1.

Identify the correct statement regarding sodium

A. is the smallest atom in the corresponding period

B. has low ionisation energy
C. has high electronegativity
D. has a general electronic configuration of ns2 np2

2. The best solvent to dissolve ionic compounds is

A. alcohol
B. ether
C. water
D. benzene

3. Concentration of a reactant is changed from 1 mole to 0.75 mole in 25 minutes in a litre vessel. The rate of the reaction is

A. 10-2
B. 10-3
C. 3 × 10-2
D. 3 ×102

4. The rate of a reaction is low at a given temperature. It means

A. the energy of activation is high

B. the energy of activation is low
C. the enthalpy change is high
D. the initial concentration of the reactants remains constant

5. In one hour half of 2 moles of the reactant is lost as products. Then the amount remaining at the end of 4 hours is

A. 0.25 moles
B. 0.125 moles
C. 0.66 moles
D. 0.33 moles

6. A first order reaction was started with a decimolar solution of the reactant. 8 minutes and 20 seconds later its concentration was
found to be M/100. So the rate constant of the reaction is

A. 2.303 × 10-5/sec
B. 5 × 10-3 /sec
C. 2.303 × 10-4/sec
D. 4.606 × 10-3/sec

7. Faster a chemical reaction is, smaller is the

A. rate constant
B. half time
C. concentration of the reactants
D. quantity of heat evolved

8. Enzymes are class of substances belonging to

A. Lipids
B. Monosaccharides
C. Nucleic acids
D. Proteins

9. A substance which retards the rate of a chemical reaction is called

A. inhibitor
B. positive catalyst
C. an autocatalyst
D. a promoter

10. In the case of a reversible reaction, a positive catalyst

A. increases the rate of both forward and backward reactions equally by increasing the activation energy
B. increases the rate of both forward and the backward reactions equally by decreasing the activation energy
C. increases the rate of only the forward reaction
D. does not influence the rate of a reversible reaction

11. Dehydration of alcohols,

will be in order

A. I < II < III < IV

B. I> II> III > IV
C. III < II < I < IV
D. II < III < IV < I

12. When vapours of iso-propyl alcohol are passed over heated copper, the major product obtained is

A. propane
B. propylene
C. acetaldehyde
D. acetone

13. 1 mole alcohol reacts with Na to give what weight of hydrogen?

A. 1g
B. 2g
C. 3g
D. 3.5 g

14. Select incorrect statement.

A. the O-H bond lengths are about the same in water and methanol
B. the bond angle C-O--H in methanol and bond angle H-O-H in water are about the same
C . both water and methanol have
sp 3 hybridised oxygen atom
D . the bulky methyl group counteracts the bond angle compression caused by non-bonding lone pairs of electrons

15.
C2 H 5 OH and CH 3 OH can be differenti ated by
A.
I 2 + NaOH

B.
I 2 + HCl

C.
H 2O

D.
NH 3

16. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH 2 OH ¾

¾® RCHO is

A.
KMnO 4
K 2 Cr2 O7
B.

C.
CrO3
D. PCC (pyridine chloro chromate)

Ester A(C 4 H 8 O2 ) + CH 3 MgBr ¾H

¾3O
+
¾
¾® C 4 H 1 0O
17. ( 2 parts) (alcohol B )
Alcohol B reacts fastest with Lucas reagent. Hence, A and B are

A.

B.

C.

D.

18. Which one of the following is not true with heated copper at 300°C?

A. secondary alcohol ¾¾® ketone

B . tertiary alcohol ¾
¾® olefin
C . phenol ¾ ¾® benzyl alcohol
D . primary alcohol ¾ ¾® aldehyde

19. Which of the following has lowest boiling point?

A. p-nitrophenol
B. m-nitrophenol
C. o-nitrophenol
D. Phenol

20. Consider the following reaction, Phenol

The product Z is

A. toluene
B. benzaldehyde
C. benzoic acid
D. benzene

21. Which of the following is a phenolic compound?

A.

B.

C.

D.

22.Assertion (A) Boiling point of ether is smaller than that of isomeric alcohol.
Reason (R) Solubility of ether in water is due to H-bonding.

A. Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (B) is false.
D. (A) is false but (B) is true.

23. In the following reaction:

a -bond is cleaved due to nucleophilic attack by (CH 3 ) 2 CHOH

A. ion since, is weak base (a good leaving
group)
B.
b -bond is cleaved due to nucleophilic attack by ion since, CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH is a weak base (a good leaving
group)
C . a -bond is cleaved due to electrophilic attack of ion

D.
b -bond is cleaved due to electrophilic attack of ion

24. For the preparation of t-butyl methyl ether, which one of the following methods should be recommended?

A.

B.

C.
D.

25. Assertion (A) Oxiranes are cleaved under acidic and basic conditions.
0 0
Reason (R) In oxiranes formation, bond angle is distorted to 61.5 from normal value of 109.5 and thus, cleavage takes place to
minimize strain.

A. Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (B) is false.
D. (A) is false but (B) is true.

26. Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation?

A. Calcium formate + calcium acetate

B. Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
C. Calcium acetate
D. Calcium benzoate

27.

CH 3 (CH = CH ) 3 CHO
A.

B.
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 (CH = CH ) 2 CHO
CH 3 (CH 2 CH 2 ) 3 CH = CH - CHO
C.
D. None of the above is correct

28. Oxidation of acetaldehyde with selenium dioxide produces

A. ethanoic acid
B. methanoic acid
C. glyoxal
D. oxalic acid

29. Maximum hydration takes place that of

A.

B.

C.

D.

30. In the above compound [in question (26)1, nucleophilic site is

A.
a - oxygen
B.
b - carbon
C.
g - carbon
D. All of these
31. Which is the best hydride donor?

A.

B.

C.

D.

32. Which of the following species is the conjugate acid of the hemiacetal formed by reaction of benzaldehyde with methanol
containing a trace of acid?

A.
+
C H CH = O CH 3
B. 6 5

C.

D.

33. Which of the following species is an ylide?

+
(C 6 H 5 ) 3 P CH 2 CH 3 Br -
A.

B.

C.
D. None of these

34. An olefin on ozonolysis yields a mixture of acetone and methyl ethyl ketone. The possible structure of the olefin is

A.

B.

C.
CH 3 CH = CHCH 3
D.

35. In the presence of an acid or base (A) changes to

A.

B.
C.

D.

36. A and B in the following reactions, are

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

37.

A.

B.

C.
D. none of these

38. Select the incorrect statement.

A. NaOH is strong enough to remove the proton from phenols and carboxylic acids.
NaHCO 3 is only strong enough to remove the proton of carboxylic acids.
B.
NaHCO 3 .
C . Mixture of phenol and succinic acid can be separated using

D. Mixture of phenol and succinic acid can be separated using NaOH.

39.
pK a value is maximum for

CH 3 C º CH
A.
B.

C.
CH 2 = CH 2
CH 3 CH 3
D.

40. Give IUPAC name of the product, when acetamide is heated with anhydrous phosphorus pentoxide.

A. ethyl amine
B. propane nitrile
C. cyano methane
D. ethane nitrile

41. In the above reaction Z is

A. aldol
B. ketol
C. acetol
D. butanol

42. Compare the two methods shown for the preparation of carboxylic acids

Which one of the following statements correctly describes this conversion?

A. Both method 1 and method 2 are appropriate for carrying out this conversion.
B. Neither method 1 nor method 2 is appropriate for carrying out this conversion.

C. Method 1 will work well, but method 2 is not appropriate.

D. Method 2 will work well, but method 1 is not appropriate.

43. Increasing pK a values of o-, m- and p- nitrobenzoic acid is

A. o- < p -< m
B. p- < m- < o-
C. o- < m- < p
D. m- < p- < o-

44. Y is identified as

A. succinic acid
B. malonic acid
C. glycolic acid
D . a -hydroxy propionic acid

45. Suitable oxidising agent for the following change is….. and predominant product is…..
A.

B.

C.

D.