JIPMER SOLVED PAPER

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 2

JIPMER SOLVED PAPER 2018

Held on 03.06.2018 (M)

Max. Marks : 800 Time : 2 12 Hrs

Section-I (PHYSICS) 8. If point charges Q1 = 2 × 10–7 C and Q2 = 3 ×

10–7 C are at 30 cm separation then find
1. Dimensions of force are
electrostatic force between them.
(a) M1L–1T–2 (b) M1L1T–2
(a) 6 × 10–3 N (b) 2 × 10–3 N
(c) M2L–1T–2 (d) M1L–1T–1 –3
(c) 3 × 10 N (d) 8 × 10–3 N
2. Which is wrong dimensionally?
9. If in isothermal process Dw work is done by a
(a) v = u + at (b) s = vt2
gas, then choose the incorrect option from the
1 2 following.
(c) s= at (d) E = mc2
2 (a) DU = 0 (b) DS ¹ 0
3. A vernier calliper has least count 0.1 mm. The (c) DT = 0 (d) DP = 0
percentage error in volume of cube of side 30 10. If a machine performs 4000 J of output work
mm is and 1000 J is energy loss due to friction then,
(a) 0.3% (b) 1% find efficiency of machine
(c) 3% (d) 0% (a) 20% (b) 25%
4. If current in inductor of inductance 5 mH is (c) 80% (d) 60%
varying as I = t2 e–2t then find time after which
11. For uranium nucleus, find relation between
voltage drop across inductor becomes zero.
mass (m) and volume (v).
(a) t = 1 sec (b) t = 3 sec
(c) t = 2 sec (d) t = 4 sec (a) m µV (b) mµ V
5. In YDSE S1 and S2 has intensity I and 9I
1
respectively. Find difference in intensity (c) m µV 2 (d) mµ
between points which has phase difference of V
p/2 and p. 12. Find Rnet between A and B.
(a) 10 I (b) 6 I
10 10 10
(c) 8 I (d) 4 I
A
6. In YDSE if white light is used then
(a) except center, there will be spectrum 40 40 20
(b) except center, no spectrum anywhere
(c) spectrum every where B
10 10 10
(d) spectrum at center only
7. If two bubbles of radius r1 and r2 are combined (a) 40 (b) 60
then find the radius of common surface. (c) 70 (d) 20
r1r2 r1r2 13. A particle is thrown vertically up with speed
(a) (b) 6 m/s. Find maximum height achieved.
r1 + r2 r2 - r1
(a) 0.9 meter (b) 3.6 meter
r1 + r2 (c) 1.8 meter (d) 1 meter
(c) r1r2 (d)
2
 3
14. A missile is fired at 30° angle from horizontal
2kAe0 2kAe 0
with a speed 90 m/s. Find time of flight. (a) (b)
d (k + 1)d
(a) 9 s (b) 20 s
(c) 40 s (d) 15 s 2kAe0
( k + 1) Ae0
15. Two identical capillary tube are tilted in liquid (c) (d)
2d (k 2 + 1)d
with 45° and 60° from vertical. Find ratio of
length of fluid in capillary. 22. Two parallel wire carries current I1 and I2 are
separated by distance d. Force per unit length
(a) 1: 2 2 (b) 1 : 2
of wire is F. Then
(c) 2 2 :1 (d) 1: 2 1
(a) F µ d (b) F µ
16. A real object is on principle axis of concave d
mirror of focal length 2m. Object distance from 1
pole is 8 m. Find image distance. (c) F µ d2 (d) Fµ
d2
(a) 2.66 m (b) 1.66 m
(c) ¥ (d) 2 m 23. Two concentric circular coil of radius 20 cm
and 30 cm carries current of 2A and 3A
17. Velocity is given by v = 4t(1 – 2t) then find time
respectively in opposite direction then magnetic
at which velocity is maximum.
field at centre will be :-
(a) 0.5 sec (b) 0.25 sec
(c) 0.45 sec (d) 1 sec (a) 4p´ 10-7 T (b) 2p´10-7 T
18. Find pressure on swimmer at a depth of 10 m (c) 2 ´10-7 T (d) zero
in water.
(a) 2 atm (b) 1 atm 24. VP - VQ = ?
(c) 3 atm (d) 4 atm
10
19. Find current, i. 10 Q
P
5 10 18
8
25
+ –

10V
10 20
i (a) 6.68 volt (b) 4.65 volt
(c) 8.72 volt (d) 7.11 volt
25. A capacitor has capacitance 2F, plate separation
5V 0.5 cm then area of plate will be
(a) 0.5 amp (b) 0.2 amp (a) 1130 cm2 (b) 1130 m2
(c) 2 amp (d) 0.25 amp (c) 1130 km 2 (d) None of these
20. If compressibility of material is 4 × 10–5 per atm, 26. Pressure in nonuniform cross-section tube will
pressure is 100 atm and volume 100 cm3 then be least, where
find DV (a) tube diameter is less
(a) 0.2 cm3 (b) 0.8 cm3 (b) speed is less
(c) 0.4 cm 3 (d) 0.6 cm3 (c) speed is more
21. Find capacitance of the system shown in figure. (d) pressure is same at each cross-section
d 27. For a permanent magnet, properties of material
d/2 should be
(a) high retentivity, high coercivity
P (b) low retentivity, low coercivity
k0 e
(c) high retentivity, low coercivity
(d) low retentivity, high coercivity
 4
28. A particle performing SHM for maximum speed 35. Which of the following represents isotope,
50 m/s and maximum acceleration isobar, isotones respectively?
100 m/s2 then time period of SHM will be
(a) 1 sec (b) 2p sec (a) (11 H, 24He), ( 12 C24 , 13 C26 ), ( 5 x11, 6 y31 )
(c) p sec (d) 2 sec
29. Two particles are moving in opposite direction (b) (11 H, 24He), ( 1 x 3 , 2 y4 ), ( 3 y4 , 5 z 6 )
with speed v1 and v2. What may be their velocity
in m/s if relative velocity is 6 m/sec? (c) (1 H1 , 1H3 ), (2 He3 , 1H3 ), (79 x197 , 80 y
190
)
(a) 4.2, 2.4 (b) 4.2, 1.8 (d) None of these
(c) 8.4, 3.6 (d) 4.7, 2.8 36. If accelerating voltage of X-ray tube is 13 kV
30. A nuclei of mass number A emits a particle. then find minimum wavelength of X-ray.
Speed of a particle is v then what is recoil
(a) 1 Å (b) 0.82 Å
speed of nucleus?
(c) 0.95 Å (d) 1.72 Å
Av 37. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s and in water
(a) (b) v
A -1 1480 m/s and frequency of sound is 1000 kHz
then find wavelength of water.
v æ A -1 ö
(c) (d) ç ÷v (a) 1.48 mm (b) 2.96 mm
A -1 è A ø
(c) 0.74 mm (d) 1 mm
31. Femer bone has base n average cross section 38. Loudness of sound depends on
area 100 cm2 supporting mass of 40 kg of man. (a) Amplitude (b) frequency
Find average pressure (in pascal). (c) wavelength (d) velocity
(a) 4 × 104 (b) 2 × 104 39. A mass of 200 gm has initial velocity
(c) 3 × 10–4 (d) 5 × 10–4
32. Two waves in string have same velocity. If V1 = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj and final velocity -2iˆ - 3 ˆj . Find
linear mass density of string are m1 = 5, m2 = 20 magnitude of change in momentum.
and T1 = 40 N then T2 = ? r r
(a) | Dp |= 0.8iˆ - 1.2 ˆj (b) | Dp |= 3.04
(a) 160 N (b) 1600 N
r r
(c) 150 N (d) 1500 N (c) | Dp |= 2.04 (d) | Dp |= 1.44
33. If two wires of length L1 and L2 and Young's 40. A spring of spring constant k is cut into three
modulus y1 and y2 are in series then effective equal parts. Find k of each.
Young's modulus is (a) 3k (b) k/3
y1 L1 + y2 L2 y1 L2 + y2 L1 (c) k (d) None of these
(a) (b) 41. 1000 N force is required to lift a hook and
L1 + L2 L1 + L2
10000 N force is required to lift a load slowly.
y1 y2 ( L1 + L2 ) y1 + y2 Find power required to lift hook with load with
(c) L1 y2 + L2 y1
(d) speed v = 0.5 m/sec.
2
(a) 5 kW (b) 5.5 kW
34. A positive charge particle is released in electric
(c) 1.5 kW (d) 4.5 kW
field in case (a) it is just released and in case
42. For nuclear reaction, select correct statement
(b) it has initial speed v0 along electric field. If
for releasing energy.
after sometime its kinetic energy in case (a) and
(b) are k1, and k2 then (a) release energy per mass is more in fusion
(b) release energy per mass is more in fission
(a) k1 > k2 (b) k1 < k2
(c) release energy per atom is more in fusion
(c) k1 = k2 (d) None of these
(d) equal in both for per mass and per atom
 5
43. Density of sea water is more than that of fresh 48. Escape velocity when a body of mass m is thrown
water then for a boat floating, what will be vertically from the surface of the earth is v, what
true? will be the escape velocity of another body of
(a) Boat will be lower in sea water than fresh
mass 4 m is thrown vertically
water
(b) Boat will be lower in fresh water than sea (a) v (b) 2v
water (c) 4v (d) None of these
(c) Boat will be lower at same level in both 49. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The
(d) None of these coeficient of linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What
44. If minimum deviation = 30° then speed of light will be the percentage increase in length?
in prism is (a) 0.01% (b) 0.1%
(c) 1% (d) 10%
60 50. A graph is plotted with PV/T on y-axis and mass
of the gas along x-axis for different gases. The
graph is
3 2 (a) a straight line parallel to x-axis for all the
(a) ´108 m / s (b) ´ 108 m / s
2 3 gases
1 2 (b) a straight line passing through origin with a
(c) ´108 m / s ´ 10 m / s
(d) slope having a constant value for all the
2 3
45. What is the ratio of speed of wave in medium gases
1 and 2? (c) a straight line passing through origin with a
slope having different values for different
P gases
3 cm 1.5 cm S (d) a straight line parallel to y-axis for all the
gases
51. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is
f0. Now the capacitance is made 4 times, then the
medium 1 medium 2 new resonance frequency will become
Q (a) f0/4 (b) 2f0
(c) f0 (d) f0/2.
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 r r
52. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
46. A cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of vectors of the electromagnetic waves, then the
inclination 30°, the acceleration of cylinder is direction of propagation of the waves will be
g along
(a) (b) g r
3 r r
(a) B ´ E (b) E
g 2g r r r
(c) (d)
2 3 (c) B (d) E ´ B
47. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs 53. The first line of Balmer series has wavelength
stretched. When she pulls her arms & legs in 6563 Å. What will be the wavelength of the first
(a) the angular velocity decreases member of Lyman series
(b) the moment of inertia decreases (a) 1215.4 Å (b) 2500 Å
(c) the angular velocity stays constant (c) 7500 Å (d) 600 Å
(d) the angular momentum increases
 6
54. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit 57. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius
voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are given were halved and the temperature doubled, the
A power radiated in watt would be :
Logic gate
Y
B
circuit (a) 450 (b) 1000
(c) 1800 (d) 225
58. The molecules of a given mass of gas have a root
1 mean square velocity of 200m s–1 at 27°C and 1.0
A
0 × 105 N m–2 pressure. When the temperature is
127°C and the pressure 0.5 × 105 Nm–2, the root
B 1 mean square velocity in ms–1, is
0 400
(a) (b) 100 2
3
1

Y 0 100 2 100
(c) (d)
3 3
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 59. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while
The logic gate is : the secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output
(a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate from the secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW, what is
(c) OR gate (d) AND gate the primary voltage?
55. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and (a) 200 V (b) 300 V
radius R about an axis, which is tangential to the (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
circumference of the disc and parallel to its 60. The transfer ratio b of transistor is 50. The input
diameter, is resistance of a transistor when used in C.E.
3 2 (Common Emitter) configuration is 1kW. The peak
(a) MR 2 (b) MR 2 value of the collector A.C current for an A.C input
2 3
voltage of 0.01V peak is
5 4 (a) 100 mA (b) .01 mA
(c) MR 2 (d) MR 2
4 5 (c) .25 mA (d) 500 mA
56. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the OH OH
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
CHO
move from A to B then : CHCl3 + OH
–
61.
v
m
Intermediate of above reaction is :
B C (a) : CCl2 (b) : CHCl
+ +
S C Cl3
(c) C HCl2 (d)
A D
62. In the given reaction
XeF6 + ................ ¾¾
® XeO3 + 6HF
(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2 Complete the reaction
(c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2 (a) 24 H2O (b) 3 H2O
(c) 6 H2O (d) 12 H2O
 7
63. Which of the following is organometallic Br
compound?
(a) Methyl lithium Br 2 + AlBr 3
(b) Lithium methoxide 71.
(c) Lithium dimethyl amide
(d) Lithium acetate Which is intermediate of above reaction?
64. Which of the following is correct for Lactose? – +
(a) It is non-reducing sugar Br Br
(b) There is [1, 4] glycosidic bond between (a) H (b) H
glucose and galactose
(c) There is [1, 4] glycosidic bond between –
glucose and fructose AlCl3
+ Br
(d) There is [1, 2] glycosidic bond between +
glucose and galactose (c) (d) AlBr3

CH3 CH2Cl
72. Which of the following is substitution reaction?
65. Cl CH3 and H H are :- +
ROH / H
R - C - OH ¾¾¾¾ ® R - C - OR
(a) || ||
H H H H O O
H CH3 OH
(a) Enantiomers
(b) +
H
(b) Conformers
D
(c) Positional isomers
(d) None of these R H2O/H
+ R OH
66. The time required to complete 3/4th of first (c) C=O C
R R OH
order reaction is 32 min, then find t 1 = ?
2
(d)R - MgBr + CH3COOH ¾¾ ®R - H
(a) 16 (b) 160 73. Increasing order of oxidation state of metal in
(c) 1600 (d) 32 KMnO4, MnCl2, MnO2, Mn(OH)3 is :
67. Which is amphoteric? (a) Mn(OH)3 < MnCl2 < MnO2 < KMnO4
(a) Al2O3 (b) CrO3
(b) KMnO4 < Mn(OH)3 < MnO2 < MnCl2
(c) BeO (d) CO2
68. Formula of plaster of paris is : (c) MnCl2 < Mn(OH)3 < KMnO4 < MnO2
(d) MnCl2 < Mn(OH)3 < MnO2 < KMnO4
1
(a) CaSO 4 × H 2 O (b) CaSO4 × 2H 2 O 74. Which of the following reaction is incorrect?
2
(a) KBr3 + I 2 ¾¾
® KI3 + Br2
(c) CaSO4 × H 2 O (d) CaSO4 × 4H 2 O
69. Heating vitamin B2 then colour will be : (b) KCl3 + F2 ¾¾
® KF3 + Cl2
(a) Yellow (b) Red
(c) Violet (d) Black (c) KBr3 + Cl2 ¾¾
® KCl3 + Br2
70. Which of the following is the component of (d) Li 2O + KCl ¾¾ ® K 2 O + LiCl
CsI3 lattice:
75. If 22 g benzene present in 100 g CCl4 then find
(a) Cs+, I– and I2 molecule
the % w/w of benzene in solution :
(b) Covalent bond
(a) 15% (b) 20%
(c) Cs+ and I– ions
(c) 12% (d) 18%
(d) Cs+ and I2
 8
76. Favourable condition for product formation in 80. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?
the given reaction. (a) CH3O– (b) H2O
1 +
SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ¾¾
® SO3 (g) ; (c) CH3– O – CH3 (d) CH3 – O – H
2 |
DH = – 42 kJ is H
(a) High pressure and low temperature 81. Which of the following have maximum lattice
(b) High temperature and low pressure energy?
(c) High temperature and high pressure
(a) LiF (b) CsCl
(d) Low temperature and low pressure
77. Find the concentration of glucose in blood (c) KBr (d) NaCl
which have osmotic pressure p = 7.7 atm at 82. Oxide ion form hcp lattice and Al3+ occupies
T = 25°C 2
of octahedral void then find the formula of
(a) 0.31 M (b) 0.45 M 3
(c) 0.56 M (d) 0.89 M compound :
78. Which of the following is correct? (a) Al2O3 (b) AlO2
(c) Al3O2 (d) AlO
H–Cl
(a) O–CH2–CH3
83. An atom form fcc lattice with density d = 8.92
g/mL and edge length a = 3.6 × 10–8 cm then
Cl find the molecular mass of atom in a.m.u.?
(a) 62 a.m.u (b) 93 a.m.u
+ CH3CH2OH
(c) 98 a.m.u (d) 32 a.m.u
84. Which of the following undergoes self
H–I oxidation and self reduction in same reaction?
(b) CH2 – O – CH3
(a) C7H8O (b) CH2O
(c) C3H7O (d) C2H4O
CH2OH + CH3I 85. Which of the following reaction produces
ethylacetoacetate?
CH3 (a) Cannizzaro reaction
–
(c) OH , D (b) Claisen reaction
N–CH3
CH3 (c) Reformatsky reaction
(d) Aldol reaction

CHO
H–I
(d) CH2 – OCH3
86. CH3COOCOCH3
P;
CH3COONa
CH2–I
Major product of above reaction :
+ CH3OH
(a) C6H5 – CH=CH–COOH
(b) C6H5 – COOH
79. Which of the following is not aromatic
heterocyclic? (c) C6H5 – CH=CH–COOCH3
(a) Pyrrole (b) Furan (d) C6H5–CH2–CHO
(c) Pyridine (d) Piperidine
 9
87. Which of the following alcohol will react fastest (b) P - (g) ¾¾
® P(g) + e -
with HCl?
(c) S- (g) ¾¾
® S(g) + e -
CH3
CH2OH Cl - (g) ¾¾
® Cl(g) + e -
(d)

(a) (b) 96. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct
order of acid strength is
OH (a) Al2O3 < SiO2< SO2 < P2O3
(b) SiO2< SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
CH3 H3C OH
(c) SO2< P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
OH
(c) (d) (d) Al2O3 < SiO2< P2O3 < SO2
97. Heavy water reacts respectively with CO2, SO3,
P2O5 and N2O5 to give the compounds :
88. In CaF2 lattice coordination number of Ca+2
and F– is: (a) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO2, DNO2
(a) 4, 4 (b) 8, 8 (b) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO2
(c) 4, 8 (d) 8, 4 (c) D2CO3, D2SO3, D3PO4, DNO2
89. Correct order of polarizing power is
(d) D2CO3, D2SO4, D3PO4, DNO3
(a) Be+2 > Mg+2 > Ca+2 > K+
(b) Be+2 > Ca+2 > Mg+2 > K+ 98. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (atomic number of Cr = 24) has a
(c) Mg+2 > Ca+2 > Be+2 > K+ magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. The correct
(d) Mg+2 > Be+2 > Ca+ > K+ distribution of 3d-elections in the chromium
90. Smallest bond angle in the following is present in the complex is
NCl3, PCl3, SbCl3, AsCl3
(a) 3d1xy ,3d1yz ,3d1zx
(a) NCl3 (b) PCl3
(c) SbCl3 (d) AsCl3
(b) 3d 1xy ,3d 1yz , 3d 1
91. In the reaction NaOH (hot and conc.) + Cl2 z2

¾¾
® NaCl + NaClO3 3d1 ,3d1 2 ,3d1zx
(c) (x 2 - y 2 ) z
Change in oxidation state of Cl2 is :
(a) 0 to –1 and +5 (b) 0 to –1 and +3 3d1xy , 3d1 , 3d1xz
(c) 0 to 0 and –1 (d) 0 to –1 and +7 (d) (x 2 - y 2 )
92. Most reactive nobel gas is : 99. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a
(a) Ar (b) Xe negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained
(c) He (d) Ne when they are in :
93. Cassiterite is ore of :
(a) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
(a) Sn (b) Mg
(c) Pb (d) Hg (b) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.2 M KI
94. If molar conductivity of Ca2+ = 119 and molar (c) 50 mL of 0.2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI
conductivity of Cl– = 71, then find the molar (d) none of these
conductivity of CaCl2 : 100. Lichens do not like to grow in cities
(a) 341 (b) 261 (a) because of absence of the right type of
(c) 126 (d) 431 algae and fungi
95. Which of the following transformation requires (b) because of lack of moisture
least energy? (c) because of SO2 pollution
(a) F- (g) ¾¾
® F(g) + e - (d) because natural habitat is missing
 10
101. In the first order reaction 107. Which of the following is not sp3 hybridised?
-1
2N 2O5 ¾ ¾® 4 NO 2 + O 2 , if a mol L is the (a) BH3 (b) BH -4
initial concentration of N 2 O5 , the concentration
of NO2 at time t will be (c) NH +4 (d) NH3
-kt - kt
(a) a e (b) a (1 - e ) 108. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(a) Rhombic S8 (b) Rhombic S6
(c) 2a ( e - kt -1) (d) 2a (1 - e - kt ) (c) Vapour S2 (d) None of these
109. Which h ave van't Hoff factor same as
CH3 K4 [Fe(CN)6]
102. Monomer of — C — CH2 — is (a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) Mg(NO3)2
(c) CaCl2 (d) NaNO3
CH3 n
110. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the
(a) 2-methylpropene (b) styrene hydrogen atom is -328 kJ mol -1; hence the
(c) propylene (d) ethene energy of fourth Bohr orbit would be:
103. The insecticide containing 99% g – isomer of (a) -41 kJ mol-1 (b) -82 kJ mol-1
benzene hexachloride is known as (c) -164 kJ mol-1 (d) -1312 kJ mol-1
(a) lindane (b) TNT 111. If radiation corresponding to second line of
(c) malathion (d) methoxychlor
"Balmer series" of Li2+ ion, knocked out electron
104. Following table represents critical temperature
from first excited state of H-atom, then kinetic
of some gases. Arrange these gases in their
energy of ejected electron would be:
increasing order of liquifaction.
(a) 2.55 eV (b) 4.25 eV
Gas H2 He N2 O2 (c) 11.25 eV (d) 19.55 eV
Tc / K 33.2 5.3 126 154.3 112. Flocculation value of BaCl2 is much less than
that of KCl for sol A and flocculation value of
(a) He < N2 < H2 < O2 Na2SO4 is much less than that of NaBr for sol B.
(b) H2 < He < N2 < O2 The correct statement among the following is :
(c) He < H2 < N2 < O2 (a) Both the sols A and B are negatively
(d) O2 < N2 < H2 < He charged.
105. 0.5 mole of each H2, SO2 and CH\4 are kept in a (b) Sol A is positively charged arid Sol B is
container. A hole was made in the container. After negatively charged.
3 h, the order of partial pressures in the container (c) Both the sols A and B are positively
will be charged.
(a) pSO 2 > pCH 4 > pH 2 (d) Sol A is negatively charged and sol B is
positively charged.
(b) pH 2 > pSO 2 > pCH 4
113. Among the following pairs of complexes, in
(c) pH 2 > pCH 4 > pSO 2 which case the D0 value is higher for the first
one?
(d) pSO 2 > pH 2 > pCH 4
106. What is Tg for polymer?
(a) [ Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ and [Co(CN)6 ]3-
(a) Melting point (b) [ CoF6 ]3– and [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
(b) Boiling point
(c) Glass transition temperature
(c) [ Co(H2 O)6 ]2+ and [Co(H 2O)6 ]3+
(d) None of these (d) [ Rh(H2 O)6 ]3+ and [ Co(H 2O)6 ]3+
 11
114. The correct order of increasing basicity is
O
||
NH O (i) OD - / Br
|| || 120. (CH 3 )3 C - C - NH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
2®
Product
CH 3CH 2 NH 2 CH3 C NH 2 (ii)D2O
CH3 C NH 2
I II III P is
(a) II < III < I (b) I » III < II (a) (CH3)3 CNH2 (b) (CH3)3 CNHD
(c) I < II < III (d) III < I < II (c) (CH3)3CND2 (d) no reaction
115. For the reaction taking place at certain Section-III (BIOLOGY)
temperature
121. Shape of chloroplast of Ulothrix is
ˆˆ† 2NH 3 ( g ) + CO 2 ( g ) ,
NH 2 COONH 4 ( s ) ‡ˆˆ
(a) Star shaped (b) Bond shaped
if equilibrium pressure is 3X bar then DrG° would (c) Girdled shaped (d) Spinal
be
(a) – RT ln 9 – 3RT ln X 122. Which one is parasitic algae?
(b) RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X (a) Oedogonium (b) Cephaleuros
(c) – 3RT ln X (c) Spirogyra (d) Cladophora
(d) None of these 123. Palmella statge is present in
116. Why only As3+ gets precipitated as As2S3 and (a) Aspergillus (b) Cystopus
not Zn2+ as ZnS when H2S is passed through an (c) Chlamydomonas (d) None
acidic solution containing As3+ and Zn 2+? 124. Peyer's patches are present in
(a) Solubility product of As2S3 is less than that
of ZnS (a) Ileum
(b) Enough As3+ are present in acidic medium (b) Jejunum
(c) Zinc salt does not ionise in acidic medium (c) Duodenum
(d) Solubility product changes in presence of (d) Sacculus rotandus
an acid 125. What is function of kupffer's cell?
117. Osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is (a) Bile secretion
1.64 atm and that of 3.42% cane sugar is 2.46
(b) Digestion of lipid
atm. When the above two solutions are mixed,
the osmotic pressure of the resulting solution (c) Phagocytic
is: (d) Digestion of protein
(a) 0.82 atm (b) 2.46 atm 126. Histamine is secreted by
(c) 1.64 atm (d) 4.10 atm (a) Mast cells (b) Kupffer's cells
118. For an isothermal reversible expansion process, (c) Oxyntic cells (d) Neutrophils
the value of q can be calculated by the 127. Which is not a derivative of cholesterol?
expression (a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin D
V2 (c) Bile salts (d) Steroid
(a) q = 2.303nRT log
V1 128. Rooting plant hormone is
(a) IBA (b) 2, 4,-D
V2
(b) q = -2.303nRT log (c) 2,4,5-T (d) NAA
V1
V1 129. Conditions required for cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) q = -Pexp nRT log V (a) Aerobic condition, low light intensity
2
(d) None of these (b) Aerobic condition, optimum light intensity
119. Which is correct for cellulose? (c) Aerobic condition, low light intensity
(a) branched, a(1, 4) – glucose (d) Aerobic condition, optimum light intensity
(b) unbranched, a(1, 6) – glucose 130. R.Q. of malic acid
(c) unbranched, b(1, 4) – glucose (a) 1.9 (b) 1.49
(d) branched, a(1, 4) and b(1, 6) glucose (c) 1.33 (d) 1
 12
131. Oxysome is composed of 141. Cdk - inhibitor inhibits:
(a) Lipid + carbohydrates (a) P-53 (b) P-21
(b) Lipid + protein (c) P-12 (d) None
(c) Carbohydrates 142. Cell wall of fungi is composed of :
(d) Protein (a) Chitin (b) Pectin
132. Daily requirement of vitamin A for women (c) Cellulose (d) Mannans
(a) 500 microgram (b) 700 microgram 143. Which motile-stage of portozoa is helpful in
(c) 900 microgram (d) 300 microgram feeding?
133. Which is function of calcium? (a) Pseudopodium (b) Cilia
(a) Blood clotting (c) Flagella (d) Tentacles
(b) Muscular contraction 144. Which one mRNA can be transcripted?
(c) Nerve conduction
(a) AUG.UGA.UUU (b) UAA.UAV.UGG
(d) All of the above
(c) UAG.UGA.UUV (d) UGA.UUV.UGG
134. Inhibin is composed of
145. Purkinje's fibres are found in :
(a) Glycoprotein
(a) Heart (b) Liver
(b) Lipoprotein
(c) Steroid (c) Brain (d) Lungs
(d) Amino acid derivative 146. Function of hypothalamus is :
135. Formation of corpus luteum is induced by (a) Thermoregulation
(a) LH (b) Estrogen (b) Water balance
(c) FSH (d) Progesterone (c) Control of hormone function
136. Which is present in urine of pregnant woman (d) All of above
(a) HCG (b) LH 147. Caryopsis is present in
(c) Estrogen (d) FSH (a) Wheat (b) Groundnut
137. Poison of mushroom inhibits formation of (c) Coconut (d) Mango
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA 148. Which one is anti-allergic antibody?
(c) tRNA (d) hnRNA (a) lg A (b) lg G
138. What is ribotide? (c) lg E (d) lq D
(a) Ribose + uracil + phosphate 149. What is role of sterol in cell membrane?
(b) Deoxyribose + uracil + phosphate (a) Stability
(c) deoxyribose + Thymine + phosphate (b) Communication with other cells
(d) Ribose + Thymine + phosphate (c) Secretion
139. Which is formed in G2? (d) Transport
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA 150. AB blood group shows
(c) DNA (d) tRNA (a) Co-dominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
140. (c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Pleiotropy
151. During apoptosis why adjust tissues are not
inflamed :
(a) Phagocytes or macrophages are not
involved
(b) Process invovle killing of cell due to
reduced blood supply
(c) DNA of cell doesn't have genes for
Above diagram represents apoptosis
(a) Anaphase-I (b) Metaphase-I (d) Basophils and eosinophil play an
(c) Telophase-I (d) Prophase-I important role
 13
152. Which is derived from triterpenes? (d) Crossing over occurs between non sister
(a) Cholesterol (b) Growth hormone chromatids in meiosis-I
(c) Thyroxin (d) Vitamin B12 163. Correct sequence is :
153. Non-disjunction in meiosis results in : (a) Zygote ® Cleavage ® Morula ® Blastula
(a) Trisomy (b) Normal diploid ® Gastrula
(c) Gene mutation (d) None (b) Cleavage ® Zygote ® Morula ® Blastula
154. XXY genotype shows : ® Gastrula
(a) Male (b) Hermaphrodite (c) Zygote ® Morula ® Blastula ® Cleavage
(c) Female (d) Super female ® Gastrula
155. Which of these is incorrect for C4-plants? (d) Zygote ® Blastula ® Morula ® Cleavage
(a) Kranz anatomy ® Gastrula
(b) CO2 acceptor is PEP
(c) PEPcase in emsophyll
(d) RUBISCO in mesophyll 164.
156. Which is incorrect for chloroplast?
(a) Presence in algae and plants
(b) Release O2
(c) Occurs only in cells with aerobic
respiration
(d) None
157. Non-essential amino acid is
(a) Valine (b) Arginine (a) Autosomal dominant
(c) Histidine (d) Lysine (b) X-Linked dominant
158. Which of these is an extension of nuclear (c) Atomsomal recessive
membrane and involved in secretion out of cell? (d) X-Linked recessive
(a) ER (b) Golgi body 165. Which is correct for low glycemic index of food
(c) Ribosome (d) Lysosome except?
159. Protein are needed in diet because (a) Release glucose slowly
(a) All amino acids are not available in body (b) Induce quick release of insulin
(b) During fasting body utilized proteins (c) harmful for diabetic patient
(c) Proteins act as building blocks of our body (d) Adversely affect blood glucose levels
(d) All of the above 166. Which is used in tissue culture?
160. Protein uptake in nucleus occurs by (a) Explant (b) Somaclones
(a) ATP hydrolysis in cytoplasm (c) Hybridization (d) None
(b) GTP hydrolysis in cytoplasm 167. Gene transfer is present in
(c) ATP hydrolysis in nucleus (a) Biolistics
(d) GTP hydrolysis in nucleus (b) Hybridization
161. Omega-3 fatty acid is present in (c) Tissue culture
(a) Sun flower oil (b) Flax seed oil (d) Vegetative propagation
(c) Ground nut oil (d) Butter 168. Linker-DNA is attached to
162. Which is incorrect for non-disjunction? (a) H1 (b) H2A
(a) Homologous chromosomes are not (c) H2B (d) H3
separated in meiosis-I 169. What is acrosomal reaction?
(b) Sex chromatids are not separated in (a) Contact of sperms with egg
meiosis-II (b) Digestion of zona pellucida
(c) Crossing over occurs between non sister (c) Disintegration of acrosome
chromatids in mitosis (d) Contact of acrosome and nucleus of egg
 14
170. Which is present at 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA?
(a) Poly A tail (b) Modified C at 5'
(c) 7 mG (d) Poly C
171. ATCCAG DNA form which mRNA
(a) UAGGUC (b) TAGGTC
(c) UAGCUG (d) TAGCUG
172. Loss of water from body occurs by all of the
following except
(a) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells;
(a) Muscles (b) Lungs
(c) Kidney (d) Skin C – chloroplast
173. Pollen kitt is present in (b) A – Guard cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C –
(a) Anemophilly (b) Entamophily Stomatal pore
(c) Malacophilly (d) Zoophilly (c) A – Guard cells; B – Epidermal cells; C –
174. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are formed Guard cells
in glycolysis? (d) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C
(a) 2 (b) 1 – Guard cells
(c) 15 (d) 16 179. Match the epithetial tissue given in column-I
175. Molecular formula of chl. b is with its location given in column-II and choose
(a) C55H70O6N4Mg (b) C55H72O5N4Mg the correct option.
(c) C55H70O5N4Mg (d) C54H70O6N4Mg Column I Column II
176. Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton (Epithelial tissue) (Location)
composed of A. Cuboidal I. Epidermis of skin
(a) calcium hydroxide
B. Ciliated II. Inner lining of
(b) calcium sulphate
blood vessels
(c) calcium carbonate
C. Columnar III. Inner surface of
(d) sodium bicarbonate
177. Which one of the following statements is gall bladder
correct? D. Squamous IV. Inner lining of
(a) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem. fallopian tube
(b) Cloves of Allium sativum are fleshy scale E. Keratinized V. Lining of
leaves. pancreatic duct
(c) Corm of Colocasia is a modified root. squamous
(d) Tendril in Vitis vinifera is a modified axillary (a) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – III; E – I
bud. (b) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I
178. The given diagrams show stomatal apparatus in
(c) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
dicots and monocots. Which one is correct option
for A, B and C? (d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
180. Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to
(a) their genetic constitution.
(b) effect of hormone.
(c) changes of turgor pressure in guard cells.
(d) pressure of gases inside the leaves.
 15
Section-IV 186. She spends her money lavishly.
(ENGLISH COMPREHENSIVE) (a) carefully (b) foolishly
(c) generously ? (d) madly
Directions (Q.181-184): In each of the questions
given below, a/an idiom/phrase is given in underline 187. The judge delivered his verdicts at 1 PM.
which is then followed by four options which then try (a) liberated (b) pronounced ?
to decipher its meaning as used in the sentence. (c) surrendered (d) transferred
Choose the option which gives the meaning of the
Directions (Q.188-190): In the questions given below,
idiom/phrase most appropriately in context of the
a sentence is given with an underlined word followed
given sentence.
by four options. Select the option that is opposite in
181. The kids had a field day at the carnival. meaning to the underlined word.
(a) a very tough day
188. She is very serious by temperament.
(b) a very boring day
(a) stupid (b) grave
(c) a very enjoyable time ?
(c) trivial (d) sober
(d) an unpleasant day
189. He has a fine ear for music.
182. It's time to go home, let's call it a day.
(a) smooth (b) coarse
(a) finish the work fast
(c) closed (d) small
(b) to stop doing something ?
190. There is no likeness between her and her sister.
(c) move fast
(a) disaffinity (b) unlikeliness
(d) do or die
183. I am feeling a bit under the weather. (c) unlikelihood (d) dissimilarity
(a) feeling slightly ill ? Section-V (LOGICAL A ND
(b) feeling great QUANTITATIVE REASONING)
(c) attracted towards the nature
191. Pointing to Kamal, Sheeba said , " His mother's
(d) feeling disgusted brother is the father of my son Akilesh". How is
184. Scoring 10 runs in 16 balls was a cake walk for Kamal related to Sheeba?
the batsman.
(a) Niece (b) Nephew
(a) a very tough task
(c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law
(b) a boring task
192. Raman walks 5 km towards south and then turns
(c) an unachievable tasks to the right. After walking 3 km, he turns to the
(d) an easy task left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he
from the starting place?
Directions (Q.185-187): In the questions given below,
a sentence is given with an underlined word followed (a) West (b) East
by four options. Select the option that is nearest in (c) South (d) North
meaning to the underlined word. 193. Complete the given series by replacing "?" :
185. The food was available in profusion. H17I, K23L, N29O, ?

(a) plentiful ? (b) scarcity (a) P35R (b) Q25R

(c) dearth (d) deficiency (c) P17R (d) Q35R
 16
194. In a certain code language, "RUST" is coded as 198. Find the missing number
"5642" and "TEAM" is coded as "2783". What
group of letters can be formed for the code (1)2 ¬ 1 9 ® (3)2 9 25
"364275"
(a) MUESRT (b) MUSTER
(c) MUSAER (d) MUSSAR 25 ® (5)2 ?
195. Choose the answer figure which completes the
problem figure matrix:
Problem Figure (2)2 ¬ 4 16 ® (4)2

36 ® (6)2

Similarly,
? (3)2 ¬ 9 25 ® (5)2

Answer Figures
? ® (7)2 = 49

(a) 49 (b) 64
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 8 (d) 27
196. Statements:
199. Complete the given series
I. All goats are kites.
5, 11, 23, 43, ?
II. Some goats are rolls
(a) 72 (b) 63
Choose the conclusion that follows the given
statements: (c) 73 (d) 83
(a) All kites are goats. 200. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to
(b) All rolls are kites. the face with number 4?
(c) Some rolls are kites.
(d) No kites are rolls. 2 6
197. Rajneesh is 5 ranks ahead of Aman in a class of 3 3
1 5
46 students. If Aman's rank is twelfth from the
last, what is Rajneesh's rank from the start?
(a) 29 (b) 31 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 28 (d) 30 (c) 2 (d) 1
 17

Hints and Solutions

Section-I (PHYSICS) colour for this value of l will be visible at
that point. Hence, interference fringes will
1. (b) Force = mass ×acceleration
be coloured. However, centre of coloured
Mass = [MLoTo], acceleration = [MoLT–2]
fringe will be white.
\ Force = [MLoTo] [MoLT–2] = [MLT–2]
7. (b) When two bubbles of radius r 1 and r2 are
2. (b) S = Vt2
combined then radius of common surface
[MoLTo] = [MoLT–1] [MoLoT2] is given by
[MoLTo] ¹ [MoLT] rr
r= 12
r2 - r1
Dl
3. (b) Percentage error = 3 ´100% 8. (a) Electrostatic force is given by
l
1 q1q 2
4. (a) Relation between voltage and current in F=
4pe 0 r 2
inductance circuit is given by
dI
V0 = - L Now I = t2 e–2t 9 ´ 109 ´ 2 ´ 10 -7 ´ 3 ´ 10 -7
dl =
(30)2 ´ 10 -4
2 -2t
d (t e )
V0 = -L = 6 ´ 10 -3 N
dl
9. (d)
According to question
output work
2 -2t 10. (c) Efficiency =
d (t e ) heat taken
0 = -L = – L (2te–2t +(–2)e–2tt2)
dt
4000 4
= 2e–2t t(1-t) = 0 Þ t = 1s = = ´ 100 = 80%
4000 + 1000 5
5. (b) For Phase difference p/2
11. (a) Volume of a nucleus is proportional to its
I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos f mass number

= I + 9I + 2 I9I cos p / 2 æ 4 3ö
çè pR ÷ø µ A
3
= 10 I
For Phase difference p 12. (a)
u 2 62 36
I = I + 9I – 6I = 4I 13. (c) H= = = = 1.8
2g 2g 20
Difference in intensity = 10I–4I = 6I
1
6. (a) White light is used, when at a particular 2 ´ 90 ´
14. (a) T= 2 =9
point, condition for constr uctive
10
interference may be satisfied only for
some particular value of l. Therefore, 15. (d)
 18
16. (a) Given f = –2 m, u = –8 m 37. (a) v = f l
1 1 1 Þ 1480 = (1000 ´103 )l
= +
f u v
Þ l = 1.480 mm
1 1 1 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
= +
-2 -8 v 41. (b) P = F.V = (1000 + 10000)0.5

1 1 1 - 4 + 1 -3 11000
Þ = + = = = = 5500 = 5.5 kW
v -2 8 8 8 2
42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a)
-8
Þv= = -2.66 m 46. (a) Remember that acceleration of a cylinder
3
down a smooth inclined plane is
Image distance = 2.66 m
17. (b) v = 4t(1 – 2t) N mN
Þ v = 4t – 8t2
For maximum velocity mg sin q m g cos q
xmg
dv q
= 0 Þ 4 - 16t = 0
dt
4 mR 2
Þ t= = 0.25 s g sin q
16 a= where I = is the
æ I ö 2
18. (a) 19. (a) ç1 + ÷
è mR 2 ø
DV
20. (c) Compressibility = moment of Inertia for cylinder
PV
1
Þ DV = 4 ´ 10-5 ´ 100 ´ 100 = 0.4 cm3 g sin 30° g´
a= = 2 =g
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b) æ mR 2 1 ÷ö 1 3
ç1 + ´ 1+
ç 2 mR ÷ø
2 2
e0 A è
25. (d) C=
d 47. (b) Since no external torque act on gymnast,
so angular momentum (L=I ω ) is conserved.
Cd (2)(0.5 ´ 10 -2 )
A= = After pulling her arms & legs, the angular
e0 8.85 ´ 10 -12
velocity increases but moment of inertia of
A = 1.130 × 109 m2 gymnast, decreases in, such a way that
26. (b) angular momentum remains constant.
27. (a) We prefer materials having high 48. (a) Escape velocity does not depend upon the
retentitivity and high coercivity for making mass of the body.
permanent magnet. Δl
28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c) 49. (b) = α Δ T = 10 -5 ´ 100 = 10 -3
l
Mg 40 ´ 10
31. (a) P= = = 4 ´ 10 4 Δl
A 100 ´ 10 -4 ´ 100% = 10 -3 ´ 100
l
32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c)
36. (b) = 10 - 1 = 0.1%
 19
54. (a) From the given waveforms, the truth table
PV æ mö PV æ R ö
50. (c) = nR = ç ÷ R or =ç ÷ m is as follows.
T è Mø T è Mø

PV A B Y
i.e. versus m graph is straight line
T 1 1 0
passing through origin with slope R/M, i.e. 0 0 1
the slope depends on molecular mass of 0 1 1
the gas M and is different for different 1 0 1
gases.
51. (d) In LCR series circuit, resonance frequency
The above truth table is for NAND gate.
f0 is given by
Therefore, the logic gate is NAND gate.
1 1 55. (c) Moment of inertia of disc about its diameter
Lw = Þ w2 =
Cw LC 1
is I d = MR 2
4
1
\w= = 2 pf 0
LC I

R
1 1 Id
\ f0 = or f0a
2p LC C
When the capacitance of the circuit is made
4 times, its resonant frequency become f 0' MI of disc about a tangent passing through
rim and in the plane of disc is
f0' C f
\ = or f0' = 0 I = I G + MR 2 =
1 5
MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2
f0 4C 2 4 4
52. (d) Direction of propagation of Electro- 56. (b) According to Kepler’s law, the areal
magnetic waves is perpendicular to electric velocity of a planet around the sun always
field and magnetic field. Hence direction is remains constant.
given by pointing SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant)
SAB : A2 – t2
E´B A1 A 2
vector S = E ´ H = . = ,
m0
t1 t2
A
1 é1 1 ù 5R t1 = t2 . 1 , (given A1 = 2A2)
53. (a) = Rê 2 - 2ú= , A2
l Balmer ë2 3 û 36
2A 2
= t2 .
A2
1 é 1 1 ù 3R
= Rê - ú =
l Lyman ë12 22 û 4 \ t1 = 2t2
57. (c) Given r1 = 12 cm , r2 = 6 cm
5 T1 = 500 K and T2 = 2 × 500 = 1000 K
\ l Lyman = l Balmer ´ = 1215.4Å
27 P1 = 450 watt
 20
Rate of power loss P µ r 2 T 4 Vs 0.01
60. (d) iB = = = 1 ´ 10-5 A
R in 103
P1 r12 T14
= Now b of transistor is defined as
P2 r22 T24
ic
bac =
r 2T 4 ib
P2 = P1 22 24
r1 T1
or i c = 50 ´10 -5 = 500mA
Solving we get, P2 = 1800 watt
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
c2 400 2
58. (a) = = 61. (a)
c1 300 3
–Cl –
CHCl3 + NaOH ¾¾
® CCl3 ¾¾¾® : CCl 2
2 400
Þ c2 = ´ 200 = ms -1 Dichlorocarbene is
3 3 intermediate in this
59. (a) NP = 400, NS = 2000 and VS = 1000 V. reaction.
Riemer - Tiemann reaction is electrophilic
VP N P
= substitution reaction and electrophile is
VS NS
dichlorocarbene.

VS ´ N P 1000 ´ 400 62. (b) XeF6 + 3H 2O ¾¾

® XeO3 + 6HF
or, VP = = = 200V.
NS 2000 63. (a) LiCH 3 have metal carbon bond so
considered organometallic compound and
other do not have.

64. (b) In Lactose there is [1, 4] glycosidic linkage between glucose and galactose.

6 6
CH2OH CH2OH
O 5 O
HO 5 H OH
H H
4 1 O 4 1
OH H
H 3 2 H OH H H
3 2
H OH
H OH
(I) (II)
b - D - Galactose Lactose b - D - Glucose
 21
65. (c) 72. (a) Reaction involving replacement of –OH
group:

CH3 CH2Cl O O
.–.
Cl CH3 G –
H H R–C–OH R–C–G + OH
Strong base so not a Basicity must be
H H H H good leaving group less than basicity of G –
H CH3
CH3 - CH 2 - CH - CH3 CH 2- CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3 This is nucleophilic substitution reactions.
| |
Cl Cl 73. (d) KMnO4 O.N. of Mn = +7
2-Chlorobutane 1-Chlorobutane MnCl2 O.N. of Mn = +2
MnO2 O.N. of Mn = +4
Both are position isomer to each other. Mn(OH)3 O.N. of Mn = +3

66. (a) t 3 = 2t 1 = 32 min. 74. (b) F3! ion cannot be formed as it does not
4 2 have vacant d orbital.

t 1 = 16 min. Mass of benzene

75. (d) %w / w = ´ 100
2 Total mass
67. (a) Al2O3 react with both acid and base so it
22 22
show amphoteric nature. = ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 18%.
22 + 100 122
1
68. (a) CaSO 4 × H 2 O 1
2 76. (a) SO2 + O 2 ¾¾ ® SO3
2
Hemihydrate calcium sulphate is called
At high pressure in forward direction.
plaster of paris (POP).
So, SO3 mole are increased.
69. (c)
77. (a) p = CRT
70. (a) ® Cs + + I - + I 2 vapour.
CsI3 ¾¾ 7.7 = C × 0.082 × 298
71. (b) Step 1: Formation of electrophile (Br+)
7.7
ˆˆ† [FeBr4 ]– + Br +
Br – Br + FeBr3 ‡ˆˆ C= ´ 100 = 0.31
24.44
Step 2: Electrophilic attack and removal of
78. (d)
proton to give bromo benzene
+
Br H–Cl
O – CH2 – CH3 ¾¾®
[FeBr4]–
+ Br + ¾® H ¾¾¾® Ph – OH + CH3 – CH2 – Cl
Electrophile
Benzene Intermediate

H–I
CH2 – O – CH3 ¾¾®
Br
Ph – CH2 – I + CH3OH

Bromobenzene
 22
2
CH3 Al+3 ¾¾
® ´ O.V
3
–
OH , D 2
N – CH3 ¾¾¾® = ´6 = 4
3
CH3 + (CH3)3N Al4O6 = Al2O3

ZA
83. (a) d=
CH2 – OCH3 ¾ ¾®
H–I NA a3
Ph – CH3 – I + CH3OH
4´A
Þ 8.92 =
23
79. (d) 6 ´ 10 ´ (3.6 ´ 10 –8 )3
N
|
H 8.92 ´ 6 ´ (3.6)3
ÞA= = 62.
40
Piperidine is not aromatic as there is no
84. (b) Cannizzaro reaction : Aldehydes which do
delocalisation of pe–s.
not have an a-hydrogen atom, undergo
Å self oxidation and reduction
80. (d) CH3 - O - H
| (disproportionation) reaction on treatment
H with a concentrated alkali.
is not a nucleophile, since it is not an
H
electron rich species. C = O + conc. KOH
+ - H
81. (a) L.E. µ | Z || Z |
Formaldehyde
1 H
µ of ion O
Size
H–C–OH + H – C
So, LiF should have highest L.E. OK
H
82. (a) O 2 - ¾¾
® hcp lattice Methanol Potassium
formate
Þ 6 ion

O O
|| ||
85. (b) CH3 - C - CH 2 - C - O - C 2 H5

(ethyl aceto acetate)

This is a b-keto ester which is formed by claisen ester condensation.

O
C 2H 5ONa
CH3COOC2H5 + HCH2COOC2H5 CH3CCH2COOC2H5 + C2H5OH
Ethylacetate Ethyl acetoacetate
(b-ketoester)
 23
86. (a) Perkin reaction : ° °
When aromatic aldehyde like benzaldehyde
94. (b) L m(CaCl2) = l Ca 2 + + 2l Cl-
is treated with anhydride in the presence = 119 + 2 × 71 = 261 S cm2 mol–1
of sodium salt of acid from which 95. (b) Let us consider the opposite process :
anhydri de i s deri ved we get a,
(a) F(g) + e - ¾¾
® F- (g) ; DH1
b-unsaturated acid.
(b) ® P - (g) ; DH2
P(g) + e - ¾¾
CHO
(CH 3CO) 2 / CH 3COONa (c) S(g) + e - ¾¾
® S- (g) ; DH3
(d) Cl(g) + e - ¾¾
® Cl - (g) ; DH4
Benzaldehyde
Order of energy releases is :
DH4 > DH1 > DH3 > DH2
b a
CH=CH – COOH So, P - (g) ¾¾
® P(g) + e - requires least
energy.
Cinnamic acid 96. (d) As the size increases, the basic nature of
oxides changes to acidic nature i.e., acidic
87. (d) CH3 OH nature increases.

SO 2 > P 2 O 3 > SiO 2 > Al 2 O 3

Acidic Weak Amphoteric
acidic
3° Alcohol
SO 2 and P 2 O 3 are acidic as their
Tertiary alcohol is more basic than corresponding acids H2SO3 and H3PO3 are
secondary and primary, hence react fastest strong acids.
with HCl. 97. (d)
88. (d) Ca+2occupy at fcc lattice site and F– 98. (a) Magnetic moment indicates that there are
occupy at tetrahedral void so C.N. of Ca +2 thr ee unpaired electrons present in
= 8 and F– C.N. = 4. chromium. These must be present in lower
89. (a) Polarising power µ charge of cation energy orbitals which are 3d1xy, 3d1yz and
3d1xz.
1 99. (b)
µ
size of cation AgNO3 + KI ® AgI ( s ) + KNO3
¾¾
Be+2 > Mg+2 > Ca+2 > K+
5 × 10–3 10 × 10–3
90. (c) Bond angle µ EN of central atom
0 5 × 10–3 5 × 10–3
NCl3 > PCl3 > AsCl3 > SbCl3
AgI ( s ) + I- ¾¾ ® AgI : I-
91. (a) OH - + Cl 2 ¾¾
® Cl - + ClO3- Negative charge colloids.
0 -1 +5
100. (c) Because they are very sensitive to sulphur
92. (b) As size increases, I.E. decreases and
dioxide and in cities the amount of SO2 is
reactivity of noble gas increases, so Xe is
high so lichen do not grow in cities.
most reactive.
101. (d)
93. (a) Cassiterite is SnO2 ore.
 24
-1312
é CH3 ù Given E 4 = = –82 kJ mol–1
ê | ú 42
102. (a) Monomer of —
ê C — CH 2 —
ú 111. (d) Energy of photon corresponding to
ê | ú
ëê CH3 ûú n second line of Balmer series for Li2+ ion

2é 1 1ù
polymer is 2-methylpropene. = (13.6 ) ´ (3 ) ê 2 - 2 ú
103. (a) Lindane or gammexane is g-isomer of BHC. ë2 4 û
104. (c) More will be critical temperature easier is
27
the liquifaction of the gas. Hence correct = 13.6 ´
16
order will be
He< H2 < N2 < O2. Energy needed to eject electron from n = 2
105. (a) Extent of diffusion H2 > CH4 > SO2 because level in H-atom;

1 2 é 1 1 ù 13.6
rate of diffusion µ = 13.6 ´ 1 ´ ê 2 - 2 ú Þ
molar mass ë2 ¥ û 4
Order of partial pressure after diffusion is K.E. of ejected electron
pSO 2 > pCH 4 > pH 2
9 ´ 3 13.6 æ 27 - 4 ö
106. (c) A glass transition temperature (Tg) is the = 13.6 ´ - = 13.6 ´ ç ÷
16 4 è 16 ø
temperature at which a polymer turns from
Þ 19.55 eV
a ductile material to a hard, brittle material.
112. (b) In first case the given compounds have
107. (a) ® sp 2
BH3 ¾¾ NH +4 ¾¾
® sp3 same anion but different cations having
different charge hence they will precipitate
BH 4- ¾¾
® sp3 ® sp 3
NH 3 ¾¾ negatively charged sol i.e. ‘A’.
108. (c) S 2 vapour is paramagnetic like O 2 . In second case the given compounds have
According to MOT it contain 2 unpaired similar cation but different anion with
electron in p*p orbital. different charge. Hence they will precipitate
109. (a) i for K4[Fe(CN)6] is 5 and equal to i of positively charged sol. i.e. ‘B’.
Al2(SO4)3. 113. (d) In complexes [Rh(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ and
Since the given reaction is exothermic and [Co(H2O)6]3+, central metal cations have
Dng is –ve hence low temperature and same oxidation state as well as same
high pressure will favour the forward ligands and they fall in same group, but D0
reaction and hence more will be the of [Rh(H2O)6]3+ > D0 of [Co(H2O)6]3+
formation of SO3. because Rh3+ has high Zeff value than Co3+.
-1312 114. (d) II is most basic because delocalisation of
110. (b) We know that En = kJ mol-1
n2 electron pair leads to negative charge on N
making it electron-rich and hence liable to
-1312
n2 = kJ mol -1 be attacked by proton very easily.
–328 Moreover, the corresponding protonated
n=4 (Fourth Bohr orbit) species is very much stable because of
equivalent contributing structures.
 25
.. –..
NH .NH
.
H+
CH3 C CH3 C +
NH
.. 2 NH2
+
II NH2 NH2
CH3 C + CH3 C
NH2 NH2

Species III is least basic because of delocalisation of electron pair on N, making it less available for
protonation. Species I lies in mid-way, thus
..
O NH
.. .. ..
CH3 C NH2 < CH3CH2 NH2 < CH3 C NH2
III I II

115. (d) DG° = – RT ln KP; KP = (2X)2 X = 4X3 120. (c) Remember that in Hofmann
DG° = – RT ln (4X3) rearrangement, the two original H atoms
of the –CONH2 group are removed by
DG° = – RT ln 4 – 3RT ln X
base (OH–) and new H’s are derived from
116. (a) Ksp of As2S3 is less than ZnS. In acid
H2O.
medium ionisation of H2S is suppresed
(common ion effect) and Ksp of ZnS does O
||
not exceed. (i) OD – /Br
(CH 3 )3 C - C - NH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾®
2
(ii)D2O
117. (d) Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
Hence resulting osmotic pressure of the (CH3 )3 C - ND2
solution is given by
pT = p1 + p2 + p3 .......... Section-III (BIOLOGY)
pT = 1.64 + 2.46 = 4.10 atm. 121. (c) Spirogyra cell has a single girdle-like and
parietal chloroplast and two to many
V2
118. (a) q = –W = 2.303nRTlog pyrenoids are present in each chloroplast.
V1
122. (b) Cephaleuros is a genus of parasitic
6 thalloid green algae comprising
119. (c) CH 2OH
b(1® 4) O approximately 14 species. Its common
H 5 O
6
CH2OH 4 H 1 name is red rust.
OH H
5 O O 3 2 H 123. (c) Palmella stage is a type of asexual
H H H OH reproduction found in some algae as in
H 1
4
OH
3 2
H Chlamydomonas. It is formed in
H OH n unfavourable condition.
Cellulose
124. (a) Peyer's patches are small masses of
Unbranched, b(1,4) – glucose
lymphatic tissue found throughout the
ileum region of the small intestine.

125. (c) Kupffer cells (KC) constitute 80-90% of
the tissue macrophages present in the
body (liver).
126. (a) Histamine is produced by basophils and
by mast cells found in nearby connective
tissues. It increases the permeability of
the capillaries to white blood cells and
some proteins, to allow them to engage
pathogens in the infected tissues.
127. (a) Derivatives of cholesterol also have
important functions (as steroid hormones,
bile acids and vitamin D). Cholesterol can
come from the diet, but is not an essential
nutrient, since the body can synthesize
sufficient cholesterol.
128. (a) Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA) is a synthetic
auxin rooting hormone, which acts as a
root stimulant. It enhances rooting, which
reduces propagation bench time and plant
loss.
129. (b) Condition s required for cyclic
photophosphorylation is aerobic
condition and optimum light intensity.
130. (c) Malic acid is an organic compound with
the molecular formula C4H6O5. It is a
dicarboxylic acid. R.Q of malic acid is 1.33
131. (d) Oxysomes are also called F1 particles.
They are present in the inner membrane
of mitochondria and made up of proteins.
132. (b) Recommended intakes for vitamin A for
women is 700 micrograms (mcg) of retinol
activity equivalents (RAE) per day.
133. (d) Our body uses 99 percent of its calcium
to keep your bones and teeth strong,
thereby supporting skeletal structure and
function. The rest of the calcium in your
body plays key roles in cell signaling,
blood clotting, muscle contraction and
nerve function.
134. (a) Inhibin is a glycoprotein that has been
isolated from follicular fluid in two forms
comprising a common a-subunit and one
26
of two b-subunits.
135. (a) LH causes formation of the corpus luteum,
but another pituitary hormone, prolactin
(PRL), maintains the corpus luteum.
136. (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is
a hormone produced during pregnancy.
It appears in the blood and urine of
pregnant women as early as 10 days after
conception.
137. (d) Amanita phalloides is the most common
and fatal cause of mushroom poisoning.
This mushroom contains amanitins, which
are powerful hepatotoxins that inhibit
formation of mRNA .
138. (a) A ribonucleotide or ribotide is a
nucleotide containing ribose,uracil and
phosphate. The monomer itself from
ribonucleotides forms the basic building
blocks for RNA.
139. (a) The cell cycle traditionally is separated
into the G1, S, G2, and M phases. Gap 2
(G2 ): During the gap between DNA
synthesis and mitosis, the cell will
continue to grow and produce new
proteins (mRNA).
140. (a) Anaphase-I begins when the two
chromosomes of each bivalent (tetrad)
separate and start moving toward
opposite poles of the cell as a result of
the action of the spindle.
141. (a) The p53 protein binds directly to cyclin-
CDK complexes that drive forward the
cell cycle and inhibits their kinase activity
thereby causing cell cycle arrest to allow
repair to take place.
142. (a) The fungal cell wall is a complex structure
composed of chitin, glucans and other
polymers, and there is evidence of
extensive cross-linking between these
components.
143. (a) Psuedopodia is the motile-stage of
protozoa which is helpful in feeding.

144. (a) In the standard genetic code, there are
three different stop codons: in RNA: UAG
("amber"), UAA ("ochre") and UGA
("opal").
145. (a) The bundle of His is an important part of
the electrical conduction system of the
heart, as it transmits impulses from the
atrio-ventricular node, located at the
inferior end of the inter-atrial septum, to
the ventricles of the heart.
146. (d) Functions of the hypothalamus can be
regulated by the release of pituitary gland
hormones. These are thermoregulation,
water balance and control of hormone
function.
147. (a) Cryopsis is a dry one-seeded fruit in which
the ovary wall is united with the seed
coat, typical of grasses and cereals. E.g.
Wheat.
148. (c) IgE antibodies are normally found in small
amounts in the blood, but higher amounts
can be a sign that the body overreacts to
allergens.
149. (a) Sterols also regulate biological processes
and sustain the domain structure of cell
membranes where they are considered as
membrane reinforcers.
150. (a) AB blood type is codominant because
the red blood cells have the products of
both the A and the B alleles of the ABO
gene.
151. (a) During apoptosis adult tissues are not
inflamed because phagocytes or
macrophages are not involved in it.
152. (a) Triterpenes are a class of chemical
compounds composed of three terpene
units with the molecular formula C30H48;
Cholesterol is one of the simplest but
most important triterpenoids.
27
153. (a) Non-disjunction is the failure of
homologous chromosomes or sister
chromatids to separate properly during
cell division. Meiotic non-disjunction can
involve only one chromosome or the
whole chromosome set. If a germ cell with
an extra chromosome is combined with a
chromosomally normal germ cell, the
product will be trisomic (i.e., having 47
chromosomes).
154. (b) Hermaphrodite is a person or animal
having both male and female sex organs
or other sexual characteristics, either
abnormally or (in the case of some
organisms) as the natural condition. Many
hermaphrodite babies have an extra sex
chromosome, making them babies with 47
chromosomes instead of 46, including a
XXY pair instead of either XX (female), or
XY (male). These children thus have two
X-chromosomes (like a normal female), as
well as a XY-pair (like a normal male).
155. (d) The RuBisCo enzyme is present in the
mesophyll cells of C3 plants and in the
bundle sheath cells of C4 plants.
156. (c)
157. (a) There are 11 nonessential amino acids:
alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid,
cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine,
proline, serine, and tyrosine.
158. (a) 159. (d) 160. (a)
161. (b) Omega-3 fatty acids are found in foods,
such as fish and flaxseed, and in dietary
supplements, such as fish oil.
162. (c) Non-disjunction is the failure of
homologous chromosomes or sister
chromatids to separate properly during
cell division.

163. (a)
164. (a) Autosomal dominant is one of several
ways that a trait or disorder can be passed
down (inherited) through families. In an
autosomal dominant disease, if you inherit
the abnormal gene from only one parent,
you can get the disease.
165. (a) The Glycemic Index (GI) is a relative
ranking of carbohydrate in foods
according to how they affect blood
glucose levels. Carbohydrates with a low
GI value (55 or less) are more slowly
digested, absorbed and metabolized, and
cause a lower and slower rise in blood
glucose and, therefore usually, insulin
levels.
166. (a) Explant-Transfer (living cells, tissues, or
organs) from animals or plants to a
nutrient medium.
167. (a) Biolistic (gene gun) is a technique in
genetic engineering in which tiny metal
pellets coated with DNA are propelled
into living cells at high velocities.
168. (a) Linker DNA is double-stranded DNA in
between two nucleosome cores that, in
association with histone H1, holds the
cores together. Linker DNA is seen as
the string in the "beads and string model",
which is made by using an ionic solution
on the chromatin.
28
169. (b) The very first interaction of a sperm cell
head part, the acrosome, with the second
protective layer of an oocyte, the zona
pellucida, is called acrosomal reaction.
170. (c) All eukaryotic mRNA contains a cap
structure - an N7-methylated guanosine
linked to the first nucleotide of the RNA
via a reverse 5? to 5? triphosphate linkage.
171. (a)
172. (a)
173. (b) Pollen kitt is an oily and sticky layer found
on the surface of the matured pollen
grains in insect pollinated
(entamophilous) plants.
174. (a) The overall reaction of glycolysis which
occurs in the cytoplasm is represented
simply as:
C6H12O6 + 2NAD+ + 2ADP + 2P ®
2 pyruvic acid, (CH3(C=O)COOH)
+ 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+
175. (a) Chlorophyll a is the primary
photosynthetic pigment while chlorophyll
b is the accessory pigment that collects
energy and passes it on to chlorophyll a.
The only difference between chlorophyl
a and b is that b has an aldehyde group
on the C7 site on the porphyrin structure.
176. (c) Cnidarians are aquatic, mostly marine,
sessile or free-swimming, radially
 29
symmetrical animals. The presence of the epithelium consists of multiple layers of
stinging capsules or nematocytes is the squamous cells. The apical layer of cells
characteristic feature of cnidarians and are dead and filled with the protein keratin.
they are present on the tentacles and the 180. (c) Opening and closing of stomata occurs due
body for anchorage, defense and for the to changes in turgor pressure in guard cells.
capture of prey. Some of the cnidarians, The transpiration is regulated by the
e.g., corals have a skeleton composed of movement of guard cells of stomata.
CaCO3.
Section-IV
177. (a) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem.
178. (d) Stomata are tiny pores, and composed of (ENGLISH COMPREHENSIVE)
two bean shaped epidermal cells called 181. (c) a very enjoyable time
guard cells which enclose stomatal pore.
182. (b) to stop doing something
Stomata are mostly present in epidermal
183. (a) feeling slightly ill
layers of leaves and in other aerial parts
like young stems, floral parts etc. Guard 184. (d) an easy task
cells in dicots are kidney shaped and in 185. (a) plentiful
monocots are dumb bell shaped. The guard 186. (c) generously
cells may be surrounded by varying 187. (b) pronounced
number of specialized epidermal cells called 188. (c) trivial
subsidiary cells or accessory cells.
189. (b) coarse
179. (c) Cuboidal epithelium is a single layer of cube
190. (d) dissimilarity
shaped cells with a centrally located
nucleus. Ciliated epithelium is a type of Section-V (LOGICAL A ND
bodily tissues that is lined with "ciliated" QUANTITATIVE REASONING)
cells, which are basically cells that have
small, hair-like protrusions known as "cilia" 191. (b) Nephew
that can either help the cells move along 192. (c) South
the tissue or can help debris and waste 193. (d) Q35R; Number is the addition of alphabet's
move along the surface of the cells. place value.
Columnar epithelial cells occur in one or 194. (b) MUSTER
more layers. The cells are elongated and 195. (c)
column-shaped. The nuclei are elongated
196. (c) Some rolls are kites
and are usually located near the base of
197. (d) 30
the cells. Squamous cells have the
appearance of thin, flat plates. The shape 198. (a) 49
of the nucleus usually corresponds to the 199. (c) 73
cell form and help to identify the type of 200. (a) 3
epithelium. Keratinized squamous
 JIPMER SOLVED PAPER 2018
Held on 03.06.2018 (E)

Max. Marks : 800 Time : 2 12 Hrs

Section-I (PHYSICS) (c) A p-type semiconductor is formed by

dopping with trivalent impurities.
1. A current i is flowing through the wire of (d) Major charge carriers in a n-type
diameter d having drift velocity of electrons vd semiconductor are holes
in it. What will be new drift velocity when 6. Pure silicon is a/an
diameter of wire is made d/4? (a) conductor (b) insulator
Vd (c) semiconductor (d) None of these
(a) 4 Vd (b) 7. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 0.5 kg
4
for 0.25 second starting from rest. What is its
Vd momentum now?
(c) 16 Vd (d)
16 (a) 2.5 N/s (b) 0.25 N/s
2. How much intense is 80 dB sound in (c) 0.5 N/s (d) 0.75 N/s
comparison to 40 dB? 8. Which of the following is fusion process?
(a) 104 (b) 102 (a) Gamma decay
2 2
1 (b) 1 H +1 ® 42 He
H ¾¾
(c) 2 (d)
2 (c) Uranium decay
3. Due to g decay, what is the effect on neutron (d) None of these
and proton numbers? 9. A ball of 0.5 kg collided with a wall at 30° and
(a) Both remains constant bounced back elastically. The speed of ball
(b) Proton number increases but neutron was 12 m/s. The contact remained for 1 second.
number decreases What is the force applied by wall on ball ?
(c) Proton number decreases and neutron
(a) 12 3N (b) 6 3N
number increases
(d) None of these (c) 3 3N (d) 3N
4. Find current, i 10. An electron with kinetic energy k enters a
30 W region of (i) uniform magnetic field (ii) non-
uniform magnetic field and comes out with
i1 i2 kinetic energy k1 and k2 respectively. What is
60 W the relation between k1, k2 and k?
i (a) k1 > k2 > k (b) k1 = k2 > k
(c) k1 = k2 = k (d) k1 < k2 < k
2V 11. An electron when accelerated by V volts
experiences a force F when it enters a uniform
(a) 0.1 A (b) 0.2 A magnetic field. What will be the force
(c) 0.3 A (d) 0.4 A experienced when it is accelerated by 2V ?
5. Which of the following is incorrect ? (a) F (b) 2F
(a) n-p-n transistor works as an amplifier
(b) The resistance of semiconductors decrease F
(c) (d) 2F
with increase in temperature. 2
 30
12. Kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 21. The highest and lowest points of a faulty
times. What will be the relation between initial thermometer are 95°C and 5°C respectively.
and final momentum ? What is the actual temperature when that
P1 thermometer shows 62°C ?
(a) P2 = 2P1 (b) P2 = (a) 62°C (b) 63.33°C
2
(c) 42°C (d) 72.3°C
(c) P2 = P1 (d) P2 = 4P1
22. Equation of wave is given by
13. What proves that light is a transverse wave?
(a) Polarization (b) Reflection p
5 sin (100t - 2 x), what is time period?
(c) Refraction (d) Interference 2
14. What is the maximum Reynold's number for (a) 0.02 s (b) 0.04 s
laminar flow? (c) 0.06 s (d) 0.01 s
(a) 500 (b) 4000 23. Comment on the K.E. and momentum of a
(c) 2000 (d) 8000 satellite revolving in a circular orbit?
15. What is the range of a projectile thrown with (a) Both constant
velocity 98 m/sec with angle 30º from horizontal? (b) K.E. constant momentum is not constant
(a) (c) K.E. is not constant momentum is constant
490 3 meter (b) 980 3 meter
(d) Both are not constant
(c) 245 3 meter (d) 100 meter 24. What is the difference between laser and normal
16. A pendulum bob is tilted 10º right to the vertical. light?
Then comment on acceleration (direction) and (a) Both lights are polarized
velocity. (b) Normal light is polarized but laser light is
(a) Velocity is zero and acceleration is along not
length at string (c) Both light are not polarized
(b) Velocity and acceleration both are zero (d) Normal light is unpolarized but laser is
(c) Velocity is zero and acceleration is polarized
perpendicular to string
25. Pressure at point A is
(d) Velocity is along string and acceleration is
perpendicular to string
17. For maximum range, the angle of projection
should be
A
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 30° (d) 60°
18. If an object is thrown upward with 16 m/s. Find
time of flight?
(a) 1.6 s (b) 4.8 s 2T
(c) 3.2 s (d) 1.2 s (a) P 0 (b) P0 -
R
19. The efficiency of an engine is 50% and its work
output is 500 J. Find input. 2T 4T
(a) 500 J (b) 100 J (c) P0 + (d) P0 -
R R
(c) 1000 J (d) 250 J 26. A U tube of uniform inner cross-section contains
20. The efficiency of a heat engine is 1/6. Its mercury in both sides of its arms. An ethyl
efficiency doubles when the temperature of sink alcohol column of length 12 cm is introduced
decreases by 62ºC. What is the temperature of into one of its arms. Water of length 10 cm is
source ? poured into the other arm. Find density of
(a) 372 K (b) 470 K ethanol.
(c) 542 K (d) 1042 K
 31
32. What is the dimensional formula of dynamic
viscosity?
12 cm
10 cm Ethyl alcohol (a) [M1L1T–2] (b) [M1L1T–1]
water 1 –1
(c) [M L T ] –1 (d) [M1L1T1]
33. The force of attraction between two charges
of 8µC and –4mC is 0.2 N. Find the distance of
Hg separation.
(a) 0.52 g/cm3 (b) 0.83 g/cm3 (a) 12 meter (b) 1.2 meter
(c) 1.83 g/cm 3 (d) 0.72 g/cm3 (c) 120 meter (d) 0.12 meter
27. A particle doing S.H.M. have amplitude 5 cm, 34. A runner starts from O and goes to O following
mass 0.5 kg and angular frequency 5 is at 1 cm path OQRO in 1 hr. What is net displacement
from mean position. Find potential energy and and average speed?
kinetic energy. R
(a) K.E. = 150 × 10–4 J, P.E. = 6.25 × 10–4 J
(b) K.E. = 6.25 × 10–4 J, P.E. = 150 × 10–3 J
(c) K.E. = 6.25 × 10–4 J, P.E. = 6.25 × 10–4 J
O Q
(d) K.E. = 150 × 10–3 J, P.E. = 150 × 10–3 J 1 km
28. An organ pipe open at both ends in the nth
harmonic is in resonance with a source of
frequency 1000 Hz. The length of pipe is 16.6 (a) 0, 0 km/hr (b) 0, 3.57 km/hr
cm and speed of sound in air is 332 m/sec. Find (c) 0, 2.57 km/hr (d) 0, 1 km/hr
the value of n. 35. In a LC circuit, angular frequency at resonance
(a) 1 (b) 2 is w. What will be the new angular frequency
(c) 3 (d) 4 when inductor's inductance is made 2 times
29. Find error in calculation of resistivity of and capacitance is made 4 times?
R = 65 ± 1 W
l = 5 ± 0.1 mm w w
(a) (b)
d = 10 ± 0.5 mm 2 2 2
(a) 13% (b) 21%
(c) 16% (d) 41% 2w
(c) 2 w (d)
30. Find ratio of radius of gyration of a disc and 2
ring of same radii at their tangential axis in 36. In a circuit L = 10–3 –3
H, C = 10 F. Find angular
plane. frequency.
(a) 1000 rad/sec (b) 100 rad/sec
5 5
(a) (b) (c) 10 rad/sec (d) 10–3 rad/sec
3 6
37. If a boy of mass 50 kg is sitting on a car
2 accelerating with acceleration 0.5g on road. What
(c) 1 (d) is force applied by seat?
3
31. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg m2 revolving (a) 125 N (b) 250 N
with 8 radian/sec is placed on another disc of (c) 500 N (d) 175 N
moment of inertia 4 kg m2 revolving with 4 radian/ 38. An electron revolving with speed V is
sec. What is the angular frequency of composite producing magnetic field B at centre. Find
disc? relation between B and V.

16 16 1
(a) rad/sec (b) rad/sec (a) B µV (b) Bµ
3 5 V

3 1
(c) 4 rad/sec (d) rad/sec (c) B µV 2 (d) Bµ
16 V2
 32
39. Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells 40. A regular hexagon has side a. A wire of length
A and B having radii rA and rB are charged to 24a is coiled on that hexagon. If current in
QA and –QB such that |QB| > |QA|, rB > rA The hexagon is I then find the magnetic moment.
graph of electric field versus distance along a
line passing through centre is
–QB

QA

rA
rB
(a) 3 3Ia 2 (b) 6 3Ia 2

3 3 2
(a) E (c) Ia (d) 6 Ia2
kqA 2
rA2 41. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus
kq A Y is subjected to stretching stress S, elastic
rB2 rB energy stored per unit volume of the material is
r
rA
k ( q A - qB ) (a) YS / 2 (b) S2Y / 2
rB2 2
(c) S / 2Y (d) S / 2Y
42. A parallel plate condenser with oil between the
(b) E plates (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a
kqA capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then
rA2 capacitance of the capacitor becomes
kq A
rB2 (a) 2C (b) 2 C
rB
r
rA C C
k ( q A - qB ) (c) (d)
rB2
2 2
43. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(c) E
kqA (b) from stronger to the weaker parts of the
rA2 field
kq A (c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the
rB2 rB field
r (d) None of these
rA
k ( q A - qB ) 44. If l v , l x and l m represent the wavelength of
rB2
visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively,
then
(d) E l v > lm > l y
kqA (a) lm > l x > l v (b)
rA2
kq A (c) lm > l v > l x (d) l v > l x > lm
rB2 rB 45. The refractive index of the material of the prism is
r
rA 3 , then the angle of minimum deviation of the
k ( q A - qB )
prism is
rB2
(a) 30º (b) 45º
(c) 60º (d) 75º
 33
46. Which of the following series in the spectrum of 51. A plane convex lens of focal length 16 cm, is to
hydrogen atom lies in the visible region of the be made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius
electromagnetic spectrum? of curvature of the curved surface should be
(a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series (a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm
(c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
(c) 16 cm (d) 24 cm
47. The relation between the gas pressure P and
average kinetic energy per unit volume E is 52. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one
1 per cent, its mass remaining the same, the
(a) P = E (b) P = E acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface
2
3 2 would
(c) P = E (d) P = E (a) decrease (b) remain unchanged
2 3
48. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic (c) increase (d) None of these
nucleus (Z = 50) of radius of 9 × 10–15 m is 53. What is the fractional error in g calculated from
(a) 80 V (b) 8 × 106 V
T = 2 p l / g ? Given fraction errors in T and l
(c) 9 V (d) 9 × 105 V
49. For a given photosensitive material and are ± x and ± y respectively..
frequency (> threshold frequency) of incident (a) x + y (b) x – y
radiation, the photoelectric current varies with (c) 2x + y (d) 2x – y
the intensity of incident light as
54. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 kV then the
Current Current
minimum wavelength of X-rays will be
(a) 0.31 Å (b) 0.62 Å
(a) (b) (c) 0.93 Å (d) 0.47 Å
Intensity Intensity 55. If coefficient of self induction of a coil is 1 H, an
Current e.m.f. of 1V is induced, if
Current
(a) current flowing is 1A
(b) current variation rate is 1 As–1
(c) (d)
(c) current of 1A flows for one sec.
Intensity
Intensity (d) None of these
50. Consider the situation shown. The wire AB is 56. Three point charges +q , + 2q and – 4q where q =
sliding on fixed rails with a constant velocity. If 0.1 mC, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral
the wire AB is replaced by semi-circular wire, the
triangle of side 10 cm as shown in figure. The
magnitude of induced e.m.f. will
potential energy of the system is
Ä Ä Ä A Ä Ä

Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä – 4q
Ä Ä vÄ Ä Ä R
10

Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä
cm

cm
10

Ä Ä Ä B Ä Ä

(a) increase
(b) decrease +q 10 cm +2q
(c) remain the same
(d) increase or decrease depending on whether (a) 3 × 10–3 J (b) –3 × 10–3 J
the semi-circle buldges towards the (c) 9 × 10–3 J (d) –9 × 10–3 J
resistance or away from it.
 34
57. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere is applied 66. Which of the following is correct displacement
on a spherical ball, then its volume reduces to reaction?
0.01%. The bulk modulus of the material of the (a) AgNO 3 + Cu ¾¾
® Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + Ag
rubber in dyne/cm2 is
(b) Pb(NO3 ) 2 + Cu ¾¾
® Cu(NO3 ) 2 + Pb
(a) 10 × 1012 (b) 100 × 1012
(c) 1 × 1012 (d) 10 × 1012 (c) H 2 + ZnCl2 ¾¾
® Zn + 2HCl

58. At a certain place, horizontal component is 3 (d) Cu + 2HCl ¾¾

® CuCl 2 + H 2
times the vertical component. The angle of dip at 67. The polymer used in making synthetic hair wigs
this place is is made up of
(a) 0 (b) p/3 (a) CH2 = CHCl
(c) p/6 (d) None of these (b) CH2 = CHCOOCH3
59. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0. The (c) C6H5CH = CH2
velocity of light in diamond is approximately (d) CH2 = CH – CH=CH2
(a) 1.5 × 1010 cm/sec (b) 2 × 1010 cm/sec 68. What is bond dissociation energy of HCl, DHf
(c) 3.0 × 1010 cm/sec (d) 6 × 1010 cm/sec (HCl) = – 93, B.E. (H2) = 434, B.E. (Cl2) = 242
(in kJ/mol)?
60. How many degrees of freedom are associated
(a) 532 kJ/mol (b) 431 kJ/mol
with 2 grams of He at NTP ?
(c) 332 kJ/mol (d) 232 kJ/mol
(a) 3 (b) 3.01 × 1023 69. If activation energy of a reaction is zero and
(c) 9.03 × 10 23 (d) 6 value of rate constant at 280 K is 1.6 × 105.
Find its value at 300 K.
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
(a) 1.6 × 105 (b) 3.2 × 105
(c) 0.8 × 10 5 (d) can not determine
61. If at a given temperature osmotic pressure of
5% (w/v) solution of sucrose is same as 3% 70. Which of the following is invert sugar?
(w/v) solution of ‘X’ find molecular mass of X. (a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(a) 570 (b) 205.2 (c) Sucrose (d) Starch
(c) 342 (d) None 71. Find relation between
62. Which of the following is a zwitter ion? CH 2–OH CH3
(a) Glycine hydrochloride
(b) Nylon 6,6 and
(c) Alanine OH
(d) None (a) Functional isomer (b) Tautomers
63. Find pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution. (c) Chain isomer (d) Metamers
(a) 1 (b) 2 72. Which is suitable reagent for Wurtz reaction?
(c) 13 (d) 17 (a) Na/ether (b) Na/alcohol
64. Find out products of hydrolysis of NaCl (c) Zn/ether (d) Zn/alcohol
solution at cathode and anode. 73. Which of the following pair behaves strong
(a) H2, Cl2 (b) Cl2, H2 and weak base hydride NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3,
(c) Na, Cl2 (d) Na, O2 BiH3?
65. Which pair can not act as a buffer? (a) NH3, PH3 (b) NH3, BiH3
(a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (c) PH3, BiH3 (d) BiH3, AsH3
(b) Borax + H3BO3 74. In an adiabatic expansion of gas from 1 atm,
(c) NH4Cl + NH4OH 300 K to 8 atm & ‘T’ K. Find T if (g = 3/2).
(d) NH4Cl + HCl (a) 350 K (b) 150 K
(c) 600 K (d) 400 K
 35
75. Which of the following becomes paramagnetic 79. What is the structure of thiosulphuric acid?
on heating?
O O
(a) MnO (b) Fe3O4
(c) ZnFe2O4 (d) both (b) and (c) (a) S (b) S
76. Assertion : Catalyst increase rate of reaction HS O OH S O–O–H
while photosensitizer initiate a reaction.
Reason : Catalyst decrease E a but S
photosensitizer act as energy carrier S
(c) (d) None
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and HO OH
O
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. 80. Which of the following is diamagnetic O2, S2,
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but N2, C2?
reason is not the correct explanation of (a) O2, N2 (b) O2, S2
assertion. (c) N2, C2 (d) S2, C2
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 81. Which is used for sterilization of water in water
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. supply system of cities?
77. Grignard reagent can’t be prepared from (a) Chlorine
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(a) HO Br (c) Potassium permanganate
(d) DDT
Cl
82. Which of the following is most paramagnetic:
V3+, Fe2+, V4+, Ti2+
(b)
(a) V3+ (b) Fe2+
Cl (c) V 4+ (d) Ti2+
Cl Ca(OH)
(c) (d) 83. CH 3CHO + 4HCHO ¾¾¾¾2¾ ®
Cl 1
C(CH 2 OH) 4 + (HCOO) 2 Ca
2
78. Which of the following is the correct order for
the above reaction is an example of
ease of dehydration– (a) Aldol condensation
(b) Cannizzaro reaction
CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 (c) Both
|
OH (d) None
(I)
84. Which of the following are isomer?
OH (a) Acetone & propanol
| (b) Acetone & propanoic acid
CH3 - CH 2 - CH - CH3 (c) Acetone & propanal
(II) (d) Acetone & cyclopropanone

OH OH COOH
|
CH 2 = CH - CH - CH3 85.
SOCl
¾¾¾¾
2 ® A ¾¾¾
3®B NH
(III)
(IV) Br
(a) I > III > II > IV (b) IV > III > II > I NaOH
¾¾¾¾ ® Final product:
Br2
(c) IV > II > III > I (d) III > IV > II > I
Final product will be :
 36
93. Which of following can act as both oxidizing
CONH2 NH2
and reducing agent?
(a) SO2, HNO2 (b) HNO3, HNO2
(a) (b) (c) HNO2, HClO4 (d) HClO4, SO2
Br NH2 94. 300 g of 25% w/w solution of solute A is mixed
with 400 g of 40% (w/w) solution of another
COOH solute B. What is the w/w percentage of new
NH2
mixture?
(a) 10.71% in A (b) 35% in B
(c) (d) (c) 25% in A (d) 40% in B
NH2 Br 95. The potential difference between the fixed layer
and the diffused layer of opposite charges in
86. The amount of charge required in Faraday to a colloidal solution is called:
get 40 g Al from alumina by electrolysis is: (a) Zeta potential
50 40 (b) Avalanche voltage
(a) F (b) F (c) Retarding potential
3 3
(d) None of these
40 50 96. An electron, e1 is moving in the fifth stationary
(c) F (d) F
9 9 state, and another electron e2 is moving in the
87. Oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+ fourth stationary state. The radius of orbit of
(a) +4 (b) +2 electron, e1 is five times the radius of orbit of
(c) +3 (d) +6 electron, e2 calculate the ratio of velocity of
88. What is standard Gibbs free energy of reaction? electron e1 (v1) to the velocity of electron e2
(v2).
Zn(s) + Cu 2 + ¾¾
® Zn 2 + + Cu(s) (a) 5 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
Given, E 0 = – 0.74 V & E 0 = 0.36 V (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 4
Zn 2+ /Zn Cu 2+ /Cu
97. If l0 and l be the threshold wavelength and the
(a) 300 kJ (b) –212.3 kJ
wavelength of incident light, the speed of
(c) –200 kJ (d) 515 kJ
photoelectrons ejected from the metal surface
89. A gas acquires 24.6 L at 1 atm and 27 ºC
is :
temperature. What volume it will occupy at
10 atm and 373 ºC? 2h 2hc
(a) 7.5 L (b) 10.2 L (a) ( l0 - l ) (b) (l0 - l )
m m
(c) 5.3 L (d) 15 L
90. The number of S—S bonds in SO3, S2 O32-
2hc æ l0 - l ö 2h æ 1 1 ö
ç ÷ ç - ÷
S2 O62- and S2O82- respectively are (c) m è ll0 ø (d) m è l0 l ø
(a) 1, 0, 0, 1 (b) 1, 0, 1, 0
(c) 0, 1, 1, 0 (d) 0, 1, 0, 1 98. Sum of first three ionization energies of Al is
91. Which can give strongest conjugate base? 53.0 eV atom–1 and the sum of first two ionization
(a) HOCl (b) HCN energies of Na is 52.2 eV atom–1. Out of Al(III)
(c) HNO2 (d) HNO3 and Na(II)
92. Solution with similar osmotic pressure are (a) Na (II) is more stable than Al (III)
called? (b) Al (III) is more stable than Na (II)
(a) Isotonic (b) Azeotrope (c) Both are equally stable
(c) Hypotonic (d) Hypertonic (d) Both are equally unstable
 37
99. Cl 2 (g) + Ba ( OH )2 ¾¾
® X(aq) + BaCl2 + H 2 O (a) Hydrofluorosilicic acid
(b) Silica gel
X + H 2SO4 ¾¾
® Y + BaSO4
(c) Silicic acid
D
Y ¾¾¾¾® Z + H 2 O + O 2 (d) Calcium fluorosilicate
T > 365K 105. Which of the following carbides consists of
Y and Z are respectively : C34 - type of anionic part?
(a) HClO4, ClO2 (b) HClO3, ClO2 (a) Al4C3 (b) CaC2
(c) HClO3, ClO6 (d) HClO4, Cl2O7 (c) B4C (d) Mg2C3
100. Which of the following statements is correct? 106. Green house gases can be arranged in ‘Global
(a) Production of syn gas from coal is called Warming Potential’ sequence as
coal gasification. (a) N2O > CFC > CH4 > CO2
(b) CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2
673 K
(b) CO(g) + H2O(g) ¾¾¾¾
catalyst
® (c) CFC > CO2 > N2O > CH4
(d) CO2 > CFC > N2O > CH4
CO2(g) + H2(g) 107. Which of the following statement is wrong?
represents water gas shift reaction. (a) Polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) are
(c) CO2 formed in water gas shift reaction is clouds formed over Antarctica
removed by scrubbing with sodium zincate (b) Acid rain dissolves heavy metals such as
solution. Cu, Pb, Hg and Al from soil, rocks and
(d) Both (a) and (b) sediments.
101. Hydrogen can be fused to form helium at (c) H2SO4 is major contributor to acid rain,
(a) high temperature and high pressure HNO3 ranks second and HCl third in this
(b) high temperature and low pressure respect
(c) low temperature and high pressure (d) Fishes grow as well in warm water as in
(d) low temperature and low pressure cold water
102. The alkali metals form salt-like hydrides by the 108. A body centered cubic lattice is made up of
direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The hollow spheres of B. Spheres of solid A are
thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in present in hollow spheres of B. Radius of A is
which of the following order? half of radius of B. What is the ratio of total
(a) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH volume of spheres of B unoccupied by A in a
(b) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH unit cell and volume of unit cell?
(c) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
(d) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH 7 3p 7 3
(a) (b)
103. Which one is the correct statement with 64 128
reference to solubility of MgSO4 in water?
7.p
(a) SO42– ion mainly contributes towards (c) (d) None of these
24
hydration energy
109. A substance AxBy crystallizes in a face centred
(b) Sizes of Mg2+ and SO42– are similar
cubic (fcc) lattice in which atoms ‘A’ occupy each
(c) Hydration energy of MgSO4 is higher in
corner of the cube and atoms ‘B’ occupy the
comparison to its lattice energy centres of each face of the cube. Identify the
(d) Ionisation potential (charge/radius ratio) of correct composition of the substance AxBy
Mg2+ is very low (a) AB3
104. The gas evolved on heating CaF2 and SiO2 with
(b) A4B3
concentrated H2SO4, which on hydrolysis gives
a white gelatinous precipitate. The precipitate (c) A3B
is: (d) Composition can’t be specified
 38
110. Calicene, C8H6, is expected to be a fairly polar 113. Which is refining process for copper?
aromatic molecule. Which of the following (a) Bessemerization (b) Polling
resonance forms contributes to the greatest (c) Roasting (d) Smelting
extent towards the real structure (resonance 114. What is the formula of Marshall's acid?
hybrid) of the molecule? (a) H2S2O8 (b) H2SO4
(c) H2S2O6 (d) H2SO5
+ :–
(a) (b) H SO
115. ¾¾¾¾
2 4
®

OH
Which intermediate carbocation is involved in
+1 –1 the above reaction ?
(c) (d)

+1 (a) (b)
+
+
111. Which of the following order is true regarding
electrophilic aromatic substitution of the three (c) Both (d) None
given compounds? 116. Ethanol can be prepared more easily by which
reaction ?
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 (i) CH3 CH 2 Br + H 2 O ¾¾ ® CH 3CH 2 OH
(ii) CH3 CH 2 Br + Ag 2 O (in boiling water) ¾¾
®
CH3CH 2 OH
CH 3 (a) by (i) reaction
CH 3 (b) by (ii) reaction
I II III (c) Both reactions proceed at same rate
(d) by none of these
(a) II = III > I (b) II = III = I 117. When cylohexanone is treated with Na2CO3
solution, we get
(c) II >>> III > I (d) II >> III = I
O O
112. In the following reaction, compound (B) is OH
(a) (b)
Dry D OH
Br + Mg ¾¾¾® A ¾¾ ®B
ether
(1 eq.) O
OH
COOH
Br (c) (d)
COOH
(a) (b) Br
Br 118. Element A and B have electronegativities 3
and 1.2 respectively? Nature of bond between
Br them?
MgBr
(a) Purely covalent
(b) Purely ionic
(c) (d) (c) Polar covalent
(d) None of these
 39
119. Which of the following acts as a nucleophile in 128. What is common between a Eukaryotic &
the aldol condensation of ethanal? Prokaryotic flagella?
(i) OH– (ii) H2O (a) Same structure
(iii) –CH2CHO (b) Both are used for locomotion
(a) only (i) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) Composed of same proteins
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) Both are extension of cell membrane
120. Which of the following has been used in the 129. Which of the following is not a plant growth
manufacture of non-inflammable photographic inhibitor
films? (a) Dormin (b) IAA
(a) Cellulose nitrate (c) Ethylene (d) ABA
(b) Cellulose xanthate 130. What is the R.Q. of glucose?
(c) Cellulose perchlorate (a) One (b) Less than one
(d) Cellulose acetate (c) More than one (d) Infinite
131. 5 Glucose molecules aerobically respired and
Section-III (BIOLOGY) another 5 anaerobically. What will be the total
121. Rouleaux formation is related to which of the no. of ATP and CO2 evolved?
cell/tissue: (a) 180 and 10 respectively
(a) RBC (b) WBC (b) 10 and 180 respectively
(c) Platelets (d) Monocytes (c) 36 and 2 respectively
122. Which is the 21st amino acid? (d) 2 and 36 respectively
(a) Pyrrolysine (b) Selenocysteine 132. What is the symmetry of medusa?
(c) Cystine (d) Histidine (a) Bilateral (b) Radial
(c) Asymmetrical (d) Biradial
133. Perianth is found in which family :
(a) Cruciferae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Liliaceae (d) Malvaceae
123.
134. To which of the following repressor protein is
attached
(a) Operator (b) Inducer
Above diagram represents
(c) Promoter (d) Structural gene
(a) Metaphase-I (b) Anaphase-I
135. Which of the following can be used to convert
(c) Metaphase-II (d) Anaphase-II
ssDNA to dsDNA?
124. Heterotrichous thallus is shown by which
(a) Terminal transferase
organism
(b) EcoR I
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Ectocarpus
(c) Hind II
(c) Spirogyra (d) Volvox
(d) Reverse Transcriptase
125. Where is sacculus rotundus located?
136. XYY ® composition
(a) Between duodenum & jejunum
(a) Super female (b) Hermaphrodite
(b) Between Ileum & caecum
(c) Male (d) Supermale
(c) Caecum and colon
137. Which of the following is involved in passive
(d) Colon and rectum
immunity?
126. Brunner's gland is located in
(a) Ig A (b) Ig E
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum
(c) Ig M (d) Ig E
(c) Ileum (d) Stomach
138. Eye spot is seen in
127. Fimbrae are associated with which organ?
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Ulothrix
(a) Fallopian tube (b) Uterus
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
(c) Vagina (d) Ovary
 40
139. What is incorrect about inhibin? 144. Which of the following vertebrate tissues would
(a) It is a lipoprotein be an excellent source of collagen?
(b) Decreases FSH secretion (a) Liver (b) Nerve
(c) Molecular weight is between 10k-30k (c) Muscle (d) Tendon
Dalton 145. Which of the following compound is used to
(d) Secreted by sertoli cells study water loss from a leaf and turns colour on
140. Which of the following pituitary hormone works absorbing water?
indirectly? (a) Calcium chloride
(a) MSH (b) TSH (b) Magnesium chloride
(c) GH (d) Oxytocin (c) Cobalt chloride
141. Arrange the following in descending order of (d) Sodium chloride
volume: plasma, interstitial fluid, intracellular 146. Match the column-I containing minerals with the
fluid. functions given in column-II and choose the
(a) Intracellular ® Interstitial ® Plasma correct combination given.
(b) Interstitial ® Intracellular ® Plasma Column-I Column-II
(c) Plasma ® Interstitial ® Intracellular (Minerals) (Functions)
(d) Intracellular ® Plasma ® Interstitial A. K I. Stomatal opening
142. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria B. Mo II. Constituent of cell
given below according to their shapes. membrane
C. P III. Photolysis of
water
D. Mn IV. Free ion
V. Component of
nitrogenase
and nitrate
reductase
(a) A – I, IV, B – V, C – II, D – III
(a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(b) A – I, V, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(c) A – I, V B – IV, C – II, D – III
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio (d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II, V
(d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
147. The experiment material used by Van Neil, to
143. The given figures are types of elements (A and
prove that O2 comes out from water was studied
B) which constitute one type of complex tissue
on
(c) of a plant . Identify A, B and C.
(a) Chlorella pyrenoidosa
A C
B (b) Cladophora
(c) purple & green sulphur bacteria
(d) blue green algae
148. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea
does not collapse due to presence of
(a) bony rings
(b) turgid pressure
(c) chitinous rings
(d) cartilaginous rings
(a) A – Tracheid, B – Vessel, C – Xylem 149. Which of the following accessory excretory
(b) A – Vessel, B – Tracheild, C – Phloem structure eliminates NaCl, lactic acid and urea?
(c) A – Fibre, B – Tracheid, C – Bark (a) Kidney (b) Liver
(d) A – Fibre, B – Sclereid, C – Casparian strips (c) Sebaceous gland (d) Sweat gland
 41
150. Human urine contains 158. Malignant malaria is caused by the which of the
(a) 95% water, 2.6% urea, 2% salts and some following species of Plasmodium ?
uric acid. (a) vivax (b) malariae
(b) 99% water and 1% urea. (d) ovale (d) falciparum
(c) 92% water and 8% salts. 159. Which of the following is generally used for
(d) 90% water, 8% uric acid and 2% proteins. induced mutagenesis in crop plants?
151. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to (a) X-rays
(a) The central gap between myosin filaments (b) UV (260 nm) radiations
in the A-band. (c) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
(b) The central gap between actin filaments (d) Alpha particles
extending through myosin filaments in the 160. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
A-band. commercially in the production of
(c) Extension of myosin filaments in the central (a) ethanol
portion of the A-band. (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the
(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central blood vessels
portion of A-band. (c) citric acid
152. The amount of light that falls on retina is regulated (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
by 161. The site of production of ADA in the body is
(a) lens (b) cornea (a) bone marrow (b) lymphocytes
(c) blood plasma (d) monocytes
(c) iris (d) ciliary muscles
162. A majority of organisms which are restricted to
153. The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato,
narrow range of temperature are called as
dahlia, ginger and banana is
(a) stenothermal (b) endothermal
(a) floral buds present on stem.
(c) ectothermal (d) eurythermal
(b) internodes of modified stem.
163. Energy flow in an ecosystem is
(c) nodes of modified stem. (a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional
(d) adventitious buds present on root. (c) multidirectional (d) all of these
154. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers 164. Which of the following is not currently a major
are present in cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?
(a) Helianthus (b) Lommellina (a) Overexploitation
(c) Rosa (d) Gossypium (b) Global warming
155. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian (c) Habitat destruction
duct is called (d) Introduction of foreign predators and
(a) vasectomy (b) ductus arteriosus disease
(c) archidectomy (d) tubectomy 165. Which of the following species of plant is
156. The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in F2 considered as the world’s most problematic
generation indicates aquatic weed ?
(a) segregation (a) Lantana
(b) independent assortment (b) Eichhornia
(c) dominance (c) Brown algae
(d) incomplete dominance (d) Parthenium (carrot grass)
157. Hugo de Vries gave his mutation theory on 166. Which of the following organisms is not correctly
organic evolution while working on matched with its particular ?
(a) Pisum sativum (a) Human beings – Sapiens, species
(b) Drosophila melanogaster (b) Lion – Panthera, genus
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana (c) Cats – Felidae, genus
(d) Althea rosea
(d) Datura – Solanaceae, family
 42
167. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature 174. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide is not
of having
(a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. (a) sugar
(b) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes. (b) nitrogen
(c) phosphate
(c) ascomycetes and phycomycetes.
(d) phosphate and sugar
(d) phycomycetes and zygomycetes. 175. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of
168. The unique feature of bryophytes compared to chromosomes is ______
other plant groups is that (a) interphase (b) metaphase
(a) they produce spores. (c) prophase (d) telophase
(b) they lack vascular tissues. 176. Which one of the following is essential for the
(c) they lack roots. respiration as well as photosynthesis?
(d) their sporophyte is attached to the (a) Ubiquinone (b) Cytochrome
gametophyte. (c) RuBisCO (d) Plastocyanin
169. Which of the following is a living fossil? 177. Gibberellin was first extracted from
(a) Balanoglossus (b) Echinus (a) fungi
(c) Ancylostoma (d) Limulus (b) algae
170. Which of the following groups of plants have (c) bacteria
(d) roots of higher plants
underground stems?
178. Oxyntic cells are located in
(a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, (a) Islets of langerhans.
zaminkand (b) gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin.
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, (c) kidneys and secrete renin.
Colocasia (d) gastric epithelium and secrete HCl.
(c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, zaminkand, 179. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
Colocasia deoxyhaemoglobin at
(d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, zaminkand, (a) low O2 pressure in tissue.
Colocasia (b) high O2 pressure in tissue.
171. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food (c) equal O2 pressure inside and outside tissue.
because they possess (d) all times irrespective of O2 pressure.
(a) bordered pits. 180. The given figure represents the pathway of
(b) no ends walls. blood throughout the body.
(c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls.
(d) no protoplasm. Lungs
172. Which of the following is involved in the
production of new blood cells ? (3) (4)
(a) Adipose cell (b) Bone marrow
Heart
(c) Liver (d) Matrix
173. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
(a) specialized granules responsible for (1) (2)
colouration of cells.
Body
(b) structures responsible for organizing the
tissues
shape of the organism.
(c) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells Identify the correct match of marked number 1, 2,
3 and 4.
for carrying out various metabolic activities.
(a) 1- Artery
(d) internal membrane system which becomes
(b) 2- Pulmonary vein
extensive and complex in photosynthetic
(c) 3- Pulmonary artery
bacteria.
(d) 4- Vein
 43
Section-IV Directions (Q.188-190): In the questions given below,
(ENGLISH COMPREHENSIVE) a sentence is given with an underlined word followed
by four options. Select the option that is opposite in
Directions (Q.181-184): In each of the questions
meaning to the underlined word.
given below, a/an idiom/phrase is given in underline
which is then followed by four options which then try 188. She is busy doing a tedious task.
to decipher its meaning as used in the sentence. (a) stupid (b) boring
Choose the option which gives the meaning of the (c) exciting (d) dull
idiom/phrase most appropriately in context of the 189. He is delighted to receive the first prize.
given sentence. (a) excited (b) sad
181. They finally saw eye to eye on the business (c) cheerful (d) joyful
deal. 190. Please delineate the lecture to me.
(a) agreeing with someone (a) recite (b) distort
(b) starting argument (c) write (d) give
(c) move fast
(d) stiff competition Section-V (LOGICAL A ND
182. They really cut corners when they built this QUANTITATIVE REASONING)
tank, it’s leaking.
191. Complete the given series
(a) to do great work
(b) to do something badly or cheaply 46, 55, 71, 96, ?
(c) to do something very fast (a) 142 (b) 132
(d) to destroy resources (c) 162 (d) 192
183. I go to my uncle once in a blue moon. 192. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z.
(a) regularly If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction
(b) usually of Y, is P?
(c) when someone calls someone (a) North (b) South
(d) an event that happens infrequently (c) South-west (d) North-east
184. She agreed for the picnic at the drop of a hat. 193. Find the missing number
(a) instantly
(b) to take too much time 3 6 2
(c) lazily
(d) effortlessly
5 12 4 5 18 2 5 ? 2
Directions (Q.185-187): In the questions given below,
a sentence is given with an underlined word followed
by four options. Select the option that is nearest in 2 3 9
meaning to the underlined word.
(a) 18 (b) 19
185. Only a health problem would deter him from (c) 16 (d) 20
seeking re-election. 194. Identify the figure that completes the pattern
(a) discourage (b) allow
(c) help (d) enlighten
186. In the last match, Indian team made a mammoth
total. ?
(a) meager (b) small
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(c) huge (d) tough
187. I was filled with jubilation to see you. (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) joy (b) anger (c) 3 (d) 4
(c) animosity (d) humour
 44
195. If “MANAGER” is coded as “3141756” and (a) Priya (b) Riya
“SEER” is coded as “8556”. Then what will be (c) Ritika (d) Mohan
the code for “RANGES”? 199. Akram is the son of Shahid. Shahid’s sister, Julie
(a) 614267 (b) 612547 has a son Zeeshan and a daughter Yana. Zeba
(c) 614758 (d) 615768 is the sister of Zeeshan’s mother. How is Yana
196. P 3 C, R 5 F, T8I, V12L, ?
related to Zeba?
(a) X17M (b) X16O
(a) Mother (b) Grand-daughter
(c) Y17O (d) X17O
(c) Sister (d) Niece
197. In a class Harsh is 10th from the top and Harshita
200. Statements: In a one day cricket match, the total
is 20th from the bottom. Naveen is 11 ranks
above Harshita and 21 ranks below Harsh. How runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160
many students are there in the class? runs were made by spinners.
(a) 60 (b) 61 Conclusions:
(c) 62 (d) 58 I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
198. Mohan, Ritika, Janvi, Priya and Riya are friends. II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
Janvi runs faster than Ritika but slower than (a) Only conclusion I follows
Priya. Mohan is the slowest runner and Riya (b) Only conclusion II follows
runs faster than Priya. Who runs the fastest (c) Either I or II follows
among the five? (d) Neither I nor II follow
 45

Hints and Solutions

Section-I (PHYSICS) DP
9. (b) F=
Dt
1. (c) I = nAeVd
m
Now I is constant
V
1 q
Vd µ
A q
V
d 1 m
If diameter of wire is then area is
4 16
times so new drift velocity = 16Vd 2mV cos q
F=
Dt
æI ö
2. (a) B1 = 10 log10 ç 1 ÷ 2 ´ 0.5 ´12 ´ 3
è I0 ø ÞF=
2 ´1
æI ö F = 6 3 newton
and B2 = 10 log10 ç 2 ÷
è I0 ø 10. (c) Any type of magnetic field cannot change
kinetic energy of charged particle. So
æI ö æI ö k1 = k2 = k
80 = 10 log10 ç 1 ÷ Þ 40 = 10 log10 ç 2 ÷
è I0 ø è I0 ø 1 2
mv = qV so velocity v µ V
11. (d)
2
æI ö I
108 = ç 1 ÷ Þ 104 = 2 and force F = qvB Þ F µ V
è I0 ø I0
So, new force F = 2F
8
I1 10 12. (a) P= 2mK
So, = = 104
I 2 104
P1 K1 1 1
3. (a) Due to g-decay there will be no effect on Þ = = =
P2 K2 4 2
neutron and proton numbers.
So, P2 = 2P1
V 2 1 Momentum will be doubled.
4. (a) I= = = A = 0.1 A
Req 20 10 13. (a) Only transverse wave can show
5. (d) Major charge carriers in n-type polarization. So polarization proves that
semiconductor are electrons not holes. light is a transverse wave.
14. (c) If R < 2000 then flow will be laminar. So
6. (c) Pure silicon is semiconductor
maximum Reynold's number = 2000.
7. (a) Ft = mV2 - mV1 Þ 10 ´ 0.25 = Pf - Pi
u 2 sin(2q) 98 ´ 98 ´ sin(60)
Þ Pf = 2.5 15. (a) Range R = =
g 9.8
2 2
8. (b) 1 H+ 1H ® 24 He is fusion process
= 490 3 meter.
 46
16. (c) At extreme position velocity is zero and
T1 - T0 62 - 5 C - 0 57 C
acceleration will be tangential as shown. 21. (b) = = = =
T2 - T0 95 - 5 100 90 100

570
ÞC = = 63.33°C
9
10°
22. (b) Y = 5 sin(50pt - pk )
Now w = 50p
a
2p 2p
So T = = = 0.04 s
w 50p
u 2 sin(2q) 23. (b) When a satellite revolving in circular orbit
17. (b) Range R =
g its speed remains constant but velocity
changes. So K.E. will remain constant while
For maximum range 2q = 90°
momentum will change.
Þ q = 45° 24. (d) Laser light is polarized but normal light is
18. (c) Time of flight not polarized.
2u 2 ´16 25. (a) Pressure at A will be equal to atmospheric
T= = = 3.2 s pressure P0.
g 10
26. (b) P0 + r w g (10) = P0 + ral g (12)
work output r w10 = ral (12)
19. (c) Efficiency h =
heat input
1 ´ 10
ral = = 0.83g/cm3
1 500 12
Þ =
2 heat input 27. (a) Potential energy
Heat input = 1000. 1 1
U= mw 2 x 2 = ´ 0.5 ´ 25 ´ (10-2 )2
2 2
T2
20. (a) Efficiency h = 1 -
T1 25
= ´ 10-4 Joule = 6.25 × 10–4 Joule
4
1 T T2 5 5T Kinetic energy
Þ = 1- 2 Þ = Þ T2 = 1
6 T1 T1 6 6
1
K= mw 2 ( A2 - x 2 )
2
T2' 1 (T - 62)
Now, h ' = 1 - Þ 2 ´ = 1- 2
1
T1 6 T1 = ´ 0.5 ´ 25[25 - 1] ´ 10-4
2
T2 - 62 2 = 150 × 10–4 joule
Þ = Þ 3T2 - 186 = 2T1
T1 3 n ×V
28. (a) f =
2l
æ 5T ö
Þ 3ç 1 ÷ - 186 = 2T1
è 6 ø n ´ 332
Þ 1000 =
2 ´ 16.6 ´10 -2
5 T
Þ T1 - 2T1 = 186 Þ 1 = 186 n ´ 332
2 2 Þ 10 = Þn=1
33.2
\ T1 = 372 K
 47

rl 4rl pRd 2 dy
29. (a) R= ÞR= Þr= 32. (c) Dynamic viscosity m = t ×
p(d / 2) 2
pd 2
4l dc
t = shearing stress
Dr DR 2Dd Dl
= + + dy
r R d l = velocity gradient
dc
Dr 1 2 × (0.5) 0.1 m = t × m = [ M 1L-1T -2 ][T 1 ] = [M 1L-1T -1 ]
Þ = + +
r 65 10 5
same as that of coefficient of viscosity.
Dr Kq1 q2
Þ = 0.015 + 0.1 + 0.02 33. (b) F=
r r2

Dr 9 ´109 ´ 8 ´ 10-6 ´ 4 ´10 -6

Þ » 0.13 Þ 0.2 =
r r2
So 13% error.
9 ´8´ 4
Þ r2 = ´ 10 -3
30. (b) For disc 0.2
5 9 ´8´ 4
MK12 = MR 2 Þ r2 = ´10 -2
4
2
5 r = 12 × 10–1 meter = 1.2 m.
Þ K1 = R 34. (b) Net displacement is zero
2 For Ring
circumference
3 3 Total distance covered =
MK 22 = MR 2 Þ K 2 = R 4
2 2
2p ´ (1) p
= + 2 = + 2 = 3.57 km
4 2

total distance
Average speed =
time

3.57
= = 3.57 km/h
1
K1 5´ 2 5
So, = = 1
K2 2´ 3 6 35. (b) w=
LC
31. (a) From angular momentum conservation
Now if L ' = 2 L, C ' = 4C
I1w1 + I 2 w 2 = ( I1 + I 2 )w
1
w' =
Þ 2 ´ 8 + 4 ´ 4 = 6w 2 L × 4C
Þ 32 = 6w 1 1 w
w' = × =
2 2 LC 2 2
32 16
\ w= = rad/sec.
6 3
 48
45. (c) Angle of minimum deviation
1
36. (a) w=
LC æ A + dm ö æ 60° + dm ö
sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷
è 2 ø è 2 ø
1 m= Þ 3=
w= = 1000 rad/sec æ Aö æ 60° ö
sin ç ÷ sin ç
10 ´ 10 -3
-3 è 2ø è 2 ÷ø

37. (b) F = ma
F = 50 × 0.5) g = 25 g = 250 newton. æ d ö 3 d
Þ sin ç 30° + m ÷ = Þ 30° + m = 60°
38. (a) Magnetic field at center è 2ø 2 2
Þ dm = 60°.
m0 I e eV
B= where I = , I = 46. (b) Transition from higher states to n = 2 lead
2r T 2 pr
to emission of radiation with wavelengths
39. (a) 40. (b) 656.3 nm and 365.0 nm. These wavelengths
41. (c) Energy stored per unit volume fall in the visible region and constitute the
Balmer series.
1
= ´ stress ´ strain 2
2 47. (d) P= E
3
1
= ´ stress ´ (stress / Young ' s modulus )
2 q (Ze)
48. (b) V= =
4 p e o r 4p Î0 r
1
= ´ (stress ) 2 /( Young ' s modulus )
2
(50 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 )
9 ´ 109 = 8 ´ 10 6 V
S2 9 ´ 10-15
=
2Y 49. (a) For a given photosensitive material and µ
42. (d) When oil is placed between space of plates frequency > threshold frequency
photoelectric current µ intensity.
2 Ae 0 50. (c) E.m.f. will remain same because change in
C= ... (1)
d area per unit time will be same in both cases.

é KAe 0 ù 1 æ 1 1 ö
51. (a) = (m - 1)çç - ÷÷
êQ C = d , where K = 2ú f R
è 1 R ø
ë û 2

1 æ1 1ö
Ae 0 = (1.5 - 1)ç - ÷
When oil is removed C' = ... (2) 16 èR ¥ø
d
1 1
on comparing both equation, weget Þ = 0.5 ´ Þ R = 8 cm
16 R
C' = C/2
43. (b) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field GM GM
52. (c) g= ; g' =
2
moves, from stronger to the weaker parts of R (0.99R ) 2
the field.
44. (c) lm > l v > l x g' æ R 2 ö
\ =ç ÷ Þ g' > g
g è 0.99R2 ø
 49
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
l l
53. (c) From T = 2p ; g = 4p 2 61. (b) Osmotic pressure (p) = icRT
g T2
for isotonic solutions
D g Dl 2 DT c1 = c2
= + = ( y + 2x )
g l T 5 ´1000 3 1000
= ´
342 ´ 100 M 100
hc 12400 12400
54. (b) l min . = = = = 0.62Å
eV V 20 ´103 M =
3
´ 342 = 205.2
5
e 1
55. (b) From e = LdI / dt, dI / dt = = = 1As -1 62. (c) Alanine (amino acid) forms a dipolar ion
L 1
known as zwitter ion in aqueous solution.
1 æ 2q 2 8q 2 4q 2 ö CH3 – CH – COOH CH3 – CH – COO
–
56. (d) U= ç - - ÷
4pe0 çè a a a ÷ø
+
NH2 NH3
Zwitter ion
1 æ 10q 2 ö
Þ U = 4pe çç - a ÷÷ 63. (c) pOH = – log [OH–]
0è ø
0.1 M NaOH give 0.1 M OH–
\ pOH = – log 0.1 = 1
9 ´ 109 ´ 10 ´ (0.1 ´10 -6 )2
U=- pH + pOH = 14
Þ æ 10 ö pH = 14 – pOH
ç ÷
è 100 ø pH = 14 – 1 = 13
Þ U = – 9 × 10–3J pOH = 1 pH = 13
64. (a) At cathode, reduction reaction with higher
100
57. (c) K= = 106 atm value of E0 is preferred while at anode
0.01/100 oxidation reaction with lower value of E0
= 1011 N/m2 = 1012 dyne/cm2 is preferred.
V V 1
58. (c) tan d = = = ® H 2 + 2OH-
Cathode : 2H 2O + 2e- ¾¾
H 3V 3
Anode : 2Cl- ¾¾
® Cl2 + 2e-
\ d = 30º = p / 6 radian
65. (d) A buffer solution is an aqueous solution
59. (a) of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or
2 1 vice-versa.
60. (c) Moles of He = =
4 2 HCl is a strong acid
\ NH4Cl and HCl can not behave as
1
Molecules = ´ 6.02 ´ 10 23 = 3.01 × 1023 buffer.
2 66. (a) According to ECS Ag+ can be displaced
As there are 3 degr ees of freedom by Cu. Cu is a stronger reducing agent
corresponding to 1 molecule of a than Ag.
monatomic gas.
67. (a) SARAN, a polymer of vinyl chloride
\ Total degrees of freedom = 3 × 3.01 × 1023 (CH2= CHCl) and vinylidene chloride, is
= 9.03 × 1023 used for making synthetic hair wigs.
 50
1 1 Na
68. (b) H 2 + Cl2 ¾¾ ® HCl 72. (a) R — X ¾¾¾® R — R (Wurtz reaction)
ether
2 2
73. (b) Basic nature :
1
DHf = B.E. (H 2 ) ´ + B.E. (Cl 2 ) ´ NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3.
2
1-g g 1-g g
1 74. (c) P1 T1 = P2 T2
- B.E. (HCl)
2
1-g g
æ P1 ö æT ö
1 1 or ç ÷ =ç 2÷
= (434) + (242) - (-93) èP ø
2 è T1 ø
2 2
= 431 kJmol–1 3
1- 3/2
- E a /RT æ 1 ö 2 æ T2 ö
69. (a) k = Ae çè ÷ø =ç
8 è 300 ÷ø
If Ea = 0 then k is constant
70. (c) Sucrose is a disaccharide of glucose and 1 2
fructose. Sucrose is dextro-rotatory but - ´
æ 1ö 2 3 T
after hydrolysis gives dextro-rotatory çè ÷ø = 2 Þ 2 ´ 300 = T2
8 300
glucose and laevo-rotatory fructose.
\ T2 = 600 K
CH2 – OH
75. (d) Ferrimagnetic substances change their
71. (a) This is an alcohol nature on heating and become magnetic.
e.g. Fe3O4, ZnFe2O4, MgFe2O4.
76. (a) Both are correct and reason explain the
OH
assertion.
This is an enol 77. (a) Grignard reagent can't be prepared in
CH3 presence of alcohol, because acidic
Both have different chemical properties. hydrogen of alcohol will quench the
reaction.
78. (b) The ease of dehydration can be determined by comparing the stability of intermediate carbocation.
Å Å
CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 CH 3 - CH 2 - CH - CH 3
(I) (II)

Å Å
CH 2 = CH - CH - CH3
(III)
(IV)
(IV) intermediate carbocation is most stable due to resonance followed by (III) which is allylic carbocation.
Next is (II) as it is a secondary carbocation and least stable is (I) as it is a primary carbocation.
Alternatively, ease of dehydration can be determined from the stability of the product formed.

> CH 2 = CH - CH = CH 2 > CH3 CH = CHCH3 > CH3 CH 2 CH = CH 2

From IV From III From II From I

most stable conjugated more substituted Least stable
alkene alkene (terminal alkene)
 51
79. (c) V3+ : 3d2, e–
no. of unpaired = 2
80. (c) In O2 molecule, 2 unpaired e–'s are present Fe2+ : 3d , no. of unpaired e– = 4
6

in p* 2p antibonding molecular of O2 V : 3d1, no. of unpaired e– = 1

4+

molecule and in S2 unpaired electrons are Ti2+ : 3d2, no. of unpaired e– = 2

present in p*3p antibonding orbital : \ Fe2+ has maximum unpaired electrons.
O2 & S2 are paramagnetic. Higher the number of unpaired electrons,
81. (a) higher will be the paramagnetic character.
82. (b) Valence configuration

83. (c) First three HCHO molecules react with acetaldehyde via crossed aldol condensation, while the
fourth HCHO molecule reacts via crossed Cannizzaro reaction.
O
||
Ca ( OH ) HCHO , Ca ( OH )
CH 3CHO + H - C- H ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾2 ® CH 2 OH . CH 2 CHO ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾
2
®
Methanal ( crossed aldol ) ( crossed aldol )
Ethanal ( Two a - H )
(3 a - hydrogen ) ( no a - H ) condensation
.

CH2OH CH2OH
HCHO, Ca(OH) 2
CH – CH2OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
(crossed aldol)
HOH2C – C – CH2OH
CHO CHO
(1 a – H) (No a –H)

HCHO, Ca(OH) 2 1
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® C(CH 2 OH) 4 + (HCOO ) 2 Ca
(crossed Cannizzaro) 2

84. (c) Acetone and propanal have same Q 40 40F

molecular formula i.e. C3H6O and different = ÞQ=
3F 27 9
functional group.
87. (c) Oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+
COOH COCl is
x + (4 × 0) + (–1 × 2) = +1
SOCl2 NH3
85. (d) Þ x - 2 = +1 Þ x = +3
Br Br 88. (b) E 0cell = E 0red - E oxid.
0

= 0.36 + 0.74 = 1.10 V

CONH2 NH2
DG 0 = - nFE 0
NaOH
Br 2 = –2 × 96500 × 1.10 J = –212.30 kJ
Br Br 89. (c) Combined Gas Law :
86. (c) Al3+ + 3e - ¾¾® Al P1 V1 P2 V2
=
1 mol of Al require 3F for electrolysis. T1 T2
ne 1´ 24.6 10 ´ V
= n Al Þ = Þ V = 5.2L
3 300 646
 52
90. (c)
h
me v1r1 = n1
O S O O 2p
|| || || ||
S S S S h
, , , & me v 2 r2 = n 2

||
||

–O 2p

||
O O
||

O
||
O O
(SO3)
O– O– O– m e v1r1 n
= 1
(S2O32–) (S2O62–) m e v2 r2 n 2
O O Given, r1 = 5 r2, n1 = 5, n2 = 4
|| ||
S S m e ´ v1 ´ 5r2 5
=
||

O
||

O–O O me ´ v2 ´ r2 4
O– O–
(S2O82–) v1 5 1
Þ = = = 1: 4
Hence (c) is the correct option. v2 4 ´ 5 4
91. (b) HCN is weakest acid, hence its conjugate 97. (c) As per Einstein's equation of photoelectric
base CN– is strongest conjugate base. effect
92. (a) Solution with same osmotic pressures are hn = hno + K.E.
called isotonic.
1 hc hc
93. (a) Oxidation number of \ mn 2 = hn - hn o = -
2 l lo
(i) S in SO2 = +4
(ii) N in HNO3 = +5 (max. value) 2hc æ 1 1 ö
n2 = ç - ÷;
(iii) N in HNO2 = +3 m è l lo ø
(iv) Cl in HClO4 = +7 (max. value)
1/2
SO2 and HNO2 can act as both oxidizing é 2hc æ 1 1 öù
n=ê ç - ÷ú
and reducing agents. êë m è l lo øúû
94. (a) A : 300 g of 25% w/w
B : 400 g of 40% w/w 1/2
é 2hc æ l o - l ö ù
w/w % of A Þ ê ç ÷ú
ëê m è ll o ø ûú
75
= ´ 100 = 10.71% 98. (b) Ionization energy is not the only criteria
300 + 400 for the stability of an oxidation state.
w/w % of B Al (III) is more stable because it has inert
160 gas configuration i.e. 1s22s22p63s03p0,
= ´100 = 22.85% whereas Na(II) has non-in ert gas
300 + 400
configuration i.e. 1s22s22p5 and hence
95. (a) The potential difference between the fixed
Al(III) is more stable than Na(II).
layer and the diffused layer of opposite 99. (b)
charges around the colloidal particle is
called electrokinetic potential or Zeta ® Ba ( ClO3 )2 + 5BaCl 2 + 6H 2 O
6Cl2 + 2Ba ( OH )2 ¾¾
potential. Ba ( ClO3 )2 + H 2SO 4 ¾¾
® 2HClO3 + BaSO 4 ¯
96. (d) From the expression of Bohr’s theory, we (Y )
D 1
know that 2HClO3 ¾¾¾¾® 2ClO 2 + H 2 O + O2
D>365 K 2
 53
100. (d) Carbon dioxide formed in water gas shift reactions are also called thermonuclear
reaction is removed by scrubbing with reactions.
sodium arsenite solution. 102. (b) As the size of alkali metal ion increases,
101. (a) A fusion reaction between hydrogen nuclei lattice enthalpy decreases and hence the
is difficult because positively charged stability of the corresponding metal
nuclei repel each other. However, at very hydride decreases.
high temperatures of the order of 106 to 103. (c) MgSO4 is the only alkaline earth metal
107 K, the nuclei may have sufficient sulphate which is soluble in water because
energy to overcome the repulsive forces its hydration energy is greater than its
and thus fuse together. This is why, fusion lattice energy.
hydrolysis
104. (d) 2CaF2 (s) + SiO 2 (s) + Conc.H 2SO 4 ® SiF4 (g) + H 2O(l) + CaSO 4 (aq) ¾¾¾¾¾
® CaSiF6 (s)
(white ppt.)

105. (d) Mg2C3 consists of C34 - type of anionic (Q 3a = 4R in bcc lattice )

part.
106. (b) CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2 7pR 3
107. (d) 3 7p 3
108. (d) Effective no. of atoms of B present in a Desired ratio Þ =
64 3 64
unit cell = 2 R
3 3
Total volume of B unoccupied by A in a
unit cell 1
109. (a) Number of A atoms = ´ 8 =1
8
ìr = radius of A ü
= 2´
3
(
4 3 3
R -r ´p ) í
îR = radius of Bþ
ý
1
Number of B atoms = ´6 =3
2
7pR 3 æ Rö
= çQ r = ÷ \ Formula of the substance is AB3.
3 è 2ø
Volume of unit cell = a3
+1
3
æ 4R ö 64 3 110. (d) (Individual ring are aromatic because
Þ ç ÷ = R
they follows Huckel's rule (4n+2)p e's)
è 3 ø 3 3
–1

111. (d) The intermediate s-complex II is much more stable than III which is equally stable to I.

CH 3 CH3 CH3
E E E
H >> H » H
+ + +
CH 3
CH 3

II III I
Two resonating structures are 3° Only one resonating structure Only one resonating
carbocation (most stable) is 3° carbocation is 3° carbocation
 54
113. (b) Bessemerization ®
–
d+
d MgBr D
112. (c) ¾¾® ; Self reduction in copper
Polling ® refining process
Br 114. (a) The formula of Marshall's acid is H2S2O8.
115. (c)
Heat favours elimination reaction.

¬¾®
+
+
3° 3° allylic carbocation
carbocation (more stable)

Intermediates

116. (b) Heavy metal ions, particularly Ag+, catalyse SN1 reaction because of presence of empty d-orbital.
–
slow OH +
CH3CH 2Br + Ag + [CH3CH2 .... Br .... Ag]+ ¾¾® CH3CH2 ¾ ¾¾ ® CH3CH2OH
(–AgBr) from H2O

117. (c) It is an example of intramolecular aldol condensation

O O O
H O
OH –
OH

118. (c) D EN = 3.0 – 1.2 = 1.8; Bond will polar covalent bond.
119. (c) OH– and –CH2CHO act as nucleophile in the first two steps.

O- OH
- | |
OH CH 3CHO H 2O
CH3 CHO ¾¾¾® CH 2 CHO ¾¾¾¾¾
® CH3C H ¾¾¾® CH3 C H
| (as an acid) |
CH2CHO CH2CHO

120. (d) Cellulose acetate has been used in the manufacture of non-inflammable photographic films.

Section-III (BIOLOGY) and stick to each other; thus forming a

rouleau.
121. (a) Rouleaux (sing. is rouleau) are stacks or
122. (b) Selenocysteine (Sec) and pyrrolysine (Pyl)
aggregations of red blood cells (RBCs)
are rare amino acids that are
which form because of the unique discoid
cotranslationally inserted into proteins and
shape of the cells in vertebrates. The flat
known as the 21st and 22nd amino acids in
surface of the discoid RBCs gives them a
the genetic code.
large surface area to make contact with

123. (a) Metaphase-I is the stage of cell division
in which the duplicated chromosomes
become aligned along the center of the
cell, called the equatorial plate or
metaphase plate.
124. (b) Heterotrichous algae are those algae
whose thalli (singular thallus) have well
developed prostrate and erect systems.
E.g; Ectocarpus
125. (b) The sacculus rotundus exists at the
ileocaecal junction. It is an enlargement
of the large intestine and contains
lymphoid tissue.
126. (a) Brunner's glands are unique to mammalian
species and in eutherians are confined
primarily to the submucosa of the
proximal duodenum.
127. (a)
128. (b)
129. (b) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), the main auxin
in higher plants, has profound effects on
plant growth and development.
130. (a) R.Q value of 0.7 indicates that lipids are
being metabolized, 0.8 for proteins, and
1.0 for carbohydrates.
131. (a) Anaerobic respiration makes a total of 2
ATP. Aerobic respiration is much more
efficient and can produce up to 38 ATP
with a single molecule of glucose.
Aerobic respiration:
C6H12O6 ® 6CO2 + 6H2O + 6O2 + 38 ATP
Anaerobic respiration
55
C6H12O6 ® 2Ethyl alcohol + 2CO2 + 2
ATP (as in yeast)
132. (b)
133. (c) The perianth is undifferentiated
(perigonium) and biseriate (two whorled),
formed from six tepals arranged into two
separate whorls of three parts (trimerous)
each.
134. (a) In molecular genetics, a repressor is a
DNA or RNA binding protein that inhibits
the expression of one or more genes by
binding to the operator or associated
silencers. A DNA-binding repressor
blocks the attachment of RNA polymerase
to the promoter, thus preventing
transcription of the genes into messenger
RNA.
135. (a) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
(TdT), also known as DNA
nucleotidylexotransferase (DNTT) or
terminal transferase, is template
independent DNA polymerase.
136. (d) XYY syndrome is a rare chromosomal
disorder that affects males. It is caused
by the presence of an extra Y
chromosome. Males normally have one X
and one Y ch romosome. However,
individuals with this syndrome have one
X and two Y chromosomes. Affected
individuals are usually very tall.
137. (a) Passive immunity is the transfer of active
humoral immunity of ready-made

antibodies. Passive immunity is also
provided through colostrum and breast
milk, which contain IgA antibodies that
are transferred to the infant.
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the only
antibody isotype that can pass through
the human placenta, and is the most
common antibody of the five types of
antibodies found in the body.
138. (a) The eyespot apparatus (or stigma) is a
photoreceptive organelle found in the
flagellate or (motile) cells of green algae
and other unicellular photosynthetic
organisms such as euglenids.
139. (a) Inhibin is a lipoprotein secreted by
granulosa (female) and sertoli (male) cells
in response to FSH, and its major action
is the negative feedback control of
pituitary FSH secretion.
140. (b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH):
regulates hormone production in the
thyroid gland. Adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH): stimulates the adrenal
glands to produce hormones such as
adrenalin (epinephrine) or steroids.
141. (a) Volume of body fluids in a person of 70
kg weight will be 42 liter, out of which
intracellular fluid will be 28 Liter, volume
of interstitial fluid will be 11 Liter and
plasma volume will be 3 Liter.
142. (a) A - Cocci (spherical), B - Bacilli (rod
shaped), C - Spirilla (spiral), D - Vibrio
56
(comma shaped). These are all the shapes
of the bacteria.
143. (a) The given figures A (tracheid) and B
(vessel) are types of xylem (C). Xylem is
the vascular tissue in plants which
conducts water and dissolved nutrients
upwards from the root and also helps to
form the woody element in the stem. It
consists of tracheids, vessels, parenchyma
cells, and woody fibres.
Tracheid is an elongated, tapering xylem
cell having lignified, and pitted, intact walls
which lacks perforations in the cell wall.
Tracheids have pits where the cell wall is
modified into a thin membrane, across
which water flows from tracheid to tracheid.
The cells die when mature, leaving only
their lignified cell walls. Tracheids are found
in all vascular plants. It is adapted for
conduction and support.
Vessels are a long straight chain made of
tough long dead cells known as vessel
elements or vessel members. The vessel
cells, devoid of protoplasm, are arranged
end to end and the cell walls have
disappeared. This makes a tube. They have
a lignified cell wall and a large central cavity.
144. (d) Collagen is the most abundant protein in
the human body. In the dense regular
connective tissues, the collagen fibres are
present in rows between many parallel
bundles of fibres. Tendons, which attach

skeletal muscles to bones are example of
this tissue.
145. (c) Cobalt chloride is used to study water from
a leaf and turns colour on absorbing water.
146. (a)
147. (c) By studying purple sulphur bacteria and
green sulphur bacteria, Cornelius Van Niel
was the first scientist to demonstrate that
photosynthesis is a light-dependent redox
reaction in 1931, in which hydrogen from an
oxidizable compound reduces carbon
dioxide to cellular materials. This can be
expressed as: 2 H2A + CO2 ® 2A + CH2O +
H2O, where A is the electron acceptor. His
discovery predicted that H 2 O is the
hydrogen donor in green plant
photosynthesis and is oxidized to O2.
148. (d) Trachea is a membranous tube supported
by “C” shaped cartilage ring. The
cartilage ring protects the trachea from
collapse and injury.
149. (d) Sweat glands are highly vascular and
tubular glands that separate the waste
products from the blood and excrete them
in the form of sweat. Sweat excretes excess
salt and water from the body.
150. (a) Urine is a liquid produced by the kidneys
to remove waste pr oducts from th e
bloodstream. Human urine is transparent,
yellowish in colour and variable in chemical
composition. It consists primarily of water
(95%), with organic solutes including urea
57
(2.6%), creatinine, uric acid, and trace
amounts of enzymes, carbohydrates,
hormones, fatty acids, pigments, and
mucins, and inorganic ions such as sodium
(Na +), potassium (K+), chloride (Cl –),
magnesium (Mg 2+ ), calcium (Ca 2+ ),
ammonium (NH4+), sulfates (SO42–), and
phosphates (PO43–).
151. (b) Central part of thick filament, not
overlapped by thin filaments is called the
‘H’ zone. ‘H’ zone is also called Hensen’s
Line.
152. (c) The amount of light that falls on retina is
regulated by iris. Iris is the anterior part
and lies behind the cornea.
153. (c)
154. (b)
155. (d) Female steriliztion (called tubectomy)
prevents fertilization by interrupting te
passage tr oug fallopian tube. Eggs
continues to be produced but they fail to
pass into the uterus. In tubectomy, a small
part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
up through a small incision in the abdomen
or through vagina.
156. (a) Law of segregation (originated by Gregor
Mendel) states that during the production
of gametes the two copies of each
hereditary factor do not blend or mix up
with each other but remains together and
segregate (or separate) so that offspring
obtains one factor from each parent.

157. (c) Hugo de Vries, a Dutch botanist, one of
the independent rediscoverers of
Mendelism, put forward his views regarding
the formation of new species in 1901.
According to him, new species are not
formed by continuous variations but by
sudden appearance of variations, which he
named as mutations. Hugo de Vries stated
that mutations are heritable and persist in
successive generations. He conducted his
experiments on Oenothera lamarckiana
(evening primrose).
158. (d) Malaria is a serious infectious disease
caused by four different species of a parasite
belonging to genus Plasmodium:
Plasmodium falciparum (the most deadly),
Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae,
and Plasmodium ovale. It is characterized
by recurrent symptoms of chills, fever, and
an enlarged spleen. Malignant malaria is
caused by P. falciparum.
159. (c) Cobalt 60 is the synthetic radioactive
isotope of cobalt. Gamma rays are produced
when an unstable atomic nucleus like
cobalt-60 releases energy to gain stability.
Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma are the
two important varieties of wheat that are
produced by gamma ray treatment of
Sonora-64 and Lerma Rojo-64 which are
Mexican dwarf wheat varieties.
160. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in the
production of statins. Statins are used in
lowering blood cholestrol.
58
161. (b) ADA is a genetic (inherited) condition that
results in an immune deficiency disorder
called severe combined immunodeficiency
disease. The main site of production of
ADA in the body is lymphocytes [a form
of small leucocyte (white blood cell) with a
single round nucleus, occurring especially
in the lymphatic system and which plays a
large role in defending the body against
disease.
162. (a) Stenothermal organisms are those
organisms which are capable to live or
survive within a limited range of temperature.
163. (a) The flow of energy in an ecosystem is
unidirectional. That is, it flows from the
producer level to the consumer level and
never in the reverse direction. Hence,
energy can be used only once in the
ecosystem. But the minerals circulate and
recirculate many times in the ecosystem.
164. (b) Global warming is predicted to be a major
cause of extinction in the future. Global
warming is the regular increase in the overall
temperature of the earth's atmosphere
which is generally credited to the
greenhouse effect caused by increased
levels of harmful gases like carbon dioxide,
CFCs, and other pollutants.
165. (b) The excessive growth of a floating plant,
Water Hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes)
has caused havoc in India by blocking our
water- ways. In India it is also known as

‘Terror of Bengal’. It grows abundantly in
nutrient rich water bodies and causes an
imbalance in the aquatic ecosystem.
166. (c) Cats belong to the family Felidae.
167. (a) In fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes),
kayrogamy is delayed and occurs just
before meiosis. In the stage intervening
between plasmogamy and karyogamy the
cells often contain two nuclei or dikaryons
(n + n). Such cells are called dikaryotic
cells. The phase is known as dikaryophase.
168. (d) In bryophytes, zygotes donot undergo
reduction division immediately. They
produce a multicellular body called a
sporophyte. The sporophyte is not a free-
living but attached to the photosynthetic
gametophyte and derives nourishment
from it.
169. (d) Limulus commonly known as king crab
belongs to phylum arthropoda. It is a living
fossil and large sized marine arthropod.
170. (b) Underground stems are non green stems
that may take part in perennation, store food
or help in vegetative propagation .
Underground stems of potato, ginger,
turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are
modified stem to store food in them.
171. (c) Phloem is a conducting tissue that
transports food materials, usually from
leaves to other part of the plants. In
phloem, sieve elements arranged one above
the other in distinct linear rows and have
59
sieve plates (oblique or transverse
perforated septa) on their end walls. These
are associated with companion cells.
172. (b) Bone marrow is the flexible tissue in the
interior of bones. In humans, red blood cells
are produced by cores of bone marrow in
the heads of long bones in a process
known as haematopoiesis. Bone marrow is
also a key component of the lymphatic
system, producing the lymphocytes that
support the body's immune system.
173. (d) In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria,
there are membranous extensions into the
cytoplasm called chromatophores which
contain pigments.
174. (c) A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous
base covalently attached to a sugar (ribose
or deoxyribose) but without the phosphate
group. A nucleotide consists of a
nitrogenous base, a sugar (ribose or
deoxyribose) and one to three phosphate
groups.
Nucleoside = Sugar + Base
Nucleotide = Sugar + Base + Phosphate
175. (b) Metaphase is the best stage to count the
number of chromosomes and study their
morphology.
176. (b) Cytochrome is a compound which consists
of haem bonded to a protein and function
as electron transfer agents in many
metabolic pathways, especially cellular
respiration.
 60
177. (a) Gibberellin is very a important plant 184. (a) instantly
hormone which was first of all reported in 185. (a) discourage
Japan, where a disease in rice called ‘bakane 186. (c) huge
disease’ or foolish seedling disease spread, 187. (a) joy
in which rice plants became abnormally 188. (c) exciting
long with significant internodal elongation. 189. (b) sad
Sawada reported that this ‘bakane disease’ 190. (b) distort
is caused by a chemical secreted by the Section-V (LOGICAL AND
fungus Gibberella fujikuroi and later it was QUANTITATIVE REASONING)
supported by Kurosawa. Yahuta and
191. (b) 132
Sumuki finally isolated and crystallize these
192. (c) South- west
chemicals and named them as gibberellic
X
Y
acids or gibberellins (GA3).
Z
178. (d) Oxyntic cells are found on the inner wall of
gastric glands and secrete HCl.
179. (a) Oxyhaemoglobin is the bright red P
P is in South-West of Y.
haemoglobin which is a formed by the
193. (a) Take the square of all the given numbers
combination of haemoglobin and oxygen
outside the square, and then divide the
from the lungs. Oxyhaemoglobin transports
result by 10.
oxygen to the cells of the body. It
Therefore, 5 × 2 × 2 × 9 = 180,
dissociates into oxygen and
180/10 = 18
deoxyhaemoglobin at low O2 pressure in
194. (d) 4
tissue.
195. (c)
180. (c) The label 1, 2, 3 & 4 represent vein, artery,
+2 +2 +2 +2
196. (d) P ¾¾® R ¾¾® T ¾¾® V ¾¾® X
pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein
respectively. +2 +3 +4 +5
3 ¾¾® 5 ¾¾® 8 ¾¾®12 ¾¾®17

Section-IV +3 +3 +3
C ¾¾® F ¾¾® I ¾¾® L ¾¾® O
+3

(ENGLISH COMPREHENSIVE)
197. (b) Total number of student in the class = 61
181. (a) agreeing with someone 198. (b) Riya > Priya > Janvi > Ritika > Mohan
182. (b) to do something badly or cheaply 199. (d)
183. (d) an event that happens infrequently 200. (d)