GENERAL SCIENCE

OVERVIEW OF SCIENCE

1. The school will hold a science fair. Your tried to make a project but failed. The next
thing you do is
a. to ask your father to do it for you
b. not to submit a project anymore
c. to try and try until you produce one
d. to tell you teacher that you can’t make one
2. A dozen medium size eggs have a mass of about 675 grams. What is the average
mass of one egg in kg?
a. 56 kg b. .056 kg c. 56.2 kg d. 5.6 kg
3. Jasmine tells you that is bad luck when a black cat walks across your path. She
does not believe in
a. tentativeness c. superstitions
b. nothing happens without a cause d. curiosity
4. Before inventing the incandescent bulb, Thomas Alva Edison made the experiment
repeatedly. What step of scientific method was shown?
a. Identifying the project c. Verifying the conclusion
b. Drawing the final conclusion d Formulating the hypothesis
5. Which of the following was not belong to the group?
a. Geology c. Physiology
b. Physics d. Zoology
6. Which of the following is not true in the definition of science?
a. Body of knowledge and theory
b. Discontinuing of explanation of the universe
c. Collection of facts
d. Systematic and meaningful patters
7. Which of the unit measurement is not used for measuring volume?
a. Liter b. cm2 c. cm3 d. Gallon
8. A person who specialized in the study of atmospheric conditions is called a
a. Geologist c. scientist
b. Meteorologist d. weather forecaster
9. Jose jogs around the town at a speed of 3 km per hour. Convert your answer into
m/s.
a. 8.3 m/s b. 83 m/s c. .83 m/s d. .083 m/s
10. An irregularly-shaped solid was dropped in a graduated cylinder which has a
reading of 40 cm3. The water level rose to 45 cm3. What is the volume of the solid?
a. 5 cm3 b.5 cm c. 5 cm2 d. 5 cm6
11. Jericho wants to know the mass of piece of metal. What instrument should be
use?
 a. Spring balance c. Graduated cylinder
b. Equal-arm balance d. Platform balance
12. Your sister has fever and you want to know her body temperature. What
apparatus will you use?
a. Graduated cylinder c. clinical thermometer
b. Room thermometer d. laboratory thermometer
13. The experiment requires a Bunsen burner to heat metals. This is expensive and is
not available in your school. What will you do?
a. Do not perform the experiment anymore.
b. Imagine what will happen to the metal when heated.
c. Substitute with a local-made gas burner.
d. Read the result from the book.
14. Who among the following would you like to work with?
a. One who relies on actual observation.
b. One who is easily convinced.
c. One who believes what he hears.
d. One who imagines the result of an observation.
15. What is the standard unit of mass in the metric system?
a. Meter b. Kilogram c. Kilometer d. Pound
16. Which of the following branches of science deals with the study of matter, energy
and their transformation?
a. Chemistry b. Physics c. Biology d. Genetics
17. What scientific attitude must a person possess in seeking answers to things in
which he is greatly interested?
a. Open-mindedness c. Curiosity
b. Flexibility d. resourcefulness
18. Which of the following is the mental attitude that acts from sound reasoning?
a. Scientific method c. Scientific mind
b. Scientific attitude d. Scientific skills
19. Joshua respects the ideas and opinions of his classmates. He is
a. Open-minded c. flexible
b. Curious d. investigate
20. Jenny wants to know the length of the table. What instrument will she use?
a. Spring balance c. ruler
b. Graduated cylinder d. thermometer
21. Joy learned in school that fertilizers affect the growth of plants. She wanted to
know how the amount the fertilizer used could affect his growth. Which of the
following should she do?
a. Ask her science teacher the correct answer.
b. Conduct an experiment to find out.
c. Look the correct answer in the book.
 d. Write the bureau of soils.
22. Michael saw some big crabs crawling on the sand. He wandered where they came
from so he tried investigating. What scientific attitude did he show?
a. concern for living things c. curiosity
b. creativity d. responsibility
23. Which of these concepts is always considered by a scientist?
a. Accurate observations are necessary to recognize problems.
b. Events in nature do not occur in predictable way.
c. Experiments provide information that will always support predictions.
d. Predictions do not point the way to possible solutions to a problem.
24. Which of the following is technological innovation in the field of communication?
a. Fiber optics c. Radioactive dating
b. Genetic engineering d. Tissue culture

25. You have identified the problem in you experiment. What is the next step?

a. Formulate the hypothesis c. gather relevant data

b. Formulate the conclusion d. test the hypothesis
26. How are the terms experiment and scientific method related?
a. The scientist performs an experiment.
b. The scientist solves problems in a logical and scientific manner.
c. A scientific method of solving a problem may include doing an experiment.
d. An experiment proves and disproves a hypothesis.

27. If figures of big magnitude are to be handled mathematically, it is wise to use

a. Conversion c. scientific notation

b. Extrapolation d. square roots
28. Which of the following is not true about science and technology?
a. Science is an organized knowledge about the environment.
b. Science taught man the relationship of living things with their
environment.
c. Technology help improve man’s life.
d. Technology can provide all the solutions to the problems of the society.
29. Which of the following is considered as technology?
a. Production of antibiotics c. invention of computer
b. Invention of calculator d. all of the above
30. The scientist improvised the incubator and popularized the use of artificial light
for new borne babies is
a. Benjamin Alameda Jr. c. Maria Y. Orosa
b. Dr. Fe Del Mundo d. Alfredo Santos
 EARTH SCIENCE

31. Why is planet Earth not thrown of its orbit?

a. It is controlled by its fast revolution.

b. There is a path that holds it firmly.
c. The size is just right to maintain its distance.
d. The sun’s gravitational pull and inertia hold it.

32. The largest known asteroid is

a. Titan b. Lyra c. Ceres d. Hermes

33. What members of the solar system have very eccentric orbits?

a. Comets b. Asteroids c. Satellites d. Meteors

34. The annual journey of the Earth around the sun is called

a. rotation b. revolution c. transition d. precession

35. What is the point in the Earth’s orbit nearest to the sun?

a. Equinox b. Solstice c. Aphelion d. Perihelion

36. What is the inclination of the earth’s xis?

a. 33.50 b. 43.5 0 c. 23.50 d. 63.5o

37. Why does the sun rise in the east and set in the west?

a. The earth rotates from west to east.

b. The earth revolves counter clockwise.
c. The earth rotates from east to west.
d. The sun rotates from north to south.

38. We are actually on spaceship called Earth and we are travelling at a constant speed of

a. 105,600,000 km. per hour c. 1,760 km. per hour

b. 105,600 km. per hour d. 1,760,000 km. per hour

39. A planet’s elliptical orbit means the planet

a. Keeps the same distance. c. is very far from the sun.

b. Is very near the sun d. gets nearer and farther from the sun.
40. When the vertical rays of the sun trike the equator, the whole earth will have

a. equal days and nights. c. longer night and shorter days.

b. is very near the sun. d. shorter nights and shorter days.

41. In summer, we see the sun rise early and set late. Why?

a. The tilt is neither away from nor toward the sun.

b. The tilt of the axis is away from the sun.
c. The tilt of the axis is towards the sun.
d. The tilt is changing in degrees.

42. The seasons of the year change mainly because of

a. changing wind direction in summer and winter

b. changing speed of the earth’s revolution
c. the inclination of the axis and revolution
d. the elliptical orbit of the earth and revolution

43. Exactly how long does it take for the earth to complete one trip around the sun?

a. 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, 46 sec.

b. 362 days, 5 hours, 46 minutes, 45 sec.
c. 365 and ¼ days
d. 364 ¼ days

44. Which part of the payload returns to the earth?

a. Command Module c. Service Module

b. Lunar Module d. Ground Module

45. For a satellite to escape the gravity of the earth, it must travel at the speed of

a. 10,000 km. per hour c. 4,000 km. per hour

b. 6,000 km. per hour d. 40,000 km. per hour

46. How many astronauts have landed on the moon?

a. 2 b. 12 c. 18 d. 20

47. Which instrument can monitor moonquakes?

a. Magnetometer c. seismometer
b. Chemical analyser d. heat-flow meter
48. What dangerous rays kill space travellers?

a. X-rays c. gamma rays

b. radio waves d. cosmic rays

49. Which satellites are sent to explore other planets like Mars and Venus?

a. weather satellites c. space probe satellite

b. navigation satellites d. communication satellites

50. Which cells produce electricity in spaceship?

a. fuel cells c. atomic cells

b. nuclear cells d. solar cells

51. What protects astronauts from intense heat and decrease pressure?

a. space suits c. oxygen helmets

b. radiation suits d. mask

52. What organisms may be taken along in space flights as source of oxygen?

a. protozoans c. algae
b. fungi d. bacteria

53. What fuels rise from rockets?

a. Kerosene c. nuclear power

b. helium d. oxygen

54. When the moon is passing the point the earth and the sun and it cannot be seen, this
phase of the moon is

a. full moon c. gibbon

b. crescent d. new moon

55. The geological area where earthquake shocks are not easily detected is called

a. core c. shadow core

b. crust d. mantle

56. Locating direction and position by observation of heavenly bodies is called

a. celestial navigation c. celestial guidance

b. astronomics d. gyro compass
57. An instrument used to measure the elevation of the sun or stars above the horizon is
called

a. chronometer c. gyrocompass
b. sextant d. radio compass

58. When limestone exhibits effervescence, the process is

a. a chemical reaction which releases light

b. an envision of a blue light due to an acid
c. a bubbling reaction with a hissing sound
d. a chemical reaction which produces an explosive sound

59. An imaginary line at 23 ½ north latitude is called

a. Tropic of Capricorn c. Arctic Circle

b. Tropic of Cancer d. Antarctic Circle

60. It is the length of time between two consecutive vernal equinoxes-365 days, 5 hours ,
48 minutes and 46 seconds. This year is known as:

a. sidereal year c. solar year

b. calendar year d. tropical year

61. The sun never sets at summer time in this part of the earth

a. Northern Hemisphere c. North of Arctic Circle

b. Southern Hemisphere d. South of Antarctic Circle

62. On two occasions during the year, day and night are of equal length everywhere on
the earth. Such occurrence is called

a. equinox c. summer solstice

b. ephemoris d. winter solstice

63. On topographic maps, the numerous fine brown fine lines which clearly indicate the
landforms that shows variations in elevation are

a. index contours c. bench marks

b. contour lines d. contour intervals

64. To earth scientists, the most important features on a map are the landforms that
shape the earth’s surface and are shown in

a. hydro graphic maps c. political maps

b. geologic maps d. topographic maps

65. Which of the following is not a property of minerals?

 a. ductile c. malleable
b. brittle d. conduct electricity

66. Topaz is a mineral with a crystal form of access of different lengths that intersect at 90
angles. This basic crystal system is

a. isometric c. orthorhombic
b. monoclinic d. hexagonal

67. A property of minerals that breaks along a plane or planes is called

a. hardness c. specific gravity

b. cleavage d. streak

68. A special property of some minerals in which the atoms become excited when
exposed to ultraviolet light and give off visible rays is called

a. magnetism c. radioactivity
b. fluorescence d. electrical properties

69. it is an ore found in lakes or mashes which produces a compound called iron oxide
during bacterial action or oxidation.

a. limonite c. siderite
b. hematite d. andesite

70. The branch of earth science that deals with the earth’s surface features including the
climates, ways man makes use of the soils, water ways, and natural resources is called

a. Petrology c. Geomorphology
b. Archaeology d. Physiography

71. An imaginary line running along the top of an anticline or along the bottom of a
syncline is called

a. Strike c. axis of fold

b. Dip d. pitch

72. This type of fault is a result of compression where the hanging wall has been pushed
up over the foot wall and there is surface shortcoming.

a. thrust fault c. reverse fault

b. normal fault d. fault zone

73. In some cases, the land between two parallel faults is pushed up from below to form
an elevated area called

a. horst b. graben c. rift d. valley

74. It is a type of geological form that contains oil which is formed by a fracture in the
earth’s strata and is known as

a. stratigraphic trap c. anticlinal trap

b. synclinal trap d. fault trap

75. The wave motion of the sea spreads the rock debris into a smooth flat surface in a
coastal plain that extends seawards into flat surface forming a

a. continental slope c. abyssal plain

b. continental shelf d. Atlantic ridges

76. Fissures or holes from which steams and other gases escape during volcanic activities
is called

a. tunnels c. stratified opening

b. fumaroles d. main vent

77. A great basin like depression is formed when explosions completely destroy the upper
part of a volcanic cone or when the cone collapses. It may be due to

a. a subsidence along a circular fracture

b. fragments ejected as successive layers
c. an impact of huge meteorites
d. a lowering of the lava as it moved down into the earth

78. Which of the following is not mechanical weathering?

a. Water seeps into cracks in rocks and then freezes and expands.
b. Thin flakes of curved scales peel off due temperature changes.
c. The root of plants work their way into small cracks of rock.
d. Minerals are continuously removed from soil and rock by solution.

79. A less obvious but equally-destructive form of soil erosion is called sheet wash. This
occurs when

a. each gully enlarges with energy rain until a series of miniature canyons are
produced
b. water washes out small gullies running up and down slopes
c. water strips away exposed topsoil slowly and evenly
d. topsoil exposed area is blown away as clouds of dust and drifting sand

80. Which process is not intended primarily to decrease soil erosion?

a. Strip cropping c. soil creep

b. contour plowing d. crop rotation
81. The following rock properties have high permeability except

a. rocks composed of nearly the same particles

b. rocks which dissolve in water
c. fractures in solid rock
d. rocks with particles of many different sizes

82. Water dripping continuously from the cave will eventually produce a long ice-like
deposit of calcite which hangs from the roof. This is called

a. stalactite c. sinks
b. stalagmite d. geode

83. Along with the growth of beginning river and its valley, branch gullies are produced by
streams flowing in from the sides. These streams become the

a. tributaries c. watershed
b. distributaries d. drainage basin

84. Which is the characteristic of a young river?

a. narrow-steep walled valley c. waterfalls and rapids

b. V-shaped valley d. all of the above

85. When the river water moves over a smooth surface, it flows along a straight line path
parallel to the direction of the movement. This is called

a. laminar flow c. horizontal flow

b. turbulent flow d. irregular flow

86. The earth science that deals with the study of rock layer is

a. palaeontology c. stratigraphy
b. petrology d. archeology

87. Eroded surface rocks maybe covered with new horizontal layers of sediments and the
surface that separates younger rock layers from those laid down at an earlier time is
called

a. unconformity c. superposition
b. strata d. alternation of rock

88. The ground water which accumulates above the aquifer underground has many
sources. Which of the following is a source of this kind of water?

a. flood water c. connate water

b. meteoric water d. magnetic water
89. A type of hot spring that, at intervals , throws stream and water high in the air is
known as

a. geysers c. alkali spring

b. hillside spring d. mud flow

90. Faulting frequently forms lake basins in the depression between tilted rocks. This type
of lake is formed through the process called

a. glacial action c. volcanic action

b. river action d. diastrophism

91. Basins that become partly or completely filled with fresh and decayed vegetation,
sediments and water are called

a. ponds b. swamps c. lakes d. playas

92. Geological science that deals with the studies of oceans, currents and the energy that
produces and retards the current is called

a. submarine geology c. chemical oceanography

b. physical oceanography d. biological oceanography

93. The part of the ocean floor which is formed by faults along which volcanic eruptions
occur and where the deepest spots in the oceans are located is called

a. continental slope c. mid-ocean ridges

b. continental shelf d. trench

94. Ocean water carried up on the shore by breaking waves escapes back to deeper water
in the form of

a. rip current c. undercurrent

b. undertow d. breaker

95. When a river empties into the sea at a point where there are unusually high tides, a
particularly a strong tidal occurs. This is known as

a. tidal pulse c. tsunami

b. tidal oscillation d. tidal bore

96. Which is not considered a composition of pure dry hair?

a. nitrogen c. carbon dioxide

b. oxygen d. ozone
97. Sometimes a layer of warm air exists above a layer of cool air next to the ground and
it traps the polluted air because the upper warm air acts as a lid to prevent it from being
carried away. This condition is called

a. temperature inversion c. fountain layer

b. temperature immersion d. ozone layer

98. A type of barometer used to measure approximate altitude above there earth’s
surface is the

a. barograph c. mercurial barometer

b. altimeter d. barometer

99. Because of the earth’s rotation on air movement, the path of things that move over
the earth tends to curve sidewise. This is known as

a. coriolis Effect c. circumpolar whirl

b. doldrums d. mountain breeze

100. At night, the level cools faster than water, and then the wind blows from the level
toward the water. This is known as

a. sea breeze c. valley breeze

b. land breeze d. mountain breeze

101. The earth belt of high pressure created by the descending air in the vicinity of 30
latitude is known as

a. trade wind c. horse latitude

b. prevailing d. polar easterly

102. All of the following instrument are used to measure humidity in the air except

a. hydrometer c. wet and dry bulb thermometer

b. hygrometer d. psychrometer

103. Thin, feather-like clouds with a delicate appearance, frequently arranged in the
bends across the sky sometimes called mare tail is

a. cirrostratus c. cirrus
b. cirrocumulus d. stratus

104. Some kind of microscopic particles are required upon which the water may collect
and condense known as condensation nuclei. An example is

a. dust b. smoke c. salt particle d. all of the above

105. The type of fog which is formed by the adiabatic cooling of air as it sweeps up rising
land slope is known as

a. advection fog c. radiation fog

b. upslope fog d. violent front

106. A type front is formed when moving cold air mass wedges its way under a warm air
mass. It is called

a. cold front c. stationary front

b. warm front d. violent front

107. The following instruments are used as weather instruments except the

a. thermometer c. clinometer
b. barometer d. anemometer

108. One valuable electronic instrument is radar. What is it used for?

a. To give the precise location and extent of storms.

b. To track hurricanes.
c. To measure the speed of high altitude wind.
d. To predict earthquakes.

a. a & b b. a, b & c c. b, c & d d. b &d

109. When the station models have been recorded on the weather map, the next step is
the drawing of lines which connect points of equal pressure. The lines are called

a. isobars c. hydrograph
b. mill bars d. thermograph

110. The basic tool of a weather forecaster is the

a. station model c. radiosonde

b. weather map d. weather satellite

111. The total energy received by the earth in the form of solar radiations as these fall
upon its surface is called

a. foehn c. isotherm
b. doldrums d. insolation

112. A special property of minerals which gives off light rays after exposure to ultraviolet
light is called

a. fluorescence c. luminescence
b. phosphorescence d. irradiation
113. If you describe the direction in which a mineral tends to break, the property referred
to is

a. cleavage c. streak
b. specific gravity d. hardness

114. Where would chemical weathering occur rapidly?

a. in humid climate c. in cold climate

b. in dry climate d. in polar climate

115. After a rain, flowing water forms narrow channels called

a. streams c. gullies
b. rivers d. dunes

116. How can changes in temperature break rocks?

a. Minerals expand and contract at uniform rate.

b. Minerals contract and do not expand.
c. Minerals expand and do not return to their original size.
d. Minerals expand and do not contract in unequal amount.

117. Which part of a fold may form from a mountain?

a. Anticline c. trough
b. syncline d. crest

118. Which of the following elevation is to be considered a mountain?

a. a land form 792 m high c. a land form that is flat

b. a land form that is about 67 m high d. a land form 1000 m high

119. Which of the changes on the surface of the earth is a chemical change?

a. The edges of the earth’s crust plates bend or rock when they bump each other.
b. Rocks under great pressure and temperature become harder, denser and produce
new minerals.
c. Salt crystals form when water containing dissolved sediments evaporates.
d. The rising warm air from the ocean gets cold and forms clouds in the sky.

120. Suppose you have samples of rock which are hard, layered and contain small
particles of shells or remains of plants and animals, how do you classify these rocks?

a. metamorphic rocks c. sedimentary rock

b. igneous rock d. a mixture of all three types

121. The molten rock material found inside the earth is

 a. magma c. extrusive
b. lava d. sediment

122. What type of igneous rock forms large crystals?

a. metamorphic c. extrusive
b. sediment d. intrusive

123. When clay or mud is hardened and cemented, it forms

a. sandstone c. limestone
b. slate d. conglomerate

124. Which particles are deposited last by flowing stream? Why?

a. The finest particles because they are light

b. The largest particles because they are heavy.
c. The medium-sized particles because they are heavy.
d. All particles because they drop at the same time.

125. What sedimentary rock is formed from organic deposits?

a. marble c. sandstone
b. conglomerates d. limestone

126. Bricks and tiles come from what sediment

a. pebbles c. clay
b. sand d. calcite

127. What metamorphic rock is form from limestone?

a. shale c. Genesis
b. marble d. slate

128. What elements make 75% of the earth’s crust?

a. oxygen and silicon c. iron and calcium

b. sodium and magnesium d. iron and nickel

129. What natural force changes rock into metamorphic rock?

a. cutting force of sea waves c. expulsion from a volcano

b. extremely high temperature d. erupting force of running water

130. Which of the following planets has the highest gravitational pull?

a. Earth b. Mercury c. Jupiter d. Saturn

131. Which of the following planets has no atmosphere?

a. Mercury c. Venus
b. Earth d. Mars

132. A river ends at its mouth forming a semi-circular area or triangular island called

a. channels c. see-cliff
b. sea cave d. delta

133. In a swimming pool, as we go deeper, water pressure

a. increases c. stay the same

b. decreases d. decreases then increases

134. What characteristics do air, water and minerals have in common?

a. They contain atoms.

b. Their atoms are closed together.
c. Their atoms are moving at the same speed.
d. Their atoms are separated by great distances.

135. Insecticide spray cans are provided with caution labels: “keep in a cool place”. What
will happen if these cans are stored in a hot environment?

a. The can will burst. c. Nothing will happen to the can.

b. The can will collapse d. The can will corrode faster.

136. The assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases are given below:

I. They are composed of particles.

II. The volume of particles is very small compared to the volume of gas.
III. The particles more very rapidly.
IV. Collisions between particles are very elastic.
V. The attraction between particles is weak.
VI. The higher the temperature, the faster the particles will move.

Which of the above ideas are applicable to solids?

a. All (I-VI) c. I, IV and V

b. I, II, III, and IV only d. I and IV

137. If water pressure decreases when depth decreases we can say that

a. water pressure is proportional to depth

b. water pressure is inversely proportional to depth
c. water pressure is independent to the depth
 d. depth is dependent on the water pressure

138. Two rectangular wooden blocks are on the floor. The blocks are identical but one is
lying down on its longer side (B) while the other one is standing up.

AA

(B) B

(A)

(A) Which of the following statements is true?

a. The two blocks exert the same force on the floor but the pressure due to the block
A is greater.
b. The two blocks exert the same force on the floor so the pressure due them is also
the same.
c. Block B exerts more force but exerts less pressure than Block A because the force
exerted by Block B is spread out over a large area.
d. Block A exert less force and consequently exerts less pressure than Block B because
of the smaller surface area.

139. An empty glass is inverted into swimming pool. If the glass is kept vertical, the
pressure of air inside the glass will prevent the water from getting in. A swimmer dives to
the bottom of the pool keeping the glass vertical at all times. At a depth of about 5
meters, he finds that the air is now only 2/3 of its original volume. As you reach the
bottom, the volume of air has decreased to half of the volume at the surface. Why di the
air volume decrease?

a. Some of the air managed to escape.

b. Some of the air dissolved in the water.
c. Increased water pressure at the bottom caused the volume to decrease.
d. The higher density of water at the bottom pushes more water into the glass.

140. How deep is the swimming pool?

a. 6 and 1/3 m c. 10 m
b. 5 and 1/3 m d. need more data

141. Which of the following is not a physical description of metamorphic rocks?

a. Will effervesce (bubble) with diluted HCL.

b. Generally white with sparkly crystal faces.
c. Composed principally of calcite or dolomite.
 d. Can be scratched by fingernail.

142. Which is the hardest mineral?

a. Talc b. sulfur c. diamond d. gypsum

143. Due to the sinking of the faulting in the islands, huge sea waves rose and swept four
towns into the sea. These are called

a. Tsunamis b. isostasies c. sea quakes d. fissures

144. What instruments detect earthquakes?

a. barometer c. seismograph
b. clinometer d. thermograph

145. Which part of a fold may form from a mountain?

a. anticline c. trough
b. syncline d. crest

146. In what planet can you find the Great Dark Spot?

a. Neptune c. Jupiter
b. Saturn d. Uranus

147. What happens when air is heated?

a. It remains the same. c. It remains at sea level.

b. It expands and rises. d. It expands and moves down.

148. What do you called the asteroids that orbit inside the Earth’s orbit?

a. Gaca c. Voyagers
b. Trojan d. Apollo

149. The nearest Galaxy to the Milky Way is

a. Andromeda c. Large Magellanic Cloud

b. Sirius d. None of the above

150. A mountain cannot be formed by

a. volcanic eruption c. faulting

b. folding d. weathering

151. Which of the following will tell you that a rock has been mechanically weathered?

a. The rock has smooth, rounded edges.

 b. The rock has large colour crystals and is crumbly.
c. The rock is reddish in colour.
d. The outer part of the rock is soft.

152. We usually feel uncomfortable during humid days. A humid day is a condition in
which the air is

a. warm and dry c. cold and moist

b. warm and moist d. cold and dry

153. Which process involves the chemical weathering?

a. oxidation c. carbonation
b. hydration d. all of the above

154. Some homeowners cover their concrete fences with creeping plants. What would be
the effect of those plants on the concrete fences?

a. These plants will decorate only the fences.

b. The growth of the plants inside crevices can split the rocks apart.
c. These plants produce weak acids which can dissolve and break down concrete
fences.
d. The growth of the plants can cause the rock to move closer.

155. The Banawe Rice Terraces show how people practice soil conservation. How does
terracing conserve soil?

a. Slows down the flows of water.

b. Prevents the formation of gullies.
c. Retains runoff water.
d. All of the above.

156. Which of the following statements is true about water?

a. It is denser at 100 C. c. It is denser between 60 0 C – 700C

b. It is denser at 500 C. d. it is denser at 850 C.

157. Why do fogs disappear the moment the sun comes out?

a. The water droplets that make up the fog change to visible vapour as they are
warned by the sun.
b. The water droplets increase in numbers as the sun comes out.
c. The water droplets become the water vapor.
d. Fogs become clouds as the sun comes out.

158. Why is oxygen regarded as the life-giving element on earth?

 a. It supports burning of materials.
b. It is needed for many chemical processes in the body.
c. It is given off by plants.
d. It captures sunlight.

159. In which set up does water drip last?

a. Set up A
b. Set up B
c. Set up C

Sand loam clay

160. Which soil sample allows water to pass through at once?

a. sand b. loam c. clay

161. Which soil sample has the better drainage?

a. Sand b. loam c. clay

162. The monsoon prevailing over the country from November to February is the

a. northeast monsoon c. trade wind

b. southwest monsoon d. northwest monsoon

163. The low-lying flat clouds are

a. Stratus clouds c. Nimbus clouds

b. Cumulus clouds d. Nimbostratus clouds

164. The scientist who explained land and sea distribution change about the crustal
movement on earth was?

a. Alfred Wegener c. Aristotle

b. Francis Bacon d. Kepler

165. What are the rocks that form by cooling and hardening of molten materials?

a. Igneous rocks c. metamorphic rocks

b. sedimentary rocks d. marble

166. When the moon is between the earth and the sun, we experience a

a. lunar eclipse c. full moon

b. solar eclipse d. new moon
167. The extending from Marikina to North eastern places of Luzon causes much tension
in these areas. The process causes sliding and breaking down of rocks resulting in
earthquakes. This is called

a. volcano c. fault line

b. huge magma d. folded rock

168. The seasons of the earth are caused by the

a. elliptical orbit and varying speed of revolution

b. greater distance of the earth from the sun during winter than summer
c. inclination of the axis of rotation to the planet of its orbit and revolution
around the sun
d. variation in the amount of energy given off by the sun

169. Due to lack of rain in Metro Manila, weather scientists produce artificial rain by
dropping dry ice from an airplane to humidify clouds. The process is known as

a. cloud seeding c. condensation

b. precipitation d. evaporation

170. Energy from underground hot springs is utilized in power plants located in Tiwi,
Albay and Mt. Makiling , Laguna. This energy is called

a. nuclear energy c. dendrothermal enery

b. hydroelectric energy d. geothermal energy

171. The thinning of the ozone layer is due to the use of

a. weed killers and insecticide sprays

b. hydrocarbons like gasoline
c. supersonic transport and aerosol sprays
d. mercury in gold mines

172. How many galaxies are there in the Local Cluster?

a. 20 b. 28 c. 30 d. 10

173. A humid day is a condition in which you feel uncomfortable because the atmosphere
is

a. warm and moist c. cold and moist

b. warm and dry d. cold and dry

174. Which of the following would be the effect of a rise in carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere?
 a. cooling of the atmosphere c. darkening of the air in the cities
b. increase in the solar radiation d. warming of the atmosphere

175. The farthest objects visible to naked eye are

a. pulsars c. quasars
b. galaxies d. neutron stars

176. As soon as the planet completes its regular trip around the sun, what unit of time is
completed?

a. Day b. night c. year d. month

177. What phenomenon on earth is caused by its revolution?

a. day and night c. weather disturbance

b. seasons d. light interference

178. Which part of the atmosphere filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun?

a. stratosphere c. exosphere
b. ozone layer d. troposphere

179. The rising of the sun in the east and the setting of the sun in the west is caused by
the

a. rotation of the earth from east to west

b. rotation of the earth from west to east
c. counter clockwise revolution of the earth
d. tilting of earth on its axis

180. Which off the following is the artificial source of light?

a. Sun c. firefly
b. Star d. flashlight

181. An eclipse occurs when the sun, moon and the earth are in the same line. Which of
the following explains this?

a. Light travels in a straight line.

b. Light can be refracted.
c. The speed and direction of light can be reflected.
d. Light can be reflected.

182. Why is the sun the only star which gives much heat and light to the earth?

a. The sun is bigger than the other stars.

b. The sun is hotter than the other sun.
 c. The sun is closer to the earth than the other stars.
d. The sun is moving faster than the other stars.

183. Who was the first man to land in space?

a. Neil Armstrong c. Allan Sheppard

b. William Glenn d. Yuri Gagarin

184. The greenhouse effect refers to the

a. Absorption of the green color of the sunlight

b. Reflection of the green color of the sunlight
c. Release of the oxygen green plants in the atmosphere
d. Trapping of heat rays by earth’s atmosphere

185. How will you recognize a comet from other stars in the universe?

a. It consists of a head and tail.

b. It moves very much faster than the other stars.
c. Its bright light resembles a shooting star.
d. It is very much brighter than the star.

186. The second brightest star visible to the naked eye:

a. Canopus c. R 10-83
b. Sirius d. ridge

187. The speed of the planet moving in its orbit around the sun is

a. constant all throughout c. fastest when closest to the sun

b. fastest when farther from the sun d. slowest when closest to the sun

188. Identify the kind of tide that occurs during new moon and full moon.

a. neap tide c. seasons tide

b. spring tide d. crescent tide

189. Molten materials expelled outside the earth’s surface are called

a. magma c. steam
b. lava d. dunes

190. Which of the following rocks is metamorphic?

a. Basalt b. granite c. slate d. limestone

191. Clouds help determine the weather condition. Which of the following clouds are rain
producing?
 a. cumulus c. nimbus
b. stratus d. cumulonimbus

192. Which part of the sun is visible during the total solar eclipse?

a. photosphere c. chromosphere
b. corona d. reversing layer

193. What is the difference between a cloud and a water vapor?

a. A cloud contains bigger water molecules than water vapor.

b. A cloud is found much higher in the atmosphere than the water vapor?
c. A cloud is liquid while water vapor is gas.
d. There is no difference between a cloud and a water vapor.

194. What happens when warm moist air in the atmosphere is cooled?

a. Drops of H2O are formed. c. It becomes less dense.

b. It expands. d. It becomes lighter

195. Ozone gas is composed of

a. atomic oxygen c. three atoms of oxygen

b. oxygen gas d. two atoms of oxygen

196. The unequal heating of the earth’s surface produces

a. convection current c. concave current

b. convex current d. radiation

197. The process whereby some minerals in rocks dissolve when in contact with water
and leach away from the rock is

a. solution b. hydration c. oxidation d. carbonation

198. The scientific phenomenon best described by the disappearance of either the sun or
the moon is the

a. eclipse b. full moon c. new moon

199. The process of breaking down rocks into pieces is

a. carbonation b. precipitation c. volcanism d. weathering

200. What is formed by the collision of oceanic plates or oceanic and continental plates?
a. Ridge b. trench c. sea clip d. sea cave