Ccna RS 29 November 2019 PDF

CCNA RS 200-125 SPOTO
Number: 200-125
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Sections
1. Choise
2. Drag&Drop
3. LAB
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? Choose two
A. VRRP
B. VSS
C. StackWise
D. GLBP
E. HSRP
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about router R1 are true? Choose two
A. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes.

B. The router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42.9
C. At least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router
D. The router has two EIGRP neighbors and one OSPF neighbor.
E. At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
A. performance
B. control
C. management
D. data
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?
A. ip ospf hello-interval seconds

B. router ospfv2 process-id
C. router ospf value
D. router ospf process-id
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to bypass the spanning-tree Forward and Delay timers?
A. spanning-tree portfast
B. spanning-tree portfast bpdufiter default
C. spanning-tree portfast default
D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? Choose two
A. source IP address
B. header
C. type
D. frame check sequence
E. destination IP address
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which two tasks can help you gather relevant facts when you troubleshoot a network problem? Choose two
A. Collect technical data from network management systems and logging servers.
B. Change one setting or component and then analyze the result.
C. Ask questions of the users who are affected by the problem.
D. Eliminate known issues first.
E. Define the problem in terms of symptoms and causes.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which command should you use to display detailed information about EBGP peers?
A. show ip bgp paths

B. show ip bgp
C. show ip bgp neighbors
D. show ip bgp summary
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 9
What are two common types of copper cable? Choose two
A. single-mode
B. OM4
C. multimode
D. unshielded twisted pair
E. shielded twisted pair
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which port status does the interface enter when UDLD detects a unidirectional link?
A. down/down
B. errdisables
C. shutdown
D. up/up
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10

B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100
C. It drops the traffic
D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit Which VLAN ID is associated with the native VLAN?
A. VLAN 20
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 10
D. VLAN 1
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which type of frame is larger than 9000 bytes?
A. runt
B. giant
C. baby giant
D. jumbo
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
A. Ildp reinit 5
B. Ildp timer 5000
C. lldp reinit 5000
D. Idp holdtime 5
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which command must you use to test DNS connectivity?
A. show interfaces
B. telnet
C. show hosts
D. ipconfig
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which effect does the switchport trunk native vlan 10 command have?
A. It sets VLAN 10 as the native VLAN on the trunk.
B. It configures the interface as a trunk portasid
C. It prevents traffic on VLAN 1 from passing on the trunk.
D. It allows traffic from native VLAN 10 on the trunk.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which two TCP messages use a 32-bit number as part of the initial TCP handshake? Choose two
A. RST
B. SYN-ACK
C. ACK
D. FIND
E. SYN
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 18
How does a Cisco IP phone handle untagged traffic that it receives from an attached PC?
A. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.
D. It drops the traffic.
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QoS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
A. LLDP
B. EEM
C. CDP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which feature or protocol must you enable so that the output of the show interfaces trunk command includes information native VLAN mismatches?
A. PortFast
B. CDP
C. RSTP
D. DTP
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 21
Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? Choose two
A. external local
B. inside private
C. inside global
D. outside private
E. external global
F. inside local
Correct Answer: CF
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 22
SW1
interface F0/0
switchport mode access switchport access vlan 5
interface F0/1
switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allow vlan 5-20
switchport trunk native vlan 10
SW2
interface F0/0
switchport mode access switchport access vlan 5
interface F0/1
switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allow vlan 1-4, 10-20
switchport trunk native vlan 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration?

A. Traffic from PC A is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
B. Traffic from PC B is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
C. Traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
D. Traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which task should you perform before you use APIC-EM Path Trace tools to perform ACL analysis?
A. Verify that the devices of interest are included in the device inventory.
B. Configure the IP address from which to generate the trace.
C. Execute a standard traceroute to the destination.
D. Verify that DNS is configured on the controller.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which two protocols does the internet layer in the TCP/IP model encapsulate? Choose two
A. ARP
B. SMTP
C. ICMP
D. DNS
E. TCP
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which command must you use to verify hostname-to-IP-address mapping information?
A. show sessions
B. show arp
C. show mac-address-table
D. show hosts
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which two pins does an RJ-45 connector use to transmit data? Choose two
A. 69
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
E. 2
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which IOS troubleshooting tool should you use to direct system messages to your screen?
A. log events
B. local SPAN
C. terminal monitor
D. APIC-EM
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. 1005
B. 0
C. 4096
D. 1006
E. 1
Correct Answer: AE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 29
You notice that packets that are sent from a local host to well-know service on TCP port 80 of a remote host are sometimes lost. You suspect an ACL issue. Which two APIC-EM Path trace ACL analysis options should you use to troubleshoot
the problem? Choose two
A. Debug
B. Destination port
C. Qos
D. Performance Monitor
E. Protocol
Correct Answer: AB
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Refer to the Exhibit. When PC 1 send a packet to PC 2.The packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on route R2?
A. Source 192.168/10/10 and destination 10.10.22

B. Source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
C. Source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
D. Source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 31
According to security best practices, which two actions must you take to protect an unused switch port? Choose two
A. Administratively shutdown the port.

B. Configure the port as a trunk port.
C. Configure the port to automatically come online.
D. Configure the port as an access port on a VLAN other than VLAN 1.
E. Enable CDP
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which two statements correctly describe distance-vector routing protocols? Choose two
A. they require quick network convergence to support normal operations

B. they specify the next hop toward the destination subnet
C. they generate a complete topology of the network
D. they update other devices on the network when one device detects a topogy chage
E. they use a variety of metrics to identify the distance to a destination network.
Correct Answer: BD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 33
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? Choose three
A. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
D. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
E. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field. 9 E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
Correct Answer: BCE

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? Choose two
A. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol

B. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing
C. They determine the optimal path within an autonomous system
D. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems
E. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? Choose two
A. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface.

B. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template.
C. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface.
D. Define a virtual template interface.
E. Define a dialer interface.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which two statements about MPLS are true? Choose two
A. It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header.

B. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic.
C. It provides automatic authentication.
D. It can carry mutiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6.
E. It tags customer traffic using 802.1q
Correct Answer: BD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Frame flooding can occur in which circumstance?
A. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table.

B. The source MAC address is missing from the CAM table.
C. The destination IP address is missing from the route table.
D. The source IP address is missing from the route table.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? Choose three
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
C. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
D. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
E. The tunnel interface is down.2019 7220:19 12120-9 72120-1972 F. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
A. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

B. show ipv6 eigrp topology
C. show ipv6 eigrp events
D. show ipv6 eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 addresses are configured on a single interface?
A. the highest prefix on the interface

B. all prefixes on the interface
C. the prefix that administrator configures for OSPFv3 use
D. the lowest prefix on the interface
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. It queues traffic without buffering it.

B. It drops packets to control the output rate.
C. It buffers traffic without queuing it.
D. It buffers and queues excess packets.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which two statements about RFC 1918 address are true? Choose two
A. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet.
B. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet.
C. They increase network performance.
D. They must be registered.
E. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure connections and strong authentication?
A. Switch>ssh-v1-1 admin 10.1.1.1

B. Switch#ssh-I admin 10.1.1.1
C. Router#ssh-v1- admin 10.1.1.1
D. Router>ssh-v2-1 admin 10.1.1.1
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
A. NTP
B. EEM
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers on this network run RIPV2, which configuration should you apply router R3 to produce this routing table
A. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
distance 70
passive-interface default
B. router rip
version 2
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.23.0
distance 50
C. router rip
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
distance 50
D. router rip
network 192.168.3.0
network 192.168.4.0
network 192.168.23.0
passive-interface default
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which the London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
A. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1
B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
D. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: E
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which two statements about static routing are true? Choose two
A. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet

B. It allows packets to transit a different path if the topology changes.
C. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.
D. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration.
E. Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? Choose three
A. brute force attacks

B. spoofing attacks
C. botnet attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. ARP attacks
F. DDOS attacks
Correct Answer: BDE

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 49
A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast enabled. Which state does the interface enter when it receives a BPDU?
A. listening
B. errdisable
C. shutdown
D. blocking
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? Choose three
A. data link
B. presentation
C. transport
D. network
E. application
F. sessions
Correct Answer: BEF

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. If the router attempts to send a frame out of the interface, but the carrier is busy, which counter will increment?
A. late collision
B. deferred
C. lost carrier
D. collisions
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Which two statements about NTP operations are true? Choose two
A. NTP uses UDP over IP

B. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers
C. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients
D. NTP uses TCP over IP
E. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients
Correct Answer: AE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? Choose two
A. whether a route was learned via IGP or EGP

B. the interface on which traffic is sent
C. whether a route was tagged
D. whether access lists are blocking incoming routes
E. whether routes were summarized
Correct Answer: AE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 54
Which port security violation mode drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses and sends an SNMP trap?
A. shutdown
B. shutdown VLAN
C. restrict
D. protect
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which two options are primary responsibilties of the APIC-EM controller? Choose two
A. it automates network actions between different device types.

B. it automates network actions between legacy equipment.
C. it makes network functions programmable.
D. it provides robust asset management.
E. it tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. preamble
B. Type field
C. Data field
D. start of frame delimiter
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?
A. Class C
B. Class B
C. Class D
D. Class A
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 58
What is the default Syslog facility level?
A. local6
B. local7
C. local5
D. local4
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 59
What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192.168.2.1?
A. Add a static route for host 192.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router.
B. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1
C. Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1
D. Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
A. PPP
B. HDLC
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
A. standby 10 version 1
B. standby 10 version 2
C. standby 10 priority 150
D. standby 10 preempt
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?
A. show ip dhcp server statistics

B. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12
C. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12
D. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? Choose two
A. file transfer server

B. authoritative name server
C. ESX host
D. name resolver
E. web server
Correct Answer: BD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? Choose two
A. It is more secure than AAA authentication.

B. It can run on a UNIX server.
C. It uses a managed database
D. It authenticates against the user database on the local device.
E. It is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which cloud service that usually provides software beyond the basic operating system is normally used for development?
A. software-as-a-service
B. platforms-as-a-service
C. infrastructure-as-a-service
D. database-as-a-service
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN connections? Choose two
A. Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections
B. Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than single-homed connections
C. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections
D. Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single-homed connections
E. Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 67
Which two pieces of information about a cisco device can cisco discovery protocol communication? choose two
A. the VTP domain

B. the trunking protocol
C. the spanning tree priorty
D. the native VLAN
E. the spanning tree protocol
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 68
Which keyboard shortcut can you use to exit the System Configuration Dialog on a Cisco networking device and return to privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
A. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
B. Shift-Esc
C. Ctrl-C
D. Ctrl-V
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 69
After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. Clients on VLAN 10 are given IP address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP addresses Which action must you take to correct the
problem?
A. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP sever configuration

B. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20
C. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
D. Configure the ip helper-address command in the DHCP server configuration
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 70
Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches? choose two
A. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.
B. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
C. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails
D. Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
E. You can license the entire stack with a single master license
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? Choose two
A. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
B. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170.
C. There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
D. Ten routes are equally load balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
E. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?
A. ARP
B. PAT
C. TETP
D. RARP
E. SFTP
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the Loopback interface to the BGP peers?
A. network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

B. network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
C. network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
D. network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
E. network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
F. network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?
A. five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface.

B. one secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.
C. a syslog message is generated when a violation occurs
D. one secure MAC address is dynamically learned on the intertace.
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? Choose two
A. the lowest switch priority

B. the lowest system ID
C. the highest port priority
D. the lowest MAC address
E. the highest MAC address
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Which definition of a host route is true?
A. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing

B. a route that is manually configured
C. a route to the exact/32 destination address
D. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?
A. WLAN controller
B. load balancer
C. intrusion prevention device
D. firewall
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the servers at a remote site. When you troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the servers from router R2. What is the most likely reason
that the other users are experiencing connection failure?
A. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch.
B. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
C. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted.
D. Interface ports are shut down on the remote servers.
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 79
which network appliance check the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
A. The LAN controller

B. The firewall
C. The layer 2 switch
D. The load balanced
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 80
You apply a new inbound access list to routers, blocking UDP packets to the HSRP group. Which two effects does this action have on the HSRP group process? Choose two
A. Both the active and standby routers become active.

B. The routers in the group generate duplicate IP address warnings.
C. HSRP redundancy fails.
D. HSRP redundancy works as expected.
E. The active router immediately becomes the standby router.
Correct Answer: AB
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 81
Which feature can cause a port to shut down immediately after a switch reboot?
A. PortFast
B. DTP
C. COPP
D. port security
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 82
What happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination MAC address after the MAC aging time expires.
A. It is process switched
B. It is queued
C. It is dropped
D. It is flooded
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open standard protocol? Choose two
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto
C. interface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
D. interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
E. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? Choose two
A. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.

B. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
C. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
D. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
E. It is bandwidth-intensive.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 85
which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated with connected devices?
A. show cdp interface

B. show cdp traffic
C. show cdp neighbors detail
D. Show cdp neighbors
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 86
Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? Choose two
A. Implement an action plan.

B. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes.
C. Gather all the facts.
D. Analyze the results.
E. Monitor and verify the resolution.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 87
which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
A. FF02::4
B. FF02::1
C. FF02::3
D. FF02::2
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 88
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? Choose three
A. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.
B. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
C. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.
D. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.
F. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
Correct Answer: BCD

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
A. TCPv6
B. ARP
C. NHRP
D. CLNS
E. NDP
Correct Answer: E
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Which value is used to build the CAM table?
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. destination MAC address
D. destination IP address
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 91
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?
A. it routes the packet to the default route.

B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. it discards the packet.
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? Choose two
A. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
E. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
F. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
G. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
Correct Answer: AG
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit the server on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216, and the two interface on router R1 are configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000, as shown, what is the largest packet size that can pass between the workstation
and the server?
A. 2000 bytes
B. 9216 bytes
C. 1500 bytes
D. 3000 bytes
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 94
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address,
which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? Choose two
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.252.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 255.255.255.128
F. 255.255.255.192
Correct Answer: EF
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 95
Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? Choose two
A. It uses UDP.
B. It can identify the source of an ICMP "time exceeded" message.
C. It uses ICMP.
D. It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device.
E. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

2950 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1 What two function will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? Choose two
A. All frame arriving on 2950 Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1
B. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0.1 but frames arriving from other switches wil not be forward out fa0/1
C. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded our fa0/1
D. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1
E. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch
F. The mac address table will now have and additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which two statements about stateful firewalls in an enterprise network are true? Choose two
A. They can track the number of active TCP connections.

B. They can use information about previous packets to make decisions about future packets.
C. They can filter HTTP and HTTPS traffic in the inbound direction only.
D. They are more susceptible to DoS attacks than stateless firwalls.
E. They are most effective when placed in front of the router connected to the Internet.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 98
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? Choose two
A. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized

B. the configured NTP servers
C. whether the NTP peer is statically configured
D. the NTP version number of the peer
E. whether the clock is synchronized
Correct Answer: AE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079:/64 are true? Choose three
A. The subnet ID is 4079

B. The global ID is 4079
C. The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
D. The address is a unique local address
E. The global ID is 14920bf83d
F. The address is a link-local address
Correct Answer: ADE

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Which QoS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
A. FIFO
B. shaping
C. policing
D. weighted fair queuing
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which two address spaces are valid Class B IPv4 ranges that are non-routable to the Internet? Choose two
A. 10.0.0.0 through 10.0.255.255

B. 172.16.0.0 through 172.32.255.255
C. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
D. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
E. 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which two statements about the ip default-network command are true ? Choose two
A. it requires IP routing to be enabled on the device

B. it specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the routing table
C. it specifies the network that is used when the device cannot finds an exact match in the routing table
D. it requires IP routing to be disabled on the device
E. it can be configured on a layer 2 switch to specify the next hop
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 103
Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show ip interface brief
C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
D. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the EIGRP topology table? Choose two
A. Route 10.42.88.0/21 has an administrative distance of 28160

B. Route 10.42.91.0/24 has a tag of 28160
C. The EIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111.253.216
D. Each route has only one best path
E. The RIGRP neighbor IP address is 10.111.253.216
F. The reported distance of 10.0.0.0/8 is 0
Correct Answer: DF
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 105
Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
A. router ID
B. public IP address
C. loopback interface
D. process ID
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 106
which two statement about link-state routing protocols are true? Choose two
A. each router determines its own path to a destination

B. each router shares a database of known routes
C. link-state routing protocols use split horizon to avoid routing loops.
D. each router is aware only of its neighbor routers.
E. each router maintains its own unique routing database
Correct Answer: AB
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the bootprocess has been completed?
A. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
B. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 108
Which effect does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
A. it configures a local user on the device

B. it configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
C. it enables AAA service on the device
D. it associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 109
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
A. response
B. trap
C. capture
D. get
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? Choose three
A. desirable
B. transparent
C. forwarding
D. on
E. blocking
F. auto
Correct Answer: ADF

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 111
Which two statements about DNS lookup operations are true? Choose two
A. They use destination port

B. When the primary IP address of the destination is down, the DNS server can forward the client to an alternate IP address
C. The DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available
D. The client sends a request for a domain name to IP address resolution to the DNS server
E. The client sends a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the NVRAM when it boots?
A. Ox2102
B. 0x2120
C. 0x2142
D. 0x2124
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 113
Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16?
A. 10.101.255.255
B. 10.101.254.254
C. 10.101.0.1
D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 114
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 8314D5D1A48

B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD11
C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 8314D5D1A48
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. cdp enable
B. enable cdp
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?
A. hub and spoke

B. star
C. point-to-point
D. full mesh
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?
A. Configure a name server.

B. Configure manual bindings.
C. Configure the relay agent information option.
D. Configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 118
Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6?
A. metric weights
B. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
C. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
D. ipv6 summary-address eigrp
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 119
On which combinations are standard access lists based?
A. source address and wildcard mask

B. destination address and wildcard mask
C. destination address and subnet mask
D. source address and subnet mask
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 120
Which command must you enter to configure a DHCP relay?
A. ip dhcp pool
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp relay
D. ip helper-address
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 121
What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? Choose two
A. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously.

B. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously.
C. It supports distributed applications.
D. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously.
E. It provides reliable TCP transport.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 122
Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? Choose two
A. The Source and destination devices must be Cisco devices.

B. The source device must be running Layer 2 services.
C. A default gateway must be configured for the Source and destination devices.
D. The destination device must support the echo protocol.
E. The source device must be a Cisco device, but the destination device can be from any vendor.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 123
in a CDP environment, What happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
A. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor.
B. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor.
C. CDP operates normally, but is cannot provide any information for that neighbor.
D. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection is true?
A. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP.

B. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP.
C. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing.
D. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 125
Which three elements are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? Choose three
A. Preamble
B. Length/Type
C. Frame Check Sequence
D. Header Checksum
E. Time to Live
F. Versions
Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 126
Which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?
A. providing best-effort service

B. enabling dynamic flow https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2 qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfpolsh.html
C. limiting bandwidth usage
D. enabling policy-based routing
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 127
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? Choose three
A. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
B. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
C. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
D. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.
E. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log fles without using router disk space.
F. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 128
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? Choose two
A. fd15.db8:0::700:3:45:572B
B. fd15:0db8:27:3:4F:572B
C. fd15db8:700:3:400F:572B
D. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:572B
E. fd15:db8:700.3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: DE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 129
Which API uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
A. REST
B. OpFlex
C. OpenFlow
D. OpenStack
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 130
Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
A. alternate
B. backups
C. forwarding
D. designated
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 131
If you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an established BGP neighbor, which additional task must you perform to allow the two devices to continue exchange routers?
A. Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match.
B. Clear the IP routes on the device.
C. Reset the gateway interface.
D. Reset the BGP connections on the device.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 132
Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
A. FC00::/7
B. FC00::/8
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 133
Which chassis-aggregation technology combines two physical switches into one virtual switch?
A. LACP
B. stackwise
C. VRRP
D. VSS
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 134
Which functionality does split horizon provide?
A. It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols.

B. It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols.
C. It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols.
D. It prevents switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true? Choose two
A. The administrator can create only one stack of switch of switches in a network which is under the same administrative domain.
B. When a new master switch is elected, it queries the previous master for its running configuration.
C. It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface.
D. The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases.
E. Each switch manages its own MAC address table.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
A. ip domain lookup
B. ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
C. ip domain list
D. ip domain round-robin
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 138
Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network? Choose two
A. on-demand scalability
B. complexity at higher cost
C. full control of infrastructure
D. flexibility
E. easy access with low security
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 139
Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network?
A. 802.2x
B. 802.11
C. 802.3x
D. 802.1x
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which command should you enter to confiure a device as an NTP server?
A. ntp server
B. ntp peers
C. ntp authenticated
D. ntp master
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 141
Which switching method check for CRC errors?
A. cut-through
B. fragment-free
C. Layer 3
D. store-and-forward
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 142
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
A. inside local
B. inside public
C. outside global
D. outside public
E. outside local
F. inside global
Correct Answer: F
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 143
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration ?
A. It eontigures an active management interface

B. It configures the native VLAN
C. It configures the default VLAN
D. It configures an nactive swiitch virtual interface
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 144
Based on output below from SwitchB, wihich statement is true ?
A. VLAN 40 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol

B. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchB is the root bridge for VLAN 40.
C. SwitchB is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated
D. The MAC address of the root bridge is AAAA.BBBB.CCCC
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 145
Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which two network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose Two)
A. Link A-172.16.3.112/30
B. Network A-172.16.3.128/25
C. Network A-172.16.3.48/26
D. Network A-172.16.3.192/26
E. Link A-172.16.3.0/30
F. Link A-172.16.3.40/30
Correct Answer: BE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 146
Which two statements about the ip subnet-zero command are true ? (Choose Two)
A. It specifies the broadcast IP addresses in the subnet

B. It enables the network to make full use of the avaliable IP address space
C. It is enabled by default on Cisco routers
D. It must be configured before you active NAT on a router
E. It must be configured each time you reboot a router
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 147
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth ? (Choose Three)
A. Switch C - Fa0/1
B. Switch B - Fa0/0
C. Switch B - Fa0/1
D. Switch A - Fa0/1
E. Switch A - Fa0/0
F. Switch C - Fa0/0
Correct Answer: BCD

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 148
Refer to the exhibit. Which two pieces of information can you determine from the command output? (Choose two.)
A. Both 1.0.0.10 and 1.0.0.18 are ABRs that are generating Type 3 LSAs
B. Router R1 receives Type 3 LSAs from router 10.6.1.58.
C. Router R1 is a multi-area OSPF router.
D. Routes from router 10.111.255.246 are redistributed into OSPF.
E. The ABR router is sending routes With a tag of 40100.
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP configuration do you need to apply to router R4 to allow traffic to flow normally on this network?
A. router bgp 1
no synchronization
192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
192.168.2.1 remote-as 1
192.168.2.1 ebgp-multihop 4
192.168.3.1 remote-as 5
auto-summary
B. router bgp 1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
no auto-summary
C. router bgp 1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 ebgp-multihop 4
no auto-summary
D. router bgp 1
no auto-summary
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
Which symbol in the APIC-EM Path Trace tool output Indicates that an ACL is present and might deny packets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 151
Refer to the diagram. Hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three. )
A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.

B. The LAN interface of the router is configured With one IP address.
C. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN 1
D. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
E. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
F. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN 1
Correct Answer: ADF

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 152
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interface are affected by the ACL?
A. Show ip access-list
B. List ip interface
C. Show interface
D. Show ip interface
E. Show access-lists
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one network to another? (Choose two.)
A. it examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet.
B. it encapsulates the Layer 2 packet.
C. it removes the Layer 2 frame header and trailer.
D. it removes the Layer 3 frame header and trailer.
E. it examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which issue is a common cause of runts?
A. software misconfiguration
B. duplex mismatch
C. overloaded hardware queues
D. native VLAN mismatch
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 155
Which PPP subprotocol negotates authentcaton optons?
A. DLCI
B. NCP
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. ISDN
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 156
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. one or more standby routers
B. exactly one standby active router
C. exactly one backup virtual router
D. exactly one active router
E. one or more backup virtual routers
Correct Answer: AD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 157
Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.

B. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
C. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
D. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
E. FE80 ::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 158
Which technology in a service provider environment can use labels to tunnel custormer data?
A. Metro Ethernet
B. MPLS
C. DMVPN
D. PPPOE
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Refer to the exhibit. Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?
A. shutdown VLAN
B. shutdown
C. protocol
D. restrict
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 160
Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for Intra-AS routing

B. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols.
C. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks
D. IGP routing protocols are used Within Internal networks.
E. Service provides use EGP and BGP for Intra-AS routing
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 161
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to discard inferior BPDUs?
A. spanning-tree guard root

B. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
C. spanning-tree portfast bpdulguard
D. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 162
Which configuration register setting do you use to bypass the password that is stored in the startup configuration?
A. 1x2102
B. 0x2142
C. 0x2102
D. 0xFFFF
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?
A. LLDP-VOIP
B. LLDPv3
C. TLV
D. LLDP-MED
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 164
Which command is needed to send RIPv2 updates as broadcast when configured for RIPv2 ?
A. ip rip receive version 2

B. ip rip v2-broadcast
C. ip rip receive version 1
D. version 2
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 165
Which two statements about private addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. Addresses in the range 172.16.0.1 to 172.32.255.254 are defined as Class B private addresses.
B. ip rip v2-Network 192.168.25.0/28 supports 14 usable private host addresses.
C. The 172.16.X.X/16 private Class B network supports over 1 millon addresses.
D. Network 10.1.1.0/29 supports 16 usable private host addresses.
E. By default, Class C private networks support up to 255 subnets.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 166
Which option is the benefit of Implementing an Intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
B. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 167
Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data.

B. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end device.
C. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance.
D. It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configuration basis.
E. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 168
Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two.)
A. destination network and mask

B. next-hop address or exit Interface
C. administrative distance of the route
D. Source network and mask
E. Incoming Interface
Correct Answer: AB
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 169
To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network.

B. Configure full duplex and speed.
C. Configure encapsulation dot1q
D. Configure the subinterface With an IP address.
E. Configure a default to the route traffic between subinterfaces.
Correct Answer: CD
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 170
When a switch is running in VTP server mode, VLAN configuration information is stored in which file?
A. vlan.config
B. startup-config
C. vlan.dat
D. config.text
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which two commands can you user to configure an LACP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode active

B. channel-group 10 mode desirable
C. channel-group 10 mode on
D. channel-group 10 mode auto
E. channel-group 10 mode passive
Correct Answer: AE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 172
What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?
A. Define pubic and private IP addresses.

B. Define global and local Interfaces.
C. Define IP address pools.
D. Define inside and outside interfaces.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 173
You are configuring a 100-Mb fast Ethernet connection between a PC and Switch. Which action must you take to configure the Speed one each of the two interfaces?
A. Set the switch port to auto-negotiate and the PC interface to 100 Mb

B. Set the switch port to 100 Mb and the PC interface to auto-negotiate.
C. Set both Interfaces to auto-negotiate.
D. Set both Interfaces to 100 Mb
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 174
Which feature is automatically enabled on voice VLAN ports?
A. PortFast
B. 802.1Q
C. 802.1X
D. port security
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-Jk9s-mz.12223f.bin

B. Router(config)#boot system flash c4500-p-mz. 121-20_bin
C. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T .bin
D. Router>boot flash:c 180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T .bin
E. Router(config)#boot system tftp c7300-js-mz. 122-33.SB8a.bin
F. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz_ 124-24_T4_bin
Correct Answer: BEF

Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication?
A. IEEE 802.1x
B. RARP
C. CSMA/CA
D. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 177
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
A. in the MAC address table

B. in the DHCP binding database
C. in the CAM table
D. in the VLAN database
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 178
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
A. informational
B. warning
C. critical
D. emergency
E. error
F. debug
Correct Answer: CDE
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 179
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
A. it uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm.

B. it does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1
C. it stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table.
D. it sends periodic updates Via broadcast.
E. it stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network changes.
B. Distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols.
C. Only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates.
D. Only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables On all connected neighbors.
E. Only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 181
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 182
Refer to the exhibit. Host A cannot ping Host B. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address

B. The Fa0/0 Interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
C. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
D. The Fa0/0 Interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.
E. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which two functions describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two.)
A. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN.

B. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
C. It supports redundant configuration files
D. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP
E. It reduces management overhead
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
Which three statements describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to lower costs by replacing routers With distribution layer switches
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
F. to speed up convergence
Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
When troubleshooting client DNS Issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Ping the DNS server

B. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned
C. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
D. Ping a public website IP address
E. Determine whether the hardware address is correct
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
Which commands can you can enter to verify that a router is synced with a configured time source?
A. show ntp authenticate

B. show ntp associations
C. ntp associations
D. ntp server timer
E. ntp authenticate
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 187
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

B. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
C. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
D. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
E. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.
Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 188
Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two.)
A. RG-6
B. Category 3
C. RG-11
D. Category 5e
E. Category 6
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 189
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
A. UplinkFast
B. BackboneFast
C. BPDU Filter
D. BPDU Guard
E. Root Guard
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 190
Which two statements about EUl-64 addressing are true? (Choose two. )
A. A 64-bit Interface Indentifier is derived from the Interface MAC address.

B. The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the Interface MAC address.
C. A locally administered addresses has the universal/local bit set to 0
D. A 96-bit Interface Indentifier is derived from the Interface MAC address.
E. The addresses includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address.
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 191
Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discover Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
A. The spanning tree protocol

B. The VTP domain
C. The trunking protocol
D. The native VLAN
E. The spanning-tree priority
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two)
A. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps

B. Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m.
C. All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the appropriate environments.
D. Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps
E. Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for Installations of up to 200m
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 193
Cisco IOS supports which QoS models?
A. best-effort, integrated services, and differentiated services

B. integrated services and differentiated services
C. best-effort and differentiated services
D. test-effort and integrated services
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 194
Which command disables DTP?
A. switchport mode active

B. switchport nonegotiate
C. switchport negotiate
D. switchport mode passive
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 195
Which enterprise device provides centralized control of authentication and roaming?
A. a LAN switch
B. a firewall
C. a wireless LAN controller
D. a lightweight access point
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 196
How many bits can used to identify unique hosts in the address range for network 10.0.0.0/8 ?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 8
D. 24
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 197
Which command must be present in a Cisco device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN?
A. ip host
B. ip domain-lookup
C. ip name-server
D. ip domain-name
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 198
Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?
A. ip address dhcp
B. ip dhcp client
C. ip helper-address
D. ip dhcp
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 199
You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a fully meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose two.)
A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing

B. a centralized DMVPN solution, to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
C. a dedicated WAN distribution layer, to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
D. a collapsed core and distribution layer, to minimize costs
E. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 200
Which two commands can you enter to configure an interface to actively negotiate an EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode passive

B. channel-group 10 mode active
C. channel-group 10 mode desirable
D. channel-group 10 mode on
E. channel-group 10 mode auto
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 201
Refer to the exhibit. Which about two facts the routing table are true? (Choose two.)
A. The router uses interface Serial0/0/0 to reach host address 1043.76.123.

B. Nine different networks are within the 10.0.0.0/8 range.
C. Three different networks are within the 10.0.0.0/8 range.
D. The router uses interface Serial0/0/0 to reach network 192.168.1.0/24
E. The router uses interface GigabitEthernet0/0 to reach host address 10.111.35.106
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 202
When troubleshooting a user complaint, you notice that two routers failed to establish an OSPF neighbor adjacency. Which two issues are root causes for the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The two routers are configured with the same area ID.
B. The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces.
C. OSPF is configured on the primary network of the neighbor, but not on the secondary network.
D. The two routers are configured With different process IDs.
E. The two routers are using the same router ID
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 203
Which two statements about how a router makes forwarding decisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. The management plane gathers information from routing protocols.

B. The management plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane
C. The control plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane.
D. The control plane gathers information from routing protocols.
E. The data plane gathers information from routing protocols.
F. The data plane forwards traffic through the router
Correct Answer: DF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which action do you take to reset the VTP configuration revision number on a switch in VTP server made?
A. Change the VTP mode to transparent, and then change it back to server mode
B. Change the VTP domain name to any new value, and then change the name back to the original name
C. Change the VTP mode to off, and then change It back to server mode.
D. Change the VTP mode to transparent, and then change it to cent mode
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 205
Which two statements about southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use HTTP messages to communicate.

B. They enable communication between the controller and the network device.
C. OpenFlow is a southbound API standard.
D. They enable communication between the controller and SDN applications.
E. They communicate With the management plane.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 206
When you configure and boot a new device, when does the running configuration become active?
A. When the devices boots to ROMMON

B. When the startup configuration is copied into RAM
C. Immediately after the power-on self-test
D. When IOS is loaded into RAM
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 207
Which command should you enter on an interface in a vendor-neutral EtherChannel so that it will selected first to transmit packets?
A. pagp system-priority 1024

B. lacp port-priority 1024
C. lacp system-priority 1024
D. pagp port-priority 1024
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 208
After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks you consider? (choose two)
A. configure additional VLANs

B. deplay POE switches
C. configure multiple VRRP groups
D. configure additional security policies
E. deploy load balancers
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 209
Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode active
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode auto
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 210
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to enter an err-disabled state when It receives an inferior BPDU?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter

B. spanning-tree portfast default
C. spanning-tree guard root
D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 211
Which two statements about single and dual-homed links are true? ( choose two.)
A. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers can use OSPF or EIGRP for load balancing.
B. Dual-homed connections to a service provider most frequently use static routing
C. Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP.
D. Dual-homed connection to multiple service providers typically use BGP.
E. Single-homed connections to a service provider can use ether static routing or BGP
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 212
After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device? (Choose two.)
A. The no ip domain lookup command is configured.

B. The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
C. All configured IP name server addresses are removed
D. The ip host command is disabled
E. The DNS sewer queue limit is disabled
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 213
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
A. show standby
B. show interface
C. show sessions
D. show hsrp
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 214
Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Loopback tests
C. UDLD
D. Autonegotlation
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 215
Which algorithm is used for the frame check sequence in an Ethernet frame?
A. MD5
B. AES-256
C. SHA-1
D. CRC
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 216
Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture network traffic and measure performance?(choose two)
A. SPAN
B. ACL
C. STP
D. SNMP
E. IP SLA
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 217
Which layer of the TCP/IP model manages the transmission of binary digits across an Ethernet Cable?
A. physical
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Transport
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 218
Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?
A. The default reset password is cisco

B. A factory reset is required if you forget the password.
C. It requires physical access to the router.
D. It requires a secure SSL/VPN connection.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 219
What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two.)
A. It allows the network to respond immediately to changes.

B. It produces minimal CPU load.
C. It allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
D. It can be implemented easily even In large environments.
E. It cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 220
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. Enable IPv6 unicast routing.

B. Configure an autonomous system number
C. Enable IPv6 on an interface.
D. Configure a router ID
E. Configure a loopback interface
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 221
What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?
A. It ignores the MAC aging timer when IEEE 802.1D is in use.

B. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when RSTP is in use.
C. It Ignores the MAC aging timer when RSTP IS in use.
D. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when IEEE 802.1D is in use.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 222
Which two TLVs does LLDP support? (Choose two.)
A. native VLAN
B. port duplex
C. system description
D. management address
E. spanning tree
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 223
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
A. The two routers have the same autonomous system number

B. The routers have mismatched K values.
C. The routers are on different subnets.
D. Both routers have the same router ID.
E. An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 224
Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration

B. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
C. NHRP
D. DHCP
E. ISATAP tunneling
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 225
Which type of routing protocol operates by using first-hand Information from each device's peers?
A. distance vector protocols

B. exterior gateway protocols
C. link-state protocols
D. path vector protocols
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 226
According to industry best practices, which length is the recommended maximum for a Category 6 cable in a 10GBASE-T environment?
A. 300 meters
B. 55 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 37 meters
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 227
Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing.

B. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address.
C. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server.
D. They are used as backup routes when the primary route goes down.
E. They have a higher administrative distance than default static route administrative distance.
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 228
Which option is the main function of congestion management?
A. queuing traffic based on priority

B. discarding
C. classifying traffic
D. providing long term storage of buffered data
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 229
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. mini-IOS
B. ROMMON mode
C. bootstrap
D. POST
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 230
Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic a Cisco router and an end device?
A. ICMP echo
B. UDP Jitter
C. ICMP path echo
D. TCP connect
E. UDP echo
F. ICMP path Jitter
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 231
Which type of port supports voice VLAN configuration?
A. access switch port

B. Layer 3 switch port
C. trunk switch port
D. private VLAN switch port
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 232
Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing? (Choose two.)
A. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers.
B. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks.
C. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing.
E. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible.
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 233
Refer to the exhibit. Host 1 is trying to communicate With Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

B. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
D. Router C Will use ICMP to Inform Host 1 , Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
E. Router C Will use ICMP to Inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
F. Router C Will send a Source Quench message type.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 234
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
B. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
C. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
D. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
E. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
F. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network
Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 235
When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you must perform? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
B. Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.
C. Verify that a default route is configured.
D. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
E. Verify that the route appears in the routing table.
F. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.
Correct Answer: BEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 236
Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?
A. when the router must route a Single subnet across mutiple physical links
B. when the router must route multiple subnets across a single physical link
C. when the router must route multiple subnets across multiple physical links
D. when the router must route a single subnet across a Single physical link
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 237
What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
A. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

B. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
C. It can disable the overload command.
D. It can cause too many addresses to assigned to the same interface.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 238
Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. show snmp enginelD

B. snmp-server contact
C. show snmp group
D. show snmp pending
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 239
Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?
A. A session ID
B. A TTL number
C. An acknowledgment number
D. A sequence number
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 240
Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?
A. software misconfiguration
B. native VLAN mismatch
C. duplex mismatch
D. overloaded hardware queues
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 241
Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router? (Choose two. )
A. connecting RIP to a WAN interface

B. enabling RIP on the router
C. allowing unicast updates for RIP
D. enabling automatic route summarization
E. enabling RIP authentication
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 242
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1 ? (Choose two.)
A. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned mac address

B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5
C. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link
D. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
E. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disable.
F. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 243
Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues? (choose two. )
A. Layer-by-layer
B. Divide and conquer
C. Policing
D. Round-robin
E. Top-down
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 244
Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two)
A. it can authorize specfic router commands

B. it encrypts only the password.
C. it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions
D. it combines authentication and authorization.
E. it uses UDP as its transort protocol
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 245
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0007.5E00.B301
B. 0000.0C07.AC15
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0000.5E00.01A3
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 246
Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two.)
A. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.
B. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex
C. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3.
D. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2.
E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 247
Which two options are features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specified number of packets.

B. It can ping multiple hosts as the same time.
C. It can resolve the destination host name.
D. It can count the number of hops to the remote host
E. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address.
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 248
Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?
A. LSA
B. BPDU
C. RSTP
D. LSP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 249
Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow or shadow rules?
A. the ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM

B. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM
C. the Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler
D. the Cisco IWAN application
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 250
Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use the prefix FC80:/8

B. If the lifetime parameter is set to 1 , the route is permanent
C. They use the prefix FF00:/8
D. If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node
E. They identfy a group of interfaces on different devices
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 251
What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end to end response time devices?
A. ICMP path jitter

B. ICMP path echo
C. ICMP jitter
D. ICMP echo
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 252
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QUESTION 253
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QUESTION 267
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QUESTION 269
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QUESTION 270
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QUESTION 272
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QUESTION 273
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QUESTION 274
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QUESTION 275
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QUESTION 276
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QUESTION 277
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QUESTION 278
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QUESTION 279
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Explanation
QUESTION 280
You are configuring a switch so that it accepts traffic from a maximum of two dynamic MAC address. Drag and drop the required configuration commands on the left into the correct sequence on the right. (Not all commands are used.)
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 281
Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the
routers located in the remote branch offices. An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a Laver 2 issue: an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
D. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 282
A. The R3 router ID is configured on R4

B. There is a Layer 2 issue, an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is an area ID mismatch.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 283
A. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
B. There is an area ID mismatch.
C. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on RS.
D. There is a PPP authentication issue a password mismatch.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 284
A. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1
B. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25
C. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.
D. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0 are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25; configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 285
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue, the username is not configured on R3 and R6.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 286
A. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.
B. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed.
C. The interfaces are shutdown, so they are not being advertised.
D. The loopback addresess haven't been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 287
A. The traffic is equally load balanced over R2 and R3.
B. The traffic goes through R3.
C. The traffic goes through R2.
D. The traffic is unequally load balanced over R2 and R3.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 288
A. The passive-interface command is enabled.
B. The network command is missing.
C. The K values mismatch.
D. The AS does not match.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 289
A. The network statement is missing on R1.
B. The network statement is misssing on R5.
C. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.
D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo Interface on R5 is incorrect.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 290
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 291
A. On R2. The network statement in the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured.
B. On R3. DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
C. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
D. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 292
A. The NTP server command not confgured on R2 router.

B. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown conditon.
C. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown conditon.
D. The IP address that is used in the NTP confguraton on R2 router is incorrect.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 293
A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network.
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Setver1 network.
C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network.
D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 294
A. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
B. NAT confgurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 295
1. Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
A. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
B. Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in.
C. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
D. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.
E. Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from "in" to "out".
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 296
2. What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.
B. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
C. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network
D. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 297
3. What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the sc/0/1 interface?
A. FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
B. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.
C. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
D. No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 298
A. The Trunk is not configured on the L2SW1 switch.

B. The VLAN encapsulation is misconfgured on the router subinterfaces.
C. The IP address is misconfigured on the primary router interface.
D. The Router is missing subinterface configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 299
A. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
B. Router R1 confgured as DHCP Client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router.
C. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1.
D. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 255.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 300
A. RIPv2 not enabled on R3.
B. RIPv2 routing updates are suppressed between R2 and R3 using passive interface feature.
C. No issue that is identified; this behavior is normal since default route propagated into RIPv2 domain by Router R1.
D. RIPv2 enabled on R3, but R3 LAN network that is not advertised into RIPv2 domain.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 301
A. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2.
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 But the traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network.
C. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead static route Because the static route AD that is configured is 255.
D. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from R1 LAN network uses static route instead RIPv2 Because the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 302
1. Did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The PPP multlink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.

B. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
C. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.
D. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the Branch1 serial interfaces.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 303
2. Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The static route points to the tunnelo interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router
B. The static route points to the tunnelo interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
C. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
D. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 304
3. Why has the Branch3 router lost connectvity with R1? Use only show commands to troubleshoot because usage of the debug command is restricted on the Branch3 and R1 routers.
A. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch3 router.
B. A PPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
C. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
D. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3.
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 305
4. Which statement about the router configurations is correct?
A. Tunnel keepalives are not confgured for the tunnelo interface on Branch2 and R2.
B. PPP CHAP is authentcaton confgured between Branch1 and R1.
C. PPP PAP is authentication configured between Branch2 and R1.
D. The Branch3 LAW network 192.168.10.0/24 is not advertsed into the EIGRP network. E. The Branch2 LAN network 192.168.11 0/24 is not advertsed into the EIGRP network.
Correct Answer: D
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 306
A. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to K values mismatch between routers R1 and R2
B. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on R1.
C. IP addresses was misconfigured between the R1 and R2 interfaces.
D. EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to AS mismatch between routers R1 and R2
Correct Answer: B
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 307
A. The primary path has more link delay configured then secondary path which causes EIGRP to choose the secondary path.
B. The IP address was misconfigured between the Branch2 and R2 interfaces
C. EIGRP packets were blocked by the inbound ACL on Branch2
D. The network 192.168.11.0/30 was not advertised into EIGRP on Branch
Correct Answer: C
Section: Choise
Explanation
QUESTION 308
A. The tunnel source loopbacko interface is not advertised into EIGRP in R3.
B. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to the IP addres being misconfigured between the R2 and R3 interfaces.
C. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to EIGRP packets blocked by the inbound ACL on R3.
D. The tunnel source loopbackO interface is not advertised into EIGRP in Branch1.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 309
A. Branch1 LAN network 172.16.12.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
B. Branch2 LAN network 172.16.11.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
C. R3 server farm2 network 10.20.30.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
D. Branch2 LAN network 172.16.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 310
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 311
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 312
A.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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CCNA RS 200-125 SPOTO

A. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes.

A. ip ospf hello-interval seconds

A. show ip bgp paths

A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10

A. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration?

A. Source 192.168/10/10 and destination 10.10.22

A. Administratively shutdown the port.

A. they require quick network convergence to support normal operations

Correct Answer: BCE

A. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol

A. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface.

A. It encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header.

A. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table.

Correct Answer: CDE

A. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

A. the highest prefix on the interface

A. It queues traffic without buffering it.

A. Switch>ssh-v1-1 admin 10.1.1.1

A. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet

A. brute force attacks

Correct Answer: BDE

Correct Answer: BEF

A. NTP uses UDP over IP

A. whether a route was learned via IGP or EGP

A. it automates network actions between different device types.

A. show ip dhcp server statistics

A. file transfer server

A. It is more secure than AAA authentication.

A. the VTP domain

A. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP sever configuration

A. network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

A. five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface.

A. the lowest switch priority

A. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing

A. The LAN controller

A. Both the active and standby routers become active.

A. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.

A. show cdp interface

A. Implement an action plan.

Correct Answer: BCD

A. it routes the packet to the default route.

A. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

2950 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A. They can track the number of active TCP connections.

A. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized

A. The subnet ID is 4079

Correct Answer: ADE

A. 10.0.0.0 through 10.0.255.255

A. it requires IP routing to be enabled on the device

A. Route 10.42.88.0/21 has an administrative distance of 28160

A. each router determines its own path to a destination

A. it configures a local user on the device

Correct Answer: ADF

A. They use destination port

A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 8314D5D1A48

A. hub and spoke

A. Configure a name server.

A. source address and wildcard mask

A. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously.

A. The Source and destination devices must be Cisco devices.

A. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP.