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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH


ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to
discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately C. given a lift D. treated with
sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively Question 12. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to
spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial Question 13. More and more investors are pouring
______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 14. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 15. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 16. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 18. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on
Question 19. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. visited B. visit C. am visiting D. have visited
Question 20. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 21. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't
Question 22. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture,
both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several
times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is
common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose
Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?

A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia C. In Japan and


Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and
strong C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight
C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable Question 37. Which of the
following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. some species D. human-related effects
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment
C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT
true? A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 402


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. must B. need C. ought D. might Question 2. They were among the first
companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. potential B. prospect C. possibility D. ability Question 3. Thanks to her father's
encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. standard B. development C. contribution D. progress
Question 4. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. finish B. will finish C. have finished D. finished
Question 5. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 6. Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. occasion B. chance C. intention D. purpose
Question 7. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. the B. a C. Ø D. an
Question 8. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differ B. difference C. differently D. different
Question 9. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. take on B. get over C. go through D. come over
Question 10. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. installed B. serviced C. developed D. repaired
Question 11. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. nice Italian new B. nice new Italian C. new Italian nice D. new nice Italian
Question 12. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more fluently you can speak it B. the more fluent you can speak it
C. the more you can speak it fluent D. the more you can speak it fluently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. You can say that again B. Thank you for looking for it
C. I like reading books D. I'm glad you like it

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Question 14. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm busy now B. I'm fine. Thank you
C. I'm going home D. I'm having a class now

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A. possible B. cultural C. confident D. supportive
Question 16. A. office B. nature C. result D. farmer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. dressed B. dropped C. matched D. joined
Question 18. A. walk B. call C. take D. talk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. nervousness B. emotion C. stress D. relaxation Question 20. Don't tell Jane anything about
the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can't eat a lot B. hates parties C. talks too much D. can keep secrets

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. developed B. generated C. created D. increased
Question 22. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. exciting B. informative C. attractive D. boring

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 23. A. making B. taking C. giving D. having
Question 24. A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 25. A. when B. that C. what D. where
Question 26. A. competition B. competitively C. competitive D. compete
Question 27. A. apply B. study C. decide D. employ

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. The need for digital comic books
B. Children's most favourite type of books
C. Problems in the book industry
D. The manga industry in Japan
Question 29. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. children B. comic books C. publishers D. things
Question 30. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. a TV programme B. a comic book C. an electronic device D. a child
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. selling translated manga books
B. scanning and translating manga books
C. scanning uploaded manga books
D. translating uploaded manga books

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Question 32. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese
translated manga because ______.
A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
B. they wanted to make a name for themselves
C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
D. they wanted to read manga for free
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Readers B. Publishers C. Writers D. Artists
Question 34. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. controlling the production of a book B. hurting the sale of illegal comic books
C. copying and using a book illegally D. advertising a book without permission

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Marine pollution and its many forms
B. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
C. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
D. The end of the "dilution" era
Question 36. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. serious B. insignificant C. unpredictable D. positive Question 37. It can be inferred from
paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. dealing with the problems of water pollution
B. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
C. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
D. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. ocean's depths B. man-made pollutants
C. marine organisms D. the oceans
Question 39. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. appear B. prevent C. produce D. limit
Question 40. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. are created by massive blooms of algae
B. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
C. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
D. cannot be found inland
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?
A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
C. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
D. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
Question 42. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. can communicate with each other via sound waves
B. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.

Question 44. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 45. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He hasn't visited London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.
Question 47. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.
Question 48. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
C. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
D. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
B. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
C. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.
Question 50. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 403


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. starts B. will start C. started D. is starting
Question 2. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
Question 3. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. absence B. shortage C. lack D. deficiency
Question 4. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educational B. educationally C. educate D. education
Question 5. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. join B. shake C. give D. hold
Question 6. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. ought B. might C. must D. may
Question 7. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty American tall B. tall pretty American C. tall American pretty D. pretty tall American
Question 8. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. make out C. take over D. make up
Question 9. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. remind B. encourage C. allow D. advise
Question 10. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. overwhelmed B. bewildered C. preoccupied D. overjoyed
Question 11. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 12. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the more frequently natural disasters occur

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. Fine, thanks B. I'm thirty-five years old
C. I'm free today D. I'm not working today

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Question 14. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. Of course you can B. I don't think it works C. I'm sure about that D.
I'm afraid not

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. I'm sure he will be home and dry in the interview because he has good qualifications
and wide experience.
A. be successful B. be satisfied C. be unsuccessful D. be unsatisfied
Question 16. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. impressed B. fearful C. confident D. upset

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. different B. alike C. familiar D. strange
Question 18. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. simple B. difficult C. important D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions. Question 19. A. difficult B. popular C. effective Question 20. D. national
A. answer B. reply C. singer D. future
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. find B. think C. drive D. mind
Question 22. A. missed B. talked C. watched D. cleaned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He denied going camping at the weekend.
B. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
C. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.
Question 24. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
D. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
Question 25. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
B. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D
Question 27. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Question 28. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.
Question 30. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (31)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (32)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (33)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (34)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (35)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)

Question 31. A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. However D. In addition


Question 32. A. attract B. attractively C. attraction D. attractive
Question 33. A. active B. willing C. careful D. able
Question 34. A. learn B. take C. know D. accept
Question 35. A. where B. that C. who D. when

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com)
Question 36. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
B. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
C. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
Question 37. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. an important guest B. a happy occasion C. a type of food D. a kind of gift
Question 38. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the couple's B. the parents' C. the relatives' D. the friends'
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
B. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
C. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.
D. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
Question 40. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excitement B. luck C. money D. benefit
Question 41. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were more delicious. B. They were less delicious.
C. They were served in smaller amounts. D. They were served in larger amounts.

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Question 42. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. get engaged B. get married C. fasten the rope D. loosen the tie

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans

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C. Carbon dioxide D. Solar radiation
Question 45. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. scientists B. temperatures C. gases D. increases
Question 46. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. fading B. showing C. ending D. appearing
Question 47. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
Question 48. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. improving B. increasing C. preventing D. decreasing
Question 49. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Minimal natural disasters B. Higher agricultural production
C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods D. Favourable weather conditions
Question 50. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Sarcastic B. Informative C. Ironic D. Argumentative

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 404


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm fine, thanks B. I'm forty years old
C. I'm not working today D. I'm looking for a book
Question 2. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. Just a minute, please
C. My pleasure D. You're exactly right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. announce B. infer C. remind D. notice
Question 4. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. heavily B. lightly C. softly D. badly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. If you are at a loose end tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and
relaxing on the beach?
A. having a lot to do B. having nothing to do
C. having nothing to lose D. having a lot to gain
Question 6. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. similar B. alike C. different D. changeable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7. A. washed B. passed C. worked D. opened
Question 8. A. hate B. face C. make D. dance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9. A. medical B. essential C. dangerous D. regular
Question 10. A. doctor B. student C. advice D. parent

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. who B. when C. which D. where
Question 12. There has been growing public concern about the use of chemicals in food ______
recently.
A. preservation B. protection C. reservation D. conservation
Question 13. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. new German red B. red German new C. red new German D. new red German
Question 14. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. must B. can C. may D. might
Question 15. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's
questions and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. emphasize B. decide C. concentrate D. rely
Question 16. The higher the cost of living is, ______.
A. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
B. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
C. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
D. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
Question 17. Harmful environmental factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. generate B. accelerate C. produce D. monitor
Question 18. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. see B. saw C. are seeing D. will see
Question 19. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city.
A. an B. a C. Ø D. the
Question 20. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. compete B. competitively C. competitive D. competition
Question 21. A lot of research in medical science has been ______ to improve human health.
A. made up B. carried out C. taken up D. given off
Question 22. It is important for students to ______ full use of university facilities.
A. take B. do C. find D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (23)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(24)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (25)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (26)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of
the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (27)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients,
and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)

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Question 23. A. encouraged B. forbidden C. assisted D. opposed
Question 24. A. sound B. sense C. taste D. touch
Question 25. A. in contrast B. moreover C. therefore D. in addition
Question 26. A. which B. where C. who D. whose
Question 27. A. usefully B. use C. usefulness D. useful

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the
name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a
child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The choice of name for a child in Asia
B. The history of child naming around the world
C. The practice of child naming in Europe
D. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
Question 29. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. ancestors B. parents C. relatives D. grandparents
Question 30. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sign B. symbol C. route D. way

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Question 31. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
B. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
C. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
D. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.
Question 32. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
B. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
C. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
D. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
Question 33. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. preference B. culture C. name D. tradition
Question 34. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. ignored B. developed C. valued D. revealed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle,
lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these
lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a
new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The size of tropical rainforest loss
B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
C. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
D. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
Question 37. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. remained unchanged B. fallen again C. risen again D. gone up and down Question 38.
Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The decrease in wasted lands
B. The disappearance of many rainforest species
C. The disappearance of landless farmers
D. The increase in the rainforest habitat
Question 39. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different
regions?
A. The search for oil B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for rare animals D. The search for new farm lands
Question 40. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recover B. renew C. repeat D. refine
Question 41. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands for raising cattle B. lands sold and colonized
C. lands abandoned and wasted D. lands for planting
Question 42. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
B. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.
C. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
D. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D
Question 44. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 45. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
B. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
C. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
D. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
Question 47. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. I last heard from Susan several months ago.
B. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.
C. Susan heard from me several months ago.
D. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
Question 48. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary denied giving John the money.
B. Mary admitted giving John the money.
C. Mary suggested giving John the money.
D. Mary remembered giving John the money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent
homemakers.
A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
Question 50. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
B. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
C. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.
D. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 405


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. think B. drive C. mind D. find
Question 2. A. watched B. cleaned C. missed D. talked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. effective B. national C. popular D. difficult
Question 4. A. reply B. answer C. future D. singer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. bewildered B. preoccupied C. overwhelmed D. overjoyed
Question 6. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. is starting B. started C. starts D. will start
Question 7. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. deficiency B. lack C. shortage D. absence
Question 8. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 9. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. an B. Ø C. the D. a
Question 10. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the more frequent are natural disasters
C. the more frequently natural disasters occur D. the most frequently natural disasters occur
Question 11. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. allow B. remind C. encourage D. advise
Question 12. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. must B. may C. ought D. might
Question 13. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. tall American pretty B. tall pretty American C. pretty American tall D. pretty tall American
Question 14. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educational B. educate C. educationally D. education
Question 15. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. take over C. make up D. make out
Question 16. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. give B. shake C. hold D. join

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. I'm sure he will be home and dry in the interview because he has good qualifications
and wide experience.
A. be unsatisfied B. be successful C. be unsuccessful D. be satisfied
Question 18. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. fearful B. confident C. impressed D. upset

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. simple B. interesting C. difficult D. important
Question 20. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. strange B. familiar C. different D. alike

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. I'm thirty-five years old B. Fine, thanks
C. I'm not working today D. I'm free today
Question 22. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. I'm sure about that B. Of course you can
C. I don't think it works D. I'm afraid not

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Question 24. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D
Question 25. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
D. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

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Question 27. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
B. I was in my hometown for a few years.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
Question 28. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
B. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
C. He denied going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Question 30. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (31)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (32)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (33)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (34)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (35)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 31. A. Otherwise B. However C. In addition D. Therefore
Question 32. A. attractively B. attractive C. attraction D. attract
Question 33. A. careful B. active C. willing D. able
Question 34. A. take B. accept C. know D. learn
Question 35. A. where B. who C. that D. when

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com)

Question 36. What is the main idea of this passage?


A. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
B. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
C. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
Question 37. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. a kind of gift B. a happy occasion C. a type of food D. an important guest
Question 38. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

Question 39. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.
B. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
C. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
D. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
Question 40. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. money B. benefit C. excitement D. luck
Question 41. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were served in larger amounts. B. They were less delicious.
C. They were more delicious. D. They were served in smaller amounts.

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Question 42. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. get married B. loosen the tie C. get engaged D. fasten the rope

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
D. Global Warming: Future Reactions
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Humans B. Glass in a greenhouse
C. Carbon dioxide D. Solar radiation

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Question 45. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. gases B. scientists C. increases D. temperatures
Question 46. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. appearing B. showing C. fading D. ending
Question 47. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Global climate naturally changes over time.
B. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
Question 48. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. preventing B. decreasing C. improving D. increasing
Question 49. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods B. Higher agricultural production
C. Minimal natural disasters D. Favourable weather conditions
Question 50. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Ironic B. Informative C. Argumentative D. Sarcastic

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 406


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. passed B. opened C. washed D. worked
Question 2. A. hate B. dance C. face D. make

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. essential B. dangerous C. regular Question D. medical
4. A. student B. advice C. parent D. doctor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's
questions and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. rely B. concentrate C. decide D. emphasize
Question 6. The higher the cost of living is, ______.
A. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
B. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
C. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
D. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
Question 7. It is important for students to ______ full use of university facilities.

A. take B. find C. do D. make Question 8. A lot of research in medical science has been
______ to improve human health. A. taken up B. given off C. made up D. carried out
Question 9. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city. A. the
B. Ø C. a D. an

Question 10. There has been growing public concern about the use of chemicals in food ______
recently.
A. conservation B. protection C. preservation D. reservation
Question 11. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. which B. who C. when D. where
Question 12. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. competitive B. competitively C. competition D. compete
Question 13. Harmful environmental factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. accelerate B. generate C. monitor D. produce
Question 14. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. may B. must C. might D. can
Question 15. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. will see B. see C. saw D. are seeing
Question 16. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. red new German B. red German new C. new red German D. new German red
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. changeable B. similar C. alike D. different Question 18. If you are at a loose end
tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and relaxing on the beach?

A. having a lot to do B. having nothing to do


C. having a lot to gain D. having nothing to lose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. softly B. heavily C. badly D. lightly Question 20. They are going to declare
details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. remind B. infer C. notice D. announce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm looking for a book B. I'm not working today
C. I'm fine, thanks D. I'm forty years old
Question 22. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. My pleasure B. You're exactly right
C. You are very kind D. Just a minute, please

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent
homemakers.
A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
Question 24. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
B. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
C. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job.
D. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 25. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.
B. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
C. I last heard from Susan several months ago.
D. Susan heard from me several months ago.

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Question 26. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
B. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
C. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
D. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
Question 27. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary remembered giving John the money.
B. Mary admitted giving John the money.
C. Mary suggested giving John the money.
D. Mary denied giving John the money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 29. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D
Question 30. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (31)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(32)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (33)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (34)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of
the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (35)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues
can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)
Question 31. A. forbidden B. encouraged C. opposed D. assisted
Question 32. A. taste B. sense C. sound D. touch
Question 33. A. therefore B. in addition C. in contrast D. moreover
Question 34. A. where B. which C. whose D. who
Question 35. A. use B. usefulness C. useful D. usefully

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.

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In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the
name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a
child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The choice of name for a child in Asia
B. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
C. The history of child naming around the world D.
The practice of child naming in Europe
Question 37. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. parents B. relatives C. ancestors D. grandparents
Question 38. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. way B. sign C. symbol D. route
Question 39. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
B. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
C. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
D. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.
Question 40. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
B. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
C. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
D. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
Question 41. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. tradition B. culture C. name D. preference
Question 42. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. valued B. ignored C. developed D. revealed

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle,
lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these
lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a
new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The size of tropical rainforest loss
B. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
C. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
D. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
C. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
D. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
Question 45. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. gone up and down B. remained unchanged C. fallen again D. risen again

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Question 46. Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The disappearance of many rainforest species
B. The decrease in wasted lands
C. The increase in the rainforest habitat
D. The disappearance of landless farmers
Question 47. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in
different regions?
A. The search for oil B. The search for rare animals
C. The search for valuable woods D. The search for new farm lands
Question 48. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recover B. repeat C. renew D. refine
Question 49. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands for raising cattle B. lands sold and colonized
C. lands abandoned and wasted D. lands for planting
Question 50. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
B. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.
C. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
D. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 407


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm leaving nowB. I'm thirty years old C. Fine, thank you D. I'm going home
Question 2. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. It's very kind of you. D. Better luck next time!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. happiness B. employment C. relation D. importance
Question 4. A. police B. teacher C. lesson D. action

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. played B. lived C. planned D. cooked
Question 6. A. map B. date C. page D. face

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. caring B. shy C. mischievous D. outgoing Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to
discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. given a lift
C. deceived deliberately D. treated with sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. interesting B. easy C. hard D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.

A. assistance B. confidence C. experience D. understanding


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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the more crowded the beaches get B. the most crowded the beaches get
C. the most the beaches get crowded D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 12. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mustn't B. mightn't C. needn't D. oughtn't
Question 13. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. beneficial B. valuable C. worthy D. costly
Question 14. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. display B. occurrence C. invention D. research
Question 15. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 16. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. old Japanese black B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. black old Japanese
Question 17. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. catch on B. take over C. hold on D. stand for
Question 18. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. have visited B. visited C. am visiting D. visit
Question 19. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. conducted B. carried C. commented D. filled Question 20. A university degree is
considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. request B. claim C. requisite D. demand
Question 21. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. who C. which D. where
Question 22. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture,
both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several
times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is
common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. locations B. situations C. positions D. conditions
Question 24. A. who B. whose C. where D. which
Question 25. A. differ B. different C. differently D. differences
Question 26. A. Therefore B. However C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 27. A. show B. take C. get D. feel

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Presents for young children's lost teeth B. Animals eating children's lost teeth
C. Customs concerning children's new teeth D. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. children's C. roofs' D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by
a mouse?
A. In Mongolia B. In Mexico and Spain
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
B. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
D. they think dogs like eating children's teeth

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. stories C. beginnings D. families
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
C. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
D. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. late in the morning
C. long before bedtime D. soon after midnight

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they are
willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Humans and endangered species B. The importance of living organisms
C. Measures to protect endangered species D. Causes of animal extinction
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable Question 37. Which of the
following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
B. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
C. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
D. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. human-related effects B. some species
C. low birthrates D. natural obstacles
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. a kind of harmless animals B. an achievement of human beings
C. a harmful factor to the environment D. a kind of useful plants
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. develop B. complete C. remain D. disappear
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT
true? A. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
B. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
C. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
D. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.
C. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
D. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
Question 44. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 46. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 47. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
B. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
Question 49. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
B. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
C. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
D. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
Question 50. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
B. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
C. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
D. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 408


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. serviced B. installed C. developed D. repaired Question 2. They were among the
first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. prospect B. ability C. potential D. possibility Question 3. Domestic appliances like washing
machines and dishwashers have made ______ life much easier.

A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
Question 4. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. need B. ought C. might D. must
Question 5. Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. intention B. purpose C. occasion D. chance
Question 6. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differ B. differently C. difference D. different
Question 7. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. have finished B. finish C. finished D. will finish
Question 8. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. which B. when C. who D. where
Question 9. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more fluent you can speak it B. the more fluently you can speak it
C. the more you can speak it fluent D. the more you can speak it fluently
Question 10. Thanks to her father's encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. contribution B. standard C. progress D. development
Question 11. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. new Italian nice B. nice Italian new C. new nice Italian D. nice new Italian
Question 12. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. come over B. go through C. take on D. get over

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13. A. matched B. dressed C. joined D. dropped
Question 14. A. call B. walk C. take D. talk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A. cultural B. possible C. supportive Question 16. D. confident
A. farmer B. result C. office D. nature

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. increased B. developed C. generated D. created
Question 18. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. boring B. attractive C. informative D. exciting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can keep secrets B. talks too much C. hates parties D. can't eat a lot Question 20. Today
students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their parents and teachers.

A. nervousness B. emotion C. relaxation D. stress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm fine. Thank you
C. I'm having a class now D. I'm busy now
Question 22. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. Thank you for looking for it B. You can say that again
C. I like reading books D. I'm glad you like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 24. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.
Question 25. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He was in London for three years. B. He didn't visit London three years ago.
C. He hasn't visited London for three years. D. He has been in London for three years.

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Question 27. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
B. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.
C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
D. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
Question 28. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.
C. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
D. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
B. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
C. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.
D. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
Question 30. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (31)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (32)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (33)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (34)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (35)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 31. A. giving B. making C. having D. taking
Question 32. A. Therefore B. In addition C. For example D. Otherwise
Question 33. A. that B. when C. what D. where
Question 34. A. compete B. competition C. competitively D. competitive
Question 35. A. apply B. study C. decide D. employ

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?


A. The manga industry in Japan
B. Children's most favourite type of books
C. Problems in the book industry
D. The need for digital comic books
Question 37. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. comic books B. children C. publishers D. things
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. a comic book B. a child C. an electronic device D. a TV programme
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. translating uploaded manga books
B. selling translated manga books
C. scanning uploaded manga books
D. scanning and translating manga books

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Question 40. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese
translated manga because ______.
A. they wanted to make a name for themselves
B. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
C. they wanted to read manga for free
D. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Readers B. Publishers C. Writers D. Artists
Question 42. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. advertising a book without permission B. hurting the sale of illegal comic books
C. copying and using a book illegally D. controlling the production of a book

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)
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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Marine pollution and its many forms
B. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
C. The end of the "dilution" era
D. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
Question 44. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. positive B. unpredictable C. serious D. insignificant Question 45. It can be inferred from
paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
B. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
C. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
D. dealing with the problems of water pollution
Question 46. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the oceans B. marine organisms
C. ocean's depths D. man-made pollutants
Question 47. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. produce B. prevent C. appear D. limit
Question 48. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
B. are created by massive blooms of algae
C. cannot be found inland
D. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the
passage? A. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
B. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
C. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
D. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
Question 50. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. are forced to migrate because of water pollution B.
can communicate with each other via sound waves
C. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
D. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 409


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. conducted B. filled C. carried D. commented Question 2. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to
spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. beneficial B. worthy C. valuable D. costly
Question 3. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. requisite B. demand C. request D. claim
Question 4. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 5. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more the beaches get crowded D. the more crowded the beaches get
Question 6. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. take over B. catch on C. hold on D. stand for
Question 7. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decisive C. decisively D. decision
Question 8. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. invention C. occurrence D. display
Question 9. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. old Japanese black B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. black old Japanese
Question 10. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. am visiting B. visited C. have visited D. visit
Question 11. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. Ø C. a D. the Question 12. You ______ use your mobile phone during the
test. It's against the rules.
A. needn't B. oughtn't C. mightn't D. mustn't

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. outgoing B. mischievous C. shy D. caring
Question 14. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. given a lift B. treated with sincerity C. deceived deliberately D.
driven away

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. assistance B. experience C. understanding D. confidence
Question 16. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. simple B. easy C. interesting D. hard

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. Congratulations! B. It's my pleasure.
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 18. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm leaving now B. Fine, thank you C. I'm thirty years old D. I'm going home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. lesson B. teacher C. police D. action
Question 20. A. relation B. happiness C. importance D. employment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. map B. face C. date D. page
Question 22. A. planned B. lived C. played D. cooked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Question 24. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 25. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
B. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Question 27. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
D. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
Question 28. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I have met my grandparents for five years.
B. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
D. I last met my grandparents five years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 30. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
D. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(31)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (32)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (33)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (34)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture,
both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several
times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (35)______ respect for the receiver, it is
common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 31. A. conditions B. locations C. situations D. positions
Question 32. A. where B. whose C. which D. who
Question 33. A. differently B. different C. differences D. differ
Question 34. A. Therefore B. However C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 35. A. show B. get C. feel D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Customs concerning children's new teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Presents for young children's lost teeth
Question 37. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. children's B. roofs' C. countries' D. houses'
Question 38. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Japan and Vietnam
C. In Mongolia D. In Korea
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her
tooth B. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
C. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and
strong D. they think dogs like eating children's teeth

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Question 40. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
Question 42. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. long before bedtime B. early in the evening
C. soon after midnight D. late in the morning

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Measures to protect endangered species D. Humans and endangered species
Question 44. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrecognizable B. unavoidable C. unimportant D. unexpected
Question 45. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
B. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
C. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
D. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
Question 46. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. human-related effects B. some species
C. natural obstacles D. low birthrates
Question 47. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a kind of useful plants
C. a kind of harmless animals D. a harmful factor to the environment
Question 48. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. develop B. complete C. disappear D. remain
Question 49. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
B. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
C. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
D. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.
B. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
C. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
D. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 410


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. need B. might C. ought D. must Question 2. Thanks to her father's encouragement,
she has made great ______ in her study.
A. development B. contribution C. progress D. standard Question 3. Jim didn't break the
vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. chance B. purpose C. occasion D. intention
Question 4. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. ability B. potential C. possibility D. prospect
Question 5. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 6. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 7. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. come over B. go through C. take on D. get over
Question 8. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. different B. difference C. differently D. differ
Question 9. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. have finished B. finished C. finish D. will finish
Question 10. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. new Italian nice B. nice Italian new C. nice new Italian D. new nice Italian
Question 11. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more fluently you can speak it B. the more you can speak it fluently
C. the more you can speak it fluent D. the more fluent you can speak it
Question 12. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. serviced B. repaired C. developed D. installed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. increased B. generated C. created D. developed
Question 14. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. informative B. exciting C. boring D. attractive

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can't eat a lot B. can keep secrets C. talks too much D. hates parties Question 16. Today
students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their parents and teachers.

A. emotion B. nervousness C. relaxation D. stress

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. office B. farmer C. nature D. result
Question 18. A. confident B. cultural C. possible D. supportive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. matched B. dropped C. dressed D. joined
Question 20. A. walk B. talk C. call D. take

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. I like reading books B. I'm glad you like it
C. Thank you for looking for it D. You can say that again
Question 22. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm having a class now B. I'm going home
C. I'm fine. Thank you D. I'm busy now

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
B. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
C. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.

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Question 24. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A BCD Question 26. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their
excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.
Question 27. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 28. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He didn't visit London three years ago. B. He has been in London for three years.
C. He was in London for three years. D. He hasn't visited London for three years.
Question 29. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.
B. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
C. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
D. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
Question 30. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
C. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (31)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (32)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (33)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (34)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (35)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 31. A. taking B. giving C. making D. having
Question 32. A. Therefore B. For example C. In addition D. Otherwise
Question 33. A. that B. when C. what D. where
Question 34. A. compete B. competitively C. competitive D. competition
Question 35. A. decide B. apply C. employ D. study

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Problems in the book industry
B. The need for digital comic books
C. The manga industry in Japan
D. Children's most favourite type of books
Question 37. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. comic books B. publishers C. children D. things
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. a TV programme B. an electronic device C. a child D. a comic book
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. scanning and translating manga books
B. translating uploaded manga books
C. scanning uploaded manga books
D. selling translated manga books

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Question 40. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese
translated manga because ______.
A. they wanted to make a name for themselves
B. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
D. they wanted to read manga for free
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Publishers B. Writers C. Artists D. Readers
Question 42. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. hurting the sale of illegal comic books B. advertising a book without permission
C. copying and using a book illegally D. controlling the production of a book

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
B. Marine pollution and its many forms
C. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
D. The end of the "dilution" era
Question 44. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. serious B. positive C. unpredictable D. insignificant Question 45. It can be inferred from
paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. dealing with the problems of water pollution
B. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
C. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
D. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
Question 46. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. marine organisms B. man-made pollutants
C. the oceans D. ocean's depths
Question 47. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. appear B. prevent C. limit D. produce
Question 48. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
B. are created by massive blooms of algae
C. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
D. cannot be found inland
Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?
A. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
C. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
D. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
Question 50. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
B. can communicate with each other via sound waves
C. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 411


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. reply B. answer C. singer D. future
Question 2. A. difficult B. popular C. national D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. missed B. cleaned C. watched D. talked
Question 4. A. think B. drive C. mind D. find

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. Fine, thanks B. I'm thirty-five years old
C. I'm free today D. I'm not working today
Question 6. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. Of course you can B. I'm sure about that
C. I don't think it works D. I'm afraid not

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. remind B. allow C. encourage D. advise
Question 8. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. shake B. hold C. join D. give
Question 9. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educate B. educational C. education D. educationally
Question 10. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. overwhelmed B. overjoyed C. preoccupied D. bewildered
Question 11. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. an B. a C. Ø D. the
Question 12. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty American tall B. tall American pretty C. tall pretty American D. pretty tall American

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Question 13. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. make up C. take over D. make out
Question 14. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. may B. must C. might D. ought
Question 15. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 16. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. starts B. will start C. started D. is starting
Question 17. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequently natural disasters occur B. the more frequent are natural disasters
C. the more frequently natural disasters occur D. the most frequent natural disasters are
Question 18. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. deficiency B. shortage C. lack D. absence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. confident B. impressed C. fearful D. upset
Question 20. I'm sure he will be home and dry in the interview because he has good
qualifications and wide experience.
A. be satisfied B. be unsuccessful C. be successful D. be unsatisfied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. important B. interesting C. simple D. difficult
Question 22. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. alike B. different C. strange D. familiar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
D. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
Question 24. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
B. He denied going camping at the weekend.
C. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.
D. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
Question 25. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
B. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
C. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D
Question 27. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Question 28. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Question 30. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (31)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (32)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (33)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (34)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (35)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 31. A. However B. Otherwise C. In addition D. Therefore
Question 32. A. attract B. attractively C. attractive D. attraction
Question 33. A. willing B. careful C. active D. able
Question 34. A. learn B. know C. take D. accept
Question 35. A. when B. that C. who D. where

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source:http://www.hiraganatimes.com)

Question 36. What is the main idea of this passage?


A. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
B. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
C. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
Question 37. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. a kind of gift B. an important guest C. a happy occasion D. a type of food
Question 38. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the relatives' B. the couple's C. the parents' D. the friends'
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.
B. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
C. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
D. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
Question 40. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. benefit B. luck C. excitement D. money

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Question 41. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were more delicious. B. They were served in smaller amounts.
C. They were less delicious. D. They were served in larger amounts.
Question 42. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.

A. fasten the rope B. get married C. loosen the tie D. get


engaged

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Future Reactions
B. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
C. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
D. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
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Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans
C. Solar radiation D. Carbon dioxide
Question 45. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. gases B. increases C. temperatures D. scientists
Question 46. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. showing B. appearing C. fading D. ending
Question 47. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
Question 48. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. improving B. increasing C. preventing D. decreasing
Question 49. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods B. Higher agricultural production
C. Minimal natural disasters D. Favourable weather conditions
Question 50. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Argumentative B. Sarcastic C. Ironic D. Informative

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 412


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. The higher the cost of living is, ______.
A. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
B. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
C. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
D. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
Question 2. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. might B. must C. may D. can
Question 3. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 4. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's
questions and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. concentrate B. rely C. emphasize D. decide
Question 5. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. red new German B. red German new C. new red German D. new German red
Question 6. Harmful environmental factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. monitor B. accelerate C. produce D. generate Question 7. There has been growing public
concern about the use of chemicals in food ______ recently.

A. protection B. conservation C. preservation D. reservation Question 8. It is important


for students to ______ full use of university facilities. A. take B. make C. find D. do
Question 9. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city. A. a B.
Ø C. an D. the

Question 10. A lot of research in medical science has been ______ to improve human health.
A. made up B. given off C. taken up D. carried out
Question 11. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. compete B. competitive C. competitively D. competition
Question 12. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. are seeing B. saw C. see D. will see

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13. A. dance B. face C. hate D. make
Question 14. A. worked B. passed C. washed D. opened

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A. dangerous B. medical C. regular D. essential
Question 16. A. advice B. student C. doctor D. parent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm fine, thanks B. I'm looking for a book
C. I'm forty years old D. I'm not working today
Question 18. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. My pleasure
C. Just a minute, please D. You're exactly right

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. different B. similar C. alike D. changeable Question 20. If you are at a loose end
tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and relaxing on the beach?

A. having a lot to gain B. having nothing to do


C. having nothing to lose D. having a lot to do

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. announce B. remind C. notice D. infer
Question 22. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. heavily B. lightly C. badly D. softly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (23)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(24)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (25)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.

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Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (26)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of
the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (27)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues
can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)
Question 23. A. encouraged B. forbidden C. assisted D. opposed
Question 24. A. touch B. taste C. sound D. sense
Question 25. A. in contrast B. moreover C. in addition D. therefore
Question 26. A. where B. who C. which D. whose
Question 27. A. useful B. usefully C. usefulness D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the name is
chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a child's
culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The tradition of child naming in different
cultures B. The choice of name for a child in Asia
C. The practice of child naming in Europe
D. The history of child naming around the world
Question 29. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. relatives B. grandparents C. parents D. ancestors

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Question 30. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sign B. route C. symbol D. way
Question 31. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
B. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.
C. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
D. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
Question 32. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
B. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
C. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
D. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
Question 33. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. culture B. name C. preference D. tradition
Question 34. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. revealed B. ignored C. developed D. valued

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle,
lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these
lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a
new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)
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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The size of tropical rainforest loss
B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
B. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
C. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
D. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
Question 37. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. fallen again B. risen again C. gone up and down D. remained unchanged Question 38. Which
of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The disappearance of many rainforest species
B. The disappearance of landless farmers
C. The increase in the rainforest habitat
D. The decrease in wasted lands
Question 39. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different
regions?
A. The search for rare animals B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for new farm lands D. The search for oil
Question 40. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. renew B. repeat C. refine D. recover
Question 41. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands sold and colonized B. lands for raising cattle
C. lands for planting D. lands abandoned and wasted
Question 42. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.
B. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.
C. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
D. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
B. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
C. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.
D. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job. Question
44. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent homemakers.

A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.
Question 46. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 47. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary suggested giving John the money.
B. Mary denied giving John the money.
C. Mary remembered giving John the money.
D. Mary admitted giving John the money.
Question 49. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
B. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
C. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
D. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
Question 50. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
B. I last heard from Susan several months ago.
C. Susan heard from me several months ago.
D. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: .........................................................................


Mã đề thi 413
.............................................................................Sốbáodanh:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. I'm thirty-five years old B. Fine, thanks
C. I'm free today D. I'm not working today
Question 2. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. I'm afraid not B. I don't think it works
C. Of course you can D. I'm sure about that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. is starting B. started C. starts D. will start
Question 4. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. deficiency B. absence C. lack D. shortage
Question 5. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty tall American B. tall American pretty C. tall pretty American D. pretty American tall
Question 6. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. make up B. make out C. take over D. take on
Question 7. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educate B. educationally C. education D. educational
Question 8. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. bewildered B. overjoyed C. overwhelmed D. preoccupied
Question 9. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. must B. might C. may D. ought
Question 10. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. when B. where C. who D. which
Question 11. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 12. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. remind B. advise C. allow D. encourage
Question 13. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. hold B. join C. shake D. give

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Question 14. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequently natural disasters occur B. the more frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the most frequent natural disasters are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. important B. simple C. difficult D. interesting
Question 16. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. familiar B. different C. alike D. strange

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. impressed B. upset C. fearful D. confident Question 18. I'm sure he will be home
and dry in the interview because he has good qualifications and wide experience.

A. be satisfied B. be successful C. be unsatisfied D. be unsuccessful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. reply B. future C. singer D. answer
Question 20. A. national B. difficult C. popular D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. drive B. find C. think D. mind
Question 22. A. missed B. watched C. cleaned D. talked

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (23)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (24)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (25)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (26)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (27)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)

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Question 23. A. However B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. In addition
Question 24. A. attractively B. attractive C. attraction D. attract
Question 25. A. active B. willing C. able D. careful
Question 26. A. accept B. take C. learn D. know
Question 27. A. that B. who C. when D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com)

Question 28. What is the main idea of this passage?


A. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
B. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
C. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
Question 29. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. a kind of gift B. an important guest C. a happy occasion D. a type of food
Question 30. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the relatives' B. the parents' C. the couple's D. the friends'
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
B. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
C. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
D. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.
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Question 32. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. benefit B. excitement C. money D. luck
Question 33. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were more delicious. B. They were less delicious.
C. They were served in smaller amounts. D. They were served in larger amounts.
Question 34. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. get engaged B. loosen the tie
C. fasten the rope D. get married

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 35. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
B. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
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Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Solar radiation
C. Glass in a greenhouse D. Humans
Question 37. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. gases B. temperatures C. scientists D. increases
Question 38. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. fading B. appearing C. ending D. showing
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
B. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
C. Global climate naturally changes over time.
D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
Question 40. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. decreasing B. increasing C. improving D. preventing
Question 41. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Favourable weather conditions B. Higher agricultural production
C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods D. Minimal natural disasters
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Ironic B. Informative C. Sarcastic D. Argumentative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
Question 44. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Question 46. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Question 47. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
B. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.
Question 49. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
D. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
Question 50. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He denied going camping at the weekend.
B. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
C. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 414


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. essential B. medical C. dangerous D. regular Question 2. A. doctor B.
parent C. student D. advice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. hate B. make C. face D. dance
Question 4. A. washed B. passed C. opened D. worked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm fine, thanks B. I'm looking for a book
C. I'm not working today D. I'm forty years old
Question 6. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You're exactly right B. My pleasure
C. You are very kind D. Just a minute, please

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 7. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. new German red B. red new German C. red German new D. new red German Question 8.
The higher the cost of living is, ______.
A. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
B. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
C. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
D. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
Question 9. A lot of research in medical science has been ______ to improve human health.
A. carried out B. taken up C. given off D. made up
Question 10. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's questions
and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. rely B. decide C. concentrate D. emphasize

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Question 11. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. who B. which C. where D. when
Question 12. Harmful environmental factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. monitor B. produce C. accelerate D. generate
Question 13. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city.
A. a B. an C. Ø D. the
Question 14. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. competitive B. compete C. competition D. competitively
Question 15. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. can B. must C. may D. might
Question 16. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. see B. will see C. saw D. are seeing
Question 17. There has been growing public concern about the use of chemicals in food ______
recently.
A. conservation B. preservation C. protection D. reservation
Question 18. It is important for students to ______ full use of university facilities.
A. find B. take C. do D. make

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. notice B. infer C. announce D. remind
Question 20. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. softly B. heavily C. lightly D. badly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. similar B. different C. changeable D. alike Question 22. If you are at a loose end
tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and relaxing on the beach?

A. having nothing to do B. having a lot to gain


C. having nothing to lose D. having a lot to do

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (23)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(24)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (25)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (26)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware

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of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (27)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues
can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)
Question 23. A. opposed B. assisted C. encouraged D. forbidden
Question 24. A. taste B. touch C. sound D. sense
Question 25. A. moreover B. in addition C. therefore D. in contrast
Question 26. A. where B. which C. whose D. who
Question 27. A. usefulness B. usefully C. useful D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the
name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a
child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 28. What is the main idea of the passage?


A. The choice of name for a child in Asia
B. The practice of child naming in Europe
C. The history of child naming around the world
D. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
Question 29. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. ancestors B. grandparents C. relatives D. parents
Question 30. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. route B. symbol C. way D. sign

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Question 31. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
B. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.
C. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
D. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
Question 32. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
B. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
C. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
D. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
Question 33. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. culture B. preference C. tradition D. name
Question 34. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. ignored B. revealed C. valued D. developed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle,
lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these
lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a
new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The size of tropical rainforest loss
D. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
B. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
C. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
D. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
Question 37. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. fallen again B. remained unchanged C. risen again D. gone up and down
Question 38. Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The increase in the rainforest habitat
B. The decrease in wasted lands
C. The disappearance of landless farmers
D. The disappearance of many rainforest species
Question 39. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in
different regions?
A. The search for oil B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for rare animals D. The search for new farm lands
Question 40. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. refine B. recover C. repeat D. renew
Question 41. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands for raising cattle B. lands abandoned and wasted
C. lands sold and colonized D. lands for planting
Question 42. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
B. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
C. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.
D. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.
Question 44. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 45. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
B. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
C. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
D. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
Question 47. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.
B. I last heard from Susan several months ago.
C. Susan heard from me several months ago.
D. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
Question 48. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary remembered giving John the money.
B. Mary denied giving John the money.
C. Mary admitted giving John the money.
D. Mary suggested giving John the money.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.
B. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
C. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
D. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job. Question
50. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent homemakers.

A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 415


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mustn't B. oughtn't C. mightn't D. needn't Question 2. A survey was ______ to
study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. carried C. conducted D. filled
Question 3. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. invention C. display D. occurrence
Question 4. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the more crowded the beaches get B. the most crowded the beaches get
C. the more the beaches get crowded D. the most the beaches get crowded
Question 5. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. old Japanese black B. Japanese old black C. black old Japanese D. old black Japanese
Question 6. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. am visiting B. visited C. visit D. have visited
Question 7. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 8. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. worthy B. beneficial C. costly D. valuable
Question 9. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decision B. decisive C. decide D. decisively
Question 10. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. catch on B. take over C. stand for D. hold on Question 11. A university degree is
considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. claim B. request C. demand D. requisite
Question 12. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. which B. when C. who D. where

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 13. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm thirty years old C. Fine, thank you D. I'm leaving now

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Question 14. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's very kind of you. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's my pleasure.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. understanding B. assistance C. confidence D. experience
Question 16. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. interesting B. hard C. easy D. simple

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. outgoing B. mischievous C. shy D. caring
Question 18. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. given a lift B. deceived deliberately C. driven away D. treated with sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. date B. page C. face D. map
Question 20. A. cooked B. played C. lived D. planned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. relation B. employment C. importance D. happiness
Question 22. A. police B. action C. lesson D. teacher

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture,
both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several
times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is
common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. situations B. positions C. conditions D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. where C. whose D. which
Question 25. A. differ B. differently C. different D. differences
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. However
Question 27. A. get B. feel C. show D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Animals eating children's lost teeth
C. Customs concerning children's new teeth D. Presents for young children's lost teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. countries' C. children's D. roofs'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Japan and Vietnam B. In Mongolia
C. In Mexico and Spain D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
B. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. beginnings B. stories C. countries D. families

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Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. soon after midnight B. late in the morning
C. long before bedtime D. early in the evening

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Measures to protect endangered species
C. Causes of animal extinction D. Humans and endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrecognizable B. unexpected C. unimportant D. unavoidable Question 37. Which of
the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
B. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
C. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
D. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. human-related effects D. some species
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. a kind of harmless animals B. a kind of useful plants
C. a harmful factor to the environment D. an achievement of human beings
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. remain B. complete C. disappear D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
B. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
C. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
D. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
C. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
C. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
D. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.

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Question 45. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I have met my grandparents for five years.
B. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
D. I last met my grandparents five years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 47. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Question 48. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
B. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
C. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
D. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
Question 50. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

Trang 6/6 - Mã đề thi 415


BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 416


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. Thank you for looking for it B. You can say that again
C. I'm glad you like it D. I like reading books
Question 2. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm having a class now B. I'm going home
C. I'm busy now D. I'm fine. Thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. dressed B. joined C. dropped D. matched
Question 4. A. take B. talk C. call D. walk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. nature B. farmer C. result Question 6. A. D. office
confident B. supportive C. possible D. cultural

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. Thanks to her father's encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. contribution B. development C. standard D. progress Question 8. I am not used to the
cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. installed B. developed C. repaired D. serviced
Question 9. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. the B. an C. a D. Ø
Question 10. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differ B. differently C. difference D. different
Question 11. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. possibility B. potential C. prospect D. ability
Question 12. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. take on B. go through C. come over D. get over
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Question 13. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. nice new Italian B. new nice Italian C. new Italian nice D. nice Italian new
Question 14. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. might B. need C. ought D. must
Question 15. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. have finished B. finish C. will finish D. finished
Question 16. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more you can speak it fluently B. the more fluent you can speak it
C. the more fluently you can speak it D. the more you can speak it fluent
Question 17. Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. intention B. purpose C. occasion D. chance
Question 18. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. which B. when C. where D. who

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. increased B. generated C. developed D. created
Question 20. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. informative B. exciting C. attractive D. boring

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. nervousness B. emotion C. relaxation D. stress
Question 22. Don't tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can't eat a lot B. can keep secrets C. hates parties D. talks too much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 23. A. having B. making C. taking D. giving
Question 24. A. Otherwise B. In addition C. Therefore D. For example
Question 25. A. when B. what C. that D. where
Question 26. A. compete B. competition C. competitive D. competitively
Question 27. A. employ B. apply C. study D. decide

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. The manga industry in Japan
B. Problems in the book industry
C. The need for digital comic books
D. Children's most favourite type of books
Question 29. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. things B. children C. comic books D. publishers
Question 30. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. an electronic device B. a TV programme C. a comic book D. a child
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. scanning uploaded manga books
B. scanning and translating manga books
C. selling translated manga books
D. translating uploaded manga books

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Question 32. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese translated
manga because ______.
A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
B. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
C. they wanted to read manga for free
D. they wanted to make a name for themselves
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Writers B. Publishers C. Artists D. Readers
Question 34. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. hurting the sale of illegal comic books B. controlling the production of a book
C. advertising a book without permission D. copying and using a book illegally

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The end of the "dilution" era
B. Marine pollution and its many forms
C. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
D. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
Question 36. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. serious B. unpredictable C. positive D. insignificant Question 37. It can be inferred from
paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
B. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
C. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
D. dealing with the problems of water pollution
Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. marine organisms B. the oceans
C. man-made pollutants D. ocean's depths
Question 39. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. appear B. produce C. limit D. prevent
Question 40. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. cannot be found inland
B. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
C. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
D. are created by massive blooms of algae
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?
A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
C. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
D. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
Question 42. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. can communicate with each other via sound waves
B. are forced to migrate because of water pollution
C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
D. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.
C. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
D. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
Question 44. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
B. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
C. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
D. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.

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Question 45. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He has been in London for three years. B. He didn't visit London three years ago.
C. He was in London for three years. D. He hasn't visited London for three years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.

Question 47. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D
Question 48. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
B. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.
C. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
D. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
Question 50. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 417


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's very kind of you. B. Better luck next time!
C. It's my pleasure. D. Congratulations!
Question 2. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm leaving now B. Fine, thank you C. I'm thirty years old D. I'm going home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. interesting B. simple C. easy D. hard
Question 4. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. assistance B. understanding C. experience D. confidence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. outgoing B. mischievous C. caring D. shy
Question 6. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately C. given a lift D. treated with
sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7. A. cooked B. lived C. played D. planned
Question 8. A. date B. map C. page D. face

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9. A. importance B. relation C. happiness Question 10. D. employment
A. teacher B. action C. police D. lesson

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. costly B. beneficial C. worthy D. valuable
Question 12. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most the beaches get crowded B. the more crowded the beaches get
C. the more the beaches get crowded D. the most crowded the beaches get
Question 13. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. display B. research C. invention D. occurrence
Question 14. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. Ø B. the C. a D. an
Question 15. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. take over B. stand for C. hold on D. catch on
Question 16.The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 17.You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. oughtn't B. mustn't C. needn't D. mightn't
Question 18.Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. Japanese old black B. black old Japanese C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 19.A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. carried B. conducted C. filled D. commented
Question 20.I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. have visited B. visit C. visited D. am visiting
Question 21.A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. claim B. demand C. requisite D. request
Question 22.It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decisive B. decide C. decisively D. decision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
B. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
C. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
D. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
Question 24. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I have met my grandparents for five years.
C. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
D. I often met my grandparents five years ago.

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Question 25. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Question 27. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 28. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
Question 30. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
D. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(31)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (32)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (33)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (34)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both the
giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times

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before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (35)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 31. A. positions B. situations C. locations D. conditions


Question 32. A. whose B. where C. which D. who
Question 33. A. different B. differently C. differ D. differences
Question 34. A. However B. Otherwise C. Moreover D. Therefore
Question 35. A. show B. get C. feel D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Presents for young children's lost teeth B. Customs concerning children's new teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
Question 37. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. children's C. countries' D. roofs'
Question 38. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mongolia B. In Korea
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Mexico and Spain
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and
strong C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they know that dogs are very responsible animals

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Question 40. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
B. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
C. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
D. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
Question 42. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. long before bedtime B. late in the morning
C. early in the evening D. soon after midnight

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Humans and endangered species
C. Causes of animal extinction D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 44. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrecognizable B. unexpected C. unavoidable D. unimportant
Question 45. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
B. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
C. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 46. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. human-related effects
C. some species D. low birthrates
Question 47. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. a kind of useful plants B. an achievement of human beings
C. a harmful factor to the environment D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 48. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. develop B. complete C. disappear D. remain
Question 49. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
D. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
B. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
C. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.
D. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 418


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. I'm glad you like it B. I like reading books
C. Thank you for looking for it D. You can say that again
Question 2. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm having a class now B. I'm fine. Thank you
C. I'm busy now D. I'm going home

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. joined B. dropped C. matched D. dressed
Question 4. A. call B. talk C. take D. walk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. possible B. supportive C. cultural D. confident
Question 6. A. farmer B. result C. nature D. office

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. increased B. created C. generated D. developed
Question 8. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. boring B. informative C. attractive D. exciting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. stress B. nervousness C. relaxation D. emotion Question 10. Don't tell Jane anything about
the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. hates parties B. talks too much C. can't eat a lot D. can keep secrets

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differently B. differ C. difference D. different Question 12. Thanks to her father's
encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. development B. contribution C. standard D. progress
Question 13. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. finished B. finish C. will finish D. have finished
Question 14. Jim didn't break the vase on ______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. occasion B. purpose C. chance D. intention Question 15. Peter is disappointed at
not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. get over B. go through C. come over D. take on
Question 16. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 17. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. ought B. need C. must D. might
Question 18. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. nice new Italian B. new nice Italian C. new Italian nice D. nice Italian new
Question 19. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. where B. which C. who D. when
Question 20. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. serviced B. installed C. developed D. repaired
Question 21. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more you can speak it fluently B. the more fluently you can speak it
C. the more you can speak it fluent D. the more fluent you can speak it
Question 22. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. potential B. ability C. possibility D. prospect

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 23. A. having B. taking C. making D. giving
Question 24. A. Otherwise B. In addition C. For example D. Therefore
Question 25. A. that B. what C. where D. when
Question 26. A. competitive B. competition C. compete D. competitively
Question 27. A. study B. employ C. decide D. apply

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Children's most favourite type of books
B. The need for digital comic books
C. The manga industry in Japan
D. Problems in the book industry
Question 29. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. comic books B. things C. children D. publishers
Question 30. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. a child B. a comic book C. a TV programme D. an electronic device
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. scanning uploaded manga books
B. translating uploaded manga books
C. scanning and translating manga books
D. selling translated manga books

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Question 32. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese translated
manga because ______.
A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
B. they wanted to make a name for themselves
C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
D. they wanted to read manga for free
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Artists B. Readers C. Publishers D. Writers
Question 34. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. copying and using a book illegally B. advertising a book without permission
C. controlling the production of a book D. hurting the sale of illegal comic books

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
B. The end of the "dilution" era
C. Marine pollution and its many forms
D. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
Question 36. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unpredictable B. positive C. insignificant D. serious Question 37. It can be inferred from
paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
B. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
C. dealing with the problems of water pollution
D. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. the oceans B. ocean's depths
C. man-made pollutants D. marine organisms
Question 39. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. produce B. limit C. appear D. prevent
Question 40. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. cannot be found inland
B. are created by massive blooms of algae
C. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
D. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage?
A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
B. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
C. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
D. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
Question 42. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
B. can communicate with each other via sound waves
C. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.
C. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
D. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
Question 44. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He hasn't visited London for three years. B. He has been in London for three years.
C. He didn't visit London three years ago. D. He was in London for three years.

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Question 45. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
B. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.
C. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.
D. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 47. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D
Question 48. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
Question 50. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
B. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
C. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
D. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 419


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. answer B. future C. singer D. reply
Question 2. A. effective B. national C. difficult D. popular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. drive B. think C. find D. mind
Question 4. A. watched B. cleaned C. talked D. missed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. important B. interesting C. difficult D. simple
Question 6. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. familiar B. strange C. alike D. different

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. confident B. upset C. fearful D. impressed Question 8. I'm sure he will be home and dry in
the interview because he has good qualifications and wide experience.

A. be satisfied B. be unsuccessful C. be successful D. be unsatisfied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 9. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. I don't think it works B. Of course you can
C. I'm afraid not D. I'm sure about that
Question 10. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. Fine, thanks B. I'm thirty-five years old
C. I'm not working today D. I'm free today

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. join B. shake C. hold D. give
Question 12. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. shortage B. deficiency C. absence D. lack
Question 13. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. overjoyed B. preoccupied C. overwhelmed D. bewildered
Question 14. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequently natural disasters occur D. the more frequent are natural disasters
Question 15. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 16. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. allow B. remind C. advise D. encourage
Question 17. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. will start B. started C. is starting D. starts
Question 18. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 19. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. take on B. take over C. make up D. make out
Question 20. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educate B. education C. educational D. educationally
Question 21. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. might B. ought C. may D. must
Question 22. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty American tall B. tall American pretty C. pretty tall American D. tall pretty American

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (23)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (24)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (25)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (26)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (27)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)

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Question 23. A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. In addition D. However
Question 24. A. attractive B. attractively C. attract D. attraction
Question 25. A. willing B. careful C. able D. active
Question 26. A. know B. take C. learn D. accept
Question 27. A. when B. who C. where D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com)
Question 28. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
B. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
C. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
Question 29. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. a happy occasion B. a kind of gift C. an important guest D. a type of food
Question 30. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the friends' B. the relatives' C. the couple's D. the parents'
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
B. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
C. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
D. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.

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Question 32. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. money B. luck C. benefit D. excitement
Question 33. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were served in larger amounts. B. They were served in smaller amounts.
C. They were more delicious. D. They were less delicious.
Question 34. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. loosen the tie B. get engaged
C. fasten the rope D. get married

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 35. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
B. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
C. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
D. Global Warming: Future Reactions
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Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Solar radiation B. Humans
C. Carbon dioxide D. Glass in a greenhouse
Question 37. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. increases B. temperatures C. gases D. scientists
Question 38. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. fading B. showing C. ending D. appearing
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.
C. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
D. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
Question 40. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. decreasing B. improving C. preventing D. increasing
Question 41. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Favourable weather conditions B. Minimal natural disasters
C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods D. Higher agricultural production
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Argumentative B. Ironic C. Sarcastic D. Informative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D
Question 44. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Question 45. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
B. He denied going camping at the weekend.
C. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.
Question 47. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I was in my hometown for a few years.
B. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
C. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
D. I have been in my hometown for a few years.

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Question 48. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
B. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
C. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
D. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
Question 50. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 420


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city.
A. Ø B. a C. the D. an Question 2. It is important for students to ______ full
use of university facilities. A. make B. take C. find D. do

Question 3. Harmful environmental factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. monitor B. accelerate C. produce D. generate
Question 4. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. when B. where C. who D. which
Question 5. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. can B. might C. must D. may
Question 6. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. competitively B. competitive C. compete D. competition
Question 7. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's
questions and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. emphasize B. rely C. concentrate D. decide Question 8. The higher the cost of
living is, ______.
A. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
B. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
C. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
D. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
Question 9. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. see B. are seeing C. saw D. will see
Question 10. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. red German new B. new red German C. red new German D. new German red
Question 11. A lot of research in medical science has been ______ to improve human health.
A. given off B. made up C. taken up D. carried out
Question 12. There has been growing public concern about the use of chemicals in food ______
recently.
A. protection B. reservation C. preservation D. conservation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. infer B. remind C. notice D. announce
Question 14. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. heavily B. softly C. badly D. lightly

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. If you are at a loose end tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and
relaxing on the beach?
A. having a lot to do B. having nothing to do
C. having nothing to lose D. having a lot to gain
Question 16. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. similar B. alike C. changeable D. different

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. advice B. student C. parent D. doctor
Question 18. A. dangerous B. regular C. essential D. medical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. passed B. worked C. opened D. washed
Question 20. A. hate B. face C. dance D. make

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. My pleasure
C. You're exactly right D. Just a minute, please
Question 22. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm not working today B. I'm looking for a book
C. I'm fine, thanks D. I'm forty years old

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary denied giving John the money.
B. Mary admitted giving John the money.
C. Mary remembered giving John the money.
D. Mary suggested giving John the money.
Question 24. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
B. Susan heard from me several months ago.
C. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.
D. I last heard from Susan several months ago.

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Question 25. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
B. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
C. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
D. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.
Question 27. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 28. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent
homemakers.
A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.
Question 30. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
B. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
C. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job.
D. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (31)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(32)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (33)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (34)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of
the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (35)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients,
and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)

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Question 31. A. forbidden B. opposed C. assisted D. encouraged
Question 32. A. touch B. sense C. taste D. sound
Question 33. A. in contrast B. in addition C. moreover D. therefore
Question 34. A. who B. which C. whose D. where
Question 35. A. useful B. use C. usefully D. usefulness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the
name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a
child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)

Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?


A. The practice of child naming in Europe
B. The history of child naming around the world
C. The choice of name for a child in Asia
D. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
Question 37. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected
by ______.
A. grandparents B. relatives C. ancestors D. parents
Question 38. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. symbol B. way C. route D. sign

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Question 39. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
B. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.
C. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
D. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
Question 40. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
B. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
C. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
D. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
Question 41. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. name B. culture C. tradition D. preference
Question 42. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. ignored B. valued C. developed D. revealed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless farmers
arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield, especially after a
couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers or large plantation
owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle, lands are then abandoned
and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these lands

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without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a new
piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. The size of tropical rainforest loss
Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
C. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
D. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
Question 45. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. fallen again B. gone up and down C. risen again D. remained unchanged Question 46. Which
of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The increase in the rainforest habitat
B. The disappearance of landless farmers
C. The disappearance of many rainforest species
D. The decrease in wasted lands
Question 47. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in
different regions?
A. The search for new farm lands B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for rare animals D. The search for oil
Question 48. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. repeat B. refine C. recover D. renew
Question 49. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands sold and colonized B. lands abandoned and wasted
C. lands for planting D. lands for raising cattle
Question 50. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.
B. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
C. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
D. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 421


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1. Lan ______ learning English a few years ago.
A. will start B. starts C. is starting D. started
Question 2. We were ______ by the spectacular scenery of the countryside.
A. overjoyed B. overwhelmed C. bewildered D. preoccupied
Question 3. The larger the area of forest is destroyed, ______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the more frequently natural disasters occur
Question 4. The water ______ in the area has resulted in poor crop production.
A. deficiency B. shortage C. lack D. absence
Question 5. I will phone Vivian to ______ her to buy some sugar; otherwise, she will forget.
A. encourage B. allow C. advise D. remind
Question 6. The boy ______ sits in front of me in the class studies very hard.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
Question 7. The company management decided to ______ more workers to meet the production schedule.
A. make up B. make out C. take on D. take over
Question 8. Could you ______ me a hand with the washing-up, Kent?
A. join B. shake C. hold D. give
Question 9. All students ______ hand in their assignments by Friday at the latest.
A. must B. may C. might D. ought
Question 10. In Vietnam, children begin their primary ______ at the age of six.
A. educationally B. educational C. educate D. education
Question 11. We moved to the countryside because we wanted to be close to ______ nature.
A. a B. an C. Ø D. the
Question 12. I met a ______ girl at my friend's birthday party last Sunday.
A. pretty tall American B. tall pretty American C. pretty American tall D. tall American pretty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13. Tim and Tom look similar although they are not brothers.
A. different B. strange C. familiar D. alike
Question 14. There weren't many tough questions in the exam, so I could answer most of them.
A. important B. simple C. interesting D. difficult

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15. Many people feel nervous when they first make a speech in public.
A. upset B. impressed C. fearful D. confident

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Question 16. I'm sure he will be home and dry in the interview because he has good
qualifications and wide experience.
A. be successful B. be unsuccessful C. be satisfied D. be unsatisfied

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17. A. answer B. future C. singer D. reply
Question 18. A. popular B. national C. difficult D. effective

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. find B. drive C. think D. mind
Question 20. A. missed B. watched C. cleaned D. talked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. Mary and John are meeting at the cinema.
Mary: "Hi, John. How are you?"
John: "______. And you?"
A. I'm free today B. I'm thirty-five years old
C. I'm not working today D. Fine, thanks
Question 22. Mrs Smith and her students are visiting the zoo.
Mike: "Can I feed the gorilla, Mrs Smith?"
Mrs Smith: "______. The sign says 'No feeding the animals'."
A. Of course you can B. I'm sure about that
C. I'm afraid not D. I don't think it works

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic
book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that
this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (23)______, many quality
graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or
audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for
children as they (24)______ young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true
with children who are not (25)______ to read, especially boys.
Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to
the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (26)______ new vocabulary more quickly. Many
teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially
in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be
regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students
develop the skills (27)______ are necessary to read more challenging works.
(Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt)

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Question 23. A. In addition B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 24. A. attraction B. attractively C. attract D. attractive
Question 25. A. able B. active C. careful D. willing
Question 26. A. know B. accept C. learn D. take
Question 27. A. when B. who C. that D. where

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members
attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and
colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi
– gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen.
A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall
together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are
seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's
and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration.
Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while
greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and
groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party.
In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams,
were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the
surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally,
before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono.
Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that
it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic
bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke
machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days,
couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest
affair, or still going all out.
(Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com)

Question 28. What is the main idea of this passage?


A. Popular wedding gifts in Japan
B. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past
C. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble
D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan
Question 29. According to the passage, goshuugi is ______.
A. a kind of gift B. a happy occasion C. an important guest D. a type of food
Question 30. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the relatives' B. the couple's C. the friends' D. the parents'
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their
wedding party?
A. They hold a candle and sing in celebration.
B. They deliver a speech to thank their parents.
C. They give a speech to thank their bosses.
D. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage.
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Question 32. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. luck B. benefit C. excitement D. money
Question 33. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today?
A. They were more delicious. B. They were served in smaller amounts.
C. They were served in larger amounts. D. They were less delicious.
Question 34. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. get married B. loosen the tie
C. fasten the rope D. get engaged

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in
what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but
tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the
Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most
significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than
there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous
oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well.
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a
warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5
degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years
from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that
global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade
to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little
disagreement, though, that global warming is looming.
Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected
to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more
powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that
exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the
western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic
decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of
Africa, for example.
Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected
sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood
coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal
wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become
more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the
temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily
able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)

Question 35. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects
B. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions
C. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
D. Global Warming: Future Reactions
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Question 36. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in
greenhouse gases?
A. Solar radiation B. Glass in a greenhouse
C. Humans D. Carbon dioxide
Question 37. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. scientists B. increases C. gases D. temperatures
Question 38. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means ______.
A. showing B. fading C. ending D. appearing
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.
B. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
C. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.
D. Global climate naturally changes over time.
Question 40. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. decreasing B. increasing C. improving D. preventing
Question 41. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States?
A. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods B. Favourable weather conditions
C. Higher agricultural production D. Minimal natural disasters
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Informative B. Sarcastic C. Ironic D. Argumentative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies. Her classmates appreciate her.
A. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, so they appreciate her.
B. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, or they appreciate her.
C. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, but they appreciate her.
D. Mai usually helps her classmates with their studies, for they appreciate her.
Question 44. We cannot completely avoid stress in our lives. We need to find ways to cope with it.
A. As long as we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
B. After we can completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Since we cannot completely avoid stress in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.
D. Because stress can completely be avoided in our lives, we need to find ways to cope with it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45. I haven't visited my hometown for a few years.
A. I didn't visit my hometown a few years ago.
B. I have been in my hometown for a few years.
C. I last visited my hometown a few years ago.
D. I was in my hometown for a few years.

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Question 46. He was successful in his career thanks to his parents' support.
A. If his parents hadn't supported him, he wouldn't have been successful in his career.
B. Had it not been for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
C. But for his parents' support, he wouldn't be successful in his career.
D. Without his parents' support, he would have been successful in his career.
Question 47. "Why don't we go camping at the weekend?" he said.
A. He suggested going camping at the weekend.
B. He objected to going camping at the weekend.
C. He denied going camping at the weekend.
D. He apologized for going camping at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48. Children learn primarily by directly experiencing the world around it.
A B C D
Question 49. A number of wildlife habitat reserves have been established in order to saving
A B C
endangered species from extinction.
D
Question 50. She always try to finish her homework before going to bed.
A B C D

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 422


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Andrew is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
Andrew: "Can I have the bill, please?"
Waiter: "______."
A. You are very kind B. Just a minute, please
C. My pleasure D. You're exactly right
Question 2. Anna and Ms White are meeting in a bookshop.
Anna: "Good morning, Ms White. How are you?"
Ms White: "Hi, Anna. ______. And you?"
A. I'm looking for a book B. I'm fine, thanks
C. I'm not working today D. I'm forty years old

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. essential B. dangerous C. regular D. medical
Question 4. A. doctor B. parent C. advice D. student

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. passed B. opened C. worked D. washed
Question 6. A. make B. face C. dance D. hate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7. You ______ pass the exam in order to graduate from high school.
A. can B. may C. must D. might
Question 8. Peter bought a ______ car as a present for his wife two weeks ago.
A. red new German B. new red German C. new German red D. red German new
Question 9. The pace of ______ life is much slower in the country than in the city.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 10. The dog ______ my father gave me is very lovely.
A. who B. which C. when D. where
Question 11. The success of the company in such a ______ market is remarkable.
A. competitive B. compete C. competition D. competitively
Question 12. During a job interview, candidates are advised to ______ on the interviewer's questions
and make an effort to answer them properly.
A. emphasize B. rely C. concentrate D. decide
Question 13. It is important for students to ______ full use of university facilities.
A. do B. take C. find D. make

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Question 14. There has been growing public concern about the use of chemicals in food ______
recently.
A. reservation B. protection C. preservation D. conservation
Question 15. The higher the cost of living is, ______.
A. the hardest the life of the immigrants becomes
B. the harder the life of the immigrants becomes
C. the harder does the life of the immigrants become
D. the life of the immigrants becomes the harder
Question 16. A lot of research in medical science has been ______ to improve human health.
A. carried out B. given off C. made up D. taken up Question 17. Harmful environmental
factors can ______ the development of certain diseases.
A. generate B. monitor C. accelerate D. produce
Question 18. Last week, we ______ an interesting film about the animal world.
A. saw B. are seeing C. will see D. see

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. They are going to declare details of the plan to the public later this week.
A. announce B. notice C. remind D. infer
Question 20. It rained so hard that the roads were quickly covered in water.
A. lightly B. heavily C. badly D. softly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21. If you are at a loose end tomorrow, why don't we spend the day sunbathing and
relaxing on the beach?
A. having a lot to gain B. having a lot to do
C. having nothing to do D. having nothing to lose
Question 22. The twin girls are so identical that I can't distinguish one from the other.
A. different B. similar C. alike D. changeable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23. Nam had all the necessary qualifications. They didn't offer him the job.
A. If Nam had had all the necessary qualifications, he would have been offered the job.
B. They didn't offer Nam the job as he had all the necessary qualifications.
C. Nam had all the necessary qualifications, so they didn't offer him the job.
D. Despite having all the necessary qualifications, Nam was not offered the job.
Question 24. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers. They are excellent
homemakers.
A. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, so they are excellent homemakers.
B. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, for they are excellent homemakers.
C. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, or they are excellent homemakers.
D. Many Vietnamese women are successful in their careers, and they are excellent homemakers.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25. Working as a doctor would give me a chance taking care of people's health.
A B C D
Question 26. Jane help her mother to do the housework when she has free time.
A B C D
Question 27. Many living organisms depend largely on the environment for the satisfaction of its
A B C D
needs.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 28. They cancelled all the sporting events because of the heavy rain.
A. If it didn't rain heavily, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
B. Without the heavy rain, they wouldn't cancel all the sporting events.
C. If it hadn't rained heavily, they would have cancelled all the sporting events.
D. Had it not rained heavily, they wouldn't have cancelled all the sporting events.
Question 29. I haven't heard from Susan for several months.
A. I last heard from Susan several months ago.
B. I didn't hear from Susan several months ago.
C. Susan didn't hear from me several months ago.
D. Susan heard from me several months ago.
Question 30. "I didn't give John the money," said Mary.
A. Mary suggested giving John the money.
B. Mary denied giving John the money.
C. Mary remembered giving John the money.
D. Mary admitted giving John the money.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking
someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (31)______ to look directly
at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a
(32)______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact.
It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (33)______,
stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives
people a better sense of what their counterparts want.
Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (34)______ travel or
work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of
the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (35)______ to consider your own body language
before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients,
and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.
(Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett)
Question 31. A. encouraged B. forbidden C. opposed D. assisted
Question 32. A. touch B. sound C. sense D. taste

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Question 33. A. moreover B. therefore C. in contrast D. in addition
Question 34. A. which B. whose C. where D. who
Question 35. A. useful B. usefulness C. usefully D. use

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When naming a child, some parents seem to choose a name based simply on their personal
preference. In other families, grandparents or professional name-makers come up with a child's
name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined.
In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents' choice for their
child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children
are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents'
names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' names. Similarly,
some people in Eastern Europe name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is
seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death.
Traditionally in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the
child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is
chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to
certain elements such as fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written
character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's
name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day
has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas
a girl born on the same day is named Afua. Both Kofi and Afua mean "wanderer" or "explorer."
Children with these names are seen as travelers.
No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the
name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a
child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected.
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The practice of child naming in Europe
B. The tradition of child naming in different cultures
C. The choice of name for a child in Asia
D. The history of child naming around the world
Question 37. According to the passage, in many European cultures, names are typically selected by
______.
A. grandparents B. parents C. ancestors D. relatives
Question 38. The word "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. route B. symbol C. sign D. way
Question 39. What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming
a child?
A. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality.
B. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness.
C. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature.
D. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives.

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Question 40. Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is
NOT true according to the passage?
A. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning traveling.
B. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture.
C. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name.
D. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day.
Question 41. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. preference B. name C. tradition D. culture
Question 42. The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. developed B. valued C. ignored D. revealed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three
decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests –
have been cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High
rates of deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction
because many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some
scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged
forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone – the roads
built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as a
means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads built through a
forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized.
Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless
farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield,
especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers
or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle,
lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these
lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a
new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
(Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation)
Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
B. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. The size of tropical rainforest loss

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Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?
A. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.
B. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.
C. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.
D. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.
Question 45. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. fallen again B. remained unchanged C. gone up and down D. risen again Question
46. Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The increase in the rainforest habitat
B. The disappearance of landless farmers
C. The decrease in wasted lands
D. The disappearance of many rainforest species
Question 47. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different
regions?
A. The search for rare animals B. The search for new farm lands
C. The search for valuable woods D. The search for oil
Question 48. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. renew B. refine C. repeat D. recover
Question 49. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands sold and colonized B. lands for planting
C. lands abandoned and wasted D. lands for raising cattle
Question 50. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.
B. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.
C. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.
D. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 423


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. planned B. cooked C. lived D. played
Question 2. A. date B. face C. page D. map

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. importance B. relation C. happiness D. employment
Question 4. A. teacher B. police C. lesson D. action

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Better luck next time!
C. Congratulations! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm thirty years old B. Fine, thank you C. I'm going home D. I'm leaving now

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. caring C. shy D. outgoing
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. deceived deliberately B. treated with sincerity
C. driven away D. given a lift

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. easy B. interesting C. simple D. hard
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. understanding B. assistance C. experience D. confidence

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. oughtn't B. needn't C. mustn't D. mightn't Question 12. A university degree is considered
to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. request D. claim
Question 13. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. old Japanese black B. black old Japanese C. old black Japanese D. Japanese old black
Question 14. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. costly B. valuable C. beneficial D. worthy
Question 15. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. filled B. commented C. carried D. conducted
Question 16. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. have visited B. visited C. am visiting D. visit
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. occurrence B. research C. invention D. display
Question 18. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. a C. Ø D. the
Question 19. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the more the beaches get crowded B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the most crowded the beaches get D. the more crowded the beaches get
Question 20. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 21. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decision B. decisive C. decide D. decisively
Question 22. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. catch on C. take over D. hold on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette.
This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture,
both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several
times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is
common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. conditions B. situations C. positions D. locations
Question 24. A. whose B. which C. who D. where
Question 25. A. differ B. different C. differently D. differences
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. However
Question 27. A. take B. get C. feel D. show

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In
Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house.
According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a
new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a
similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a
piece of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Customs concerning children's new teeth B. Animals eating children's lost teeth
C. Presents for young children's lost teeth D. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. roofs' B. children's C. houses' D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by
a mouse?
A. In Japan and Vietnam B. In Korea
C. In Mexico and Spain D. In Mongolia
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
B. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth
C. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
D. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. stories B. families C. countries D. beginnings Question 33. According to the passage, which
of the following is NOT true about the tradition of tooth giving in the West?

A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.


B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. long before bedtime B. late in the morning
C. soon after midnight D. early in the evening

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one
another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain
reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food
chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential.
However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss
can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction
can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals
that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals
have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial
value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and
animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-
native species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the
environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease
or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance
of survival without human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they are
willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species?
Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an
inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult
questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of animal extinction B. Humans and endangered species
C. Measures to protect endangered species D. The importance of living organisms
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrecognizable B. unexpected C. unavoidable D. unimportant Question 37. Which of
the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
C. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
D. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. some species B. low birthrates
C. human-related effects D. natural obstacles
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a kind of harmless animals
C. a kind of useful plants D. a harmful factor to the environment
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. remain C. develop D. complete
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT
true? A. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
B. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
C. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
D. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
C. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
B. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
C. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
D. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.

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Question 45. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I have met my grandparents for five years.
C. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Question 48. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
B. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
C. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
D. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
Question 50. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 424


Số báo danh: .............................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. call B. talk C. walk D. take
Question 2. A. dressed B. joined C. matched D. dropped

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. confident B. cultural C. possible Question 4. D. supportive
A. office B. result C. nature D. farmer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. They were among the first companies to exploit the ______ of the Internet.
A. potential B. possibility C. ability D. prospect
Question 6. Peter is disappointed at not getting the job, but he will ______ it soon.
A. get over B. go through C. come over D. take on
Question 7. The more you practise speaking English, ______.
A. the more fluent you can speak it B. the more you can speak it fluently
C. the more fluently you can speak it D. the more you can speak it fluent
Question 8. Thanks to her father's encouragement, she has made great ______ in her study.
A. contribution B. standard C. progress D. development
Question 9. The only thing he bought on his trip to Italy was a ______ watch.
A. nice new Italian B. nice Italian new C. new Italian nice D. new nice Italian
Question 10. I am not used to the cold weather here, so I need to have a heating system ______.
A. developed B. installed C. repaired D. serviced Question 11. Jim didn't break the vase on
______, but he was still punished for his carelessness.
A. purpose B. occasion C. intention D. chance
Question 12. The people ______ live in this village are very friendly.
A. which B. where C. who D. when
Question 13. Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made ______ life
much easier.
A. a B. the C. Ø D. an
Question 14. Travelling to ______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. different B. differently C. difference D. differ
Question 15. I'm not sure, but Tony ______ probably get that demanding job.
A. must B. need C. ought D. might
Question 16. I ______ all of my homework last night.
A. finished B. will finish C. have finished D. finish

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17. The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort.
A. created B. generated C. developed D. increased
Question 18. Many people left early because the film was uninteresting.
A. boring B. informative C. attractive D. exciting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19. Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectations from their
parents and teachers.
A. stress B. nervousness C. relaxation D. emotion Question 20. Don't tell Jane anything about
the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.
A. can keep secrets B. talks too much C. can't eat a lot D. hates parties

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21. David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate.
David: "Good morning, Mr Deakin. How are you?"
Mr Deakin: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm fine. Thank you
C. I'm having a class now D. I'm busy now
Question 22. Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present.
Linda: "Thanks for the book. I've been looking for it for months."
Daniel: "______."
A. I like reading books B. Thank you for looking for it
C. You can say that again D. I'm glad you like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 23. "We will not leave until we see the manager," said the customers.
A. The customers promised to leave before they saw the manager.
B. The customers refused to leave until they saw the manager.
C. The customers agreed to leave before they saw the manager.
D. The customers decided to leave because they did not see the manager.
Question 24. He last visited London three years ago.
A. He didn't visit London three years ago. B. He has been in London for three years.
C. He hasn't visited London for three years. D. He was in London for three years.
Question 25. They were late for the meeting because of the heavy snow.
A. If it didn't snow heavily, they wouldn't be late for the meeting.
B. But for the heavy snow, they wouldn't have been late for the meeting.
C. If it snowed heavily, they would be late for the meeting.
D. Had it not snowed heavily, they would have been late for the meeting.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26. The policeman warned the tourists not walking alone in empty streets at night.
A B C D
Question 27. My mother always get up early to prepare breakfast for everyone in the family.
A B C D
Question 28. All the judges paid the dancer compliments on their excellent performance in the
A B C D
competition.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. The government have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect
endangered species.
A. Whether the government have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species
are still protected.
B. If the government established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect
endangered species.
C. Endangered species can't be protected although the government have established some
wildlife reserves.
D. The government have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be
protected.
Question 30. My sister is good at cooking. My brother is bad at it.
A. My sister is good at cooking, for my brother is bad at it.
B. My sister is good at cooking, but my brother is bad at it.
C. My sister is good at cooking, or my brother is bad at it.
D. My sister is good at cooking, so my brother is bad at it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In
this world of diversity, (31)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the
old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse
learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like
doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to
a financially successful life. (32)______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today's world is entirely different from the things (33)______ have just been described. The job
market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (34)______. Meanwhile, most
teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career
talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (35)______ what course to take.
Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews
and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
(Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon)

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Question 31. A. making B. giving C. taking D. having
Question 32. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Therefore D. In addition
Question 33. A. what B. that C. where D. when
Question 34. A. competitively B. competition C. competitive D. compete
Question 35. A. study B. employ C. decide D. apply

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of
comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like manga-
style comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with
the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is
technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices.
Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy
reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic
bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own
language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and
uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular.
People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and
translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation
usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers
all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry.
Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales.
Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books
are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and
stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-
readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 36. What is the passage mainly about?


A. Children's most favourite type of books
B. Problems in the book industry
C. The manga industry in Japan
D. The need for digital comic books
Question 37. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. comic books B. things C. children D. publishers
Question 38. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______.
A. an electronic device B. a comic book C. a child D. a TV programme
Question 39. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______.
A. scanning and translating manga books
B. translating uploaded manga books
C. selling translated manga books
D. scanning uploaded manga books

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Question 40. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese translated
manga because ______.
A. it was difficult to buy translated manga books
B. they wanted to make a name for themselves
C. they wanted to read manga for free
D. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation?
A. Artists B. Publishers C. Readers D. Writers
Question 42. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______.
A. copying and using a book illegally B. controlling the production of a book
C. advertising a book without permission D. hurting the sale of illegal comic books

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter
how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents
of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution."
Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer
in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean
ecosystem on the brink of collapse.
There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent
studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past
three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased.
Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given
ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides,
chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants
collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced
into the global food chain.
Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines.
Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers,
and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients
can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships
at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals.
In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into
gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is
estimated to be the size of Texas.
Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished
for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and
even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and
reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins.
(Source: http://www.oceannationalgeographic.com)

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Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life
B. Various kinds of harmful pollutants
C. Marine pollution and its many forms
D. The end of the "dilution" era
Question 44. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. insignificant B. positive C. serious D. unpredictable Question 45. It
can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______.
A. dealing with the problems of water pollution
B. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish
C. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly
D. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans
Question 46. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. ocean's depths B. marine organisms
C. the oceans D. man-made pollutants
Question 47. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______.
A. appear B. limit C. produce D. prevent
Question 48. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______.
A. cannot be found inland
B. are created by massive blooms of algae
C. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life
D. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water
Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the
passage? A. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time.
B. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans.
C. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain.
D. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now.
Question 50. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine
creatures that ______.
A. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies
B. can communicate with each other via sound waves
C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea
D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution

------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi
Câu hỏi
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424
1 D D C A A B C B A B A A B A A C D A D A D B B D
2 B A D B B B B C C C D B A D C D B B A A B B D B
3 D D B A A A A D A B B A B D B B D A B B D A C D
4 C D D A A B A C A B A A D C A A B C B D B C B B
5 B A C A C B D B D A A C A A D C D B C C D B C A
6 D D C C B D A D A D D B D D B B D B C B A C B A
7 D C D D C D B C D D A C C D C D A D A C C C C C
8 D D A D C D D C B A D B C B D A B A B D D B B C
9 A B A B B B C B C B C B A A A D C C C C A C D A
10 B A A C C C D C B C A D C C B D C D A B D B A B
11 B B A C B A A D B A C B D B D B D D D D C A C A
12 A A D A A A A D D D D B A C A D B D A C A C B C
13 C D A D D A B C C D A A D C C A C A C D D D C C
14 C B D A D B C C B C B D B A B A A B C A D C B A
15 C D C C A C B C C B B D C B A D A A D A D B D D
16 B C C D A C C B D C C A C C B C B B B D B A B A
17 C D B B C D B B A D C A D B C B B D B A D C C C
18 B C B B B A B A B D B C D D D D C A D C D A C A
19 A D C C C B A A C D A A A C D C B C A C C A D C
20 C D B C D D C C B D B D D B A D C B B C C B A A
21 B A B B B C C B A B D A C B D C C B D D D B A B
22 B D D D D D B D D C A A C D A B D A C C C A C D
23 C A B A C C B B A C B A A C A B A C D A C D B B
24 A A B B A B A C A A D D D D A B A B C D C D C C
25 A B B A D C D A C B A A B D D C B A A C D D D B
26 C A A C B D B C B C A B C D D B A B C D C A D B
27 A C D D D D A C B A D A A C C D C C D A C D D A
28 A A C D B A D C D D C A D D A C A B C D D D D C
29 C A C B D D B D B C B C A D C B A C B D A A B D
30 A B C D A D B A C A B D C C C C D B C B B B C B
31 B B C B B B A B C C A D A C A B B C C D B A D A
32 C C A C D B C B D C A C D C A B D C B B A C D D
33 A A B C C C A A C A A B D D A D D B A A C C A B
34 B C A C D D D B B D A D D C A D A A D A A D C B
35 C A B B C C A C A A B B B B D B A C B A A A B C
36 A B D C D B A D A B D A D D C D D C B D C B D D
37 A C D C A A C B A C A B C C C B B B D D A B A C
38 C B A B C A B A A D B A B D D C D C D B D D A B
39 B C A B C B C D C A D B A B C B B A A C C A D A
40 A B B A D B D D C C B D A B C C C C A A A D A A
41 B D D C A C C A D D D D B B D C C C D A C B A C
42 C C B C A A D C C C B D B B C C D A D B A B B A
43 B C D D A C D A D B B B D D C C B C A B A A D C
44 B B B A A A C D C D B D A A C C D A C C C A A A
45 A A A D B D C A B B D D D D D D B A D C C D A D
46 C B D D A A A D B B B A C C A C C B A C A D C D
47 A C A A D C A A D D D D A B A A C A B B A C A C
48 A B D A B A D A C C D B A B C B C C B C D D A D
49 B C B A B C C A D C B D B C D D B C A B C C B D
50 A C B A B C D D B A D B B B D D D C D B A D B C
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 401


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Question 2: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!" A. I
hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. C. I'll B. I've passed the exam with an A.
get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced
Question 4: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for
fear of getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely
C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts
Question 6: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. delays B. begins C. attracts D. believes
Question 8: A. head B. bean C. meal D. team
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Question 10: A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 13: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated

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Question 14: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering Question 15: Several
measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among university
graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create Question 16: There is no excuse for your late
submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished
C. needn't have finished D. must have finished
Question 17: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted Question 18: It is advisable that
the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant
Question 19: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 20: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impress B. impressively C. impression D. impressive
Question 21: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped
Question 22: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 24: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Question 25: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club.
Question 27: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.

Question 28: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to
her. A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an
independent life. B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to
start an independent life. C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she
realise how much her family meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her. Trang 2/5 - Mã

đề thi 401
Question 30: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (31)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (32)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (34)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (35)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 31: A. on B. with C. in D. out


Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where
Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but
Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required
Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your
skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is
likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to
interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should
emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both
yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Advice on how to find a good job
B. Things to avoid during a job interview
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
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Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
B. get further information about the company
C. advertise a product to attract more customers
D. present what he/she wants from the job
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the letter of application B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It
should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand Question 42: According to paragraph 4,
in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions
C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A
number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence
on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible
problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for
children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three
years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing
something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

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Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 44: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation
Question 45: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand
Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct
Question 47: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a school dog B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in
paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 402


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. Absolutely C. That's nonsense D. I doubt it Question 2: John and
Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that." A.
Where did you buy your car? B. What a nice car!
C. Your car is new, isn't it? D. My car is very expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apartment B. benefit C. argument D. vacancy
Question 4: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. great B. cheap C. clean D. mean
Question 6: A. improves B. destroys C. suggests D. reminds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. inaccuracy C. insecurity D. flexibility
Question 8: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. with all our luggage B. in a terrible condition
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning
to digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. deficiency C. popularity D. intensity
Question 10: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is
not suitable for daily use.
A. polluted B. pure C. cleaned D. deadly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. will take B. takes C. would take D. has taken Question 12: Only after the bus ______ for a
few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. had run C. has run D. runs

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Question 13: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extension B. expansion C. extent D. expanse
Question 14: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. knowledgeable B. knowledgeably C. knowledge D. know
Question 15: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. to continue B. to continuing C. continue D. continuing
Question 16: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. spread B. rub C. apply D. put
Question 17: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite
songs among teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. which viewed C. viewing D. viewed
Question 18: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing down
Question 19: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. warm-hearted C. big-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 20: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. gather B. collect C. master D. achieve
Question 21: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. would have revised B. needn't have revised C. can't have revised D. must have revised
Question 22: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. doesn't she B. does she C. is she D. isn't she
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (26)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. take B. work C. put D. give
Question 24: A. but B. so C. or D. for
Question 25: A. under B. of C. on D. out
Question 26: A. impassable B. unattainable C. undetectable D. immeasurable
Question 27: A. which B. what C. whose D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.
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Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the
ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby
grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the
hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts
his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
C. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. dancers B. fighters C. musicians D. travellers
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. different tribes B. their mothers C. the boys D. the senior elders
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. the Masai senior elders B. Masai teenagers
C. the Masai teenage boys' mothers D. Masai men
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. differ B. change C. maintain D. distinguish
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Changing their clothes D. Fighting with other tribes
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into the hands of Google,
Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies would
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no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to privacy
and freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The current public obsession with modern technology
B. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
C. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
D. Data overload experienced by social network users
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. embrace B. fantasise C. reject D. visualise Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2,
misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to criticism C.
realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both advantages and disadvantages D.
something either negative or positive in nature
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
B. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
D. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
B. could be manipulated to charge innocent people C.
should be kept open to interpretation
D. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they regret doing something illegal.
B. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
D. Because they wish to protect their image.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. wheels B. social interactions
C. desirable behaviours D. people
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
Question 44: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
B. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she
paid a visit to the local orphanage.
C. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
D. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend sometimes eats fast food. B. My friend doesn't like eating fast food.
C. My friend no longer eats fast food. D. My friend has never eaten fast food.
Question 46: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
Question 47: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
B. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
C. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
D. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 49: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 50: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 403


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. dream B. wear C. treat D. mean
Question 2: A. attacks B. medals C. concerns D. fingers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. behave B. relax C. enter D. allow
Question 4: A. disaster B. origin C. charity D. agency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. extremely panicked B. obviously delighted C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad
Question 6: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. uncertainty B. willingness C. awareness D. reluctance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. continued C. changed D. delayed
Question 8: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. triggered B. arose C. defined D. hosted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Oh, that's a problem B. I can't agree with you more
C. Not at all D. You can make it
Question 10: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
A. It's too heavy. B. It's not my duty. C. Thanks a lot, indeed. D. Welcome back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. has left B. had left C. was leaving
D. would leave
Question 12: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook
the dish properly.
A. quit B. skip C. leave D. hide
Question 13: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around
the city. A. have shown B. showed C. will show D. would show

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Question 14: I've been waiting for hours. You ______ to tell me you would come late.
A. oughtn't to have phoned B. must have phoned C. should have
phoned D. needn't have phoned
Question 15: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-reaching B. far-gone C. far-off D. far-flung
Question 16: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. buy B. to buy C. to buying D. buying
Question 17: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good
education will enable them to ______ in the future.
A. turn up B. get on C. get out D. turn away Question 18: The ______ prices of property in big
cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house there.

A. forbidding B. competitive C. prohibitive D. inflatable


Question 19: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. hasn't he B. does he C. has he D. doesn't he
Question 20: Susan has achieved great ______ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 21: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. lapse B. fault C. failure D. error
Question 22: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. are involving
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______ tens of billions of
dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In
addition to the direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security,
etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports.
Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional maintenance costs long after the Games have ended. While costs
are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For
one, an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate
sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large
profit from the Games they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games
confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The
Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of
life, such as new transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. outnumber B. exceed C. overcharge D. surmount
Question 24: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Question 25: A. instrumental B. primary C. influential D. supplementary
Question 26: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. However
Question 27: A. which B. who C. what D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In
the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In
other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North
America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North

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Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them,
whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North
Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential
conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move any
other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the
world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can
communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places
it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn
the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to
communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America B.
Misunderstandings in communication
C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
D. Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American
child is expected to ______.
A. stand close to the person B. look directly at the person
C. raise his/her eyebrows D. point a finger at the person
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enjoyment B. closeness C. strength D. agreement
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. misbehaved B. misunderstood C. mispronounced D. misspelled
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. an example B. making a mistake C. the country D. sticking out the tongue
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
B. to travel to as many countries as possible
C. to use the body language of the people from that culture
D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. posture B. gesture C. distance D. eye movement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps.
Also, they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One
way is to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is
possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no
cost and with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use
noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed
for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so

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that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had
to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent,
compared with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according
to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of
army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy
than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped
with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy
these ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments
are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living
and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
B. Successful green building projects all over the world
C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
B. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then C.
the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. rays of the sun B. recycled materials C. green builders D. solar panels
Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
B. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
C. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
D. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green

buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually C. Being
friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
B. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 44: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
B. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
C. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
D. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality
of the country's education.
Question 45: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She wasn't late for the bus. B. She didn't arrive late for the bus.
C. She arrived too early for the bus. D. She was too late to catch the bus.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
Question 47: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D
th
Question 48: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well
in the competition.
Question 50: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 404


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Although she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. bring B. pull C. force D. push
Question 2: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. interference B. interpretation C. infringement D. infliction
Question 3: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Approaching B. Reaching C. Going D. Rising
Question 4: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. making up B. turning out C. putting on D. taking off
Question 5: Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their ______ skills.
A. social B. society C. socially D. socialise
Question 6: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. has helped B. helps C. will help D. would help
Question 7: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. are obsessed B. obsessing C. obsessed D. who obsessed Question 8: The boy denied
______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eat B. eat C. to eating D. eating
Question 9: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. do they B. don't they C. does she D. doesn't she
Question 10: Only after the teacher ______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go
ahead with the experiment.
A. would explain B. had explained C. was explaining D. has explained Question 11: These
volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-reaching B. far-flung C. far-fetched D. far-sighted
Question 12: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. needn't have been B. should have been C. might have been D. can't have been
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 13: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. Do you mind if I sit here? B. Can you pass me the salt, please?
C. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?
Question 14: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. That's life B. That's all right
C. I don't quite agree D. I can't agree more

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging
question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. had a fever B. stayed confident C. got nervous D. became aggressive Question 16: Winning
the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest achievement he got when he was
at school.
A. failure B. success C. comprehension D. completion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered
species all over the world.
A. rebuilt B. adapted C. improved D. introduced Question 18: The team entered the
competition with great confidence after getting sound advice from their coach.

A. tentative B. sensitive C. audible D. sensible


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. meat B. threat C. beat D. seat
Question 20: A. wonders B. problems C. mountains D. moments
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. president B. opponent C. assistant D. companion
Question 22: A. obtain B. perform C. affect D. happen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
C. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
Question 24: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
B. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the
festival. C. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she
has artistic talent.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Question 26: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Question 27: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 28: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona denied having finished the assignment. B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona refused to finish the assignment. D. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment.

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Question 29: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
B. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
C. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
D. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
Question 30: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She usually spends an hour driving to work. B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour. D. She never spends an hour driving to work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (31)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (32)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (33)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (34)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (35)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 31: A. whose B. which C. that D. who
Question 32: A. conducting B. carrying C. composing D. concerning
Question 33: A. for B. of C. at D. with
Question 34: A. manipulate B. accumulate C. stimulate D. accommodate
Question 35: A. before B. because C. although D. unless
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to
meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform.
Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this
will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end up
feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

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Question 36: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Making Your Image Work for You
B. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
C. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. expressing too strong emotions
C. sending out right signals D. talking about other people's behaviours
Question 38: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. types of gestures B. sets of equipment
C. sets of clothes D. types of signals
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in B. Kinds of tasks you perform
C. Other people's views on beauty D. People you meet
Question 40: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. taste boundaries B. colours C. means D. neutral tones
Question 41: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reconsidering B. reapplying C. reminding D. recalling
Question 42: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______.
A. how we look and behave B. what we read
C. what we actually say D. how we speak
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player
swearing at the referee, they can get the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a
player's skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's
contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's
important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from
players, think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on
the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or
scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)

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Question 43: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport B. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
C. The importance of team spirit in sport D. The influence of model sportspeople on children
Question 44: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inspired B. reinforced C. represented D. energised
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to
think that ______.
A. it brings about undesirable results B. it is an acceptable way to win the game
C. it is necessary in almost any game D. it is disadvantageous to all concerned
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through
watching sports? A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
C. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
D. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
Question 47: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. embolden B. actualise C. highlight D. consolidate
Question 48: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. teammates B. spectators C. parents D. children
Question 49: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
C. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
D. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.

Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
B. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
D. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 405

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around the city.
A. showed B. would show C. have shown D. will show
Question 2: I've been waiting for hours. You ______ to tell me you would come late.
A. needn't have phoned B. must have phoned
C. should have phoned D. oughtn't to have phoned
Question 3: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. buy B. buying C. to buying D. to buy
Question 4: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good
education will enable them to ______ in the future.
A. turn away B. turn up C. get on D. get out
Question 5: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the
dish properly.
A. quit B. skip C. hide D. leave
Question 6: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-flung B. far-off C. far-reaching D. far-gone
Question 7: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. has he B. doesn't he C. does he D. hasn't he
Question 8: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. failure B. fault C. error D. lapse
Question 9: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. had left B. has left C. was leaving D. would leave
Question 10: Susan has achieved great ______ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. successful C. succeed D. successfully
Question 11: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. to involve B. involving C. are involving D. involved
Question 12: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from
owning a house there.
A. inflatable B. competitive C. prohibitive D. forbidding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness B. reluctance C. uncertainty D. willingness Question 14: Judy has just won a full
scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the country; she must be on cloud nine
now.
A. incredibly optimistic B. obviously delighted C. extremely panicked D. desperately sad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. triggered B. defined C. arose D. hosted
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Question 16: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. delayed C. continued D. changed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. agency B. origin C. charity D. disaster
Question 18: A. enter B. allow C. relax D. behave
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. treat B. wear C. dream D. mean
Question 20: A. concerns B. fingers C. attacks D. medals
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Not at all B. Oh, that's a problem
C. You can make it D. I can't agree with you more
Question 22: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
A. Thanks a lot, indeed. B. Welcome back. C. It's too heavy. D. It's not my duty.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______
tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of
hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build
expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and
television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games
they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a
host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an
opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of life, such as new
transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. surmount B. exceed C. overcharge D. outnumber
Question 24: A. at B. in C. for D. on
Question 25: A. instrumental B. influential C. primary D. supplementary
Question 26: A. Otherwise B. For example C. However D. In addition
Question 27: A. what B. which C. who D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the
USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other
cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America
people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who don't know each
other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas
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South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will
stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is
intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You
must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Misunderstandings in communication
B. Non-verbal communication across cultures
C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
D. The significance of non-verbal signals in America
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American
child is expected to ______.
A. point a finger at the person B. look directly at the person
C. stand close to the person D. raise his/her eyebrows
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. strength B. agreement C. enjoyment D. closeness
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. misunderstood B. misspelled C. misbehaved D. mispronounced
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. making a mistake B. an example C. the country D. sticking out the tongue
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that
culture B. to travel to as many countries as possible
C. to use the body language of the people from that culture D.
to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the
passage? A. eye movement B. gesture C. posture D. distance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is
to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and
with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally
responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to

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consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent,
compared with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed
according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was
once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30
percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting
systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these
ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
B. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
C. Successful green building projects all over the world
D. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
B. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then C.
the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. green builders B. solar panels C. recycled materials D. rays of the sun

Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.


A. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
D. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
B. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
D. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being launched D. being notified
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Being friendly to the environment B. Improving living conditions
C. Increasing work productivity D. Proving more economical eventually

Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
B. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
C. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
D. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
Question 44: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D
th
Question 45: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 47: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn't arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She was too late to catch the bus. D. She wasn't late for the bus.
Question 48: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
B. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
C. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
D. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
B. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
C. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in
the competition.
D. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
Question 50: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 406


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. assistant B. president C. companion D. opponent
Question 2: A. perform B. affect C. obtain D. happen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. wonders B. mountains C. problems D. moments
Question 4: A. seat B. threat C. beat D. meat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. I can't agree more B. That's life
C. I don't quite agree D. That's all right
Question 6: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. Do you mind if I sit here? B. Can you pass me the salt, please?
C. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice
from their coach.
A. sensible B. audible C. tentative D. sensitive
Question 8: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered species
all over the world.
A. adapted B. rebuilt C. introduced D. improved
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest
achievement he got when he was at school.
A. completion B. comprehension C. success D. failure
Question 10: Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging
question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. had a fever B. stayed confident C. got nervous D. became aggressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. interference B. interpretation C. infringement
D. infliction
Question 12: These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-reaching B. far-fetched C. far-sighted D. far-flung
Question 13: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. doesn't she B. does she C. don't they D. do they

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Question 14: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. might have been B. should have been C. can't have been D. needn't have been Question 15: Although
she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. force B. bring C. pull D. push
Question 16: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. taking off B . turning out C. making up D. putting on Question 17: Participating in
teamwork activities helps students develop their ______ skills.
A. socialise B. society C. social D. socially
Question 18: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. obsessed B . obsessing C. who obsessed D. are obsessed Question 19: Only after the teacher
______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go
ahead with the experiment.
A. had explained B. was explaining C. has explained D. would explain Question 20: If our
teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. would help B. will help C. helps D. has helped
Question 21: The boy denied ______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eating B. eating C. to eat D. eat
Question 22: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Reaching B. Rising C. Approaching D. Going
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (25)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (26)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23: A. who B. which C. that D. whose
Question 24: A. carrying B. conducting C. composing D. concerning
Question 25: A. for B. with C. of D. at
Question 26: A. manipulate B. accommodate C. stimulate D. accumulate
Question 27: A. unless B. because C. before D. although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to meet, where
you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level,
some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this
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will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end
up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

Question 28: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Creating a Professional Image
B. Making Your Image Work for You
C. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
D. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. talking about other people's behaviours B. wearing inappropriate clothes
C. expressing too strong emotions D. sending out right signals
Question 30: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. sets of equipment B. types of signals
C. types of gestures D. sets of clothes
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in B. People you meet
C. Other people's views on beauty D. Kinds of tasks you perform
Question 32: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. colours B. taste boundaries C. means D. neutral tones
Question 33: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reapplying B. reconsidering C. reminding D. recalling
Question 34: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______. A.
how we look and behave C. B. what we read
what we actually say D. how we speak
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player
swearing at the referee, they can get the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a
player's skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's
contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's
important for members to work well together.

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Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from
players, think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on
the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or
scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport B. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
C. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport D. The influence of model sportspeople on children
Question 36: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. energised B. represented C. inspired D. reinforced
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think
that ______.
A. it is necessary in almost any game B. it brings about undesirable results
C. it is an acceptable way to win the game D. it is disadvantageous to all concerned

Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through
watching sports? A. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
D. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. highlight B. consolidate C. actualise D. embolden
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. teammates B. children C. spectators D. parents
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
B. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
C. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
C. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
D. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.

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Question 44: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.
B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she has
artistic talent.
C. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.
D. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 46: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Question 47: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
B. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
D. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
Question 49: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour. B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She usually spends an hour driving to work. D. She never spends an hour driving to work.
Question 50: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona denied having finished the assignment. B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment. D. Fiona refused to finish the assignment.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 407


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. install B. decide C. follow D. intend
Question 2: A. character B. poverty C. sympathy D. equipment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. believes B. delays C. attracts D. begins
Question 4: A. head B. team C. meal D. bean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. does she B. doesn't she C. is she D. isn't she
Question 6: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. acceptable B. noticeable C. observant D. permissive Question 7: Several measures have been
proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. create B. address C. pose D. admit
Question 8: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. turned on B. put off C. switched off D. left out
Question 9: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. will help B. helps C. has helped D. would help
Question 10: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. stands B. lays C. comes D. gets
Question 11: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treating B. treated C. who treated D. having treated
Question 12: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering Question 13: There is
no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. must have finished B. mightn't have finished
C. needn't have finished D. should have finished
Question 14: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 15: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. kind-hearted C. soft-hearted D. light-hearted
Question 16: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impression B. impressive C. impress D. impressively
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. inventing B. distributing C. adopting D. classifying
Question 18: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. advanced B. accessible C. effective D. confusing
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for
fear of getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. save on daily expenses C. spend money freely
D. put on tighter belts
Question 20: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has
created favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. decreasing C. varying D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I've passed the exam with an A. B. I'll get the exam results tomorrow.
C. I didn't do well in the exam. D. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow.
Question 22: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. No, I don't think so B. Yes, you're right
C. I can't agree with you more D. You can say that again
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (26)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 23: A. with B. out C. in D. on


Question 24: A. when B. what C. which D. where
Question 25: A. and B. for C. but D. or
Question 26: A. required B. pledged C. committed D. confessed
Question 27: A. home B. house C. place D. land
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your
skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is
likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to
interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should
emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both
yourself and the company.
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The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Things to avoid during a job interview
B. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Advice on how to find a good job
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. get further information about the company
B. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview C.
present what he/she wants from the job
D. advertise a product to attract more customers
Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the résumé B. your work
C. an opportunity D. the letter of application
Question 31: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. slightly B. clearly C. quickly D. shortly
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It
should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
B. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
Question 33: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. understand B. introduce C. investigate D. avoid
Question 34: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. accept any salary offered B. mention their expected salary range C. negotiate
working conditions D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A
number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence
on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible
problems."
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Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for
children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three
years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing
something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School D. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants

Question 36: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.


A. unrealistic expectation B. deserved attention
C. excessive admiration D. considerable controversy

Question 37: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. impossible to understand B. inclined to disagree
C. difficult to control D. reluctant to explore

Question 38: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A greater desire to influence others B. A stronger tendency to misbehave
C. Better recovery from illness D. Long-term changes in conduct

Question 39: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.


A. a primary school B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a school dog

Question 40: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy B.
Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
C. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
D. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students

Question 41: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5? A.
Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
B. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.

Question 42: Which of the following is implied in the passage?


A. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
B. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
C. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
D. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
B. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family
meant to her. C. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave
home to start an independent life. D. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life
did she realise how much her family meant to her.
Question 44: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
C. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 46: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
ABCD Question 47: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled
athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 49: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I never like joining the sports club. B. I used to join the sports club.
C. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
Question 50: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 408

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. borrow B. involve C. discuss D. explain
Question 2: A. argument B. apartment C. benefit D. vacancy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. great B. cheap C. clean D. mean
Question 4: A. improves B. destroys C. suggests D. reminds
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. insecurity B. exactness C. inaccuracy D. flexibility
Question 6: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. at the very last moment B. with all our luggage
C. in a terrible condition D. with much time to spare
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning
to digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. intensity C. deficiency D. popularity
Question 8: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. deadly B. pure C. cleaned D. polluted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 9: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite songs
among teenagers worldwide.
A. which viewed B. is viewed C. viewed D. viewing
Question 10: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. must have revised B. can't have revised C. would have revised D. needn't have revised
Question 11: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. bringing down B. turning up C. making off D. putting on
Question 12: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. doesn't she B. isn't she C. is she D. does she
Question 13: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. has taken B. will take C. takes D. would take
Question 14: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. to continue B. continuing C. to continuing D. continue
Question 15: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. had run C. has run D. runs
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Question 16: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. put B. rub C. spread D. apply
Question 17: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. expanse B. extent C. expansion D. extension
Question 18: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. warm-hearted B. big-hearted C. light-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 19: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. knowledgeable B. know C. knowledge D. knowledgeably
Question 20: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. achieve B. master C. collect D. gather
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: John and Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear
that." A. My car is very expensive. B. Where did you buy your car?
C. What a nice car! D. Your car is new, isn't it?
Question 22: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. I doubt it C. Absolutely D. That's nonsense
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
B. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings
to the children there.
C. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there. D. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the
children that she paid a visit to the local orphanage.
Question 24: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
B. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
C. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 25: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
B. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
C. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
D. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
Question 26: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend doesn't like eating fast food. B. My friend sometimes eats fast food.
C. My friend no longer eats fast food. D. My friend has never eaten fast food.

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Question 27: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 29: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 30: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (31)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (32)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (33)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (34)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (35)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 31: A. put B. give C. take D. work
Question 32: A. so B. or C. for D. but
Question 33: A. under B. out C. of D. on
Question 34: A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. impassable D. undetectable
Question 35: A. which B. who C. whose D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.
Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the ritual but
they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby grows into an infant,
the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai
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wedding, the hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the
teenage boy's mother cuts his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
C. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
Question 37: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. fighters B. dancers C. travellers D. musicians
Question 38: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the boys B. different tribes C. the senior elders D. their mothers
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. Masai teenagers B. Masai men
C. the Masai senior elders D. the Masai teenage boys' mothers
Question 40: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. change B. differ C. distinguish D. maintain
Question 41: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Changing their clothes D. Fighting with other tribes
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into
the hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies
would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to
privacy and freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?

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The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Data overload experienced by social network users
B. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
C. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
D. The current public obsession with modern technology
Question 44: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. embrace B. fantasise C. reject D. visualise Question 45: As mentioned in paragraph 2,
misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. know that they may be subjected to criticism B. realise that they may be publicly punished
C. are aware of being filmed at the time D. are employed in the public sector
Question 46: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that has both advantages and disadvantages
C. something that produces unexpected results
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 47: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
B. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
C. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
D. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
Question 48: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
B. should be kept open to interpretation
C. could be manipulated to charge innocent people D.
may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
Question 49: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
B. Because they wish to protect their image.
C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
D. Because they regret doing something illegal.
Question 50: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. desirable behaviours B. people
C. social interactions D. wheels

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 409


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. acceptable B. observant C. permissive
D. noticeable
Question 2: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. had recovered B. has recovered C. was recovering D. would recover
Question 3: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. put off B. turned on C. left out D. switched off
Question 4: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating
D. who treated
Question 5: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the audience.
A. kind-hearted B. whole-hearted C. light-hearted D. soft-hearted Question 6: There is no
excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. needn't have finished B. must have finished
C. should have finished D. mightn't have finished
Question 7: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impressive B. impressively C. impress D. impression Question 8: It ______ to reason that
Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. lays B. stands C. comes D. gets
Question 9: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. doesn't she C. does she D. is she
Question 10: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. admit B. address C. pose D. create
Question 11: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. will help B. would help C. helps D. has helped
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. go B. to going C. going D. to go
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. bean B. team C. meal D. head
Question 14: A. attracts B. begins C. believes D. delays
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. decide B. intend C. install D. follow
Question 16: A. character B. sympathy C. poverty D. equipment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. Yes, you're right B. No, I don't think so
C. I can't agree with you more D. You can say that again

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Question 18: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!" A. I
hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. C. I'll B. I've passed the exam with an A.
get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has
created favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. decreasing B. varying C. rising D. peaking
Question 20: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for
fear of getting into financial difficulties.
A. spend money freely B. save on daily expenses
C. dress in loose clothes D. put on tighter belts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. effective B. accessible C. advanced D. confusing
Question 22: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. distributing B. classifying C. adopting D. inventing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (26)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 23: A. with B. out C. on D. in


Question 24: A. what B. where C. when D. which
Question 25: A. or B. and C. but D. for
Question 26: A. pledged B. committed C. required D. confessed
Question 27: A. land B. place C. home D. house
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills
and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be
very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and
expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the

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specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter
should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
B. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
C. Advice on how to find a good job
D. Things to avoid during a job interview
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. get further information about the company
B. present what he/she wants from the job
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview D.
advertise a product to attract more customers
Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. an opportunity B. the letter of application
C. the résumé D. your work
Question 31: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. quickly C. shortly D. slightly
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It
should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
B. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
C. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
D. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
Question 33: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. investigate B. introduce C. understand D. avoid
Question 34: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. negotiate working conditions B. accept any salary offered
C. talk about the company's budget D. mention their expected salary range
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets

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has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery
or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and
some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for
children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three
years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing
something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend B. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants
C. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons D. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
Question 36: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrealistic expectation B. deserved attention
C. excessive admiration D. considerable controversy
Question 37: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. impossible to understand D. inclined to disagree
Question 38: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. Long-term changes in conduct B. A greater desire to influence others
C. A stronger tendency to misbehave D. Better recovery from illness
Question 39: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member
C. a school dog D. a primary school
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 41: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in
paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
Question 42: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
B. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
D. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
B. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
Question 44: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
B. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family
meant to her. C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how
much her family meant to her.
D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 46: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Question 47: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 49: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 50: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. I used to join the sports club.
C. I never like joining the sports club. D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 410


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. can't have revised B. would have revised C. needn't have revised D. must have revised Question 2:
We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. rub B. spread C. apply D. put
Question 3: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extension B. extent C. expanse D. expansion Question 4: Despacito, ______ over four billion
times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite songs
among teenagers worldwide.
A. viewed B. viewing C. which viewed D. is viewed
Question 5: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 6: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. gather B. achieve C. collect D. master
Question 7: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. continuing B. to continue C. continue D. to continuing
Question 8: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. knowledge B. knowledgeable C. knowledgeably D. know
Question 9: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. runs C. had run D. has run
Question 10: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. big-hearted C. warm-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 11: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. takes B. will take C. would take D. has taken
Question 12: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. putting on B. making off C. bringing down D. turning up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. deadly B. polluted C. pure D. cleaned
Question 14: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are
turning to digitalised reading materials.
A. scarcity B. popularity C. intensity D. deficiency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. with much time to spare B. with all our luggage
C. in a terrible condition D. at the very last moment

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Question 16: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase
the precision of the sampling procedure.
A. flexibility B. exactness C. inaccuracy D. insecurity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. That's nonsense B. I'm afraid so C. I doubt it D. Absolutely Question 18: John and
Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear
that." A. What a nice car! B. Where did you buy your car?
C. My car is very expensive. D. Your car is new, isn't it?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Question 20: A. argument B. benefit C. vacancy D. apartment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. great B. mean C. cheap D. clean
Question 22: A. suggests B. improves C. reminds D. destroys
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (26)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. give B. put C. take D. work
Question 24: A. or B. for C. but D. so
Question 25: A. out B. on C. of D. under
Question 26: A. impassable B. immeasurable C. unattainable D. undetectable
Question 27: A. what B. who C. whose D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.
Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.

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At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the
ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby
grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the
hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts
his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
C. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
D. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. musicians B. fighters C. travellers D. dancers
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the boys B. the senior elders C. their mothers D. different tribes
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. Masai teenagers B. the Masai senior elders
C. the Masai teenage boys' mothers D. Masai men
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. change B. maintain C. distinguish D. differ
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Fighting with other tribes B. Changing their clothes
C. Painting their bodies D. Receiving new names
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Eunoto
lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
B. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
C. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into
the hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies
would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to
privacy and freedom of choice?

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Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
B. The current public obsession with modern technology C.
Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
D. Data overload experienced by social network users
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fantasise B. visualise C. embrace D. reject
Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2, misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are employed in the public sector B. know that they may be subjected to criticism C. realise
that they may be publicly punished D. are aware of being filmed at the time
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something either negative or positive in nature
C. something that produces unexpected results
D. something that has both advantages and disadvantages
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
B. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
C. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
D. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. should be kept open to interpretation
B. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
C. could provoke legal disputes among media companies D.
could be manipulated to charge innocent people
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
B. Because they regret doing something illegal.
C. Because they wish to protect their image.
D. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. social interactions B. wheels
C. desirable behaviours D. people
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
Question 44: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
B. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
C. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there. D. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the
children that she paid a visit to the local orphanage.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 46: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A BC D
Question 47: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend doesn't like eating fast food. B. My friend sometimes eats fast food.
C. My friend has never eaten fast food. D. My friend no longer eats fast food.
Question 49: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
B. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
C. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
D. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
Question 50: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 411


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. had left B. would leave C. was leaving Question 2: Michael D. has left
rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. has he B. doesn't he C. does he D. hasn't he Question 3: I've been waiting for
hours. You ______ to tell me you would come late.
A. should have phoned B. needn't have phoned
C. must have phoned D. oughtn't to have phoned
Question 4: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. fault B. lapse C. failure D. error Question 5: Susan has achieved great ______
in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 6: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook the
dish properly.
A. quit B. hide C. leave D. skip
Question 7: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.
A. forbidding B. prohibitive C. inflatable D. competitive Question 8: He promised
______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. buy B. to buy C. buying D. to buying
Question 9: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-flung B. far-off C. far-gone D. far-reaching Question 10: Many parents tend to make
their children study hard in the belief that good education will enable them to ______ in the
future.
A. turn away B. turn up C. get on D. get out
Question 11: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. involving B. involved C. to involve D. are involving
Question 12: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around the city.
A. have shown B. will show C. would show D. showed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 13: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
A. It's too heavy. B. Thanks a lot, indeed. C. It's not my duty. D. Welcome back.
Question 14: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Oh, that's a problem B. Not at all
C. You can make it D. I can't agree with you more
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. agency B. charity C. origin D. disaster
Question 16: A. allow B. relax C. enter D. behave
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. wear B. dream C. treat D. mean
Question 18: A. concerns B. medals C. fingers D. attacks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. incredibly optimistic B. desperately sad C. extremely panicked D. obviously delighted
Question 20: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. reluctance B. awareness C. willingness D. uncertainty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. defined B. triggered C. hosted D. arose
Question 22: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. changed B. continued C. delayed D. cancelled
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______
tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of
hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build
expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and
television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games
they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a
host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an
opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of life, such as new
transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. outnumber B. overcharge C. exceed D. surmount
Question 24: A. at B. in C. for D. on
Question 25: A. supplementary B. primary C. influential D. instrumental
Question 26: A. For example B. However C. Otherwise D. In addition
Question 27: A. who B. which C. what D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the
USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other
cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance.
In North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two
North Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them,
whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North
Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential
conversation or if there is intimacy between them.

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Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You
must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America B.
Interpretations of gestures in different cultures C. Non-
verbal communication across cultures D.
Misunderstandings in communication
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child
is expected to ______.
A. point a finger at the person B. stand close to the person
C. raise his/her eyebrows D. look directly at the person
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enjoyment B. closeness C. agreement D. strength
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. misunderstood B. mispronounced C. misbehaved D. misspelled
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. making a mistake B. an example C. the country D. sticking out the tongue
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
B. to use the body language of the people from that culture
C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
D. to travel to as many countries as possible
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the
A. distance passage? B. gesture C. posture D. eye movement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is
to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and
with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had
to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared
with other buildings of the same size.

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In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed
according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was
once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30
percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting
systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these
ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
B. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
C. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
D. Successful green building projects all over the world
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
B. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
C. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then D.
there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. rays of the sun B. solar panels C. recycled materials D. green builders
Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
B. devices that monitor changes in temperature
C. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
D. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
B. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
D. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being notified B. being certified C. being launched D. being inspected
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Being friendly to the environment B. Increasing work productivity C.
Proving more economical eventually D. Improving living conditions
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
B. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
D. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
B. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
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Question 44: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
B. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
C. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
D. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in
the competition.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D
Question 46: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
th
Question 47: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 49: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
B. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
C. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
D. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
Question 50: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn't arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She wasn't late for the bus. D. She was too late to catch the bus.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 412


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. president B. assistant C. companion D. opponent
Question 2: A. happen B. obtain C. affect D. perform
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. mountains B. problems C. moments D. wonders
Question 4: A. seat B. threat C. beat D. meat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice
from their coach.
A. audible B. tentative C. sensible D. sensitive
Question 6: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered species
all over the world.
A. adapted B. introduced C. rebuilt D. improved
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging
question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. got nervous B. stayed confident C. became aggressive D. had a fever
Question 8: Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest
achievement he got when he was at school.
A. completion B. success C. failure D. comprehension
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. That's life B. That's all right
C. I don't quite agree D. I can't agree more
Question 10: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? B. Can you pass me the salt, please?
C. Would you like a cup of coffee? D. Do you mind if I sit here?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. putting on B. making up C. taking off D. turning out
Question 12: Only after the teacher ______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go
ahead with the experiment.
A. would explain B. had explained C. was explaining D. has explained

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Question 13: Although she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. force B. push C. bring D. pull
Question 14: Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their ______
skills. A. social B. society C. socialise D. socially
Question 15: The boy denied ______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eating B. eat C. to eat D. eating
Question 16: These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-fetched B. far-sighted C. far-reaching D. far-flung
Question 17: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. infringement B. interference C. infliction D. interpretation
Question 18: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Going B. Rising C. Approaching D. Reaching
Question 19: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. would help B. has helped C. will help D. helps
Question 20: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. do they B. don't they C. doesn't she D. does she
Question 21: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. can't have been B. needn't have been C. should have been D. might have been
Question 22: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. are obsessed B. obsessed C. who obsessed D. obsessing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (25)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (26)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23: A. that B. whose C. who D. which
Question 24: A. composing B. conducting C. concerning D. carrying
Question 25: A. at B. with C. of D. for
Question 26: A. manipulate B. accumulate C. stimulate D. accommodate
Question 27: A. although B. because C. unless D. before
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
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When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to
meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform.
Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this
will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end up
feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

Question 28: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Creating a Professional Image
B. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
C. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
D. Making Your Image Work for You
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. sending out right signals
C. talking about other people's behaviours D. expressing too strong emotions
Question 30: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. types of gestures B. sets of clothes
C. types of signals D. sets of equipment
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Other people's views on beauty B. People you meet
C. Kinds of tasks you perform D. Places you spend time in
Question 32: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. neutral tones B. means C. taste boundaries D. colours
Question 33: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. recalling B. reapplying C. reminding D. reconsidering
Question 34: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______.
A. how we look and behave B. how we speak
C. what we read D. what we actually say
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and
behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get
the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a player's

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skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's contribution
to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's important for
members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from
players, think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on
the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or
scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport B. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
C. The influence of model sportspeople on children D. The importance of team spirit in sport
Question 36: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. energised B. represented C. inspired D. reinforced
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to
think that ______.
A. it brings about undesirable results C. it B. it is an acceptable way to win the game D. it
is necessary in almost any game is disadvantageous to all concerned
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through
watching sports? A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
C. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
D. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. actualise B. embolden C. consolidate D. highlight
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. spectators B. parents C. children D. teammates
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work. B. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
C. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour. D. She used to drive to work in an hour.
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Question 44: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona refused to finish the assignment. B. Fiona denied having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment. D. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment.
Question 45: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
B. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
D. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Question 47: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 48: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
C. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
D. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
Question 50: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
B. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the
festival. C. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she
has artistic talent.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 413

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. failure B. lapse C. fault D. error
Question 2: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. doesn't he B. hasn't he C. does he D. has he
Question 3: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around the city.
A. have shown B. will show C. would show D. showed
Question 4: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.
A. competitive B. forbidding C. prohibitive D. inflatable
Question 5: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-reaching B. far-gone C. far-flung D. far-off
Question 6: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buying B. buying C. buy D. to buy
Question 7: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good
education will enable them to ______ in the future.
A. get on B. turn up C. turn away D. get out
Question 8: I've been waiting for hours. You ______ to tell me you would come late.
A. needn't have phoned B. must have phoned
C. oughtn't to have phoned D. should have phoned
Question 9: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. are involving B. to involve C. involving D. involved
Question 10: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook
the dish properly.
A. leave B. quit C. skip D. hide
Question 11: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. would leave B. was leaving C. had left D. has left
Question 12: Susan has achieved great ______ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. charity B. agency C. origin D. disaster
Question 14: A. behave B. enter C. allow D. relax
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. fingers B. attacks C. medals D. concerns
Question 16: A. mean B. treat C. wear D. dream
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Not at all B. You can make it
C. I can't agree with you more D. Oh, that's a problem
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Question 18: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
A. It's too heavy. B. It's not my duty. C. Welcome back. D. Thanks a lot, indeed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness B. uncertainty C. reluctance D. willingness
Question 20: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. obviously delighted B. extremely panicked C. incredibly optimistic D. desperately sad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. changed C. delayed D. continued
Question 22: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. defined B. hosted C. triggered D. arose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______
tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of
hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build
expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and
television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games
they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a
host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an
opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of life, such as new
transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. surmount B. outnumber C. overcharge D. exceed
Question 24: A. on B. for C. at D. in
Question 25: A. influential B. primary C. supplementary D. instrumental
Question 26: A. Otherwise B. However C. For example D. In addition
Question 27: A. what B. which C. whom D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the
USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other
cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance.
In North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two
North Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them,
whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North
Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential
conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
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Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You
must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Misunderstandings in communication
B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America D.
Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American
child is expected to ______.
A. stand close to the person B. raise his/her eyebrows
C. point a finger at the person D. look directly at the person
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. enjoyment B. closeness C. strength D. agreement
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mispronounced B. misbehaved C. misspelled D. misunderstood
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the country B. an example C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to use the body language of the people from that culture
B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
C. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
D. to travel to as many countries as possible
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the
A. distance passage? B. posture C. gesture D. eye movement
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is
to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and
with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had
to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared
with other buildings of the same size.

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In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed
according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was
once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30
percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting
systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these
ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
B. Successful green building projects all over the world
C. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings D.
Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
B. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. recycled materials B. green builders C. rays of the sun D. solar panels
Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
B. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
D. devices that monitor changes in temperature
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
B. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
D. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being notified B. being launched C. being inspected D. being certified
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity

Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
B. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
C. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
D. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
B. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in
the competition.
C. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
D. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
Question 44: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
D. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 46: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
B. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
C. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
D. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
Question 47: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn't arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She was too late to catch the bus. D. She wasn't late for the bus.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
th
Question 48: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Question 49: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
Question 50: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 414


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. are obsessed B. obsessing C. obsessed D. who obsessed
Question 2: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. will help B. would help C. helps D. has helped
Question 3: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Approaching B. Rising C. Going D. Reaching
Question 4: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. should have been B. can't have been C. might have been D. needn't have been
Question 5: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. taking off B. turning out C. putting on D. making up Question 6: The boy denied
______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. eating B. to eat C. to eating D. eat Question 7: Participating in teamwork
activities helps students develop their ______ skills.
A. social B. socialise C. socially D. society
Question 8: Although she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. bring B. pull C. force D. push
Question 9: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. does she B. don't they C. do they D. doesn't she
Question 10: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly
a copyright ______.
A. infliction B. interpretation C. infringement D. interference Question 11: Only after the
teacher ______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go ahead with the experiment.
A. has explained B. would explain C. had explained D. was explaining Question 12: These
volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-flung B. far-fetched C. far-reaching D. far-sighted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 13: A. threat B. beat C. meat D. seat
Question 14: A. mountains B. problems C. wonders D. moments
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. president B. companion C. assistant D. opponent
Question 16: A. happen B. obtain C. perform D. affect
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? B. Can you pass me the salt, please?
C. Do you mind if I sit here? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?

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Question 18: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. I don't quite agree B. I can't agree more
C. That's all right D. That's life
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest
achievement he got when he was at school.
A. success B. completion C. failure D. comprehension Question 20: Despite careful preparation,
the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. stayed confident B. had a fever C. got nervous D. became aggressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered
species all over the world.
A. rebuilt B. adapted C. improved D. introduced Question 22: The team entered the
competition with great confidence after getting sound advice from their coach.

A. sensible B. audible C. sensitive D. tentative


Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (25)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (26)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23: A. that B. which C. who D. whose
Question 24: A. carrying B. concerning C. conducting D. composing
Question 25: A. of B. at C. for D. with
Question 26: A. stimulate B. accumulate C. manipulate D. accommodate
Question 27: A. unless B. before C. although D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.
When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to meet, where
you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level,
some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this

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will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end
up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

Question 28: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. talking about other people's behaviours
C. sending out right signals D. expressing too strong emotions
Question 30: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. types of gestures B. sets of equipment
C. types of signals D. sets of clothes
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Other people's views on beauty B. Kinds of tasks you perform
C. Places you spend time in D. People you meet
Question 32: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. neutral tones B. taste boundaries C. colours D. means
Question 33: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reconsidering B. recalling C. reminding D. reapplying Question 34: According to Professor
Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______.
A. how we speak B. what we actually say
C. what we read D. how we look and behave
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss
attitudes and behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player
swearing at the referee, they can get the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a
player's skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's
contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's
important for members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from players,
think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let
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players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect
it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good
grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing
and to remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport B. The importance of team spirit in sport
C. The influence of model sportspeople on children D. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
Question 36: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. represented B. inspired C. energised D. reinforced
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to

think that ______.

A. it is disadvantageous to all concerned B. it brings about undesirable results C. it is an


acceptable way to win the game D. it is necessary in almost any game
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching sports?
A. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
B. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
C. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. embolden B. actualise C. consolidate D. highlight
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. children B. teammates C. parents D. spectators
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
B. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
C. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
B. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
C. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
D. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she has
artistic talent.
B. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.
C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.
Question 44: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
B. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
C. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
D. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 45: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 46: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Question 47: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona denied having finished the assignment. B. Fiona refused to finish the assignment.
C. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment. D. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
Question 49: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work. B. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour.
C. She usually spends an hour driving to work. D. She used to drive to work in an hour.
Question 50: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
B. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
C. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
D. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 415


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I didn't do well in the exam.
C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I've passed the exam with an A.
Question 2: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."

A. No, I don't think so B. I can't agree with you more C. Yes, you're right D.
You can say that again
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. decide B. install C. follow D. intend
Question 4: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. team B. meal C. head D. bean
Question 6: A. begins B. attracts C. delays D. believes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. rising C. decreasing D. varying
Question 8: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for

fear of getting into financial difficulties.


A. spend money freely B. dress in loose clothes C. save on daily
expenses D. put on tighter belts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. confusing B. advanced C. accessible D. effective
Question 10: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. distributing B. adopting C. classifying D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. having treated B. who treated C. treated D. treating Question 12: You shouldn't lose
heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. turned on B. put off C. switched off D. left out Question 13: Candidates are advised to

dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.


A. impress B. impressive C. impressively D. impression

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Question 14: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. admit B. pose C. address D. create
Question 15: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. acceptable B. noticeable C. observant D. permissive Question 16: Only after she ______ from
a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. has recovered B. was recovering C. would recover D. had recovered
Question 17: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. will help B. would help C. has helped D. helps
Question 18: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. soft-hearted B. kind-hearted C. light-hearted D. whole-hearted Question 19: There is
no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. must have finished
C. needn't have finished D. should have finished
Question 20: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to go B. going C. to going D. go
Question 21: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. is she D. doesn't she
Question 22: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. gets B. lays C. comes D. stands
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (26)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 23: A. out B. on C. with D. in


Question 24: A. what B. where C. which D. when
Question 25: A. but B. and C. or D. for
Question 26: A. confessed B. required C. pledged D. committed
Question 27: A. house B. land C. home D. place
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills
and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be
very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is

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your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific
job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should
demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Things to avoid during a job interview
B. Differences between a résumé and a letter of
application C. Advice on how to find a good job
D. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. get further information about the company
B. present what he/she wants from the job
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview D.
advertise a product to attract more customers
Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the résumé B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the letter of application
Question 31: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. shortly B. slightly C. quickly D. clearly
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It
should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
B. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
C. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
D. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
Question 33: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. understand B. avoid C. investigate D. introduce Question 34: According to paragraph 4,
in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. talk about the company's budget B. mention their expected salary range C. accept
any salary offered D. negotiate working conditions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets
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has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery
or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and
some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for
children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three
years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing
something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend D. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants
Question 36: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrealistic expectation B. considerable controversy
C. deserved attention D. excessive admiration
Question 37: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. reluctant to explore B. inclined to disagree
C. impossible to understand D. difficult to control
Question 38: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. Long-term changes in conduct B. Better recovery from illness
C. A stronger tendency to misbehave D. A greater desire to influence others
Question 39: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a Mulberry staff member B. a school dog
C. a craze D. a primary school
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy B.
Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
C. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
D. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
Question 41: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in
paragraph 5? A. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
C. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
D. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
Question 42: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
ABCD Question 44: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate
parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 45: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 47: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I used to join the sports club. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I never like joining the sports club. D. Joining the sports club is not useful for me.
Question 48: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
B. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
C. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
D. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
Question 50: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family
meant to her. A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave
home to start an independent life. B. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life
did she realise how much her family meant to her.
C. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
D. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 416


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: John and Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."
A. What a nice car! B. My car is very expensive.
C. Your car is new, isn't it? D. Where did you buy your car?
Question 2: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I'm afraid so B. I doubt it C. That's nonsense D. Absolutely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. discuss B. borrow C. involve D. explain
Question 4: A. argument B. apartment C. benefit D. vacancy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. suggests B. destroys C. reminds D. improves
Question 6: A. cheap B. mean C. great D. clean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. pure B. cleaned C. polluted D. deadly
Question 8: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning
to digitalised reading materials.
A. popularity B. scarcity C. intensity D. deficiency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. with all our luggage B. at the very last moment
C. in a terrible condition D. with much time to spare
Question 10: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase
the precision of the sampling procedure.
A. insecurity B. exactness C. inaccuracy D. flexibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. collect B. gather C. achieve D. master
Question 12: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. rub B. spread C. apply D. put

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Question 13: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. know B. knowledgeably C. knowledgeable D. knowledge
Question 14: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. big-hearted B. warm-hearted C. whole-hearted D. light-hearted Question 15: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in
the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. can't have revised B. would have revised C. needn't have revised D. must have revised
Question 16: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. is she B. does she C. isn't she D. doesn't she
Question 17: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. would take B. will take C. has taken D. takes
Question 18: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. continuing B. continue C. to continuing D. to continue
Question 19: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. making off B. bringing down C. putting on D. turning up
Question 20: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extension B. expansion C. expanse D. extent
Question 21: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. has run C. runs D. had run
Question 22: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite
songs among teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. viewing C. viewed D. which viewed
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (26)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. work B. put C. take D. give
Question 24: A. so B. or C. but D. for
Question 25: A. of B. under C. on D. out
Question 26: A. immeasurable B. impassable C. unattainable D. undetectable
Question 27: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.

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Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the
ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby
grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the
hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts
his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
C. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. fighters B. travellers C. dancers D. musicians
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. their mothers B. different tribes C. the senior elders D. the boys
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. Masai men B. Masai teenagers
C. the Masai teenage boys' mothers D. the Masai senior elders
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. distinguish B. differ C. maintain D. change
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Fighting with other tribes D. Changing their clothes
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
B. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
C. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
D. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into the hands of Google,
Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies would
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no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to privacy
and freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
B. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
C. Data overload experienced by social network users D. The
current public obsession with modern technology
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. fantasise B. embrace C. reject D. visualise Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2,
misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to criticism C.
realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something either negative or positive in nature
B. something that is neither good nor bad
C. something that produces unexpected results
D. something that has both advantages and disadvantages
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
B. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
D. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. could be manipulated to charge innocent people
B. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
C. should be kept open to interpretation
D. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
B. Because they regret doing something illegal.
C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
D. Because they wish to protect their image.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. social interactions B. wheels
C. people D. desirable behaviours
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
Question 44: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
B. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
C. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
D. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
Question 45: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend no longer eats fast food. B. My friend doesn't like eating fast food.
C. My friend sometimes eats fast food. D. My friend has never eaten fast food.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 47: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C
of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 48: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she
paid a visit to the local orphanage.
B. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
C. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
D. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.

Question 50: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
B. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
C. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
D. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 417


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. doesn't she B. isn't she C. is she D. does she
Question 2: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. lays B. stands C. gets D. comes
Question 3: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. was recovering D. had recovered Question 4: Several
measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. create C. admit D. address
Question 5: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted Question 6: You
shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. turned on B. put off C. switched off D. left out Question 7: There is no excuse for
your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. must have finished B. should have finished C. needn't have finished
D. mightn't have finished
Question 8: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. having treated B. who treated C. treating D. treated Question 9: Candidates are
advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impressively B. impression C. impress D. impressive Question 10: It is advisable that the
apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. noticeable B. permissive C. observant D. acceptable
Question 11: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. has helped B. will help C. would help D. helps
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. going B. to going C. go D. to go
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. advanced B. accessible C. effective D. confusing
Question 14: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. distributing B. classifying C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has
created favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. varying B. decreasing C. rising D. peaking
Question 16: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear
of getting into financial difficulties.
A. spend money freely B. put on tighter belts
C. save on daily expenses D. dress in loose clothes

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. intend B. decide C. install D. follow
Question 18: A. poverty B. equipment C. character D. sympathy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. believes B. delays C. attracts D. begins
Question 20: A. head B. bean C. team D. meal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A.
C. I didn't do well in the exam. D. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow.
Question 22: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. I can't agree with you more C. B. Yes, you're right
You can say that again D. No, I don't think so
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (26)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 23: A. with B. in C. out D. on


Question 24: A. what B. when C. where D. which
Question 25: A. for B. and C. or D. but
Question 26: A. required B. committed C. pledged D. confessed
Question 27: A. home B. land C. place D. house
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your
skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is
likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to
interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should
emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both
yourself and the company.

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The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
B. Advice on how to find a good job
C. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
D. Things to avoid during a job interview
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. present what he/she wants from the job
B. advertise a product to attract more customers
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
D. get further information about the company
Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. an opportunity B. the letter of application
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 31: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. quickly B. slightly C. clearly D. shortly
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It
should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
B. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
D. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
Question 33: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. understand B. avoid C. investigate D. introduce Question 34: According to paragraph 4,

in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.

A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions C. mention their


expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A
number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence
on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible
problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for children
with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
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Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school
for three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy
lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their
anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced
when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
Question 36: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. deserved attention B. considerable controversy
C. excessive admiration D. unrealistic expectation
Question 37: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. impossible to understand
C. inclined to disagree D. reluctant to explore
Question 38: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Long-term changes in conduct
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Better recovery from illness
Question 39: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a craze B. a primary school
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a school dog
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
C. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
D. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
Question 41: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in
paragraph 5? A. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
Question 42: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
B. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
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Question 44: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
ABCD Question 45: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled
athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Question 47: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 48: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I used to join the sports club. B. Joining the sports club is not useful for me.
C. I never like joining the sports club. D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
B. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.
C. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family
meant to her. D. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how
much her family meant to her.
Question 50: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
B. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
C. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 418

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reminds B. improves C. destroys D. suggests
Question 2: A. great B. clean C. cheap D. mean
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. benefit B. apartment C. argument D. vacancy
Question 4: A. explain B. involve C. borrow D. discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. I doubt it B. I'm afraid so C. That's nonsense D. Absolutely Question 6: John and
Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."

A. My car is very expensive. B. Where did you buy your car? C. Your car is
new, isn't it? D. What a nice car!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. deadly B. polluted C. cleaned D. pure
Question 8: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning
to digitalised reading materials.
A. deficiency B. intensity C. scarcity D. popularity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. exactness B. flexibility C. inaccuracy D. insecurity
Question 10: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time just
before the check-in counter closed.
A. with much time to spare B. at the very last moment
C. with all our luggage D. in a terrible condition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. runs B. had run C. was running D. has run
Question 12: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. know B. knowledge C. knowledgeably D. knowledgeable
Question 13: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. putting on B. turning up C. bringing down D. making off

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Question 14: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extension B. expansion C. expanse D. extent
Question 15: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. is she B. isn't she C. does she D. doesn't she
Question 16: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. rub B. apply C. spread D. put
Question 17: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. master B. collect C. gather D. achieve
Question 18: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. warm-hearted D. big-hearted
Question 19: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite
songs among teenagers worldwide.
A. is viewed B. viewed C. which viewed D. viewing
Question 20: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap year.
A. continue B. to continuing C. to continue D. continuing
Question 21: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. needn't have revised B. must have revised C. would have revised D. can't have revised
Question 22: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. takes B. will take C. would take D. has taken
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (26)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 23: A. give B. take C. put D. work
Question 24: A. but B. so C. for D. or
Question 25: A. under B. of C. out D. on
Question 26: A. impassable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. unattainable
Question 27: A. what B. which C. whose D. who
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.
Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.

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At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the
ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby
grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the
hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts
his hair off at sunrise.
On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
B. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
C. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
D. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. musicians B. travellers C. fighters D. dancers
Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the boys B. different tribes C. the senior elders D. their mothers
Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. Masai men B. Masai teenagers
C. the Masai senior elders D. the Masai teenage boys' mothers
Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. maintain B. distinguish C. differ D. change
Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names
C. Fighting with other tribes D. Changing their clothes
Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
D. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into
the hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies
would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to
privacy and freedom of choice?

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Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.
The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
B. Data overload experienced by social network users C. The
ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
D. The current public obsession with modern technology
Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. visualise B. embrace C. fantasise D. reject
Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2, misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to criticism C.
realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector
Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something that produces unexpected results
B. something either negative or positive in nature
C. something that is neither good nor bad
D. something that has both advantages and disadvantages
Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
B. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
D. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
B. could be manipulated to charge innocent people
C. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
D. should be kept open to interpretation
Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
B. Because they regret doing something illegal.
C. Because they wish to protect their image.
D. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. people B. wheels
C. desirable behaviours D. social interactions
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 44: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 45: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
B. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
C. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
D. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
Question 47: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
Question 48: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend sometimes eats fast food. B. My friend has never eaten fast food.
C. My friend doesn't like eating fast food. D. My friend no longer eats fast food.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
C. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
D. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
Question 50: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
B. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
C. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there. D. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the
children that she paid a visit to the local orphanage.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 419


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. Oh, that's a problem B. I can't agree with you more
C. You can make it D. Not at all
Question 2: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
A. Thanks a lot, indeed. B. It's too heavy. C. It's not my duty. D. Welcome back.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. delayed B. changed C. cancelled D. continued
Question 4: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. triggered B. defined C. hosted D. arose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. incredibly optimistic B. obviously delighted C. extremely panicked D. desperately sad
Question 6: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in the
disaster-stricken areas.
A. willingness B. reluctance C. uncertainty D. awareness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.
A. inflatable B. forbidding C. competitive D. prohibitive
Question 8: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. failure B. lapse C. error D. fault
Question 9: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buying B. buy C. to buy D. buying
Question 10: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-off B. far-gone C. far-reaching D. far-flung
Question 11: Susan has achieved great ______ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully
Question 12: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. would leave B. had left C. was leaving D. has left

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Question 13: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. involving B. to involve C. involved D. are involving
Question 14: Michael rarely returns to his hometown,
______? A. hasn't he B. has he C. does he D. doesn't he
Question 15: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good
education will enable them to ______ in the future.
A. turn up B. get out C. get on D. turn away
Question 16: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around
the city. A. would show B. have shown C. showed D. will show
Question 17: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook
the dish properly.
A. hide B. skip C. quit D. leave Question 18: I've been waiting for hours. You
______ to tell me you would come late.
A. oughtn't to have phoned B. should have phoned C. needn't have
phoned D. must have phoned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. enter B. allow C. behave D. relax
Question 20: A. disaster B. origin C. agency D. charity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. concerns B. medals C. fingers D. attacks
Question 22: A. mean B. wear C. dream D. treat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______
tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of
hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build
expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and
television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games
they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a
host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an
opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of life, such as new
transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. surmount B. overcharge C. exceed D. outnumber
Question 24: A. on B. for C. in D. at
Question 25: A. supplementary B. influential C. instrumental D. primary
Question 26: A. In addition B. However C. For example D. Otherwise
Question 27: A. who B. which C. what D. whom
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the
USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other
cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
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Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance.
In North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two
North Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them,
whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North
Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential
conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You
must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)
Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America B.
Non-verbal communication across cultures
C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
D. Misunderstandings in communication
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child
is expected to ______.
A. look directly at the person B. raise his/her eyebrows
C. point a finger at the person D. stand close to the person
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. strength B. agreement C. closeness D. enjoyment
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. mispronounced B. misspelled C. misbehaved D. misunderstood
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. making a mistake B. sticking out the tongue C. the country D. an example
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
B. to travel to as many countries as possible
C. to use the body language of the people from that culture
D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the
passage? A. eye movement B. posture C. gesture D. distance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is
to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and
with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.

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One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had
to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared
with other buildings of the same size.
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed
according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was
once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30
percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting
systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these
ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
B. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
C. Successful green building projects all over the world
D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
B. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
C. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then D.
there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. rays of the sun B. green builders C. solar panels D. recycled materials
Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
B. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
C. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
D. devices that monitor changes in temperature
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
B. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
D. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being notified D. being launched
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Being friendly to the environment B. Proving more economical eventually C.
Increasing work productivity D. Improving living conditions
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
B. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
C. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
D. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
B. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
C. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in
the competition.
D. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
Question 44: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
B. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
C. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
th
Question 45: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Question 46: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D
Question 47: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn't arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She was too late to catch the bus. D. She wasn't late for the bus.
Question 49: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 50: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
B. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
C. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
D. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 420


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-fetched B. far-reaching C. far-flung D. far-sighted
Question 2: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. should have been B. might have been C. needn't have been D. can't have been
Question 3: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. do they B. don't they C. does she D. doesn't she
Question 4: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Rising B. Approaching C. Going D. Reaching
Question 5: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. interference B. infringement C. interpretation D. infliction
Question 6: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. who obsessed B. obsessed C. obsessing D. are obsessed
Question 7: Although she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. push B. bring C. pull D. force
Question 8: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. helps B. has helped C. would help
D. will help
Question 9: Only after the teacher ______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go ahead
with the experiment.
A. had explained B. was explaining C. has explained D. would explain
Question 10: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. putting on B. making up C. taking off D. turning out
Question 11: The boy denied ______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eat B. eating C. eat D. to eating
Question 12: Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their ______ skills.
A. socialise B. social C. society D. socially
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest
achievement he got when he was at school.
A. failure B. comprehension C. success D. completion
Question 14: Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging
question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. stayed confident B. had a fever C. got nervous D. became aggressive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered
species all over the world.
A. rebuilt B. adapted C. introduced D. improved
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Question 16: The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice
from their coach.
A. tentative B. audible C. sensitive D. sensible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. affect B. perform C. obtain D. happen
Question 18: A. opponent B. companion C. assistant D. president
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. beat B. meat C. threat D. seat
Question 20: A. mountains B. problems C. moments D. wonders
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? B. Do you mind if I sit here?
C. Would you like a cup of coffee? D. Can you pass me the salt, please?
Question 22: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. That's life B. That's all right
C. I can't agree more D. I don't quite agree
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (25)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (26)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23: A. which B. whose C. that D. who
Question 24: A. carrying B. concerning C. conducting D. composing
Question 25: A. at B. for C. with D. of
Question 26: A. stimulate B. accommodate C. accumulate D. manipulate
Question 27: A. because B. although C. before D. unless
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.

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When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to
meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform.
Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this
will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end up
feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

Question 28: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Making Your Image Work for You
B. Creating a Professional Image
C. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
D. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. expressing too strong emotions
C. talking about other people's behaviours D. sending out right signals
Question 30: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. sets of equipment B. types of gestures
C. sets of clothes D. types of signals
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in B. People you meet
C. Kinds of tasks you perform D. Other people's views on beauty
Question 32: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. means B. taste boundaries C. colours D. neutral tones
Question 33: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reminding B. reapplying C. reconsidering D. recalling
Question 34: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______.
A. how we look and behave B. what we actually say
C. how we speak D. what we read
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and
behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get
the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a player's

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skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's contribution
to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's important for
members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from
players, think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on
the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or
scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)
Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport B. The influence of model sportspeople on children
C. The importance of team spirit in sport D. Moral lessons for children from watching sports
Question 36: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reinforced B. inspired C. represented D. energised
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to think
that ______.
A. it brings about undesirable results B. it is necessary in almost any game
C. it is disadvantageous to all concerned D. it is an acceptable way to win the game
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through watching sports?
A. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
B. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
C. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. highlight B. consolidate C. actualise D. embolden
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. parents B. spectators C. children D. teammates
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
B. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
C. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
D. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the
media. Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
B. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
D. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
B. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
C. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.

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Question 44: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she has
artistic talent.
C. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.
D. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the festival.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment. B. Fiona refused to finish the assignment.
C. Fiona denied having finished the assignment. D. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment.
Question 46: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work. B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour. D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Question 47: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
B. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
C. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
D. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Question 49: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Question 50: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 421


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. disaster B. charity C. origin D. agency
Question 2: A. enter B. relax C. allow D. behave
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. attacks B. concerns C. medals D. fingers
Question 4: A. treat B. mean C. wear D. dream
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Many parents tend to make their children study hard in the belief that good education will
enable them to ______ in the future.
A. turn up B. turn away C. get on D. get out
Question 6: Susan has achieved great ______ in her career thanks to her hard work.
A. succeed B. successful C. success D. successfully
Question 7: The operation of the newly constructed plants is likely to lead to ______ environmental
consequences.
A. far-flung B. far-off C. far-gone D. far-reaching
Question 8: He promised ______ his daughter a new bicycle as a birthday present.
A. to buy B. buy C. buying D. to buying
Question 9: The ______ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning
a house there.
A. prohibitive B. competitive C. forbidding D. inflatable
Question 10: I've been waiting for hours. You ______ to tell me you would come late.
A. must have phoned B. should have phoned
C. needn't have phoned D. oughtn't to have phoned
Question 11: If you didn't have to leave today, I ______ you around the city.
A. showed B. will show C. would show D. have shown
Question 12: You must not ______ any step in the process; otherwise, you would not be able to cook
the dish properly.
A. skip B. leave C. quit D. hide
Question 13: Drastic measures should be taken to tackle the problems ______ child abuse.
A. involving B. to involve C. are involving D. involved
Question 14: After a momentary ______ of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and
completed the test.
A. lapse B. error C. fault D. failure
Question 15: Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ______?
A. has he B. doesn't he C. does he D. hasn't he
Question 16: Only after he ______ the job as a computer programmer did he realise how much he
loved it.
A. had left B. has left C. would leave D. was leaving
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Jane is talking to Mike, who has just helped her with her luggage.
- Jane: "______"
- Mike: "It's my pleasure."
B. Thanks a lot, indeed. C. It's not my duty. D. Welcome back. Trang
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Question 18: Two students are talking about the school curriculum.
- Ted: "Swimming should be made part of the school curriculum."
- Kate: "______. It is an essential life skill."
A. You can make it B. Oh, that's a problem
C. I can't agree with you more D. Not at all
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Judy has just won a full scholarship to one of the most prestigious universities in the
country; she must be on cloud nine now.
A. extremely panicked B. desperately sad C. obviously delighted D. incredibly optimistic
Question 20: People nationwide have acted without hesitation to provide aids for the victims in
the disaster-stricken areas.
A. awareness B. uncertainty C. willingness D. reluctance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: The football final has been postponed until next Sunday due to the heavy snowstorm.
A. cancelled B. continued C. changed D. delayed
Question 22: The chairman's thought-provoking question ignited a lively debate among the
participants in the workshop.
A. triggered B. defined C. arose D. hosted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the
financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23)______
tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to the direct costs of
hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes' village, security, etc.), cities often must build
expensive new venues (24)______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional
maintenance costs long after the Games have ended.
While costs are the (25)______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one,
an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and
television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games
they hosted. (26)______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a
host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an
opportunity to invest in projects (27)______ improve the city's quality of life, such as new
transportation systems.
(Adapted from "Skillful Reading & Writing 4" by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick)
Question 23: A. surmount B. outnumber C. overcharge D. exceed
Question 24: A. on B. at C. in D. for
Question 25: A. supplementary B. instrumental C. primary D. influential
Question 26: A. For example B. However C. Otherwise D. In addition
Question 27: A. who B. which C. whom D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms
of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note,
however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the
USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other
cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is
considered a sign of disrespect.
Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance.
In North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two
North Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them,
whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North
Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential
conversation or if there is intimacy between them.
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Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move
any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over
the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures
can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be
misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some
places it communicates ridicule.
The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You
must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.
(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Misunderstandings in communication
B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures
C. The significance of non-verbal signals in America D.
Non-verbal communication across cultures
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child
is expected to ______.
A. raise his/her eyebrows B. look directly at the person
C. point a finger at the person D. stand close to the person
Question 30: The word "intimacy" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. strength B. agreement C. enjoyment D. closeness
Question 31: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. misspelled B. misunderstood C. mispronounced D. misbehaved
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the country B. an example C. sticking out the tongue D. making a mistake
Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from
another culture, it is advisable for a person ______.
A. to travel to as many countries as possible
B. to use the body language of the people from that culture C.
to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture
D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture
Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the
passage? A. eye movement B. gesture C. distance D. posture
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing
the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of
reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is
growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also,
they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is
to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to
produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and
with no pollution.
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut
electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To
reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so
that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer.
One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most
environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had
to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to
lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled
materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared
with other buildings of the same size.

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In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed
according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was
once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30
percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting
systems, are also equipped with solar panels.
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400
families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase,
entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these
ideas in new neighborhoods across China.
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and
governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green
buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run.
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Successful green building projects all over the world
B. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
C. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings D.
Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were
initially considered unrealistic presumably because ______.
A. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
B. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
D. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. green builders B. recycled materials C. solar panels D. rays of the sun
Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. devices that monitor changes in temperature
B. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption
C. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
D. panels that convert solar energy into electricity
Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge
and the project in Vauban, Germany?
A. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones.
B. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably.
C. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs.
D. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems.
Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means ______.
A. being inspected B. being certified C. being notified D. being launched
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?

A. Proving more economical eventually B. Increasing work productivity C. Being


friendly to the environment D. Improving living conditions
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is
TRUE? A. They are more economical and produce no pollution.
B. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world.
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries.
D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Joe has finished his first-aid course. He proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
A. Although Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
B. Without finishing his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
C. However helpful Joe proves as a rescue worker, he hasn't finished his first-aid course.
D. Having finished his first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker.
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Question 44: His friends supported and encouraged him. He did really well in the competition.
A. Such were his friends' support and encouragement that he couldn't do really well in the
competition.
B. Had it not been for his friends' support and encouragement, he couldn't have done so well in
the competition.
C. If his friends had given him support and encouragement, he could have done really well in
the competition.
D. No matter how much his friends supported and encouraged him, he couldn't do well in the
competition.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: They expect that recent changes will bring about an overall improvement in the
quality of the country's education.
A. It is expected that recent changes are caused by an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
B. Recent changes are expected to lead to an overall improvement in the quality of the
country's education.
C. It was expected that recent changes would result in an overall improvement in the quality of
the country's education.
D. The quality of the country's education is expected to be the consequence of recent changes.
Question 46: She wasn't early enough to catch the bus.
A. She didn't arrive late for the bus. B. She arrived too early for the bus.
C. She wasn't late for the bus. D. She was too late to catch the bus.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students.
A. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Most workers seems to be happy with their new working conditions.
A B C D
th
Question 49: It is the night of 5 November that people in Britain light bonfires and have
A B
fireworks as a national tradition.
C D
Question 50: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
A B
schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance.
C D

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 422


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The coastal city is ______ extra buses during the summer because of a considerable
increase in the number of tourists.
A. turning out B. making up C. taking off D. putting on
Question 2: Although she had been told quite sternly to ______ herself together, she simply couldn't
stop the tears from flowing.
A. bring B. force C. pull D. push
Question 3: If our teacher were here now, he ______ us with this difficult exercise.
A. will help B. would help C. has helped D. helps
Question 4: They were at the stadium with us last night, so they ______ at the theatre then.
A. needn't have been B. might have been C. should have been D. can't have been
Question 5: ______ to fame at an early age may have a negative influence on children's
psychological development.
A. Approaching B. Rising C. Going D. Reaching
Question 6: Her parents rarely let her stay out late, ______?
A. doesn't she B. don't they C. does she D. do they
Question 7: Participating in teamwork activities helps students develop their ______
skills. A. socially B. socialise C. social D. society
Question 8: The boy denied ______ the cake even though there was some cream left on his chin.
A. to eating B. eating C. to eat D. eat
Question 9: In most countries, photocopying books without the publisher's permission is clearly a
copyright ______.
A. infliction B. infringement C. interference D. interpretation
Question 10: These volunteer programmes aim to provide education for children in ______ regions.
A. far-sighted B. far-fetched C. far-reaching D. far-flung
Question 11: The children ______ by social networks are likely to suffer from depression and other
health problems.
A. obsessing B. obsessed C. who obsessed D. are obsessed
Question 12: Only after the teacher ______ the procedure clearly were the students allowed to go
ahead with the experiment.
A. was explaining B. would explain C. had explained D. has explained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 13: Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging
question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. got nervous B. became aggressive C. stayed confident D. had a fever
Question 14: Winning the first prize in the National Math Competition was the highest
achievement he got when he was at school.
A. comprehension B. success C. failure D. completion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 15: The team entered the competition with great confidence after getting sound advice
from their coach.
A. sensible B. tentative C. audible D. sensitive
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Question 16: It is high time more intensive campaigns were initiated to protect endangered
species all over the world.
A. adapted B. improved C. rebuilt D. introduced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
- Jimmy: "______. There are successful people without a degree."
A. That's all right B. I don't quite agree
C. I can't agree more D. That's life
Question 18: Adam and Janet are at the school canteen.
- Adam: "______"
- Janet: "Yes, please."
A. It's a bit hot in here, isn't it? B. Do you mind if I sit here?
C. Can you pass me the salt, please? D. Would you like a cup of coffee?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. affect B. happen C. perform D. obtain
Question 20: A. assistant B. president C. companion D. opponent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. mountains B. problems C. moments D. wonders
Question 22: A. threat B. seat C. meat D. beat
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of
elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (23)______ were published
in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the
development of higher brain functions.
Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (24)______ a
pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as
time playing (25)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and
fraction tests than other children.
Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or
the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the
study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that
boost their ability to (26)______ shapes in their mind.
The findings are significant (27)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite
to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand
more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields.
(Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain)
Question 23: A. which B. whose C. who D. that
Question 24: A. composing B. concerning C. conducting D. carrying
Question 25: A. at B. for C. with D. of
Question 26: A. manipulate B. accumulate C. accommodate D. stimulate
Question 27: A. because B. unless C. before D. although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on
how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's
inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative
reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing.

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When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to
meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform.
Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this
will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste
completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end up
feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself.
Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out
appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you
really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You
know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do
take care not to go too far all at once.
Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will
benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to
read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on
each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only
seven percent on what we actually say.
(Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower)

Question 28: Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits
B. Making Judgements about People's Appearance
C. Making Your Image Work for You
D. Creating a Professional Image
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______.
A. talking about other people's behaviours B. sending out right signals
C. wearing inappropriate clothes D. expressing too strong emotions
Question 30: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. sets of clothes B. types of signals
C. types of gestures D. sets of equipment
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be
considered when choosing clothes?
A. Places you spend time in B. Other people's views on beauty
C. Kinds of tasks you perform D. People you meet
Question 32: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. neutral tones B. taste boundaries C. colours D. means
Question 33: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reapplying B. reconsidering C. reminding D. recalling
Question 34: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other
depends mainly on ______.
A. how we speak B. how we look and behave
C. what we read D. what we actually say
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums,
fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of
sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give
children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't
the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what
you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and
wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour.
What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and
behaviour with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get
the child's opinion on that behaviour and discuss whether a player's

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skill is more important than their behaviour. Ask what the child thinks the player's contribution
to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it's important for
members to work well together.
Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behaviour from
players, think it's amusing or even consider it's a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players
get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on
the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing with good grace or
scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to
remind children that both are part of sport.
However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure
they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players
have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made
by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point
out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can
stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when
not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the
antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players.
(Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox)

Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of team spirit in sport B. The influence of model sportspeople on children
C. Moral lessons for children from watching sports D. Different attitudes toward bad behaviour in sport
Question 36: The word "bolstered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. inspired B. represented C. energised D. reinforced
Question 37: According to paragraph 1, misconduct exhibited by players may lead children to
think that ______.
A. it is an acceptable way to win the game C. it B. it is necessary in almost any game
brings about undesirable results D. it is disadvantageous to all concerned
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children through
watching sports? A. Cheating is frowned upon by the majority of players.
B. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.
C. A player's performance is of greater value than his behaviour.
D. Collaboration is fundamental to any team's success.
Question 39: The word "accentuate" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by ______.
A. highlight B. embolden C. consolidate D. actualise
Question 40: The word "They" in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. children B. spectators C. teammates D. parents
Question 41: Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Misconduct from sportspeople may go unpunished despite the presence of officials.
B. A well-behaved player enjoys a good reputation among his teammates, spectators and the media.
C. Reactions of coaches and managers when their teams lose a game may be of educational value.
D. Many sportspeople help others so as to project good images of themselves.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds.
B. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing.
C. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others.
D. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: "I'm sorry I haven't finished the assignment," Fiona said.
A. Fiona apologised for not finishing the assignment. B. Fiona regretted having finished the assignment.
C. Fiona refused to finish the assignment. D. Fiona denied having finished the assignment.
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Question 44: Many people think that the new regulations will encourage people to use less energy.
A. The new regulations are thought to encourage lower consumption of energy.
B. It is thought that the new regulations will encourage people to consume more energy.
C. It was thought that lower consumption of energy was stimulated by the new regulations.
D. Lower consumption of energy is thought to lead to the introduction of the new regulations.
Question 45: It usually takes her an hour to drive to work.
A. She never spends an hour driving to work. B. She used to drive to work in an hour.
C. She doesn't usually drive to work in an hour. D. She usually spends an hour driving to work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: Drawing on her own experience in psychology, the writer successfully portrayed
A B
a volatile character with dramatic alternatives of mood.
C D
Question 47: It was the year 2014 that Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was made a
A B C World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

D
Question 48: My close friends spends most of their free time helping the homeless people in the community.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He fulfilled his dream of travelling the world. He decided to get a job and settle down.
A. Having fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided to get a job and settle down.
B. Although he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he decided not to get a job and settle down.
C. If he had fulfilled his dream of travelling the world, he would have decided to get a job and settle down.
D. As he decided to get a job and settle down, he didn't fulfil his dream of travelling the world.
Question 50: She gave a great performance at the festival. We now know she has artistic talent.
A. Hardly had we known about her artistic talent when she gave a great performance at the
festival. B. Although she gave a great performance at the festival, now we still don't know she
has artistic talent.
C. Amazing as her artistic talent is, we don't know about her great performance at the festival.
D. But for her great performance at the festival, we wouldn't know about her artistic talent now.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 423


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. meal B. bean C. head D. team
Question 2: A. attracts B. delays C. believes D. begins
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. intend B. follow C. decide D. install
Question 4: A. equipment B. sympathy C. poverty D. character
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. decreasing C. varying D. rising
Question 6: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for
fear of getting into financial difficulties.
A. spend money freely B. save on daily expenses
C. dress in loose clothes D. put on tighter belts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. confusing B. accessible C. effective D. advanced
Question 8: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. inventing B. distributing C. classifying D. adopting
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 9: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treating B. having treated C. who treated D. treated
Question 10: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. lays B. comes C. gets D. stands Question 11: Candidates are advised to dress formally to
make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressively Question 12: You shouldn't lose
heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. put off B. turned on C. left out D. switched off
Question 13: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 14: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. kind-hearted B. soft-hearted C. light-hearted D. whole-hearted
Question 15: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. will help C. has helped D. helps
Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.

A. must have finished B. needn't have finished C. should have finished


D. mightn't have finished
Question 17: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. had recovered C. has recovered D. was recovering
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Question 18: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. go B. going C. to going D. to go
Question 19: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. create B. address C. pose D. admit
Question 20: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. observant B. acceptable C. noticeable D. permissive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. No, I don't think so B. You can say that again
C. I can't agree with you more D. Yes, you're right
Question 22: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!" A.
I've passed the exam with an A. C. I hope B. I'll get the exam results tomorrow.
I'll pass the exam tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that
the difference (23)______ temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon
occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are
replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun
and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (24)______ occur in the
morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (25)______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government
has (26)______ to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the
creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and
is (27)______ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to
collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)

Question 23: A. with B. in C. on D. out


Question 24: A. where B. which C. what D. when
Question 25: A. but B. for C. or D. and
Question 26: A. committed B. pledged C. confessed D. required
Question 27: A. land B. house C. place D. home
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant
you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what
you want from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your
skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is
likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to
interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should
emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both
yourself and the company.

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The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be
modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for
sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you
should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires
that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you
go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate
both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more
than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about?


A. Things to avoid during a job interview
B. Advice on how to find a good job
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. advertise a product to attract more customers
B. present what he/she wants from the job
C. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview D. get
further information about the company
Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the résumé B. an opportunity
C. the letter of application D. your work
Question 31: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. slightly C. quickly D. shortly
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of
application? A. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
D. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
Question 33: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. investigate B. understand C. introduce D. avoid
Question 34: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. mention their expected salary range B. talk about the company's budget C.
negotiate working conditions D. accept any salary offered
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other
members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the
limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no
envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months
ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their
academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to
interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be
denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff
meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a
school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct,"
says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A
number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence
on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible
problems."

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Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for
children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three
years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at
the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing
something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love
and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the
former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning
environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity
stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as
popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants B. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons
C. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 36: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unrealistic expectation B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. excessive admiration
Question 37: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. inclined to disagree
C. reluctant to explore D. impossible to understand
Question 38: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. A greater desire to influence others
C. Long-term changes in conduct D. Better recovery from illness
Question 39: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a craze B. a Mulberry staff member
C. a primary school D. a school dog
Question 40: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by
Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
B. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students C.
Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
Question 41: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in
paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
C. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 42: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their
message across to young people.
C. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
D. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will
benefit their students.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her.
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Question 44: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. I never like joining the sports club. B. I used to join the sports club.
C. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. D. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
Question 45: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Question 47: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 48: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
B. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.

Question 50: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to
her. A. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family
meant to her. B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start
an independent life. C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how
much her family meant to her.
D. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
THỨC
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 424

Họ, tên thí sinh: .....................................................................


Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Nancy and James are talking about their school days.
- Nancy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."
- James: "______. We had sweet memories together then."
A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it Question 2: John and
Mike are talking about Mike's new car.
- John: "______"
- Mike: "Thanks. I'm glad to hear that."

A. What a nice car! B. Your car is new, isn't it? C. Where did you buy your
car? D. My car is very expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning
to digitalised reading materials.
A. deficiency B. intensity C. popularity D. scarcity
Question 4: Heavily contaminated with wastes from nearby factories, the water in this river is not
suitable for daily use.
A. polluted B. cleaned C. pure D. deadly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Despite the traffic hold-ups, we were able to arrive at the airport in the nick of time
just before the check-in counter closed.
A. in a terrible condition B. with all our luggage
C. at the very last moment D. with much time to spare
Question 6: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the
precision of the sampling procedure.
A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: The school drama club is ______ a play for the school's anniversary, which is due to take
place next month.
A. turning up B. bringing down C. putting on D. making off
Question 8: If he didn't have to work today, he ______ his children to the zoo.
A. will take B. would take C. has taken D. takes
Question 9: Despacito, ______ over four billion times on YouTube, is one of the most favourite songs
among teenagers worldwide.
A. which viewed B. viewed C. viewing D. is viewed
Question 10: Sue rarely misses a chance to do voluntary work, ______?
A. doesn't she B. isn't she C. does she D. is she
Question 11: It is believed that travelling is a good way to expand our ______ of the world.
A. know B. knowledge C. knowledgeably D. knowledgeable
Question 12: Many people head for the countryside where the flat ______ of fields helps them escape
from the hectic city life.
A. extent B. expanse C. extension D. expansion
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Question 13: We know that we are at fault for our third consecutive defeat, so there is no need to
______ salt into the wound.
A. put B. spread C. apply D. rub
Question 14: The students' plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ______ support
from the school administrators.
A. warm-hearted B. light-hearted C. whole-hearted D. big-hearted
Question 15: Maria decided ______ her education after a gap
year. A. continuing B. continue C. to continuing D. to continue
Question 16: Parents often advise their children to study hard in the hope that they will ______ success
in the future.
A. master B. collect C. achieve D. gather
Question 17: Only after the bus ______ for a few miles did Jane realise she was on the wrong route.
A. was running B. runs C. has run D. had run
Question 18: Adrian got surprisingly high grades in the final exam. He ______ his lessons very carefully.
A. must have revised B. can't have revised C. would have revised D. needn't have revised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. explain B. discuss C. involve D. borrow
Question 20: A. argument B. apartment C. vacancy D. benefit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. mean B. cheap C. great D. clean
Question 22: A. reminds B. destroys C. suggests D. improves
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 23: Laura practised playing the instrument a lot. She could hardly improve her performance.
A. However much Laura practised playing the instrument, she could hardly perform any better.
B. As soon as Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could perform much better.
C. Had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot, she could have performed much better.
D. Hardly had Laura practised playing the instrument a lot when she could improve her performance.
Question 24: Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her
savings to the children there.
A. Lucy had hardly decided to donate part of her savings to the children when she paid a visit
to the local orphanage.
B. It was only when Lucy had decided to donate part of her savings to the children that she
paid a visit to the local orphanage.
C. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the
children there. D. Before she paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy had decided to donate
part of her savings to the children there.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The keynote speaker started with some complementary remarks about the organisers
A B C of the conference, and then proceeded with her speech.
D
Question 26: It was the year 2003 that Vietnam hosted the Southeast Asian Games (SEA Games)
A B
for the first time.
C D
Question 27: My classmates is going on a trip to Cuc Phuong National Park this weekend.
A B C D
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 28: My friend has stopped eating fast food.
A. My friend no longer eats fast food. B. My friend doesn't like eating fast food.
C. My friend has never eaten fast food. D. My friend sometimes eats fast food.
Question 29: "You should take better care of your health," said Tom's mother.
A. Tom's mother advised him to take better care of his health.
B. Tom's mother promised to take better care of his health.
C. Tom's mother required him to take better care of his health.
D. Tom's mother ordered him to take better care of his health.
Question 30: They report that soil pollution has seriously threatened the livelihood of many local farmers.
A. Soil pollution is reported to have posed a serious threat to the livelihood of many local farmers.
B. The livelihood of many local farmers was reported to be seriously endangered by soil pollution.
C. It is reported that the livelihood of many local farmers has led to serious soil pollution.
D. It has been reported that soil pollution has actually put many local farmers' lives at risk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps
foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus
teaching people how to (31)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into
touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future.
Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others
that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (32)______ they do have
many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can
be harnessed for the benefit (33)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately
themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are
involved is (34)______.
Employers will generally look favorably on people (35)______ have shown an ability to work as
part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be
desirable qualities in any employee.
(Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter)
Question 31: A. give B. work C. put D. take
Question 32: A. so B. but C. or D. for
Question 33: A. out B. under C. of D. on
Question 34: A. unattainable B. immeasurable C. undetectable D. impassable
Question 35: A. which B. whose C. who D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known.
They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and
dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the
teenage boys of the Masai become men.
Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the
border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a
traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes.
At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a
place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from
different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the
day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time.
The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the
ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby
grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the
hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts
his hair off at sunrise.
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On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you
are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The
teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children.
Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities.
(Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett)
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood
B. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes
C. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto
D. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives
Question 37: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. fighters B. travellers C. dancers D. musicians
Question 38: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the senior elders B. their mothers C. different tribes D. the boys
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______.
A. the Masai senior elders B. the Masai teenage boys' mothers
C. Masai teenagers D. Masai men
Question 40: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. maintain B. change C. distinguish D. differ
Question 41: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto?
A. Fighting with other tribes B. Changing their clothes
C. Painting their bodies D. Receiving new names
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto.
B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto.
C. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls.
D. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and
smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of
countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools,
councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are
getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As
camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming
everything all the time, in every direction.
Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera,
especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence
suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get
away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents.
But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into
the hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies
would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to
privacy and freedom of choice?
Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have
already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage
could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others.
Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to
fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would
prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing
anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams
have a further chilling effect on our freedom?
The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural
gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social
interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up.

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The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical
threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but
we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action."
(Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com)

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data
B. Data overload experienced by social network users C. The
ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems
D. The current public obsession with modern technology
Question 44: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reject B. visualise C. fantasise D. embrace Question 45: As mentioned in paragraph 2,
misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______.
A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. realise that they may be publicly punished
C. are employed in the public sector D. know that they may be subjected to criticism
Question 46: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______.
A. something either negative or positive in nature
B. something that is neither good nor bad
C. something that has both advantages and disadvantages D.
something that produces unexpected results
Question 47: What does the author imply in paragraph 3?
A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn,
raises public concern.
B. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for
illicit purposes.
C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take
care of their users' body-cam data.
D. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of
their privacy and anonymity.
Question 48: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______.
A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely
B. could provoke legal disputes among media companies
C. could be manipulated to charge innocent people
D. should be kept open to interpretation
Question 49: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully
online? A. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds.
B. Because they wish to protect their image.
C. Because they regret doing something illegal.
D. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public.
Question 50: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. people B. wheels
C. social interactions D. desirable behaviours

------------------------ HẾT ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi
Câu hỏi
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424
1 D B B B B B C A B D A A B C D A D D B C A D C A
2 B B A C C D D B A A C A C B A D B A A D A C A A
3 D A C D D D C A A C A C C B C B D B A A A B B C
4 B C A C C B A C A A B B C B C B D C A A C D A A
5 B A D A B C A C C B A C A C C A B D D B C B B D
6 C C B D C D C D C B D B D A B C B D A B C D A A
7 C B D C C A B D D B B B A A C C B B D C D C D C
8 A D A D D C B D B A B C D B A A D D B C A B B B
9 C C B A A D D C C C D C C C B D B C C A A B D B
10 C A C B A B A A B D C C C C A C C A C A B D D C
11 C C B B B C B D B C A A C C C C C B A B C B B B
12 B B B D C D C D C A C B D A B A A B B B A C A B
13 A D D D D D D D D B B D D A D D A A A A A C B D
14 C C C C D C B A A B D A B D C C A C C A A C C C
15 C A A B A C D B D A D D B A C D B C C C C A A D
16 B B B A B D A B D C C D C A D B A A A D A D C C
17 B D B D D C B A B D A A C D B A D D B D B B B D
18 D C C D A A A D B A D B D A C D B A B D C D B A
19 B D B B B A C C A C B A D C D C C B A C B B B D
20 C D A D C A B A A D C A D A B C A C A C C B A B
21 A D A A D B A C C A B A C D B D B B D C D C A C
22 B B C D A B A C A A C B C A D C D C B D A A A C
23 B B B B B B C C D D C D D B D A B D C A D A B A
24 A A D D C B C B D C C B B C C C D A B C D C B C
25 A B B B C B A A B C B B B D B A B B D C C C D B
26 B D A A D A B C A B D A D C C A C B A D D A B A
27 A D A D B B A D C B B B B D C C A D B A B A D B
28 D A D D B B C A B A C D D C D A A B B A D C C A
29 C B B B B B B B C B D A D A C A C C A A B C C A
30 C D B A D D D B B B B B B D D C B C C C D A C A
31 C C B B A C B D A C A A D A D C C D D D B B A B
32 B B D A D A A D A A D D C C B D C D B C C C C B
33 C A D D A B B C B C A D B A D A D A D C D B C C
34 A B A A C A B B D C C A B D B A C B B A D B A B
35 A B D B A B D B B A A B C D D A C C D D C C A C
36 C D B A B D C A C B C D D D D D C A C A D D D A
37 A A D A B C C A A D B B D C D A A A C D C A A A
38 A C D C A A C C D D C B B D B D D D C D B D D A
39 A C A C D A D D C D B D D D B C D C D A B A D B
40 D A D B C D C A B B C B B C C D C A D A D D D B
41 C D D A C D C A D C B D D D D D C C C C B D C C
42 C D A A D A D B C D D A B C B C C A C D B A C B
43 C C A B A A D C C C A B B D A D B B C C D A C C
44 A D A B A A D D C C D D B D B C A A D C B A D B
45 A C D B A D B C B B A D C D A A A B A D B D D A
46 B D A C D A A B A B A B C A D A D C A D D D A C
47 A C A C C B A B A A A D C B B B C A A D B A B C
48 B B A C D A D D D D B A A C C B D D C B A B A A
49 B A D B C C D B D D D D A C B D D A C A A A C B
50 B B D B C C C B D C D D A C B D D C D D A D C A
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh: Mã đề thi: 401


................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consist B. carry C. remove D. protect
Question 2: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. touch B. round C. ground D. shout
Question 4: A. combined B. travelled C. behaved D. practiced
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?”
- Customer: “________”
A. Good job! B. That's all. Thanks. C. With pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 6: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “________. It's their duty in the family.”

A. You're exactly right B. That's what I think C. There's no doubt


about it D. I don't think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. recalled B. released C. revised D. caught
Question 8: At first, John said he hadn't broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 10: It's quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they

witness in the street.


A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for C. show respect for D. pay
attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: As they remembered ________ about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists
closely followed the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warned D. to warn
Question 12: Once ________ for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for
use.
A. has tested B. is tested C. testing D. tested Question 13: The teacher entered the room
while the students ________ their plan for the excursion.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. discussed D. are discussing
Question 14: His choice of future career is quite similar ________ mine.
A. with B. at C. for D. to
Question 15: With his good sense of humour, Martin is quite ________ with the students.
A. popularity B. popular C. popularize D. popularly
Question 16: The residents of the village are living a happy life ________ they lack modern facilities.
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A. because of B. although C. therefore D. despite
Question 17: Action films with big stars tend to ________ great public attention.
A. achieve B. show C. attract D. reach
Question 18: This is ________ most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 19: The scientists are working on a drug capable of ________ the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
Question 20: The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter ________.
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
Question 21: It's time he acted like a ________ adult and stopped blaming others for his wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. sociable C. believable D. suitable
Question 22: We ________ on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. could have gone B. will go C. would go D. went
Question 23: One recipe for success is to stay focused and ________ yourself to whatever you do.
A. apply B. attach C. assign D. adhere
Question 24: It's not my ________ to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down and
have a family.
A. work B. chore C. job D. career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Becoming an independent language learner
In an educational context, the term “learner independence” has gained increasing importance in recent years. It is of particular
(25) ________ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and organize their own
language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost (26)
________ flair for languages, others have rely on strategies to maximize their skills and learn a foreign
language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on taking responsibility
for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of
(27) ________ by learning according to your own needs and interests,
using all available resources. Research shows that learners (28) ________ adopt this approach will
undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (29) ________, are more likely to
achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adopted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 25: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. acceptance
Question 26: A. habitual B. spiritual C. perceptive D. instinctive
Question 27: A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
Question 28: A. who B. why C. where D. which
Question 29: A. as a result B. in contrast C. though D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travelers going to remote destinations, staying
with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities
with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are
tribal tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange involves
staying with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle
is very different from that in their home location. Those who have been on tribal holiday explain that
experiencing this lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they
never have before.
Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is about
whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because tribal tourism
is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail. Where studies have
been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative.
So, is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of thought, we can
maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative”, says travel company director

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Hilary Waterhouse. “The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of,
local customs and traditions. Always remember you're a guest.”
(Adopted from “Complete IELTS” by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference
C. Different Customs of a Tribe D. Peak Holiday Seasons
Question 31: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. travellers B. facilities C. local people D. remote destinations
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism?
A. Tourists can stay with people of the same values.
B. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors.
C. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle.
D. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas.
Question 33: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. similar B. important C. different D. interesting Question 34: According to Hilary

Waterhouse, the most important thing for a tribal tourist is to ________.

A. forget about negative experiences B. respect local customs and traditions C. learn about
other guests D. be accompanied by other travellers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become
obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons
of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste
ends up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead,
mercury, and arsenic, that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like
gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient -
and less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-
waste dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold an diverted to the developing world, posing an
increasing threat to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention,
an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into
their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor
countries completely. Although the ban hasn't taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is
well developed, has already written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the sale disposal
of electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e-
waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products
into their component materials. As the machine's steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust is removed
from the process. This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a
fraction of the total, it wouldn't take many more machines like this to process the entire USA's output of high-
tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping
waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative Recycling
Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste overseas.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley)
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up
Question 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete
Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries ________.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold
C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations
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Question 38: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention
Question 40: According to the European Union's laws, electronics manufacturers are required to ________.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly
B. sell their e-waste to developed nations only
C. sign the Basel Convention
D. take responsibility for disposing of their products safely
Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The USA's total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year.
B. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine.
C. The Basel Convention originally banned the import of high-tech trash into European countries.
D. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports.
B. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively.
C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida.
D. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 44: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less affordably priced.
B. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with reasonable
prices.
C. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing
with new applications.
D. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable cut, with new applications, they are
also more appealing.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 45: It was wrong of you to criticise your son in front of his friends.
A. You shouldn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
B. You must have criticised your son in front of his friends.
C. You mightn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
D. You could have criticised your son in front of his friends.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn't like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn't like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
Question 47: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here. B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here. D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence
A B
in remembrance of the victims of the earthquake.
C D

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Question 49: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
A B C D
Question 50: The money raised in the appeal will use to help those in need in remote areas.
A B C D
----------------------- HẾT ---------------------

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KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mã đề thi: 402
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 1: The aroma of freshly baked bread in the morning has always ________ memories of his
childhood home.
A. evoked B. reminisced C. instilled D. incited
Question 2: Schoolchildren shouldn't make fun of those who are intellectually ________ to them.
A. responsible B. familiar C. inferior D. essential
Question 3: John is ________ most hard-working student I've ever known.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
Question 4: Joseph would never forget ________ by his boss through no fault of his own.
A. criticising B. being criticised C. to criticise D. to be criticised
Question 5: Once ________ with sufficient information, the freshmen will feel more confident to start the
new course.
A. having provided B. provided C. are provided D. providing
Question 6: I'm sorry. I didn't mean to ________ your feelings when I said such a thing.
A. injure B. hurt C. destroy D. break
Question 7. Backpacking is best suited for those who are in good physical condition ________.
A. without being required to walk several miles B. so that it would require walking several miles
C. as it may require walking several miles D. so as not to require walking several miles
Question 8: Laura came to ________ me for taking care of her dog when she was away.
A. thankful B. thankfulness C. thankfully D. thank
Question 9: My uncle tries to spend time playing with his children ________ he is very busy.
A. because of B. although C. moreover D. despite
Question 10: Linda took great photos of butterflies while she ________ in the forest.
A. is hiking B. was hiking C. hiked D. had hiked
Question 11: If you follow my directions, you ________ her house easily.
A. will find B. would have found C. would find D. found
Question 12: The children are highly excited ________ the coming summer holiday.
A. with B. about C. to D. for
Question 13: The film was so intriguing that the audience were all ________ to the screen until the end.
A. stuck B. hooked C. glued D. attached
Question 14: A key component of Industry 4.0 is the Internet of Things characterised by the
connections of all mobile ________.
A. accessories B. devices C. utensils D. vehicles
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 15: Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving.
- Linda: “I think drink-driving should be severely punished.”
- Peter: “ ________. It may cause accidents or even deaths.”

A. I don't think so B. I absolutely agree with you C. I don't understand what


you mean D. You must be kidding

- Porter: “May I help you with your suitcase?”


- Mary: “________”
A. What a shame! B. Me too. C. Yes, please. D. You're welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSET in
meaning the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 17: Many experts support the view that children should start learning English as early as possible. Trang 1/5 -

Mã đề thi 402
A. reason B. problem C. reaction D. opinion
Question 18: The young singer's career took off after her latest album topped the charts.
A. ended in failure B. became successful C. went unnoticed D. remained unchanged
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it for a
long time.
A. clear B. poor C. quick D. vague
Question 20: For a fruitful discussion, the chairman should make sure that every member is at liberty to
voice their opinions.
A. getting approval B. having no restriction C. getting satisfaction D. having no freedom
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. leave B. learn C. speak D. teach
Question 22: A. discussed B. performed C. cancelled D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. terrific B. beautiful C. general D. chemical
Question 24: A. provide B. listen C. repeat D. collect
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: He badly suffered cyberbullying himself. He realized the true dangers of social
media only then.
A. Such was his suffering of cyberbullying that he didn't realise the true dangers of social media.
B. Only when he had realized the true dangers of social media did he badly suffer cyberbullying himself.
C. But for his terrible suffering of cyberbullying, he wouldn't realise the true dangers of social media.
D. Not until he had badly suffered cyberbullying himself did he realize the true dangers of social media.
Question 26: Mike didn't follow his parents' advice on choosing his career. He regrets it now. A.
Mike regrets having followed his parents' advice on choosing his career
B. Mike wishes he had followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
C. If only Mike followed his parents' advice on choosing his career.
D. If Mike followed his parents' advice on choosing his career, he would regret it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Jack cycles usually to work to avoid traffic jams at rush hour.
A B C D
Question 28: With his important contributions, Albert Einstein considered one of the greatest physicists of
A B C D
all time.
Question 29: Our grandfather, who had an excellent memory when young, has become very forgettable in
A B C
recent years due to his old age.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 30: “What have you done to my laptop, Jane?” asked Tom.
A. Tom asked Jane what she had done to his laptop.
B. Tom asked Jane what had she done to his laptop.
C. Tom asked Jane what has she done to his laptop.
D. Tom asked Jane what she has done to his laptop.
Question 31: I'm certain that Joe attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
A. Joe needn't have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
B. Joe mightn't have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
C. Joe must have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
D. Joe could have attended the ceremony as he can vividly recount the event.
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Question 32: Many teenagers like facebooking more than doing sport.
A. Many teenagers like doing sport more than facebooking.
B. Many teenagers like doing sport as much as facebooking.
C. Many teenagers don't like facebooking as much as doing sport.
D. Many teenagers don't like doing sport as much as facebooking.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Effects of television on childhood literacy
Nowadays, television occupies a large portion of children's time. From when they start in preschool, children spend more
time watching television than participating in any other (33) ________ except sleeping. (34)
________, this is not necessarily a bad thing.
The results of some research suggest that there is considerable overlap between the comprehension processes activated while
reading and the processes (35) ________ take place during a period of television viewing. If
this is so, it may very well be the case that children who learn comprehension skills from television skills from television viewing
before they ready to read are (36) ________ with some very important tools when they later
learn to read. It has been noted that children are frequently better at recalling televised stories they have watched
compared to those they have simply heard. Due to the fact that it is a visual medium, television can present information
more concretely than written and spoken text, making it an ideal medium in which to (37)
________ some of the skills and knowledge needed for later reading.
(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 33: A. activity B. actively C. activate D. active
Question 34: A. Due to B. Because C. However D. For example
Question 35: A. who B. where C. that D. when
Question 36: A. covered B. equipped C. obsessed D. occupied
Question 37: A. cultivate B. allocate C. manipulate D. regulate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Edinburgh, the capital of Scotland, is in the south-east of the country. Edinburgh is situated on the
coast, and the beautiful, green Pentland hills are not far from the city centre. Castle Rock stands in the centre
of Edinburgh and is the best place for fantastic views of the city. With a population of almost half a million
people, the city is an exciting mix of traditional and modern.
The first stop for most visitors to the city is the castle on Castle Rock. It is certainly worth a visit and the area
nearby is full of shops that sell whisky and tartans to the tourists. Edinburgh's most famous street, the Royal Mile, runs
from the castle to the Palace of Holyroodhouse and the Scottish Parliament. Along the street, you can see many
interesting buildings and you can stop for a drink at a traditional, old Scottish pub.
During your visit, you should certainly take the time to see other parts of the city. Princes
Street has lovely gardens, museums and shops. The New Town is a superb area for walking with its
th
attractive 18 century houses, offices and churches. Finally, the Grassmarket is an old part of the
city, which is full of the cafés, bars and restaurants.
Edinburgh's nightlife is excellent. Clubs usually stay open until three in the morning. You can
hear live music in pubs, choose from a number of first-class cinemas or go to a “ceilidh” (a
traditional Scottish dance).
The best time to come to the city is in August. Thousands of people visit the Edinburgh Festival, the world's
biggest arts festival held every summer. With concerts, opera, theatre and art exhibitions, there is something for
everyone. For winter visitors, Hogmanay (the Scottish New Year) is also an incredible experience that you will never
forget.
(Adapted from '“Straightforward - Pre-intermediate" by Phillip Kerr)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Description of Scotland B. Famous Cities in Scotland
C. The Future of Edinburgh D. A Destination Guide to Edinburgh
Question 39: The word “mix” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. action B. mood C. combination D. mess
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. the area B. a visit C. the city D. the castle
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is a “ceilidh”?
A. It is a kind of Scottish music. B. It is the name of a Scottish pub.
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C. It is the first Scottish cinema. D. It is a traditional Scottish dance. Question 42:
According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about the Edinburgh Festival?
A. It is a famous event. B. It offers arts performances.
C. It attracts thousands of visitors. D. It takes place in winter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 50.
The first impressions are rather menacing. Visitors must sign in and show identification before being
allowed into the building. Such tight security gives one the feeling of entering a prison or some other dangerous
place. But what a deceptive first impression! Manhattan Comprehensive Night High School may be the friendliest,
most caring institution in all of New York City. A school of last resort for many of its students, it is their best chance
to turn their lives around, and make friends in the process. Manhattan Comp, as it is called, is the first full-time
night high school in America.
High school is compulsory until the age of sixteen in America, but many students drop out, either before or after
they reach sixteen, and before receiving their high school diplomas. Until now, night education programmes for dropouts
only provided the basics and then awarded an equivalency certificate. But now, Manhattan Comp offers the total high
school experience, complete with a “lunch” break, physical education and clubs. The students receive an academic
diploma, which they say is more helpful in getting a job than an equivalency certificate. More than sixty percent of
Manhattan Comp's students go on to college.
Most of the school's 450 students have either been expelled from or dropped out of other high schools.
Some have been in two or three schools before this one. What seems to make this school work for these hard-
to- place students is the staff and, most importantly, the principal. All students call him Howard. As he walks
through the building, he greets students by name, asks about their families or jobs and jokes with them about
the lack of variety in the school cafeteria.
Most students at Manhattan Comp are between eighteen and twenty-two years old. You must be at least
seventeen to enrol. The classes run from 5 to 11 p.m., Mondays through Thursdays, with all-day enrichment programmes
on Sundays which explore topics like playwriting art and video production. School terms are ten weeks long, which gives
students the opportunity to take time off for family matters or jobs. Most students already have some academic credits
from previous schools, so instead of the normal four years in high school, they spend between six months and two years at
Manhattan Comp.
(Adapted from “Oxford Exam Excellence” by Danuts Gryes et al.)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Day in the Life of a Manhattan Comp Student
B. Manhattan Comp: One of a Kind
C. Night Schools: A Passing Fad
D. The Success Story of a Typical American School
Question 44: The word “deceptive” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. misleading B. unwelcoming C. subjective D. lasting Question 45: What do
Manhattan Comp students say about their academic diploma?
A. It demonstrates their superior academic competence.
B. It ensures their admission to well-known colleges.
C. It reflects a more thorough schooling experience.
D. It improves their chances of getting employed.
Question 46: The phrase “expelled from” in paragraph 3 mostly means ________.
A. invited to attend B. asked to stay C. forced to leave D. qualified to graduate
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. schools B. years C. credits D. students
Question 48: How long does it generally take students to complete the education at Manhattan Comp?
A. Two years and a half B. Four years
C. Ten weeks D. From six months to two years
Question 49: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Visitors to Manhattan Comp are required to go through certain security procedure.
B. The schooling experience at Manhattan Comp is likely to change the students' lives for the better.
C. Many students at Manhattan Comp have never had any formal schooling before.
D. All of the students at Manhattan Comp are seventeen or above. Question 50:
What can be inferred about Manhattan Comp from the passage?
A. It plays down the importance of extra-curricular activities.
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B. It has recently been equipped with state-of-the-art facilities.
C. Its principal is well-liked among the students for his amiability.
D. Its students are required to work part-time while pursuing their studies there.
------------------ HẾT -------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh: Mã đề thi: 403


................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Joana and David, two lecturers, are talking about library skills.
- Joana: “I think we should teach our students how to use the library.”
- David: “________. Library skills will help them use resources effectively.”
A. That's not a good idea B. You're absolutely wrong
C. I couldn't agree with you more D. You must be kidding
Question 2: John is having dinner at Linda's house.
- John: “This roast beef is so delicious.”
- Linda: “________”
A. I'm glad you like it. B. No, don't worry. C. I don't, either. D. Sure. I'd love to.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Much to their disappointment, their start-up project fell through, though it had been
carefully planned.
A. failed B. expanded C. succeeded D. moved
Question4: A new road has just been built to connect my hometown with the city centre.
A. locate B. link C. move D. transport
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: As an advocate of women's rights, James strongly rejects the view that women should
stay at home to take care of their families.
A. regards B. dismisses C. denies D. supports
Question 6: Judy was not so worried about having left her bag on the bus as there was nothing expensive
but a few odds and ends in it.
A. familiar objects B. personal belongings C. valuable items D. trivial things
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: ________, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside world.

A. Being visually impaired people B. For those with visual impairments C. Such
were their visual impairments D. Having been visual impaired
Question 8: Young people are ambitious by nature, so they tend to set their ________ high on whatever they
do.
A. sights B. views C. visions D. eyes
Question 9: My aunt used to sell vegetables at the local market to ________ a living.
A. take B. do C. earn D. have
Question 10: The candidate took a ________ breath before he walked into the interview room.
A. deep B. deeply C. depth D. deepen
Question 11: When ________ as captain of the national football team, he knew he had to try harder.
A. appointed B. appoint C. have appointed D. appointing Question 12: Mr. Brown, a self-
made businessman, attributed his success to hard ________ and a bit of luck.

A. mission B. work C. career D. task


Question 13: Laura is ________ most intelligent girl I've ever known.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
Question 14: The manager is directly responsible ________ the efficient running of the office.
A. in B. for C. about D. at
Question 15: With their undeveloped immune systems, young infants are ________ to a wide range of
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minor ailments.
A. conductive B. receptive C. favourable D. susceptible
Question 16: If the weather ________ fine tomorrow, we will have our biology lesson outdoors.
A. will be B. will have been C. would be D. is
Question 17: You shouldn't use that ladder as it doesn't look ________ enough.
A. correct B. stable C. certain D. constant
Question 18: Many students work to earn money ________ their parents are rich.
A. however B. despite C. although D. because of
Question 19: The children ________ their kites in the field when it started to rain heavily.
A. are flying B. will fly C. would fly D. were flying
Question 20: He would never forget ________ a medal for bravery after saving three boys from drowning.
A. being awarded B. to award C. awarding D. to be awarded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. injured B. promised C. threatened D. agreed
Question 22: A. bread B. peak C. steal D. heat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. study B. delete C. reward D. survive
Question 24: A. summary B. holiday C. selection D. festival
Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: The green campaign was strongly supported by the local people. The
neighbourhood looks fresh and clean now.
A. Only if the local people had strongly supported the green campaign would the
neighbourhood look fresh and clean now.
B. Had the local people not strongly supported the green campaign, the neighbourhood
wouldn't look fresh and clean now.
C. But for the strong support of the local people for the green campaign, the neighbourhood
would look fresh and clean now.
D. Scarcely had the green campaign been strongly supported by the local people when the
neighbourhood looked fresh and clean.
Question 26: Jack dropped out of school at the age of 15. He now regrets it.
A. Jack regrets not having dropped out of school when he was 15.
B. If only Jack had dropped out of school when he was 15.
C. If Jack dropped out of school when he was 15, he would regret it.
D. Jack wishes he hadn't dropped out of school when he was 15.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 27: I'm sure that they had practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
A. They couldn't have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
B. They must have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
C. They shouldn't have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
D. They might have practised hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.
Question 28: “Why didn't you attend the meeting, Mary?” Tom asked.
A. Tom asked Mary why didn't she attend the meeting.
B. Tom asked Mary why she hadn't attended the meeting.
C. Tom asked Mary why hadn't she attended the meeting.
D. Tom asked Mary why she wasn't attending the meeting.
Question 29: I like reading books more than surfing the Internet.
A. I don't like reading books as much as surfing the Internet.
B. I don't like surfing the Internet as much as reading books.
C. I like surfing the Internet more than reading books.
D. I like reading books less than surfing the Internet.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
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Question 30: Plastic bags are harmful to the environment so they should replace by paper bags.
A B C D
Question 31: Thanks to advances in medical science, life expectation for both men and women
A B
has improved greatly over the past decades.
C D
Question 32: The school year starts usually in late August in most parts of the country.
A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The cyberspace learning initiative
Advances in technology have generated revolutionary applications that could change the face of education as we
know it today. Online learning, also known as electronic learning, may (33) ________ the future of education thanks
to recent developments in the Internet and multimedia technologies.
It is anticipated that cyberspace institutions or online universities will replace traditional educational (34)
________. Virtual classrooms will be multi-functional, acting simultaneously as learning platforms, forums
and (35) ________ networks. They will be geared towards promoting the acquisition of knowledge as a life-
long endeavour, (36) ________ occurs through global collaboration. Cyberspace institutions can go a long
way towards achieving this as they are able to liberate us from the limitations of time and space. Flexibility of time and
location makes e-learning a highly accessible, international resource. (37) ________, prospective
students will, regardless of age, background or origin, have unlimited access to both formal and informal learning
opportunities. The pursuit of knowledge will consequently become an end in itself and not a means to an end.
(Adopted from “Traveller Advance” by H. Q. Mitchell)
Question 33: A. shape B. view C. see D. plan
Question 34: A. backgrounds B. establishments C. specifications D. provisions
Question 35: A. socialise B. society C. social D. socially
Question 36: A. when B. which C. where D. who
Question 37: A. Because B. Therefore C. However D. Although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Dubai is the second largest of the emirates which make up the United Arab Emirates. In the 1950s, it
was a tiny coastal village. Now it is a huge modern city with a population of over 700,000. It offers an excellent
modern lifestyle and is known around the world as a top tourist destination.
Dubai has something for everyone. Holidaymakers can enjoy a relaxing break, and people
looking for adventure can find something new and exciting. The excellent hotels and facilities make
it a popular place for business conferences and exhibitions.
Dubai offers many unusual holiday experiences. Visitors can go a desert safari or drive in the sand dunes in
a four-wheel drive, watch camel racing or learn how to hunt with falcons. They can also try sand skiing. More
relaxing is a cruise in a wooden dhow in the Gulf or a visit to the old city markets.
There are many opportunities to take photographs. The traditional architecture is amazing, and there
are many magnificent palaces and mosques. Visitors can visit a Bedouin village and see camels and herds of
goats. There are beautiful desert oases and the best sunsets in the world.
It is said that Dubai is the shopper's paradise. Many people come to Dubai for the shopping. Visitor enjoy
everything from modern malls to traditional markets. Low customs duties mean that many products are less expensive
than products bought in other countries. While Dubai's official language is Arabic, many shopkeepers speak English. Bur
Juman Centra and Al Ghurair Centre are places that every shopper should try.
(Adopted from “IELTS Target 5.0” by Chris Gough)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Dubai: Things to Do for Everyone B. Dubai: Things to Avoid
C. Dubai: Present and Future D. Dubai: An Ancient City in the Desert
Question 39: The word “offers” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. exchanges B. receives C. attends D. provides
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why is Dubai a popular place for business conferences and
exhibitions?
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A. Because it provides new business opportunities. B. Because it offers new and exciting holidays.
C. Because it has excellent hotels and facilities. D. Because it has world-famous artists.
Question 41:The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. holiday experiences B. falcons C. visitors D. sand dunes
Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about shopping in Dubai?
A. Many products are cheaper than in other countries.
B. Bur Juman and Al Ghurair are popular shopping centres.
C. Most shopkeepers can't speak English.
D. Visitors can shop in both modern malls and traditional markets.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 42 to 50.
For over 300 years since its appearance in Britain in 1621, newspapers were written and read by only a tiny minority.
In 1896, a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low prices that ordinary people could buy it on every
street corner, and it was an instant success. The Daily Mail, which is still running today, was the mother of the modern tabloid,
and the beginning of a whole new subculture in the British press. Today more than twice as many tabloids are sold than the so-
called “quality press” titles such as The Times or
The Guardian.
Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word tabloid
has nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content, and above all, style. Tabloids
follow a special formula: they report the news, but only certain kinds. Tabloids dedicate most of their pages to
stories about celebrities. This involves photographing them in embarrassing situations, gossiping about their
private lives and generally making them look a bit silly. However, the tabloids are not simply an irritation for
celebrities; they are also a vehicle for self-promotion.
Though they have millions of devoted readers, tabloids are also widely criticised in Britain. They are
accused of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their reporting and
“researching” methods. They may tap celebrities' phones or even break into their houses just to get a story.
When criticised, the tabloids state that the public has a right to know about everything, but celebrities have no
rights to privacy at all.
So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic
standards, consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the television,
the radio and in the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all; tabloids are just about
gossip. And when it comes to gossip, what matters is not what is true or what is kind, but what is entertaining
and what is funny. The more in bad taste a story is, the funnier it seems. And bad taste is what the British
tabloids have made into an art.
(Adopted from “Oxford Exam Excellence” by Danuta Gryca et al.)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid
B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True
C. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War
D. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip
Question 44: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. method B. design C. sequence D. readership
Question 45: The phrase “a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means ________.
A. a method of researching something B. a set of instructions on how to do something
C. a means of transporting something D. a way of achieving something
Question 46: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. houses B. people C. readers D. tabloids
Question 47: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusation against
tabloids? A. They gain entry into celebrities' houses illegally.
B. They bug celebrities' phone conversations.
C. They violate the public's rights to privacy.
D. They feature sensational news stories.
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids in Britain?
A. They are deemed to be more aesthetic than “quality press”.
B. They are governed by the highest journalistic standards.
C. They provide thorough accounts of current issues.
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D. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers. Question 49:
According to the passage, tabloids in Britain ________.
A. are outsold by such “quality press” titles as The Times
B. have the same sales figures as chocolate
C. are considered a mixed blessing for celebrities
D. vary in shape, size, and format
Question 50: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a modern
tabloid? A. Miss Universe lying about her A level results
B. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test C.
Future changes in European economies
D. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Họ và tên thí sinh: Mã đề thi: 404


................................................................
Số báo danh:.........................................................................

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.
- Peter: "Using social networks may have negative effects on students."
- Mary: “________”. It distracts them from their studies."
A.You're wrong B. That's quite true
C. I don't quite agree D. I'm not sure about that

- David: "Sorry I'm late! The traffic is so heavy."


- Teacher:" ________. Come in and sit down.''
A. Thank you B. You're so kind C. Me neither D. It's alright
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: I have tried hard, but it is too difficult to find the solution to this maths problem.
A. link B. answer C. reply D. relation
Question 4: Though considered the king sport in many parts of the world, soccer has never really caught on
in the United States.
A. been consolidated B. been active C. become popular D. remained silent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Such terrible acts of child abuse were not ignored thanks to the continuing
protests of the online community.
A. witnessed B. disregarded C. unsolved D. noticed
Question 6: Despite sharing viewpoints on many issues, Nina and her husband are at odds when it comes
to child rearing.
A. under pressure B. in conflict C. in agreement D. at library
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: We all wish to create a friendly and supportive environment ________ to learning.
A. liable B. accommodating C. conducive D. detrimental Question 8: Nicholas had never
chaired a meeting before, but he rose to the ________ yesterday when he presided over a forum.
A. occasion B. incident C. difficulty D. issue
Question 9: This is ________ most interesting book I've ever read.
A. Ø B. an C. a D. the
Question 10: If we are not busy this weekend, we ________ the new fruit farm in the countryside.
A. would have visited B. would visit C. visited D. will visit
Question 11: I think mobile phones are ________ for people of all ages.
A. usefully B. usage C. use D. useful
Question 12: It was so noisy outside that she couldn't concentrate ________ her work.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 13: The students were worried that they wouldn't be able to ________ the deadline for the
assignment.
A. answer B. match C. beat D. meet
Question 14: In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to ________ an active social
life.
A. lead B. take C. gather D. save Question 15: She hurt herself while she
________ hide-and-seek with her friends.
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A. was playing B. played C. is playing D. had played
Question 16: ________, they got on well with each other.
A. To quarrel a lot like siblings at their age B. But most siblings at their age quarrel a lot
C. While most siblings at their age quarrel a lot D. For most siblings to quarrel a lot at their age
Question 17: My sister really enjoys acting as a hobby, but she doesn't want to do it for a(n) ________.
A. survival B. occupation C. living D. existence Question 18: I will never forget ________ to
the Royal Garden Party, where superb cuisines were served amid luxurious surroundings.
A. being invited B. to invite C. inviting D. to be invited Question 19: If ________ with pictures
and diagrams, a lesson will be more interesting and comprehensible.
A. have illustrated B. illustrated C. was illustrated D. illustrating Question 20: Children are encouraged
to read books ________ they are a wonderful source of knowledge.
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 21: A. reduced B. survived C. happened D. bothered
Question 22: A. sound B. doubt C. count D. group
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 23: A. energy B. exercise C. addition D. article
Question 24: A. connect B. travel C. deny D. return
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: Her parents didn't attend her graduation ceremony. They regret it now.
A. If only her parents could attend her graduation ceremony.
B. Her parents wish they had attended her graduation ceremony.
C. Her parents regret having attended her graduation ceremony.
D. If her parents attended her graduation ceremony, they would regret it
Question 26: The coach changed his tactics in the second half. His football team won the match.
A. Had it not been for the coach's change of tactics in the second half, the football team
wouldn't have won the match.
B. Only if the coach had changed the tactics in the second half could his football team have
won the match.
C. But for the coach's change of tactics in the second half, his football team could have won the match.
D. Not until his football team had won the match did the coach change his tactics in the second half.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their houses
A B C
after the devastating storm.
D
Question 28: Household chores should share among members of the family.
A B C D
Question 29: Reading books has been always my hobby since I was very young.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 30: "When did you start practising yoga?” asked Tom.
A. Tom wanted to know when I was starting practising yoga.
B. Tom wanted to know when did I start practising yoga.
C. Tom wanted to know when I had started practising yoga.
D. Tom wanted to know when had I started practising yoga.
Question 31: Paul likes reading comic books more than watching cartoons.
A. Paul likes watching cartoons more than reading comic books.

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B. Paul likes watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
C. Paul doesn't like watching cartoons as much as reading comic books.
D. Paul doesn't like reading comic books as much as watching cartoons.
Question 32: I thought it was not necessary to book tickets for the film in advance, but I was wrong.
A. I couldn't have booked tickets for the film in advance.
B. I must have booked tickets for the film in advance.
C. I should have booked tickets for the film in advance.
D. I needn't have booked tickets for the film in advance.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The importance of fairy tales for children
Fairy tales are the stories that adults, especially parents, tell young children. In view of their name, it is
surprising that hardly any of them are actually about fairies. (33) ________ most fairy tales have happy
endings, the stories usually deal with very (34) ________ situations - children abandoned in the forest,
terrifying giants, cruel stepmothers. However, despite being scared when they are told the stories,
children will often ask to hear them over and over again.
Many psychologists believe that what fairy tales do, in addition to (35) ________ children's
imagination, is to show that there are problems in the world and they can be overcome. Just like adults, children have fears and
worries: theirs are of things such as abandonment, loss, injuries, witches. Fairy tales present real problems in a fantasy form
(36) ________ children are able to understand. This, it is claimed, allow them
to (37) ________ their fears and to realise, if ever in their unconscious mind, that no matter how difficult the
circumstances, there are always ways of coping.
(Adopted from “Richmond Practice Tests for Cambridge English: Advanced ”)
Question 33: A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Therefore
Question 34: A. frightening B. frighteningly C. frighten D. fright
Question 35: A. motivating B. stimulating C. speculating D. inciting
Question 36: A. where B. why C. that D. who
Question 37: A. confront B. alter C. nurture D. suffer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous
for its natural beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is
popular with tourists all year round.
Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places to stay in, both in the
city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral, has a beautiful Victorian garden. Comfortable
accommodations costs £65 for two nights' bed and breakfast per person. Norwich is famous for its magnificent cathedral. The
cathedral has a summer programme of music and events which is open to the general public. One event, "Fire from heaven", is
a drama and musical performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a carnival with local people dressed in colourful
costumes.
Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of international
art in a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a lovely canteen with
an excellent selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food. In addition, the city has a
new professional theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city' annual international arts festival is
from 10 to 20 October.
Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life, you could hire a boat and
spend a few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our
environmentally friendly age, the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and wildlife.
You can buy hire a boat, big or small, for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This makes a perfect
day out or holiday for people of all ages.
(Adopted from “Succeed in Cambridge English Preliminary” by Andrew Betsis and Lawrence Mamas)
Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Daily Life in Norwich B. Holidays in Norwich
C. A Destination Guide to England D. England's Famous Cities
Question 39: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. the Beeches Hotel B. the city centre C. selection D. Norwich

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Question 40: According to paragraph 2, which is NOT part of "Fire from Heaven"?
A. A laser light show B. A campfire C. A carnival D. A fireworks display
Question 41: The word "cruising" in paragraph 4 mostly means ________.
A. moving on land B. travelling by boat C. surfing D. swimming
Question 42: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts
located? A. In a building at the University of East Anglia
B. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum
C. In an international art museum
D. In the Norfolk Broads National Park
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion people would face
severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean
water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste disposal systems. More than five million people die each year from
diseases related to unclean water. Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this
difficult situation, a water conservationist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local water
situation.
Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found was
a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who lived in
poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty plumbing
whereby 42 percent of the region's water was simply being wasted.
MacLeod's crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on residences, replaced
eight-litter toilets with four-litter models, and changed wasteful showers and water taps. To ensure that the poor would
receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes and apartments to provide 190 liters of water a day
free to each household. Water consumption in Durban is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have
received service. Through sensible water use, Durban's conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new
reservoirs will be needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants.
MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned into clean
water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city drinking water and the
treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes.
Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the world's water problems.
"But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made," says Sandra Postel of the Global Water Policy
Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil MacLeod offer inspiration for implementing timely and
lasting solutions to the world's water concern.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and David Bohlke)
Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. South Africa to Successfully Desalinate Seawater
B. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa
C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations
D. Drinkable Seawater - A Dream Turning Sour?
Question 44: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide?
A. 2.5 billion B. About 5 million C. 2.7 billion D. Around 1.2 billion
Question 45: The word "catastrophe" in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is .
A. disastrous B. unlikely C. local D. familiar
Question 46: The word "it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. Durban B. water consumption C. household D. service
Question 47: The word "discern" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ________.
A. recognize B. emphasize C. examine D. appreciate
Question 48: What is the essence of Neil MacLeod's solutions to the water problems in Durban?
A. Reliance on foreign aid B. Exploitation of ground water
C. Conservation of water D. Construction of new reservoirs
Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Over forty percent of Durban's water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts
B. Money saved from sensible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban.
C. In Durban, treated wastewater is provided free of charge to meet the residents' daily needs.
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D. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world's water
problems. Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day
B. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities.
C. It used to take about half a day to convert wastewater into drinkable water.
D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.
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