a) Italy
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) South Africa
(e) Britain
2.
Justice A.R.Lakshmanan’s name was recently in news as he has taken over as the-
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chairman of the 18th Law Commission
(c) Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(e) None of these
3.
Which of the following was the name of the space shuttle which brought Sunita Williams and few others on the earth recently?
(a) California
(b) Mir Space
(c) Boston Marathon
(d) Edwards
(e) Atlantis
4.
The Government of India recently announced a special Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana so that States can better their Agricultural output and performance. The size of
the package is around –
(a) Rs. 20,000 crore
(b) Rs. 25,000 crore
(c) Rs. 30,000 crore
(d) Rs. 35,000 crore
(e) Rs. 40,000 crore
5.
Which of the following organizations/agencies has recently floated a Private Equity (PE) Fund with an initial corpus of Rs. 100 crore to help its client to further
expand their business activities?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) ECGC
(d) IDBI Bank
(e) None of these
6.
Which of the following Software Companies recently launched its educational portal ‘Unlimited Potential’ in India?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Infosys
(c) Wipro
(d) TCS
(e) None of these
7.
Which of the following monuments of India is now one of the Seven New Wonders of the World?
(a) Mughal Garden of the Rashtrapati Bhawan
(b) Dal Lake of Srinagar
(c) Gol Gumbaj of Bijapur
(d) Victoria Memorial of Kolkata
(e) Taj Mahal
8.
The Indian Navy recently commissioned its new Warship ‘INS Jalashwa’. The ship is acquired from-
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Britain
(d) Germany
(e) U.S.A
9.
Which of the following activities does not form a part of the functions of a well established Banking Company?
(a) Liquidity Management
(b) Forex Management
(c) Outsourcing Back room operators
(d) Enhancing/Forecasting/Monitoring cash flow
(e) Frequency Modulation of Delivery channels
10.
A steeprise in the share prices of which of the following Group of Companies recently has made its Chairman India’s first only trillionire?
(a) Aditya Birla Group of Companies
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Tata Group of Companies
(d) Wipro
(e) None of these
11.
Which of the following events is not associated with the game of Tennis?
(a) French Open
(b) Australian Open
(c) US Open
(d) Formula Renault V-6
(e) Wimbledon
12.
Which of the following organizations has celebrated recently its silver jublie?
(a) ECGC
(b) State Bank of India
(c) SIDBI
(d) SEBI
(e) NABARD
13.
Who among the following cricketers completed 15,000 runs in ODIs?
(a) Rahul Dravid
(b) Ricky Ponting
(c) Brian Lara
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
(e) Sourav Ganguly
14.
Which of the following State Governments has set up a committee to consider the claim of the Gujjar community to be included in the list of scheduled tribes?
(a) Punjab
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
(e) Rajasthan
15.
With the purpose of raising capital in the share market, the first public issue of share of the company to the investors is called…………..
(a) Initial public proposal
(b) Inclusive proposal
(c) Mutual fund
(d) Haze fund
(e) None of these
16.
Who among the following chess players won the GM Open Championship, organized recently in Luxembourg?
(a) Vishwanath Anand
(b) Koneru Humpy
(c) K.Shashikaran
(d) P.Harikrishna
(e) None of these
17.
Which of the following events took place on July 21, 1969, which termed as ‘universal wonder’ in the human history?
(a) Landing of Appolo-II on moon
(b) Invention of atom bomb
(c) Invention of Super computer
(d) Heart transplant
(e) None of these
18.
Which of the following pairs of countries is the largest arms as per data issued by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute, Sweden?
(a) India-China
(b) China-Pakistan
(c) India-Pakistan
(d) Iran-China
(e) None of these
19.
Recently, Francisco Totty of Italy announced his retirement from international matches. Francisco Totty is a famous player of …………..
(a) Lawn Tennis
(b) Football
(c) Badminton
(d) Cricket
(e) Golf
20.
Finance Minister of India, recently, expressed his concern over the falt in production of food grains in India.
What has been the approximate quantity of food production during the last few years?
(a) 100 million tonnes
(b) 150 million tonnes
(c) 200 million tonnes
(d) 250 million tonnes
(e) 300 million tonnes
21.
What approximate amount of help has Mayawati sought from the Center to expedite the development of backward areas of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Rs. 50,000 crore
(b) Rs. 60,000 crore
(c) Rs. 70,000 crore
(d) Rs. 80,000 crore
(e) Rs. 1,00,000 crore
22.
Charges of corruption against the Chief Justice were dismissed and termination of his service was cancelled by the Supreme Court of which of the following
countries/
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) Iran
(e) None of these
23.
What percentage of rural income is obtained from agricultural activities of the country as per data given to press by the Union Finance Minister in an interview?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 43%
(e) 53%
24.
In which of the following States, the Government of India is planning to set up a ‘National Institute of Handloom Technology’?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Orissa
(e) None of these
25.
‘Novartis’ a Swiss based firm is operating in India in big way- Novartis has its business in which of the following sectors in India?
(a) Textile
(b) Diamond Mining
(c) Pharma
(d) Paper Newsprint
(e) Steel and Iron
ANSWERS:
1. (e), 2. (b), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b), 6. (a), 7. (e), 8. (e), 9. (e), 10. (b)
11. (d), 12. (e), 13. (d), 14. (e), 15. (a), 16. (b), 17. (a), 18. (a), 19. (b), 20. (c)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (a), 24. (e), 25. (c)

Here is a sample paper for SBI Clerk Recruitment 2009 that will give you an idea about type of questions asked in the GJ section of the exam.
1. Which of the following places was known as a centre of learning in ancient India?
(1) Nalanda
(2) Ujjain
(3) Allahabad
(4) None of these
2. The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of the particles themselves is called.
(1) conduction
(2) convection
(3) radiation
(4) None of these
3. Only zero and one are used for operating
(1) Calculator
(2) Computer
(3) Abacus
(4) Typewriter
4. Transistor is
(1) semi-conductor
(2) inductor
(3) modulator
(4) demodulator
5. Computer cannot
(1) send message
(2) abstract thought
(3) read files
(4) play music
6. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
(1) Wax
(2) Starch
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose
7. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
(1) Vit. B
(2) Vit. C
(3) Vit. A
(4) Vit. E
8. Which of the following is the vaccine for tuberculosis?
(1) OPT
(2) BCG
(3) Salk vaccine
(4) Rubella vaccine
9. Horns, nails and hair are
(1) soluble fats
(2) insoluble carbohydrates
(3) keratin proteins
(4) complex lipids
10. Who conducts the State Assembly Elections?
(1) Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
(2) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(3) Chief Election Commissioner
(4) Governor of the State concerned
11. Which is an ore of aluminum?
(1) Chromite
(2) Cuprite
(3) Bauxite
(4) Siderite
12. Kalidas was
(1) a poet during the Gupta period.
(2) a dramatist during Harshvardhana’s reign.
(3) an astronomer during Gupta period.
(4) None of these
13. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
(1) Plain
(2) Convex
(3) Concave
(4) Spherical
14. The compilation Meri Ekyawan Kavitayen is by
(1) A.N. Vajpayee
(2) Harivanshrai Bachchan
(3) Dharam Vir Bharti
(4) Shiv Mangal Singh Suman
15. ‘Equinox’ means
(1) days are longer than nights.
(2) days and nights are equal.
(3) days are shorter than nights
(4) None of these
16. Who was known as “Nightingale of India”?
(1) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Suraiya
(4) None of these
17. Gaya is associated with Lord Buddha, where he
(1) was born
(2) attained enlightenment
(3) died
(4) delivered his first sermon
18. Chemical change does not take place in
(1) souring of milk into curd
(2) rusting of iron in atmosphere
(3) burning of magnesium ribbon in air
(4) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire
19. Who is the highest wicket-taker in Indian Cricket team?
(1) Javagal Srinath
(2) Anil Kumble
(3) Maninder Singh
(4) Kapil Dev
20. Which country leads in production of aluminum and aluminum goods?
(1) Austriala
(2) The US
(3) Russia
(4) Japan
21. The Nathu La Pass, which has increased Indian trade with a neighbour, lies between India and which country?
(1) Pakistan
(2) Bhutan
(3) Nepal
(4) China
(5) Tibet
22. The Banking Codes and Standards Boards has been formed to provide fair treatment to:
(1) Employees’ Unions
(2) Member Banks
(3) Officers
(4) SBI
(5) Customers
23. In India, the CRR at present is approximately:
(1) less than 5%
(2) 10% to 15%
(3) 5% to 10%
(4) 20%
(5) 35%
24. The present salary of an MP is (Rs per month)
(1) 2,500
(2) 5,000
(3) 7,500
(4) 15,000
(5) 16,000
25. Which river was recently found to be the longest?
(1) Amazon
(2) Nile
(3) Mississippi
(4) Ganga
(5) Yangtze Kiang
26. The highest Indian mountain-peak is:
(1) Mt Everest
(2) Nanga Parbat
(3) Dhaulagiri
(4) Godwin Austin
(5) Annapurna
27. Basel II norms will lead to:
(1) Capital A/c convertibility
(2) Better Stock Exchanges
(3) Better CRR
(4) Increased savings
(5) None of these
28. Rice is which kind of crop?
(1) Rabi
(2) Evergreen
(3) Kharif
(4) Inter-seasonal
(5) Monsoon
29. ‘Jog falls’ are in:
(1) Kerala
(2) J & K
(3) U.P.
(4) Uttaranchal
(5) Karnataka
30. The capitals of the new States Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttaranchal are:
(1) Raipur, Ranchi, Dehradun
(2) Ranchi, Patna, Nainital
(3) Raniganj, Patna, Dehradun
(4) Patna, Raipur, Nainital
(5) None of the above
ANSWER KEY
1) (1), 2) (1), 3) (2), 4) (1), 5) (2), 6) (1), 7) (3), 8) (2), 9) (3), 10) (3)
11) (3), 12) (1), 13) (2), 14) (1), 15) (2), 16) (2), 17) (2), 18) (4), 19) (2), 20) (2)
21) (4), 22) (5), 23) (2), 24) (5), 25) (1), 26) (2), 27) (1), 28) (5), 29) (5), 30) (1)
The Padma Vibhushan is India's second highest civilian award after the Bharat Ratna. Next in order are Padma Bhusan and Padma Shri. It was established on
January 02, 1954.
Award Categories:
The award is given in recognition of exceptional and distinguished service to the nation in any field, including government services.
The Award Includes:
It consists of a medal and a citation and is awarded by the President of India.
Padma Awards 2010:
President of India presented Six Padma Vibhushans, 43 Padma Bhushans and 81 Padma Shris in the year 2010.
Padma Vibhushan:
1. Sh. Ebrahim Alkazi (Art)
2. Sh. Umayalpuram K. Sivaraman (Art)
3. Smt. Zohra Segal (Art)
4. Dr. Yaga Venugopal Reddy (Public Affairs)
5. Dr. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan (Science and Engineering)
6. Dr. Prathap Chandra Reddy (Trade and Industry)
Clerical Recruitment
Conducted By:
Andhra Bank
Conducted in:
Dec 2007
Topic:
Part IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE)
Number of Questions:
50
Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life
savage tribals, deserts and barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few
who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their
respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner
who tried to help mankind with it.
Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an
unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned
to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.
He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of
the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had
died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honour.
151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?
(1) For expanding his empire
(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent
(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals
(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature
(5) None of these
152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?
(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals' society
(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river
(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous
(4) It badly affected his health
(5) None of these
153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?
(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him
(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses
(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses
(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional
(5) None of these
154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?
(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs
(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests
(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals
(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved
(5) None of these
155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?
(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world
(2) A person with religious mindset
(3) A social reformer
(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner
(5) A famous priest popular among the British
156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?
(a) A river in Western Luanda
(b) Scotland
(c) The origin of river Nile
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a) only
(5) (b) only
157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?
(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone's dead body.
(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.
(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) only
(5) (c) only
158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result
(a) People in the world lost contact with him
(b) His whereabouts were not known.
(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.
 (1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (a) and (b) only
(5) None of these
159. In what way Livingstone's exploration efforts were different from those of others?
(1) Livingstone's exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests
(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world
(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes
(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population
(5) None of these
Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
160. REST
(1) remainder
(2) relax
(3) respite
(4) discovery
ost
161. EXPLORATION
(1) execution
(2) cultivation
(3) foundation
(4) discovery
(5) assimilation
162. TURNED
(1) rotated
(2) twisted
(3) spinned
(4) revolved
(5) arrived
Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
163. DENSE
(1) crowed
(2) dark
(3) sparse
(4) transparent
(5) opaque
164. BARREN
(1) uncultivated
(2) fertile
(3) forest
(4) unlevelled
(5) marshy
165. VAST
(1) miniature
(2) magnified
(3) enormous
(4) gigantic
(5) small
Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)
167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)
168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)
169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.
(4) /No error (5)
170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)
171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)
172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)
173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)
174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)
175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.
(1) obvious
(2) uncertain
(3) definite
(4) regular
(5) essential
177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.
(1) demand
(2) abundance
(3) peak
(4) excessive
(5) dearth
178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.
(1) rude
(2) obedient
(3) docile
(4) intolerant
(5) immature
179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.
(1) buy
(2) work
(3) submit
(4) pay
(5) decide
180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.
(1) that
(2) who
(3) whom
(4) which
(5) those
Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and
(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. "All Correct"
as the answer.
181. (1) Discloser
(2) Indifference
(3) Cooperative
(4) Irreversible
(5) All Correct
182. (1) Repetition
(2) Conservative
(3) Acceptability
(4) Innovative
(5) All Correct
183. (1) Vigilant
(2) Judilee
(3) Receptive
(4) Possessive
(5) All Correct
184. (1) Decisive
(2) Destructive
(3) Accommodation
(4) Pioneer
(5) All Correct
185. (1) Compromising
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Dislocation
(4) Immigration
(5) All Correct
Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.
(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.
(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.
(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.
(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.
(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.
186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B
Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each
five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant
positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196)
his works.
Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have
(197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded "Padma Bhushan", Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so
much (200).
191. (1) famous
(2) magnificent
(3) decisive
(4) renewed
(5) glorious
192. (1) insecure
(2) absolute
(3) overt
(4) incompetent
(5) efficient
193. (1) creating
(2) developing
(3) encouraging
(4) holding
(5) appointing
194. (1) magnifying
(2) growing
(3) improving
(4) judging
(5) deciding
195. (1) prospered
(2) won
(3) acquired
(4) made
(5) donated
196. (1) analysed
(2) appreciated
(3) cooperated
(4) recommended
(5) curtailed
197. (1) given
(2) registered
(3) conferred
(4) passed
(5) dictated
198. (1) aspires
(2) enjoys
(3) dedicates
(4) believes
(5) continues
199. (1) reason
(2) aim
(3) perspective
(4) way
(5) essence
200. (1) fame
(2) respect
(3) reputation
(4) disregard
(5) limelight
ANSWERS
151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)

1. If the following alphabets were written in the reverse order, which would be the fourth letter to the right of the fifteenth letter from the left?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
1. G
2. H
3. I
4. S
5. None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Ears
2. Hands
3. Fingers
4. Eyes
5. Legs
3. How many 4’s immediately preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 7 are there in the following series of numbers?
5487495477455465475473247
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. None of these
4. If the first and second letters in the word ‘COMMUNICATIONS’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on,
which letter would be the tenth letter counting from your right?
1. U
2. A
3. T
4. N
5. None of these
5. Lokesh remembers that his brother Laxman’s birthday falls after 20th of August but before 28th of August, while Rita remember that Laxman’s birthday falls
before 22nd of August but after 12th of August. On what date Laxman’s birthday falls?
1. 20th August
2. 21st August
3. 22nd August
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. 12
2. 13
3. 15
4. 18
5. 26
7. In a certain code ‘BELOW’ is written as ‘FCKVN’. How is ‘GIVEN’ written in that code?
1. JHWMD
2. HJUMD
3. JHMUD
4. JHUMD
5. None of these
8. In a certain code ‘2 5 6’ means ‘Red Colour Chalk’, ‘ 5 8 9’ means ‘Green Colour Flower’ and ‘ 2 4 5’ means ‘White Colour Chalk’. What digit in the code means
‘White’?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
9. If the following words were rearranged in alphabetical order as in a dictionary, which will come in the middle?
1. Plane
2. Plain
3. Plenty
4. Player
5. Place
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Bud
2. Branch
3. Leaf
4. Root
5. Plant
11. ‘Needle’ is related to ‘Clock’ as ‘Wheel’ is related to…?
1. Drive
2. Vehicle
3. Circular
4. Move
5. Road
12. Two letters in the word ‘PRESENCE’ have as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the alphabet and in the same order. Which one
of the two letters comes earlier in the alphabet?
1. C
2. E
3. R
4. P
5. None of these
13. Rakesh is standing at a point. He walks 20 m towards the East and further 10 m towards the South; then he walks 35 m towards the West; and further 5 m
towards the East. What is the straight distance in metres between his starting point and the point where he reached last?
1. 0
2. 5
3. 10
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
14. Which of the following pairs of letters should come in the place of question mark(?) in the twin letter series given below?
BY IQ NK QG ?
1. RF
2. TF
3. RE
4. SE
5. None of these
15. If '+' means '/', '/' means '-', '-' means 'x' and 'x' means '+' then
48 + 16 / 4 – 2 x 8 = ?
1. 3
2. 6
3. -28
4. 112
5. None of these
Answers
1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 1, 4. 4, 5. 2, 6. 2, 7. 4, 8. 2, 9. 1, 10. 5, 11. 2, 12. 4, 13. 2, 14. 3, 15. 1

6. Which of the following is in the context of the passage ?

(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for
the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the
children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple
11.
(A) cold
(B) numb
(C) shivered
(D) stood still
(E) chill
(B) depends on
(C) being dependent
(D) going to depend
(E) No correction required
17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of
(B) was feared to
(C) was afraid to
(D) had been afraid to
(E) No correction required
18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all
participants.
(A) any of the place convenient
(B) at places convenient
(C) from a place of convenience
(D) to a place convenient
(E) No correction required
19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of
(B) as sharp a rise
(C) sharp rises in
(D) sharply rising
(E) No correction required
20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit
(B) required for submission
(C) are required to submit
(D) requirement of submitting
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them—
1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I
came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?
2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are
significant even if all you do is greet them.”
3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
5. I have never forgotten this lesson.
6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would
count for assessment.
21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are
correctly spelt and are

appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.

26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the
organization. All correct (E)
27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern
(D) . All correct (E)
28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents
(D) in the long run. All correct (E)
29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done
strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)
30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike
(C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)
31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers
(C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)
32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No
error (E)
33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C)
/ many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)
34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from
RBI. (D) No error (E)
35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products
and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)
36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily
(C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)
37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease
his boss. (D) No error (E)
38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre
of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)

P a g e | 150
39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary
true. (D) No error (E)
40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing
management. (D) No error (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled
into one. As a leader, he …(41)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and
he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to
everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was
…(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was
…(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich
…(47)… when the plant was commissioned.
Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be
‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of
Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their
lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.
41. (A) achieved
(B) implemented
(C) visualised
(D) persevered
(E) aimed
42. (A) moved
(B) shifts
(C) missed
(D) changes
(E) lost
43. (A) Contrary
(B) Opposite
(C) Yet
(D) Obedient
(E) Different
44. (A) any
(B) mean
(C) short
(D) no
(E) less

P a g e | 151
45. (A) known
(B) calculating
(C) certain
(D) dreamt
(E) surely
46. (A) operational
(B) install
(C) use
(D) produced
(E) new
47. (A) supply
(B) diversity
(C) rewards
(D) pay
(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought
(B) tried
(C) wished
(D) encourage
(E) wanted
49. (A) expand
(B) function
(C) chose
(D) run
(E) risk
50. (A) responsibility
(B) secret
(C) guarantee
(D) prize
(E) value
Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E)
6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
26. (A) Correct spelling is ‘goal’.
27. (C) Correct spelling is ‘cause’.

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sbi bank po solved paper of 27-04-2008
Posted on May 10, 2008. Filed under: bank po solved paper | Tags: sbi bank clerk 2008, SBI BANK P.O. |

FREE MORE QUESTION OF SBI CLERK AND PO ON : http://indiaknow.blogspot.com

1. As per the reports in the newspapers what has been the average growth of GDP during 10th plan period (2002-2007) ?
(A) 9 %
(B) 9.3 %
(C) 8 %
(D) 8.7 %
(E) 7.6 %
Ans (E)
2. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the Union Budget 2008-09 presented in the Lok Sbha in February 2008 ?
(1) Defence allocation is increased by 10% to reach more than Rs. 1,00,000 crore.
(2) National Rural Guarantee Act is extended to all the rural districts.
(3) Debt Waiver Scheme launched to help all farmers irrespective of their land holdings.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. Which of the following States has been declared 2008 as the “Year of Education” ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
4. Who amongst the following is selected as the “Banker of the year 2007″ by the Business Standard ?
(A) M.V.Kamath
(B) K.C.Chakrabarty
(C) Anil Khandelwal
(D) O.P.Bhatt
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
5. Which of the following is /are not the constituent sector(s) of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India ?
(1) Agriculture & allied activities
(2) Foreign Exchange Reserve
(3) Industry
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1,2 & 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2
Ans (E)
6.What is “H5N1″ a term , which was very much in news recently ?
(A) It is a category of Visa provided by the USA fOR STUDENTS.
(B) It is the name of the virus which cause Bird flu
(C) It is the code name of India’s space Mission 2010.
(D) It was the name of the military operation launched by Sri Lanka against LTTE.
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following State Govts. launched a Rs. 40,000 crore “Ganga Expressway Project” ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans (E)
8. Which of the following countries is going to elects its first 47 member parliament for the first time in the history of the country ?
(A) Butan
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
9. “World Day for Water” was observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 22nd January
(B) 22nd February
(C) 22nd March
(D) 22nd April
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
10. sunita Williams is the recipient of which of the following awards given away recently ?
(A) Woman of the year 2007
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(D) Pravasi India Award 2007
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. The Fifth National Winter Games were organized in -
(A) Jaipur
(B) Gulmarg
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Chennai
(E) Delhi
Ans (B)
12. Who amongst the following won the Men’s single title of Australian Open Tennis 2008 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Jo-Wilfried Tsonga
(C) Jonathan Erlich
(D) Andy Ram
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
13. Which of the following films won the best Film Award in 65th Golden Globe Awards ceremony ?
(A) Away from her
(B) Atonement
(C) No Country for Old Men
(D) I’m Not there
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
14. Rahul Banerjee won which of the following Natioanl Senior Champioship held in January 2008 ?
(A) Badminton
(B) Chess
(C) Archery
(D) Golf
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
15. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel “Without Dreams” ?
(A) Shahbano Bilgrami
(B) Saeed Mirza
(C) Javed Akhtar
(D) Shabana Azmi
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
16. The —— of a system includes the programs or instructions.
(A) Hardware
(B) Icon
(C) Information
(D) Software
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
17.The copy command saves to-
(A) The Desktop
(B) The Clipboard
(C) Microsoft Word
(D) Paste
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B
12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:
36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:
57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D
58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E