IES MASTER

Explanation of Mechanical Engg. Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2016)

SET - A

1. In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of
fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of
0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric
pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of
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Ans. (c)
Sol. A proces is reversible if both the system and
surroundings are restored to initial condition.

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Thus, plastic deformation of a material and
specific gravities of A to B is magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.6 are irreversible processes. The spring after
extension will get back to its original position
(c) 2 (d) 4
after removal of load, hence it can be
Ans. (b) considered as reversible.
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Sol. The differential manometer, 3. Which of the following statements are correct
P0  h1 A g = P0  h2B g for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
where P0 is atmosphere pressure.
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is
P0 P0
same
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A B 3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure,

the fluid velocity at outlet is always more
0.5m
than inlet velocity
1 0.3m
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
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2
x x (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
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Sol. Throttling process involves the passage of a

higher pressure f luid through a narrow
 h1  A = h2B
constriction. This process is adiabatic, and there
A h2 0.3 is no work interaction. Hence,
B = h  0.5  0.6 Q =0 & W = 0
1

2. Consider the following processes : PE = 0 (Inlet and outlet are at

1. Extension of a spring the same level)

2. Plastic deformation of a material KE = 0 (KE does not change significantly)

 Applying the SFEE, h1 = h2
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting
hysteresis Thus, enthalpy remain constant

Which of the above process are irreversible? Further, the velocity of flow is kept low and any
difference between the kinetic energy upstream
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only and downstream is negligible. The effect of the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 decrease in pressure is an increase in volume.
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4. A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from  Thermal efficiency

a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is W 12.4
 
250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir Q 41.67
is 300 K. The power required of the engine is = 0.2975 or 30%

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(a) 10 kW (b) 20 kW 6. One reversible heat engine operates between
(c) 30 kW (d) 50 kW 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat
engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If
Ans. (a)

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both the engines have the same heat input and
Sol. Q2 = 50 kW output, then the temperature T2 must be equal
to
Q2
(COP)R = (a) 582.7 K (b) 632.5 K
W
(c) 682.8 K (d) 732.5 K
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T1=300K
Ans. (b)
W1 Sol. Since both the engines have same heat input
and output, so efficiency of both engines will
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reversible, hence
Q2
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T1=1000 K
T2=250 K
Since the engine is a reversed Carnot engine,
T2 Q2
hence,  COP R = T  T  W HE1
1 2
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T T  T2
 W = Q2   1 2 
 T2 
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 300  250 
= 50     10kW HE2
 250 
5. A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500
kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its
T3=400K
thermal efficiency is, nearly
(a) 18% (b) 23%
 T2   400 
(c) 26% (d) 30% 1   = 1  T 
 1000   2 
Ans. (d)
Sol. Heat received  T2 = 400  1000  632.5 K
Q = 2500 kJ/min 7. Consider the following statements for isothermal
2500 process :
= kW  41.67 kW
60 1. Change in internal energy is zero
and, work output W = 12.4 kW 2. Heat transfer is zero
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Which of the above statements is/are correct? 9. Which one of the following statements is correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into
an empty cylinder from a supply main?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) The specific enthalpy of the gas in the

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Ans. (d) supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy
  p   of the gas in the cylinder
Sol. dU = Cv dT  T    p  dV
  T  v  (b) The specific enthalpy of the gas in the

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supply main is equal to the specific internal
  p   p
For an ideal gas,  T    p = T  T  p  0 energy of the gas in the cylinder
  T v 
(c) The specific internal energy of the gas in
Thus, for an ideal gas, dU = CvdT the supply main is equal to the specific
For an isothermal process, dU = 0, for ideal gas enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
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However, for isothermal process for a real gas (d) The specific internal energy of the gas in
the supply main is equal to the specific
  p   internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
dU =  T  T   p  dV  0
  v 
Ans. (b)
Further, heat transfer is zero in a adiabatic
Sol. For charging the tank,
process and not in isothermal process.
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mphp = m2u2 – m1u1

8. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process
in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 If the tank is initially empty, then m 1 = 0
kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the  mphp = m2u2
entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80
kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is : Since mp = m2, hence, hp = u2
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(a) Reversible and isothermal 10. Consider the following systems :

(b) Irreversible 1. An electric heater

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(c) Reversible only 2. A gas turbine

(d) Isothermal only 3. A reciprocating compressor
Ans. (b) The steady flow energy equation can be applied
to which of the above systems?
Sol.  S sys = 100 × (0.4 – 0.3) = 100 × 0.1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
= 10 kJ/K (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
 S surr = (75 – 80) = – 5 kJ/kg Ans. (a)

  S univ =  S sys   S surr =10–5=5kJ/K
Since, the change in entropy of the universe is
positive, i.e. the entropy of the universe
increases, hence the process is irreversible.
The entropy change of universe is zero only
for a reversible process.
Sol. The reci procating compressor can be
considered as steady flow system provided the
control volume includes the receiver which
reduces the fluctuation of flow.
SFEE can be applied to gas turbine and electric
heater.
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For electric heater, at steady state
W =Q
W C.V.
12. Consider the following conditions for the
reversibility of a cycle :
1. The P and T of the working substance must
not differ appreciably, from those of the

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surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle,
I I must be extremely slow.

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3. The working parts of the engine must be
friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
11. Consider the following statements pertaining to (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Clapeyron equation : Ans. (a)
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1. It is useful in estimating properties like Sol. A reversible process must be quasi-static and
enthalpy from other measurable properties. frictionless.
2. At a change of phase, it can be used to Further, a heat engine cycle in which there is
find the latent heat at a given pressure. a temperature difference (i) between the source
and the working fluid during heat supply, and
3. It is derived from the relationship
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(ii) between the working fluid and the sink

during heat rejection, exhibits external thermal
 p   s 
    irreversibility. Thus, P and T of the working
 v T  T v
substance must not differ, appreciably from
Which of the above statements are correct? those of the surroundings at any state in the
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(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only process.

13. A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 600 K. If the entropy change during heat
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Ans. (c) addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the

engine is :
Sol. Clausius-Clapeyron equation is a relationship
(a) 100 kJ (b) 200 kJ
between the saturation pressure, temperature,
enthalpy of evaporation and the specific volume (c) 300 kJ (d) 400 kJ
of the two phases involved. Ans. (c)
Sol. Since Carnot engine is a reversible engine,
It can be derived from the use of following
hence,
p S 
Maxwell equation:      T1=600K
 T v  V T
sg  sf hfg Q1
dp
= 
dT  g   f T   fg E W

Thus, it can be used to find latent heat during

Q2
change of phase. Also, enthalpy can be found
out from other properties. T2=300 K
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Q1 Q2 15. The effects of heat transfer from a high


T1 T2 = 0 temperature body to a low temperature body
are :
Q1
 But,  1 kJ/K 1. The energy is conserved

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T1
2. The entropy is not conserved
 Q1 = 1 × T1 = 1 × 600 = 600 kJ
3. The availability is not conserved
Q1

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Further, Q2 = T2   300  1  300 kJ Which of the above statements are correct?
T1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
 Work produced W = Q1 – Q2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
= 600 – 300 = 300 kJ
Ans. (d)
14. 1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant
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Sol. The energy is conserved as per the first law of
temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000
thermodynamics. Heat transfer is an irreversible
K to a system at a constant temperature of 500
process, hence entropy will be generated.
K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300
Availability will decrease due to heat transfer
K. The net loss of available energy as a result
from a high temperature body to a low
of this heat transfer is :
temperature body.
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(a) 450 kJ/s (b) 400 kJ/s

16. Which of the folloiwng statements pertaining to
(c) 350 kJ/s (d) 300 kJ/s entropy are correct?
Ans. (d) 1. The entropy of a system reaches its
minimum value when it is in a state of
Q Q equilibrium with its surroundings
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Sol. S gen = 
T2 T1 2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible
processes
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T1=1000K
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid
phase
Q1=1000 kJ/s
4. Entropy of a solid soloution is not zero at
absolute zero temperature
T2=500 K (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

According to guoy stodola’s theorem, loss of (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
available energy Ans. (b)
 Q Q Sol. The entropy attains its maximum value when
= T0 S gen  T0    the system reaches a stable equilibrium state
 T2 T1 
from a non-equilibrium state. This is the state
 1000 1000  of maximum disorder.
= 300    
 500 1000 
Entropy change of the universe in all reversible
= 300 kJ/s processes is zero.
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The third law of thermodynamics states that Ans. (b)

the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero at the Sol. Water vapour in atmosphere exists as a
absolute zero temperature as it represents the superheated gas. It can be assumed as ideal
maximum degree of order. Howev er, a gas and atmospheric air can be treated as a

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substance not having a perfect crystalline mixture of two ideal gases, dry air and water
structure and possessing a degree of vapour.
randomness such as a solid solution or a glassy
solid has a finite value of entropy at absolute There are three methods for liquefaction of

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zero. gases:
Since the disorder of molecules is more in (i) isothermal compression (ii) performance of
gaseous or liquid phase than the solid phase, the external work by the gas itself (iii) use of
hence the solid phase will have least entropy. Joule -Kelvin effect.
17. The maximum work developed by a closed cycle It is not appropriate to state that all gases have
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used in a gas turbine plant when it is working very low critical temperature. The critical
between 900 K and 289 K and using air as temperature of air is –140.5°C, while that of
working substance is : ammonia and CO 2 are 132.4°C and 31°C
(a) 11 kJ/kg (b) 13 kJ/kg respectively.
(c) 17 kJ/kg (d) 21 kJ/kg 19. The property of a thermodynamic system is :
Ans. (*)
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(a) A pth function

Sol. The maximum work developed by a closed cycle
used in gas trubine plant is given by (b) A point function
2 (c) A quantity which does not change in
W max = c p  Tmax  Tmin  reversible process
for per kg of air.
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(d) A quantity which changes when system

So, here Tmax = 900 K undergoes a cycle
Tmin = 289 K
Ans. (b)
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2
so, W max = c p  900  289  Sol. The propety of a thermodynamic system is a
point function, since for a given state, there is
2 a definite value for each property. The change
= 1.005 30  17
in a thermodynamic property of a system in a
= 169.845  170 kg/kg
change of state is independent of the path the
18. Consider the following statements : system follows during the change of state and
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature depends only on the initial and final states of
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal the system.
compression
20. Consider the following statements :
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in
atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect 1. There is no change in temperature when a
gas liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
Which of the above statements are correct? 2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only in the zone between saturated liquid line
and saturated vapour line.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper Q = mf × CV

as copared to saturated liquid curve on a
Q 12 kW
T-s diagram.  mf = 
CV 40000 kJ/kg
4. The enthalpy of vapourization decreases

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with increase in pressure. 12  3600
= = 1.08 kJ/hr
40000
Which of the above statements are correct?
22. If angle of contact of a drop of liquid is acute,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only

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then
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Cohesion is equal to adhesion
Ans. (c)
(b) Cohesion is more than adhesion
Sol. During phase change, temperature remains
(c) Adhesion is more than cohesion
constant.
(d) Both adhesion and cohesion have noc
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Enthalpy of vapourisation decreases with
onnection with angle of contact
increase in pressure
Ans. (b)
Pressure Sol. The angle of contact of drop of liquid acute as
increase shown in figure,
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T Enthalpy of
vaporisation


Hence the shop of droplet remain spherical

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s
which is possible only when the cohesion i.e.
21. An ideal heat engine, operating on a reversible intermolecular force is more than adhesion i.e.
cycle, produces 9 kW. The engine operates force between liquid molecule and molecule of
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between 27°C and 927°C. What is the fuel plate.

consumption given that the calorific value of
23. The Carnot cycle is impracticable because :
the fuel is 40000 kJ/kg?
(a) Isothermal process is very fast; and
(a) 0.8 kg/hr (b) 1.02 kg/hr
isentropic process is very slow
(c) 1.08 kg/hr (d) 1.28 kg/hr
(b) Isothermal process is very slowp; and
Ans. (c) isentropic process is very fast
Sol. Efficiency of the ideal reversible cycle (c) Isothermal process and isentropic process
T2 (27  273) are both very slow
 = 1  1
T1 (927  273) (d) Isothermal process and isentropic process
are both very fast
300
= 1 = 0.75 or 75% Ans. (b)
1200
Sol. The Carnot cycle cannot be performed in
W W 9
  =  Q=  = 12 kW practice because of the following reasons :
Q  0.75
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1. It is impossible to perform a frictionless 25. Consider the following statements :

process. 1. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle
2. It is impossible to transfer the heat without is a function of the properties of the working
temperature potential. substance (gas)

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3. Isothermal process can be achieved only if 2. For the same compression ratio and same
the piston moves very slowly to allow heat input, the thermal efficiency of an Otto cycle
transfer so that the temperature remains is more than that of a Diesel cycle

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constant. Adiabatic process can be achieved 3. The thermal efficiency of a Diesel cycle
only if the piston moves as fast as possible increases with decrease of cut-off ratio
so that the heat transfer is negligible due to
Which of the above statements are correct?
very short time available. The isothermal and
adiabatic processes take place during the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
same stroke therefore the piston has to (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
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move very slowly for part of the stroke and Ans. (d)
it has to move very fast during remaining
1
stroke. This variation of motion of the piston Sol. Otto = 1  1
during the same stroke is not possible. r
i.e. Otto = f(r1 )
24. An ideal Otto-cycle works between minimum
and maximum temperature of 300 K and 1800 Here r is not property of working substance.
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K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle Lower cut-off ratio leads to better efficiency.
for maximum work output when   1.5 for this 26. Consider the following statements :
ideal gas?
1. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are special
(a) 5 (b) 6 cases of dual combustion cycle
(c) 7 (d) 8
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2. Combustion process in IC engines is

Ans. (b) neither fully constant volume nor fully
Sol. For maximum specific work output for Otto constant pressure process
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cycle, the compression ratio 3. Combustion process in ideal cycle is

1 replaced by heat addition from internal
 Tmax  2(  1) source in closed cycle
r =  
 Tmin  4. Exhaust process is replaced by heat
Tmax = 1800 K, Tmin = 300 K,  = 1.5 rejection in ideal cycle
1 Which of the above statements are correct?
 1800  2(1.5 1) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
r =  
 300 
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
r = 6
Ans. (d)
Constant volume Sol. Since, some time interval is required for the
3 chemical reactions during combustion process,
T 2 the combustion cannot take place at constant
4
volume. Similarly, due to rapid uncontrolled
1 Constant volume combustion in diesel engines, combustion does
S not occur at constant pressure.
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27. A four-cylinder four-stroke SI engine develops Net work output

an output of 44 kW. If the pumping work is 5% =
Swept volume
of the indicated work and mechanical loss is an
additional 7%, then the power consumed in 440
=
(2.2  0.26)  10 3

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pumping work is :
(a) 50 kW (b) 25 kW = 226.8 kPa
(c) 5.0 kW (d) 2.5 kW  227 kPa

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Ans. (d) 30. A single cylinder, four-stroke cycle oil engine is
Sol. bp = ip – 0.05ip – 0.07ip fitted with a rope brake. The diameter of the
brake wheel is 600 mm and the rope diameter
= ip – 0.12ip = 0.88ip is 26 mm. The dead load on the brake is 200
bp 44 N and the spring balance reads 30 N. If the
ip =  = 50 kW
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 0.88 0.88 engine runs at 600 rpm, what will be the nearest
magnitude of the brake power of the engine?
 Pumping work = 50 × 0.05 = 2.5 kW
(a) 3.3 kW (b) 5.2 kW
28. In a two-stroke Petrol engine, fuel loss is
maximum after : (c) 7.3 kW (d) 7.2 kW

(a) Opening the exhaust port Ans. (a)

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(b) Closing the exhaust port 600  26

Sol. r = = 313 mm
(c) Opening the inlet port 2
2N (W  S)r
(d) Closing the inlet port bp =
60  1000
Ans. (a)
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2  600  (170)  313

Sol. With engines working on Otto cycle, a part of =
60  1000
fresh mixture is lost as it escapes through the
= 3.343 kW
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exhaust port during scavenging. This increase

the fuel comsumption and reduces the thermal
efficiency.
If the fuel is supplied to the cylinder after the
exhaust ports are closed, there will be no loss
of fuel.
31. In a furnace the heat loss through the 150 mm
thick refractory wall lining is estimated to be 50
W/m2. If the average thermal conductivity of
the refractory material is 0.05 W/mK, the
temperature drop across the wall will be :

29. In an Otto cycle, air is compressed from 2.2 l (a) 140°C (b) 150°C
to 2.26 l from an initial pressure of 1.2 kg/cm2. (c) 160°C (d) 170°C
The net output/cycle is 440 kJ. What is the
Ans. (b)
mean effective pressure of the cycle?
Sol. Data given :
(a) 227 kPa (b) 207 kPa
Q
(c) 192 kPa (d) 185 kPa = 50 W/m2
A
Ans. (a)
K = 0.05 W/mK
Sol. Mean effective pressure
t = 150 mm = 0.15 m
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kA 34. Hot gases enter a heat exchanger at 200°C

Q = and leave at 150°C. The cold air enters at 40°C
t
and leaves at 140°C. The capacity ratio of the
Q k
or, = heat exchanger will be :
A t

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(a) 0.40 (b) 0.45
0.05  
or, 50 = (c) 0.50 (d) 0.52
0.15
Ans. (c)

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or,  = 150°
Sol. By Newtons law of cooling heat loss by hot
32. Uniform flow occurs when :
fluid = Heat gain by cold fluid.
(a) At every point the velocity vector is identical
in magnitude and direction at any given instance So, mh  Cph (Th1  Th2 )  mc  Cpc (Tc 2  Tc1 )
(b) The follow is steady Here Th2  200C
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(c) Discharge through a pipe is constant
Th1  150C
(d) Conditions do not change with at any time
Tc2  140C
Ans. (a)
Sol. In uniform flow, the flow velocity is same in Tc1  40C
magnitude and direction at different location at
So, mh  Cph (200  150)  mc  Cpc  (140  40)
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given instant of time i.e.

or, Ch × 50 = Cc × 100
 V 
  =0 or, Ch = 2Cc
 S t
So, here Cmin = Cc
33. A plane wall is 20 cm thick with an area of 1 m 2
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Cmax = Ch
and has a thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m. K.
A temperature difference of 100°C is imposed Cmin C C
So, Capacity ratio = = c  c  0.5
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across it. The heat flow is at : Cmax Ch 2Cc

(a) 150 W (b) 180 W 35. During very cold weather conditions, cricket
(c) 220 W (d) 250 W players prefer to wear white woolen sweaters
Ans. (d) rather than coloured woolen sweaters. The
reason is that white wool comparatively :
Sol.
1. Absorbs less heat from body
K = 0.5 W/m
A = 1 m2 2. Emits less heat to the atmosphere

t = 20 cm = 20 × 10–2 m = 0.2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 = 100°C (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

kA (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

So, Q =
t Ans. (b)
0.5  1 100 Sol. As white colour reflect the solar radiation and
= = 250 W
0.2 absorb the infrared radiation. In winter season
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as body temperature is more than atmospheric C = 1000 W/K = Cmin

temperature. Body radiate heat in infrared A = 50 m2
region which is not visible un is absorbed by
sweater of white colour but it emit the same UA 100  50
NTU =  5
Cmin 1000

inless amount to the surrounding. Due which
human body remain hot. Here, white colour
absorb the infrared radiation from outside and
keep the body hot.
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38. The effectiveness of a counter-flow heat
exchanger has been estimated as 0.25. Hot
gases enter at 200°C and leave at 75°C.

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36. A pipe of 10 cm diameter and 10 m length is Cooling air enters at 40°C. The temperature of
used for condensing steam on its outer surface. the air leaving the unit will be :
The average heat transfer coefficient hh (when (a) 60°C (b) 70°C
the pipe is horizontal) is n times the average (c) 80°C (d) 90°C
heat transfer coefficient hv (when the pipe is
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Ans. (c)
vertical). The value of n is :
t c 2  t c1
(a) 2.44 (b) 3.34
Sol.  = t t
h2 c1
(c) 4.43 (d) 5.34
Ans. (a) t c 2  40
or, 0.25 =
1/ 4 200  40
M

(hm )h  L 
Sol.   0.77   or, tc2 = 160 × 0.25 + 40 = 80
(hm )v  D0 
39. Consider the following statements regarding C.I.
In condensation engine :
Here (hm)h = n(hm)v 1. C.I. engines are more bulky than S.I.
S

and L = 10 m engines
D0 = 10 cm = 10 × 10–2 m 2. C.I. engines are more efficient than S.I.
engines
IE

1/4
n(hm )v  10 
So,  0.77  3. Lighter flywheels are required in C.I.
(hm )v 2 
 10  10  engines
or, n = 2.434  2.44 Which of the above statements are correct?
37. A cross-flow type air heater has an area of 50 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
m2. The overall transfer coefficient is 100 Wm 2 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
K; and heat capacity of the stream, be it hot or
cold, is 1000 W/K. What is the NTU? Ans. (c)
Sol. Because of higher compression ratios and
(a) 500 (b) 50
higher pressure ratio involved, C.I. engine
(c) 5 (d) 0.5 require stronger engine parts, and inherently
Ans. (c) heavier. The C.I. engines may be 2 to 3 times
heavier than comparable S.I. engines.
UA
Sol. NTU = The use of higher compression ratio in C.I.
Cmin
engines as compared to S.I. engine results in
U = 100 W/m2K
higher thermal efficiency for the C.I. engine.
 IES MASTER

Lighter or heavier flywheel requirements of Radiosity, J = E  G

engine depends on Stroke of the engine. In
four stroke, flywheel is heavier than two stroke  = Reflectivity
due to fluctuation of load and only one power as surface is opaque.

R
stroke in 360 degree of rotation.
So,   0 (Transmitivity)
40. Thermal boundary layer is a region where :
So,   1    1    1  0.4  0.6
(a) Heat dissipation is negligible

TE
(by Krischoff’s law)
(b) Inertia and convection are of the same
So, J = Eb  G
order of magnitude
= 0.4 × 400 + 0.6 × 100
(c) Convection and dissipation terms are of
the same order of magnitude = 760 W/m2

(d) Convection and conduction terms are of Note : In this question emissive power = 400
AS
the same order of magnitude W/m2 is considered for black surface.

Ans. (c) Otherwise, for opaque surface emissive power

= 400 W/m2, surface turned out to be black.
Sol. In thermal boundary layer heat dissipate it can
not be zero. 42. A body 1 in the form of a sphere of 2 cm radius
at temperature T1 is located in body 2, which is
Thermal boundary layer generate due to
M

a hollow cube of 5 cm side and is at temperature

viscosity (momentum diffusivity) and molecular
T2 (T2 < T1). The shape factor F21 for radiation
diffusivity of heat (  ), so its is not inertia and
heat transfer becomes :
convection.
(a) 0.34 (b) 0.43
In thermal boundary layer we finaly find
(c) 0.57 (d) 0.63
S

convective heat transfer co-efficient (h) either

Ans. (a)
for laminar or turbulent which measure the
amount of heat dissipate in the region. So, Sol. As sphere can not see itself
IE

convection and dissipation are of the same order so, F11 = 0

of magnitude.
by summationrule
Convection and conduction can not be of same
F11 + F12 = 1
order as finally convection take place with joint
effect of momentum and conduction. or, F12 = 1
41. Solar radiation of 1000 W/m2 is incident on a By reciprocity theorem
grey opaque surface with emissivity of 0.4 and A1F12 = A2F21
emissive power of 400 W/m2. The ratiosity of
A1
the surface will be : or F21 = A  F12
2
(a) 940 W/m3 (b) 850 W/m2
4 r 2
(c) 760 W/m2 (d) 670 W/m2 = 1
6 a2
Ans. (c) 2
4  3.14   2 
Sol. Here G = 1000 W/m2 = 2
 0.334
6  5
Eb = 400 W/m2 (Assume)
 IES MASTER

43. Consider the following statements in respect of Sol. The p-h diagram of VCR
vapour compression refrigeration units :
Heat rejected in condenser,
1. In actual units the refrigerant leaving the
Qc = 1500 kJ/kg
evaporator is superheated

R
2. Superheating of refrigerant at exit of
P QC
evaporator increases the refrigerating effect
3 2
3. The superheating of refrigerant increases

TE
the work of the compressor w
R c
Which of the above statements are correct? 4 1
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 h
AS
Ans. (d) Compressor work,
Sol. 1. In actual vapour compression units, the Wc = 250 kJ/kg
ref rigerant leav ing the ev aporator is
where R is refrigeration effect,
superheated to avoid entry of liquid in
compressor, the p-h diagram,  Qc = W c + R
1500 = 250 + R
M

P
 R = 1500 – 250 = 1250 kJ/kg
3 2
2
R 1250
 COP =  5
W 250
45. A refrigeration plant is designed to work between
S

4 1 1
–3°C and 27°C. The plant works on the Carnot
h cycle. If the same plant is used as a heat-pump
system, then the COP of the heat pump
IE

2. Refrigerating effect increases from (h1 –h2) becomes :

to (h1–h2)
(a) 10 (b) 9
3. Compression work increases because as
superheat increases, the slope of (c) 8 (d) 7
compression curve decreases on p-h Ans. (a)
diagram. Hence (h2  h1 )  (h2  h1 ) Sol. A refrigerant plant works on Carnot cycle
between T1 = 27°C = 300 K and T2 = –3°C =
44. In a vapour compression refrigerator, the heat
270 K.
rejected in condenser is 1500 kJ/kg of
ref rigerant f low and the work done by The COP of the same plant when aperate as
compressor is 250 kJ/kg. The COP of the heat pump,
refrigerator is : T1 300
COPHP = 
(a) 5 (b) 6 T1  T2 300  270
(c) 7 (d) 8
300
=  10
Ans. (a) 30
 IES MASTER

46. A refrigeration plant working on Carnot cycle is are compressed by centrifugal compressor
designed to take the load of 4T of refrigeration. and less specific by centrifugal compressor
The cycle works between 2°C and 27°C. The and less specific volume refrigeants by
power required to run the system is : reciprocating compressor.

R
(a) 1.27 kW (b) 3.71 kW 3. Off course evaporator temperature (high for
(c) 5.71 kW (d) 7.27 kW air conditioner as compared to cold storage)
also influence the refrigerant choice.
Ans. (a)

TE
Sol. Refrigeration plant on Carnot cycle takes load 48. The COP of an ideal refrigerator of capacity 2.5
i.e. Refrigeration effect, R = 4T=4 × 3.5 =14 kW T is 5. The power of the motor required to run
the plant is :
The working temperature,
(a) 1.15 kW (b) 1.35 kW
T1 = 27°C = 300K
(c) 1.55 kW (d) 1.75 kW
T2 = 2°C = 275K
AS
Ans. (d)
 COP is defined as,
Sol. The COP of a refrigerator,
R T2
= T T Refrigeration effect R
W 1 2 
COP =
Compression work W
14 275 275
=   11
W 300  275 25 2.5  3.5
M

5.0 =
 Power required to run the compressor, W
14 2.5  3.5
P =  1.27kW W =  1.75 kW
11 5
47. The choice of a refrigerant depends upon : 49. The objective of supercharging an engine is :
S

1. Refrigerating capacity 1. To reduce space occupied by the engine

2. Type of compressor used (reciprocating, 2. To increase the power output of an engine
centrifugal or screw) when greater power is required
IE

3. Serv ice required (whether f or air
conditioning, cold storage or food freezing)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
Sol. The choice of a refrigerant depends-
1. If a refrigerant has large latent heat of
ev aporation the size of condenser
ev aporator and compressor reduces
because less mass flow rate.
2. If a specific volume a refrigerant is large at
evaporator pressure, the size of compressor
increases. Large specific volume refrigerant
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Sol. The main objective of supercharging is to
increase the power output but at the same time
supercharger are used where weight and space
are important like racing car, automotive engine,
marine engine. So, supercharging is used to
reduce space occupied by engine.
50. To reversible refrigerators are arranged in series
and their COPs are 5 and 6 respectively. The
COP of composite refrigeration system would
be :
 IES MASTER

(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 T1=27°C Ts=5°C

T2
(c) 3.5 (d) 4.5
Ans. (b) Cooling
Coil
Sol. The COP of refrigerator R1

R
Bypass factor,
T
COP1 = 5  T2  Ts 
T1  T2 BPF = T1  Ts

TE
 6T = 5T1 ...(i)
T2   5  T 5
The COP of refrigerator, R2, 0.4 =  2

27  5  32
T2
COP = 6 ...(ii) T2 + 5 = 0.4×32 = 12.8
T1  T2
T2 = 12.8-5 = 7.8°C
 7 T2 = 6T
52. The wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures of an
AS
 Overall COP,, air sample will be equal when :
T1
1. Air is fully saturated
2. Dew point temperature is reached
W1 3. Partial pressure of vapour equals the total
R1
pressure
M

COP=5
4. Humidity ratio is 100%
T Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
R2
S

COP=6 Ans. (a)

Sol. • The W BT and DBT and Dew point
W2
temperature all are equal at saturation curve
IE

T2
i.e. RH = 100% of psychrometric chart
6T 6
T2 7 7 • It is impossible that vapour pressure is equal
=  6T 6T
 6 2
T1  T2  to total pressure in air-vapour mixture
5 7 35
• Humidity ratio of 100% has no meaning in
6 35
=   2.5 psychrometry
7 62
53. Air at 25°C DBT and 80% RH is passed over
51. In an air-conditioning plant, air enters the cooling
a cooling coil whose surface temperature is
coil at 27°C. The coil surface temperature is
10°C which is below DPT of the air. If the air
–5°C. If the bypass factor of the unit is 0.4, the
temperature coming out of the cooling coil is
air will leave the coil at :
15°C, then the bypass factor of the cooling coil
(a) 5.6°C (b) 7.8°C is :
(c) 9.2°C (d) 11.2°C (a) 0.56 (b) 0.67
Ans. (b) (c) 0.76 (d) 0.87
Sol. The cooling coil and various temperature, Ans. (b)
 IES MASTER

Sol. Since the coil temperature is lower than DPT,

so condensation is there, RH1
3 RH2

%
00
=1
H
R
2

R
1
0%
=8
RH

TE
T1
T3 DPT RH1>RH2
T2
DBT°C
2. Dew point temperature (DPT) remains
constant during both heating and cooling
10°C 15°C 25°C sensibly.
AS
DBT
3. The enthalpy remains constant during
T1  T2
adiabatic cooling (2–3).
BPF = T  T 4. In dehumidifying process, moisture in air
1 3
vapour mixture needs to be condensed for
25  15 10 2 removal. So dehumidification requires
=  
M

25  10 15 3 cooling of m ixture below DPT f or

condensation.
= 0.67
55. The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank
54. Consider the following statements for the can be increased by :
appropriate context :
(a) Fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
S

1. The Relative Humidity of air remains

(b) Sharpening the edge of orifice
constant during sensible heating or cooling
(c) Fitting a long length of pipe to the outside
IE

2. The Dew Point Temperature of air remains

constant during sensible heating or cooling
3. The total enthalpy of air remains constant
during adiabatic cooling
4. It is necessary to cool the air below its
Dew Point Temperature for dehumidifying
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
Sol. 1. The Relative humidity (RH) reduces during
sensible heating (1  2) and increases
during sensible cooling (2  1).
(d) Fitting a long length of pipe to the inside
Ans. (a)
Sol. By fitting long pipe discharge will be more but
less in comparison of short length pipe due to
more friction loss in long pipe.
When pipe is fitted outside in that case co-
efficient of discharge is around 0.82 and when
it fitted inside then same is of 0.75. So, pipe of
short length fitted outside give more discharge.
56. The latent heat load in an auditorium is 25% of
sensible heat load. The value of sensible heat
factor is
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
 IES MASTER

Ans. (c) 59. A house-top water tank is made of flat plates

Sol. Latent heat load, = 25% of sensible heat. and is full to the brim. its height is twice that of
any side. The ratio of total thrust force on the
LHL = 25% SHL = 0.25 SHL bottom of the tank to that on any side will be :

R
Sensible heat factor (a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0.5
SHL SHL
SHF =  Ans. (c)
SHL  LHL SHL  0.25 SHL

TE
Sol. The thrust on wall,
1
=  0.8
1.25
57. In a solar collector, the function of the
Fx h=2x
transparent cover is to :
AS
(a) Transmit solar radiation only Fy
(b) Protect the collector from dust
b=x
(c) Decrease the heat loss from collector
beneath to atmosphere F x = ghA

(d) Absorb all types of radiation and protect 2x

= g  2x  x
M

the collector from dust 2

= 2gx3 ...(i)
Ans. (c)
Bottom force
Sol. The purpose of transparent cover is to transmit
the shorter wavelength solar radiation but block F y = ghA  g  2x  x  x
S

longer wavelength reradiation from the absorber = 2gx3 ...(ii)

plate and to reduce the heat loss by convection 3 3
 Fx/F y = 2gx / 2gx  1-
from top of the absorber plate.
60. The water level in a dam is 10 m. The total
IE

58. The most suitable refrigeration system utilizing force acting on vertical wall per metre length is:
solar energy is : (a) 49.05 kN (b) 490.5 kN
(a) Ammonia-Water v apour absorption (c) 981 kN (d) 490.5 kN
refrigeration system Ans. (b)
(b) Lithium Bromide-Water vapour absorption Sol.
refrigeration system
(c) Desiccant refrigeration system
(d) Thermoelectric refrigeration system
Ans. (a)
Sol. Ammonia-water absorption is more suitable for h=10m
refrigeration than lithium bromide (LiBr) water
F
absorption using solar energy. In LiBr, water is
refrigerant and LiBr is absorbent so water Dam
freezes as temperature decreases to 0°C.
 IES MASTER

The force on vertical wall, 63. A 25 cm long prismatic homogeneous solid

floats in water with its axis vertical and 10 cm
F = ghA projecting abovbe water surface. If the same
10 solid floats in some oil with its axis vertical and
= 1000  9.81  10  1

R
2 5 cm projecting above the liquid surface, then
the specific gravity of the oil is
= 490.5 kN
(a) 0.55 (b) 0.65
61. A vacuum gauge fixed on a steam condenser

TE
reads 80 kPa vacuum. The barometer indicates (c) 0.75 (d) 0.85
1.013 bar. The absolute pressure in terms of Ans. (c)
mercury head is, nearly
Sol. Let the cross-section area of bar is A.
(a) 160 mm of Hg (b) 190 mm of Hg
In water,
(c) 380 mm of Hg (d) 760 mm of Hg
AS
Ans. (a)
Sol. Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure +   10 cm
Gauge pressure
 Pa = Po + Pg   25 cm
Since the condenser pressure is vacuum.
M

 Pg = –80 kPa
 Pa = 101.3 – 80 = 21.3 kPa
mghm = 21.3 × 103
Buoyancy force = weight of water displaced
13.6 × 103 × 9.81.hm = 21.3 × 103
S

FBW = Vg.
21.3
 Mercury head, hm =  0.15965m
136  4.81 =    A L    g
= 159.65 mm
IE

= B  A  25  10   g  15 B Ag
…(i)
 160 mm
Now the bar is in oil, the buoyancy force,
62. The Orsat apparatus gives
FB0 = 0 A  25  5  g  20 0 Ag ...(ii)
1. Volumetric analysis of dry products of
combustion Since buoyancy force is equal to weight of
bar in both cases, so
2. Gravimetric analysis of dry products of
combustion FB = FBo
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 15 Ag = 20 o Ag
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
15
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 o = 
20
Ans. (a) o 15
 0.75
Sol. Orsat apparatus is used for volumetric analysis  = 20
of dry gas only.
64. Consider the following statements :
Gravimetric analysis is basically mass analysis.
1. Increases stability
 IES MASTER

2. Decreases stability Moment of area of lamina about centre of

3. Increases comfort for passengers in a ship gravity,
4. Decreases comfort for passengers in a ship 1 1 2
IG =  bh3   1 23 
36 36 9
Which of the above statements are correct?

R
1 1 2
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4  Area, A =  b  h   1 2  1m
2 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
7 2/9 7 2 3 7 2

TE
Ans. (b) h =      
3 1 7 / 3 3 9 7 3 21
Sol. Increase in metacentric height increases 51
stability of ship but at the same time, it reduces =  2.4286 m
21
period of oscilation. A low period of oscillation
66. A solid body of specific gravity 0.5 is 10 m long
causes sharp vibration to ship which are quite
3 m wide and 2 m high. When it floats in water
AS
un comfortable to passengers on board.
with its shortest edge vertical, its metacentric
65. An isosceles triangular lamina of base 1 m and height is :
height 2 m is located in the water in vertical
(a) 0.75 m (b) 0.45 m
plane and its vertex is 1 m below the free
surface of the water. The position of force acting (c) 0.25 m (d) 0.15 m
on the lamina from the free water surface is : Ans. (c)
M

(a) 2.42 m (b) 2.33 m Sol. The solid body inside water in desired condition,
(c) 2.00 m (d) 1.33 m The metacentric height
Ans. (a) GM = BM – BG ...(i)
Sol. The position of Lamina in water
S

The depth of centre of Gravity of lamina from m

free water surface, 10
M
IE

Free water surface 3m

1.0m
G 2m
x B
h
b = 0.5

2.0m V-Volume of displaced liquid,

CG The depth of body in water
P
A  g = bh  A  g
1.0m
1.0   Ag = 0.5 × 2 Ag
2 7
x = 1  2 = m   = 1.0m
3 3
The depth of centre of pressure, Volume displaced,
IG V = A    3  10  1  30 m
3
h = x
Ax
 IES MASTER

Moment of area of top surface, Sol.

1 10  27 V2
I =  10  33   22.5 m 4
12 12
22.5 1.5m

R
=  0.75 m
30
 Metacentric radius, BM = I/V

TE
2 1 V1
BG =   0.5 m
2 2
Metacentric height,
GM = BM – BG = 0.75 – 0.5 = 0.25 m The velocity of flow at 1.5 m above the tap,
67. For a steady two-dimensional flow, the scalar
V22 = V12  2gh
AS
components of the velocity field are Vx = –2x; 
Vy = 2y and V z = 0. The corresponding = 82 – 2 × 9.81 × 1.5
components of acceleration a x and a y,
respectively are : = 64 – 3 × 9.81 = 34.57
(a) 0 and 4y (b) 4x and 0 V2 = 5.88 m/sec
(c) 0 and 0 (d) 4x and 4y From continuity equation
M

Ans. (d) A1V1 = A2V2

Sol. The velocity field,   2
  122  8 =  d2  5.88
Vx = –2x; Vy = 2y and Vz = 0 4 4
S

This x-component of acceleration, 8

 d2 = 12   13.997 mm
Vx V 5.88
a x = Vx   Vy  x  0
x y  14 mm
IE

= –2x × –2 + 0 = 4x 69. Consider the following statements about thermal

The y-component of acceleration, conductivity :
1. Thermal conductivity decreases with
Vy Vy
a y = Vx   Vy  0 increasing molecular weight
x y
2. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic liquids
= 0 + 2y × 2 = 4y generally decreases with increasing
68. The velocity of flow from a tap of 12 mm temperature
diameter is 8 m/s. What is the diameter of the 3. Thermal conductivity of gases and liquids
jet at 1.5 m from the tap when the flow is is generally smaller than that of solids
vertically upwards? Assuming that, the jet
Which of the above statements are correct?
continues to be circular upto that level.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 44 mm (b) 34 mm
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 24 mm (d) 14 mm
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d)
 IES MASTER

Sol. For non-metallic liquid study is done on 42 P 22

saturated condition. The thermal conductivity 2 3  2   0  0.4
2g g 2g
of non-metallic liquids generally decreases with
increasing temperature, the notable exceptions 16  4 P2
5  0.4  

R
is being glycerine and water, 2g g
Thermal conductivity of non-metallic liquids P2 6
decreases with increasing molecular weight.   4.6   4.6  0.6162
g g

TE
Thats why these are not used in nuclear
engineering. = 5.2116 m of oil

p v2
71. Bernoulli’s equation   gZ  Cons tan t, is
Am Water  2
m valid for :
on
ia
AS
Thermal

1. Steady flow
2. Viscous flow
3. Incompressible flow

Freon 12 4. Flow along a streamline

Which of the above are correct?
M

Temp

70. A conical diffuser 3 m long is placed vertically. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
The velocity at the top (entry) is 4 m/s and at (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
the lower end is 2 m/s. The pressure head at
the top is 2 m of the oil flowing through the Ans. (c)
S

diffuser. The head loss in the diffuser is 0.4 m Sol. The Bernoulli’s equation
of the oil. The pressure head at the exit is:
(a) 3.18 m of oil (b) 5.21 m of oil p v2
IE

  gz  constant
(c) 7.18 m of oil (d) 9.21 m of oil  2

Ans. (b) This equati on i s appli cabl e under t he

Sol. following assumption
1 1. Steady incompressible flow

4 m/sec
2. Fluid is ideal
3.0m 3. Flow is irrotational and if rotational, it is
applicable along a stream line.
2 hL = 0.4m I f t he f l ow is v i scous, ki net ic energy
4 m/sec correction factor is introduced with loss factor
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem across the as,
diffuser,
p1 v2 p v2
P1 V12 P V2  1 1  z1  z   2 2  z2  losses
  z1  2  2  z2  h2 g 2g g 2g
g 2g g 2g
 IES MASTER

72. Consider the following statements: 1

(a) 4.0 (b)  2  5
1. Absorptivity depends on wave length of
incident radiation waves 1 1
(c)  4  4 (d)  4  5
2. Emissivity is dependent on wave length of

R
incident radiation waves Ans. (d)

Which of the above statements is/are correct? Sol. The head loss is same in both cases,
hf1  hf equivalent

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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 16fL Q2 16fL (2Q)2

Ans. (c) 22 g D5 2 D5e
Sol. Both emissivity and absorptivity depends on
 D5e  22  D5
wavelength of incident radiation. The emissivity
AS
at a certain wavelength is called spectral De
 (4)1/5
emissivity likewise absorptivity. This applicable D
for real surface. 75. A fluid jet is discharging froma 100 m nozzle
73. A steam turbine in which a part of the steam and the vena contracta formed has a diameter
after expansion is used for process heating of 90 mm. If the coefficient of velocity is 0.98,
and the remaining steam is further expanded then the coefficient of discharge for the nozzle
M

for power generationis/are: is:

1. Impulse turbine (a) 0.673 (b) 0.794
2. Pass out turbine (c) 0.872 (d) 0.971
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Ans. (b)
S

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor Sol. Coefficient of contraction,

Ans. (b) Area at vena contracta 902
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Cc = =  0.81
Sol. In pass out turbine a heat exchanger installed Area at nozzle exit 1002
in place of condenser as-well-as in between
Coefficient of discharge,
condenser and turbine for process heating.
Cd = Velocity coefficient × Coeff. of contraction
But in impulse turbine steam after expansion
is used for in regenerator to increase the = Cv  Cc
effective mean temperature of the cycle.
= 0.98 × 0.81 = 0.7938
74. Two reservoirs connected by two pipe lines in
parallel of the same diameter D and length. It  0.794
is proposed to replace the two pipe lines by a 76. Consider fully developed laminar flow in a
single pipeline of the same length without circular pipe of a fixed length:
affecting the total dishcarge and loss of head 1. The friction factor is inversely proportional
due to friction. The diameter of the equivalent to Reynolds number
pipe De in terms of the diameter of the existing 2. The pressure drop in the pipe is proportional
D to the average velocity of the flow in the
pipe line, e , is:
D pipe
 IES MASTER

3. The friciton factor is higher for a rough pipe 78. What is the ratio of displacement thickness to
as compared to a smooth pipe boundary layer thickness for a linear distribution
4. The pressure drop in the pipe is proportional u y
to the square of average of flow in the pipe of velocity  in the boundary layer on a
u 

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Which of the abvoe statements are correct? flat plate, where  is the boundary layer
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 thickness and u is the free steam velocity?

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (a) 0.5 (b) 0.67

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Ans. (d) (c) 0.75 (d) 0.8

Sol.  The friction factor, ‘f’ in fully developed Ans. (a)

laminar pipe, Sol. Velocity distribution in boundary layer,
64 u y
f = 
AS
Re U 
 The pressure drop in pipe having laminar  Displacement boundary layer,
flow,
 u   y
*    1   dy  0  1    dy
32V 128QL 0 U  
 
p = 
D2 D4  
=  
M

 In laminar flow, the friction factor is 2 2

independent of roughness because
* 1
boundary layer covers the roughness.    0.5
 2
77. The thickness of the boundary layer for a fluid 79. The oil with specific gravity 0.8, dynamic
flowing over a flat plate at a point 20 cm from viscosity of 8 × 10–3 Ns/m2 flows through a
S

the leading edge is found to be 4 mm. The smooth pipe of 100 mm diameter and with
Reynolds number at the point (adopting 5 as Reynolds number 2100. The average velocity
the relevant constant) is: in the pipe is:
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(a) 48400 (b) 57600 (a) 0.21 m/s (b) 0.42 m/s
(c) 62500 (d) 77600 (c) 0.168 m/s (d) 0.105 m/s
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
Sol. The thickness of boundary layer over flat plate,
VD
Sol.  Re
 5 

x Re x
  Re
3  V =
4  10 5 D
2

20  10 Re x
8  103  2100
=
5  20  102 800  100  103
Re x   5  5  10
4  103 8  2100
= = 0.21 m/s
 Rex = 62500 800  100
 IES MASTER

80. In a psychrometric chart, relative humidity lines Ans. (b)

are: Sol. Since the heat engine is reversible,
(a) Curved T2 300
so  = 1  1 = 0.7
(b) Inclined and straight but non-uniformly T1 1000

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spaced
W W 14
(b) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced   =  Q   20 kW
Q  0.7
(d) Horizontal and uniformly spaced  f  CV

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 Q = m
Ans. (a)
Q 20 kW
 f =
m 
Sol. In psychrometric chart, relative humidity (RH) CV 40000 kJ/kg
lines are curved having positive slope from zero
to infinite. 20  3600
= kg/hr
40000
AS
81. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the
rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it to the internal = 1.8 kg/hr
energy of afluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. 83. Consider the following statements pertaining
the fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat to the metacentric height of ocean-going
engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat vessels:
engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum 1. Increase in the metacentric height reduces
M

area of the solar collector required would be, the period roll
nearly:
2. Some control of period of roll is possible if
(a) 8 m2 (b) 17 m2 Cargo is placed further from the centre line
(c) 39 m2 (d) 79 m2 of ship
S

Ans. (d) 3. In warships and racing yachts, metacentric

height will be larger than other categories
T2 313
Sol. max = 1   1 = 0.106 of ships
T1 350
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4. For ocean-going vessels, metacentric height

W is of the order of 30 cm to 120 cm
 max =
Q Which of the above statements are correct?
W 2.5
Qmin =   = 23.6 kW (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
max 0.106
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
 0.6 × 0.5 × Amin = 23.6
Ans. (a)
23.6
 Amin = = 78.67  79m2 Sol. The period of oscitation of ship,
0.6  0.5
82. A reversible heat engine, operating on Carnot K 2g
cycle, between the temperature limits of 300 K T = 2
g. GM
and 1000 K produces 14 kW of power. If the
calorific value of the fuel is 40,000 kJ/kg. The where Kg = radius of gyration about centre of
fuel consumption will be: gravity and GM is metacentric height.
(a) 1.4 kg/hr (b) 1.8 kg/hr Placing the cargo away from centre increases
radius of gyration.
(c) 2.0 kg/hr (d) 2.2 kg/hr
 IES MASTER

Warship and racing yachts have higher i.e. P1V1 = P2V2

metacentric height to ensure improved stability.
V1 P2
Hence all statements are correct. or, =
V2 P1
84. Consider the following statements pertaining

R
to a convergent-divergent nozzle flow with Mach D12  L P2
or, 
number 0.9 at the throat: D22 L P1
1. The flow is subsonic in both the converging 1/2

TE
D1  P2 
and the diverging sections or, 
D2  P1 
2. The Mach number at the exit is less than
one 86. The condition for power transmission by flow
3. In the div erging section, the f low is through a pipeline to be maximum is that the
supersonic loss of head of the flow due to friction
AS
throughout the piepline length is:
4. There is a shock in the diverging section
Which of the above statements are correct? (a) One-third of the total head at inlet end

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (b) One-fourth of the total head at inlet end
(c) 3 only (d) 3 and 4 (c) Three-fourth of the total head at inlet end
Ans. (b) (d) One-half of the total head at inlet end
M

Sol. For, gas nozzle, Ans. (a)

dA dV Sol. Power transmitted through a pipe,
 (M2  1)
A V
P = gQ(H  hf )
When M < 1, i.e., the inlet velocity is subsonic,
 2  fLV 2 
S

as flow area A decreases, the pressure

= g   d V H  
decreases and velocity increases, and when 4  2gd 
flow area A increase, pressure increases and
dP
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velocity decreases. For maximum power, 0

dV
85. For a two stage compressor, the ratio of
diameters of L.P. cylinder to H.P. cylinder is H
 hf =
equal to: 3
(a) Square of the ratio of final pressure to initial 87. The correct chronological order, in development
pressure of steam generators, is:
(b) The ratio of final pressure to initial pressure (a) Fire tube boiler, Monotube boiler and Water
tube boiler
(c) The square root of the ratio of final pressure
to initial pressure (b) Water tube boiler, Fire tube boiler and
(d) Cube root of the ratio of final pressure to Monotube boiler
initial pressure (c) Fire tube boiler, Water tube boiler and
Ans. (a) Monotube boiler

Sol. By considering the compression in compressor (d) Water tube boiler, Monotube boiler and Fire
as isothermal compression. In this temperature tube boiler
in between stages will be constant. Ans. (c)
 IES MASTER

Sol. Fire tube boiler has been developed during
industrial revolution. In due course of time
developement occured and water tube boiler
came in existance.
90. A shock wave which occurs in a supersonic
flow represents a region in which:
(a) A zone of silence exists
(b) There is no change in pressure, temperature

R
But it was bulky due to steam drum required and density
for intermediate phase.
(c) There is sudden change in pressure,
So, to avoid this supercritical or monotube boiler temperature and density

TE
came in picture to meet the high quality steam
(d) Analogy with a hydraulic jump is not possible
requirement and lesser space installation time
etc. Ans. (c)
88. Supersaturated flow occurs in a steam nozzle Sol. For shock wave Mach number is greater than
due to delay in: one i.e., velocity of source is greater than
(a) Throttling (b) Condensation velocity of sound. In this case the pressure
AS
(c) Evaoration (d) Entropy drop and velocity at an arbitary point of the stream
can be influenced only by disturbance acting
Ans. (b)
at point that lie on or inside the zone of action
Sol. Supersaturation phenomenon occurs in nozzle (or Mach cone) so option (a) is wrong.
due to delay in condensation due to which mass
When shock occur then there is sudden
flow rate coming from the nozzle is more than
change in pressure a temperature and density.
M

the designed value.

As f low is changing from supersonic to
89. Under ideal conditions, the velocity of steam at subsonic, so velocity and pressure and
the outlet of a nozzle for a heat drop of temperature will change. Only stagnation
450 kJ/kg from inlet reservoir condition upto enthalpy and temperature may remain constant.
the exit is: But static value definitely change.
S

(a) 649 m/s (b) 749 m/s

91. A convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be
(c) 849 m/s (d) 949 m/s choked when:
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Ans. (d)
(a) Critical pressure is attained at the exit and
Sol.
Mach number at this section is sonic
h1
V2 = 2 (b) Velocity at the throat becomes supersonic
V1 = 0
h2
(c) Exit velocity becomes supersonic
(d) Mass flow rate thorugh the nozzle reaches
h2 – h1 = 450 kg/kg
a maximum value
by S.F.E.E.
Ans. (d)
v2 v2
h1  1  h2  2 Sol. A nozzle is said to be chocked when flow rate
2 2 through it is maximum and at throat of nozzle
{Here W = 0, Q = 0, potential energy term = 0} M = 1.
or, v2 = 2(h1  h2 ) 92. In a gas turbine cycle, the turbine output is
600 kJ/kg, the compressor work is 400 kJ/kg,
= 2  450  1000  948.68
and the heat supplied is 1000 kJ/kg. the thermal
 949 m/sec efficiency of the cycle is:
 IES MASTER

(a) 20% (b) 30% Ans. (c)

(c) 40% (d) 50% Sol. Pressure in water column of height ‘h’.
Ans. (a) P = gh
Output 3.924 × 104 = 103 × 9.81h

R
Sol.  =
Input 39.24
 h= = 4m
600  400 9.81
=  100

TE
1000 95. Consider the following statements:
= 20% 1. Thermal efficiency of the simpel Steam or
93. Which of the following units increase the work Ranking cycle can be improved by incresing
ratio in a gas turbine plant? the maximum system pressure and
temperature
1. Regeneration
AS
2. Increasing the superheat of the steam
2. Reheating improves the specific work and decreases
3. Intercooling the moisture content of exhaust steam

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Increasing maximum system pressure
always increases the moisture content at
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and only the turbine exhaust
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Ans. (a) 4. Lowering the minimum system pressure

increases the specific work of the cycle
Wnet Wt  Wc
Sol. WR =  Which of the above statements are correct?
Wt Wt
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Wc
S

= 1 W (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

t
Ans. (b)
By intercooling W c become isothermal so, W c
Sol. R = f(Tm)
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will be less comparative to general gas cycle,

so, work ratio improve. So, by increasing temperature and pressure
Tm of the cycle increases so, efficiency will
By reheating markedly increase the specific increase.
output (W N) but efficiency decreased at the
same time and hence, work ratio increased. By increasing superheat, following change will
happen in cycle.
The specific output, i.e. W N is unchanged by
Degree of
the addition of heat exchanger (regeneration) superheat
so, W Q work ratio will remain unchanged. By
regeneration only efficiency will increase Superheat
provided pressure ratio should not be high. T
cycle
94. The pressure at a point in water column is Ideal gas
3.924 N/cm2. What is the corresponding height S
of water? By increasing maximum pressure moisture
(a) 8 m (b) 6 m content of turbine exhaust will be less, compare
to ideal cycle.
(c) 4 m (d) 2 m
 IES MASTER

By lowering the minimum system pressure the which is possible in isothermal compression.
expansion ratio in turbine increases so, specific To do isothermal compression intercooler is
work output increases. installed in between stages of compressor at
96. The gas turbine blades are subjected to : out side of cylinder since intake is at

(a) High centrifugal stress and thermal stress
(b) Tensile stress and compressive stress
R
atmospheric in general (except aircraft and all),
so, temperature is at inlet is atmospheric. Since,
process is isothermal so, intercooling will be
isothermal atmospheric intercooling (the above

TE
(c) High creep and compressive stress
is for ideal case not for real).
(d) Compressive stress and thermal stress
By providing appropiate dimension to cylinder
Ans. (a)
we can increase volumetric efficiency not
Sol. The turbine/centrifugal compressor achieve the isothermal cooling.
Subjected to centrifugal stress due to variation 98. Consider the following statements:
AS
of velocity from root to tip and centrifugal
The compression process in a centrifugal
motion.
compressor is comparable with:
2
b 2   rr   1. Reversible and adiabatic
(ct )max = ut     
2   rt   2. Irreversible and adiabatic
 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
M

where, ct = centrifugal stress

(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2
ut = tip peripheral velocity
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
rr
= ratio of root radius and tip Ans. (c)
rt
S

radius Sol. Compression in centrifugal compressor is

isentropic (reversible and adiabatic) for ideal
= hub and tip ratio
case.
Thermal stress exit is gas turbine due to high
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temperature. But practically, the actual process may deviate

from ideal one due to internal irrevesibility (e.g.
Other stress can occurs but their effect is
friction) but here process remain as adiabatic.
minimal in turbine in comparitive to these two.
97. Which one of the following methods can be P01
adopted to obtain isothermal compression in P02
T
2 21
an air compressor?
(a) Increasing the weight of the compressor Irreversible + adiabatic
(actual)
(b) Interstage heating
(c) Atmospheric cooling
s
(d) Providing appropriate dimensions to the
cylinder Reversible + adiabatic
Ans. (c) 99. A portable compressor is taken from a place
Sol. In reciprocating engine to achieve high pressure where the barometric pressure is 750 mm Hg
ratio the condition of minimum work is required and the average intake temperature is 27°C to
 IES MASTER

a mountainous region where the barometric (a) Isentropic efficiency

pressure is 560 mm Hg and temperature is (b) Isothermal efficiency
7°C. The reduction in mass output of the
(c) Adiabatic efficiency
machine is:
(d) Volumetric efficiency

R
(a) 80% (b) 60%
Ans. (d)
(c) 40% (d) 20%
Sol. In single stage reciprocating compressor no
Ans. (d)

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intercooding and minimum work requirement
Sol. The density of fluid in compressor is given by are there. Only volumetric term is their to judge
the performance
P1 750
1   102. In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with
RT1 R(273  27)
a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery
P2 560
AS
pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure
2  
RT2 R(273  7) will be:

2 560 300 (a) 10 bar (b) 6 bar

   0.80
1 280 750 (c) 4 bar (d) 3 bar
Ans. (c)
2  0.80 1
M

Sol. P1 = 2 bar, P2 = 8 bar

i.e. m2 = 0.80 m1
Px = ideal intercooler pressure
(As volume of compressor remain same)
= P1  P2  2  8
m1  m2
So, % reduction =  100 = 4 bar
m1
S

Directions: Each of the next Eighteen (18) items

1  0.80  consists of two statements, one labelled as the
= m1    100 = 20%
 2  ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’.
IE

100. The ratio of static enthalpy rise in the rotor to Examine these two statements carefully and select
the static enthalpy rise in the stage of an axial the answers to these items using the codes given
flow compressor is defined as: below:
(a) Power input factor Codes:

(b) Flow coefficient (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
individually true and Statement (II) is the
(c) Temperature coefficient correct explanation of Statement (I)
(d) Degree of reaction (b) Both statement (I) and Statement (II) are
Ans. (d) individually true but Statement (II) is NOT
the correct explanation of Statement (I)
( h)rotar
Sol. Degree of reaction = (c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
( h)stage
false
101. The performance of a single stage reciprocating (d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
air compressor is evaluated by its: true
 IES MASTER

103. Statement (I) : Calusius inequality is valid for 105. Statement (I) : First law of thermodynamics
all cycles, reversible or irreversible including analyses the problem quantitatively whereas
refrigeration cycles. second law of thermodynamics analyses the
Statement (II) : Clausius statement is a problem qualitatively.

R
negative statement which has no proof. Statement (II) : Throttling process is reversible
process.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)

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Sol. Clausius inequality states that
Sol. Throttling process is a irreversible process as
dQ the entropy of the fluid increases during the
 T  0 process. The first law of thermodynamics only
gives a quantitative estimate of the heat and
It provides the criterion of the reversibility of a work interaction between the system and
AS
cycle. surroundings, however, it does not state about
dQ quality of energy. It is the second law of
If  T
 0, the cycle is reversible, thermodynamics which deals with the low grade
and high grade energy and concepts of
dQ
 T
 0, the cycle is irreversible and possible availability.
M

106. Statement (I) : To prevent knocking in SI

dQ engines the end gas should have a low density.
 T  0, the cycle is impossible
Statement (II) : Pre-ignition is caused due to
dQ detonation
Clausius theorem is   0 and it can be
R T Ans. (b)
S

proved.
Sol. Due to less density of end gas, pressure
104. Statement (I) : Thermometers using different
and temperature of end gas not rise to
thermometric property substance may give
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achieve the ignition temperature, thus auto-

different readings except at two fixed points.
Statement (II) : Thermodynamic temperature
scale i s independent of any particular
thermoemtric substance.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Thermodynamic or absolute temperature scale
is independent of any working substance. The
fact that the efficiency of a reversible heat
engine cycle depends only on the temperature
of the two reservoirs makes it possible to
establish such a scale. If the temperature of a
given system is mesured with thermometers
using different thermoemetric properties, there
is considerable difference among the readings.
ignition cannot take place hence detonation
chance get reduce.
Detonation can lead to preignition and pre-
ignition encourage detonation. If happens
due to presence of overheated spark plugs,
exhaust valve or causion deposite on the
valve.
107. Statement (I) : Knocking in Petrol engine is
the auto-ignition of the rich mixture entering
the combustion chamber.
Statement (II) : Knocking is due to high
compression ratio.
Ans. (c)
 IES MASTER
Sol. Knowcking in petrol engine is reduced by
rich mixture because flame temperature can
be kept low thus eliminating considerably
tendency of knock. So, statement I is wrong.
Knocking increase by compression ratio
because by high compression ratio density
of end charge increase hence the temperature.
TE
108. Statement (I) : Automotive Petrol engines
require Petrol of Octane number between
85-95.
Statement (II) : Automotive Diesel engines
require Diesel oil of Cetane number between
AS
85-95.
Ans. (b)
Sol. In petrol engine octane no. used now a days
in range of 85-95, so, statement I is correct.
While disel having cetone no. 40 is used as
M
regular fuel and in premium fuel and in
biodiesel it is 55. So, statement II is wrong.
109. Statement (I) : In Automotive Petrol engines
during idling operation a rich mixture is required
(F / A  0.08)
S
Statement (II) : Rich mixture is required
because mixture is diluted by products of
IE
combustion.
Ans. (a)
Sol. An idiling operation engine operates at no
load and with nearly closed throttle. Due to
which exhaust gases remain in combution
chamber. The mass of exhaust gas in the
cylinder at the end of exhaust stroke remains
fairly constant throughout the idiling range.
The amount of fresh charge enter in cylinder
is less compared to full throttling.
So, exhaust gas mixed with fresh charge
admitted to cylinder. The presence of exhaust
gas obstruct the contact of fuel and air in
combution chamber, so finally combution is
poor.
Therefore, there is requirement of more fuel
is there, and rich fuel dilute the effect of
exhaust gas or by product of combution.
So, statement II explain the statement I.
R
110. Statement (I) : Piston temperature profiles near
full load are flattened in case of liquid cooled
engines whereas for air cooled engines
temperature profiles are steeper.
Statement (II) : The piston temperature profiles
are different in nature for liquid cooled and air
cooled engines because of the different values
of ehat capacities.
Ans. (d)
Sol. The air cooling system for piston is likewise
the fin cooling system in which cooling
temperature profile is exponential curve not
steeper curve. So, statement I is false. Also,
liquid cooling system use convective type of
cooling in which curve can not be flatten.
As different phenomenon is happening for
cooling in two different process because of
change in heat transportation media and
hence heat capacities of cooling fluid.
111. Statement (I) : Effective temperature is an
index which co-relates the combined effect of
air temperature, air humidity and air movement
upon human thermal comfort.
Statement (II) : Thermal comfort is not affected
by mean radiant temperature.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Mean radiant temperature (mRT) is also a
parameter in defining thermal comfort indice.
m RT depen ds upon cei l i ng and f l oor
temperature, sunlight through windown. So,
it is an important parameter in thermal
comfort.
112. Statement (I) : Commerical airplanes save fuel
by flying at higher altitudes during long trips.
Statement (II) : At higher altitudes, the ambient
temperature and the Carnot efficiency are low.
 IES MASTER
Ans. (b)
Sol. Both statement is correct. But statement II not
explain the reason.
At higher altitude the rate of decrease of thrust
is less than the rate of decrease of density
with altidue because some loss due reduced
density is compensated by lesser drag. Due to
TE
considerable reduction in drag (at an altitude
of 800 m, normal hight of commercial planes
the drag is reduced than 25% of sea level drag)
most of the commercial plane flying at high
altidue.
AS
At high altidue temperature decreases so, the
cycle maximum temperature So, the cycle
maximum temperature rise will decrease leads
to decrease in carnot efficiency.
113. Statement (I) : In a venturimeter, the divergent
section is much longer as compared to the
M
convergent section.
Statement (II) : Flow separation occurs only
in the diverging section of the venturimeter.
Ans. (a)
S
Sol. In venturimeter divergent portion is much
longer as compared to covergent section
because in diverging section retardation of
IE
flow take place. If retardation of flow is
allowed to take place rapidly in small length,
then flowing fluid not remain in contact with
boundary of diverging flow passage or in
otherwords flow separates from the walls and
eddies are formed. To avoid this divergent
section of nozzle kept large.
114. Statement (I) : In Fanno flow, heat transfer is
neglected and friction is considered.
Statement (II) : In Rayleight flow, heat transfer
is considered and friction is neglected.
Ans. (b)
Sol. Statement I is condition for fanno line and
statement II is condition for Rayleigh line but
statement II not explaining the statement I
115. Statement (I) : In a choked flow in a convergent
divergnet nozzle, flow in the diverging section
is supersonic.
Statement (II) : In a choked flow in a
R
convergnet divergent nozzle, the Mach number
at the throat is larger than one.
Ans. (c)
Sol. In chocked flow, flow rate is maximum, and
flow rate will be maximum only when Mach
number at throat is equal to ‘1’ i.e., Flow at
throat is subsonic. So, statement II is wrong.
As flow is chocked in convergent divergent
nozzle then flow at diffuser section might be
supersonic or subsonic that depends on inlet
condition of nozzle.
If at inlet M > 1, then flow is subsonic in
divergent sections with formation of shock.
If at inlet M < 1, so, after throat flow will be
supersonic and diverging section act as a
diffuser.
dA dp  1  M2 
= P  
2
 M
A 
Here dA = +ive
dp = –ive
So, M >1 for diverging section.
116. Statement (I) : Non-dimensional performance
curves are applicable to any pump in the
homologous series.
Statement (II) : Viscosity of water vaires with
temperature causing cavitations on suction
side.
Ans. (c)
Sol. Non-dimensional cures are defined for all
homologous machines and defines general
characteristic of machines.
It is vapour pressure not viscosity which
causes cavitation in suction side i.e. low
pressure region.
 IES MASTER

117. Statement (I) : In subsonic flow in a diverging
channel, it is possibel that the flow may
separate.
Statement (II) : In subsonic flow in a diverging
Sol. Since there is always a flow in the direction
of pressure gradi ent . So the pressure
gradient in x-direction under boundary layer
is zero and the flow is due to momentum

R
only or negligible while in y-direction, it is
channel, there is adverse pressure gradient in
zero.
the channel.
119. Statement (I) : Coolant and antifreeze refer to
Ans. (a)

TE
the same product
dA dp  1  M2  Statement (II) : Gas engines do not require
Sol. = P  2 
A  m  cooling
Here for statement I Ans. (c)
dA = +ive Sol. Antifreeze is mixed with coolant to avoid
AS
freezing of coolant in cold climate application
M < 1, so, 1 – M2 = +ive
of engine.
Means dp = +ive
All engines whether gas, or liquid or coal or
i.e., pressure at outlet should be more, So,
steam requires cooling.
flow may seperate.
Statement II is supporting the above as Poutlet 120. Statement (I) : Given a flow with velocity field
 
M

> Pinlet V,   V  0, if the flow is incompressible.

So, adverse pressure gradient will be there.
Statement (II) : Given a flow with velocity
118. Statement (I) : In a boundary layer formed by  
field V,      V   0.
uniform flow past a flat plate, the pressure
S

grdient in the x direction is zero. Ans. (d)

Statement (II) : In a boundary layer formed Sol. In flow velocity field v ,
by uniform flow past a flat plate, the pressure

IE

gradient in the y direction is negligible. v0

Ans. (b) The condition ensures that the f low is
irrotational not compressible.