MCQ Ebook Feb 2020

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1. What was the primary reason for younger section of the congress for not being happy about the
Nehru Report (1928)?
(A) Mandatory employment for youth after education was not added.
(B) Report demand was limited to the idea of dominion status.
(C) No one from younger section of congress was given representation in the report committee.
(D) All the above
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement B is the most appropriate answer.
A committee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru was constituted to draw up a blueprint for
the future Constitution of India. It submitted the report in 1928. However, it couldn’t meet the
expectations of the many sections.
The younger section of the Congress-led by Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Bose were also
angered.
The younger section regarded the idea of dominion status in the report as a step backwards.
Nehru and Subhash Bose rejected the Congress’ modified goal and jointly set up the
Independence for India League. So, statement B is correct.
Mandatory employment for youth wasn’t the primary reason for the anger of Young leaders. So,
statement A is NOT correct.
Subhash Chandra Bose himself was the member of the Nehru Committee. So, statement C is
NOT correct.
Source- Old NCERT- Modern India and A Brief History of Modern India- Rajiv Ahir
2. With reference to the Cripps Mission (1942), which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It aimed to provide constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war.
II. The major political parties of the country rejected the proposals.
Select the answer using the codes:
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II
Answer key: C
Solution:
To garner the support of Indians for the second world war, the British Government sent Sir
Stafford Cripps to India on March 1942. This is known as Cripps Mission. So, statement I is
correct.
The main recommendations of Cripps were,
i) The promise of Dominion Status to India
ii) Protection of minorities
iii) Setting up of a Constituent Assembly in which there would be representatives from the
Princely States along with those of the British Provinces.
iv) There would be provision for any Province of British India not prepared to accept this
Constitution, either to retain its present constitutional position or frame a constitution of its own.
The major political parties of the country rejected the Cripps proposals. Gandhi called Cripp’s
proposals as a ‘Post-dated Cheque’. So, statement II is correct.
Source- Tamil Nadu History book- Modern India
3. Who among the following attended the ‘Congress of oppressed nationalities (1927)’ at Brussels
on behalf of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Motilal Nehru
Answer key: B
Solution:
Since 1920s, Indian National Congress had been taking much interest in the world affairs. The
Congress had from its inception opposed the use of the Indian army and of India’s resources to
serve British interests in Africa and Asia. It had gradually developed a foreign policy based on
opposition to the spread of imperialism.
In February 1927, Jawaharlal Nehru on behalf of the National Congress attended the ‘Congress
of oppressed nationalities’ at Brussels organised by political exiles and revolutionaries from the
countries of Asia, Africa, and Latin America, suffering from economic or political imperialism.
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The Congress was called to coordinate and plan their common struggle against imperialism.
Many left-wing intellectuals and political leaders of Europe also joined the Congress.
This event led to the development of left-leaning ideology in the congress.
Source- Old NCERT- Modern India
4. Which of the following circumstances mainly favoured the growth of Left Ideologies in India?
I. Consequences of the first world war
II. Gandhiji’s slogan of swaraj
III. Christian missionaries’ activities
Select the answer using the below codes.
(A) I, II and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) Only I
Answer key: B
Solution:
Leftism in India grew out of the politico-economic circumstances prevailing in India towards the
end of the first world war. These circumstances were,
i) First World War crippled the economy of British. So, it resulted in the huge financial burdens to
colonies such as India. Prices of basic goods were raised. Workers and peasants were exploited.
So, statement I is correct.
ii) Revolutionary ideas of Marx coupled influenced Indian intellectuals, political leaders, workers,
revolutionary activities.
iii) Gandhiji’s slogan of Swaraj and Swadeshi gave a new orientation to the political movement.
Even the workers and peasants were drawn into the national life. This new development
provided a fertile ground for inauguration of an organised and ideologically inspired socialist
movement. So, statement II is correct.
iv) A section of radicals who were unhappy with the methodology of Congress adopted the new
leftist ideology.
However, Christian missionaries’ activities didn’t help the growth of Leftism. Leftists were
inspired by Marxist ideas which were critical of religion. So, statement III is NOT correct.
Source- Modern Indian History- B. L. Grover
5. Which among the following statements is/are correct about the Global Talent Competitiveness
Index (GTCI) 2020?
I. It is launched annually by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) in collaboration
with the World Economic Forum (WEF).
II. India’s rank in this index has declined due to lack of investment in skill development.
III. Switzerland, USA, and Singapore took the top-three positions in the world.
Select the answer using the codes given below.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) III only
(D) I only
Answer key: C
Solution:
Statements I and II are incorrect. Statement III is correct.
Recently the ‘Global Talent Competitiveness Index (GTCI) 2020’ was published in Davos,
Switzerland. It is a firmly established global benchmark for issues related to talent
competitiveness and the future of work.
It is an annual benchmarking report that measures and ranks countries based on their ability to
grow, attract and retain talent. It was launched for the first time in 2014. GTCI 2020 is compiled
by INSEAD in collaboration with human resource firm Addeco and Google.
The six metrics used to decide a country’s rank are
a) Enable
b) Attract
c) Grow
d) Retain
e) Vocational skills
f) Global knowledge skills.
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India climbed eight positions to reach rank 72nd in this edition from 80th rank last year. It is
because India is constantly investing in skill development and robust digitalization. Switzerland,
USA, and Singapore took the top-three positions in the world.
Source- Livemint and GTCI website
6. Which of the following are the factors ranked by the Global Liveability Index?
I. Culture
II. Healthcare
III. Infrastructure
IV. Environment
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and IV only
(C) II, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer key: D
Solution:
The index is released by the Economist’s Intelligence Unit.
It assesses 140 cities and ranks them according to their performance in over 30 qualitative and
quantitative factors across five broad categories - Stability, Healthcare, Culture and
Environment, Education, and Infrastructure. New Delhi and Mumbai ranked 118th and
119th out of 140 cities in the Global Liveability Index, 2019. In the 2018 index New Delhi and
Mumbai ranked 112th and 117th respectively.
The decline in Mumbai’s rank was mainly due to a downgrade in its culture score, while New
Delhi has fallen in the index because of downgrades to its culture and environment score as well
as fall in the stability score owing to rising crime rates. Vienna retained its position as the world’s
most liveable city.
Source: The Hindu
7. Consider the following statements about the Margadarshan scheme:

I. Under this scheme, reputed institutions will mentor relatively new institutions.
II. The scheme has been launched by the University Grants commission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Margadarshan Scheme
a) Under this scheme, highly performing institutions are supposed to mentor a few relatively
newer institutions.
b) These institutions would be financed by the Government to teach best practices in the
teaching-learning process to the new institutions.
c) Funding would be provided for three years to carry out various activities like training,
workshops, conferences, and travel.
d) The scheme has been launched by All India Council for Technical Education
Source: The Hindu
8. Which of the following grounds provide scope for judicial review of a law or an executive order?
I. Violation of Fundamental Rights.
II. Law /order passed by an authority on subjects outside its jurisdiction.
III. Passing of an ordinance by the Governor or President.
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: A
Solution:
Statements I and II are correct.
SCOPE OF JUDICIAL REVIEW
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The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in

the Supreme Court or in the High Courts on the following three grounds.
(a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part III),
(b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
(c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
Statement III is incorrect.
Passing of an ordinance is not a ground for judicial review unless it is passed when the house(s)
is/are in session.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth
9. Consider the following statements about National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms:
I. Under the mission, people from poor and marginalized sections of society can claim free legal
remedy.
II. It aims to promote accountability in the judicial system by improving infrastructure and
performance standards.
Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement I is incorrect. Statement II is correct.
National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms
National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms was set up in 2011 with the twin
objectives of increasing access by reducing delays and arrears in the system and enhancing
accountability through structural changes and by setting performance standards and capacities.
The Mission involves better infrastructure for courts including computerization, increase in
strength of subordinate judiciary, policy and legislative measures in the areas prone to excessive
litigation, re-engineering of court procedure for quick disposal of cases and emphasis on human
resource development.
All States have formulated their Litigation Policies with a view to reduce the Governmental
litigation.
Department of Legal Affairs have formulated National Litigation Policy, 2015, which is under
active consideration of the Government.
Source: India Yearbook 2019
10. Consider the following statements:

I. State parties are allowed to get exclusive allotment of reserved symbols throughout the State
but not throughout the Country.
II. National parties do not need any proposer for filing the nominations.
III. Only State and National parties are allowed to nominate Star campaigners.
Which of above-mentioned statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) II only
Answer key: A
Solution:
Statement I is correct.
Statement II and III are incorrect.
If a party is recognised as a State Party’, it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved
symbol to the candidates set up by it in the State in which it is so recognised, and if a party is
recognised as a `National Party’ it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its reserved symbol to
the candidates set up by it throughout India.
Recognised `State’ and `National’ parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination and
are also entitled for two sets of electoral rolls free of cost at the time of revision of rolls and their
candidates get one copy of electoral roll free of cost during General Elections.
Further they get broadcast/telecast facilities over Akashvani/Doordarshan during general
elections.
Political parties are entitled to nominate “Star Campaigners” during General Elections. A
recognized National or State party can have a maximum of 40 “Star campaigners” and a
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registered un-recognised party can nominate a maximum of 20 ‘Star Campaigners”. The travel
expenses of star campaigners are not to be accounted for in the election expense accounts of
candidates of their party.
Source: Election Commission Website, PIB
11. Nearly 2 hours’ time difference exists between the Easternmost and the Westernmost parts of
our country. This is a result of
I. Latitudinal extent
II. Longitudinal extent
III. Altitudinal extend
Select the correct answer
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Answer key: B
Solution:
The entire world has been divided into 24 time zones (based on longitude) calculated based on
the rotation of the Earth.
India is one of the largest countries of the world. Hence it is difficult for such a huge nation to be
accommodated within a single time zone. Originally, India falls within two time zones.
On examining the values of the longitudinal extent of India, it is quite discernible that there is a
variation of nearly 30 degrees, which causes a time difference of nearly 2 hours between the
eastern and western extremities of our country.
Hence an Indian standard time (82.5-degree east longitude) which almost passes through the
center of India has been created for our convenience. It passes through Mirzapur, Allahabad.
Source: NCERT
12. Debris avalanches and landslides occur frequently in Himalayas. Which among the following
reasons can be attributed to this?
I. Himalayas are tectonically active
II. Himalayas are made up of metamorphic rocks and consolidated deposits
III. Slopes of Himalayas are very steep.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) III only
(D) II only
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement I and III are correct:
Himalayas falls in the tectonically active region where the Eurasian and Indian plate converges.
These regions are strongly affected by movement of Earth’s tectonic plates. Earthquakes,
landslides and avalanches are common features in these regions.
Slopes of Himalayas are also very steep in nature which facilitates rapid collapse and movement
of debris along the slopes surface.
Statement II is incorrect: Himalayas are made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated
and semi-consolidated deposits.
All these factors are responsible for the frequent occurrence of landslides and avalanches in
Himalayas.
Source: XI NCERT
13. Which among the following is/are the reason(s) for the formation of arid and semi-arid regions in
Rajasthan and
northern Gujrat?
I. Location of Aravalli mountain range.
II. Formation of sub-tropical high-pressure belt.
III. Rain-shadow effect.
Select the correct answer using codes below.
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
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(D) I, II and III

Answer key: C
Solution:
Statement I is correct: Most the rainfall in India is due to monsoon winds. The monsoon winds
runs parallel to the Aravalli mountain ranges; thus, it doesn’t obstruct the winds, due to which
western Rajasthan and Norther Gujrat doesn’t benefit from the moister carrying monsoon winds.
Statement II is correct: During winter Sub-tropical high-pressure belt is formed over the
Rajasthan and Gujrat region, thus creating the anti-cyclonic condition which means the dry wind
decent over the region. Therefore, no rainfall occurs.
Statement III is incorrect: The semi-arid condition of interior part of Indian peninsula is due
to Rain-shadow effect.
The moist monsoon winds blowing from Arabian sea are trapped by the Western Ghats were
most of the rainfall occurs.
The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives less rainfall thus making the interior of the
peninsular a semi-arid region. It is known as Rain-shadow effect.
Source: Indian Geography by Kuller
14. Which among the following state(s) doesn’t have any international border and coastal area?
I. Haryana
II. Assam
III. Telangana
IV. Bihar
Select the correct answer.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(D) I, II and III only
Answer key: B
Solution:
States which doesn’t have any international border or coastal areas are Haryana, Madhya
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Telangana.
Source: Atlas & Maps of India
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15. Consider the following statements with respect to worker to population ratio (WPR) in the India.
I. WPR is higher in rural areas than urban areas.
II. WPR for overall country is on an increasing trend since 2011-12.
Select the correct statements using the code below.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Worker Population ratio is the number of persons employed to the total population. It is about
34.7 overall in India.
Statement I is correct: In urban areas, the proportion is about 34 whereas in rural India, the
ratio is about 35.
In rural areas there is limited resources to earn a higher income and so participate more in the
employment market. Many do not go to schools, colleges and other training institutions.
In urban areas, a considerable section is able to study in various educational institutions. Urban
people have a variety of employment opportunities. They look for the appropriate job to suit
their qualifications and skills.
Statement II is incorrect:
As inferred from the table below, the total WPR has declined since 2011-12.
Source: NCERT and MOSPI (PLFS)
16. Which of the following comes under the current account of Balance of Payments in India?
I. Remittances sent to India from other countries
II. External assistance received by India
III. Foreign Portfolio investment in India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: A
Solution:
The capital account of the Balance of Payments in India records all international purchases and
sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds,
etc. It includes -:
a. External assistance
b. Commercial borrowing
c. Short-term debt
d. Banking Capital incl. Non resident deposits
e. Foreign investment
Current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.
Trade in services denoted as invisible trade includes both
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a. factor income (net income from compensation of employees and net investment income, the
latter equals, the interest, profits and dividends on our assets abroad minus the income
foreigners earn on assets they own in India) and
b. net non-factor income (shipping, banking, insurance, tourism, software services, etc.).
c. Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive for free ‘, without
having to make any present or future payments in return. They consist of remittances, gifts and
grants.
Source: NCERT
17. Which of the following is/are the objectives of setting up Special Economic Zone (SEZ)?
I. Promoting the export of only goods.
II. Developing world class infrastructure.
III. Attracting investment from abroad.
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
The special economic zone (SEZ) policy was announced by the government in 2000 which was
concretised through the SEZ Act, 2005.
As per the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the principal objectives behind creating SEZs in
the country include:
(i) generation of additional economic activity;
(ii) promotion of exports of goods and services Hence statement I is incorrect.
(iii) promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources;
(iv) creation of employment opportunities; and
(v) development of infrastructure facilities.
Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh
18. Consider the following regarding “Invest India”:

I. It is established under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
II. It facilitates single window investment for both overseas investors and domestic investors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: B
Solution:
‘Invest India’ is India’s official agency dedicated to investment promotion and facilitation. It is a
not-for-profit, single window facilitator, set up in 2010 for prospective overseas investors and to
those aspiring Indian investors desiring to invest in foreign locations, and acts as a structured
mechanism to attract investment. It is essentially an Investment Promotion Agency in India.
Invest India is set up as a joint venture company between the Department of Industrial Policy
& Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry (35% equity), Federation of Indian
Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) (51% equity), and State Governments of India
(0.5% each).
Source: Invest India Website
19. Which among the following is/are examples of Primary Consumers?

I. Zooplanktons
II. Grasshoppers
III. Earthworms
IV. Cows
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
(A) I, II and III only
(B) III and IV only
(C) I, II and IV only
Answer key: D
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Solution:
Primary consumers are usually herbivores that feed on autotrophic plants, which produce their
own food through photosynthesis. Such as grasshoppers, cows, deer, herbivores birds etc.
Earthworms is a detritivores, yet it depends on dead autotrophic plants or leaves hence it is also
a primary consumer.
Several other feeding strategies are also used by primary consumers viz.
1. Algivores feed on photosynthetic algae.
2. Frugivores feed on the fruiting bodies of plants.
3. Nectarivores feed on plant nectar.
4. Folivores feed on leaf material.
5. Granivores feed on grains and seeds.
Source: NIOS & ICSE
20. What is ecological efficiency?

(A) The ability of the ecosystem to produce energy in a given period.
(B) The transfer of energy to each trophic level from lower trophic level.
(C) The capacity of an ecosystem to support the amount of species inhabiting it.
(D) The amount of energy an ecosystem can produce in a given period.
Answer key: B
Solution:
Example of a food chain:
Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle
Each step in the food chain is called trophic level. In the above example grasses are 1 st trophic
level, and Hawk/Eagle represents the 5 th trophic level.
During this process of transfer of energy only 10 per cent of the energy is transferred to each
trophic level from the lower trophic level. It is known as ecological efficiency. Thus, the number
of trophic levels in a food chain is restricted.
Source: NIOS
21. Consider the following statements about Genetic Diversity:

I. High genetic variation leads to low level of diseases resistance of the species.
II. Domestication process tends to decrease the genetic diversity of species.
III. The amount of genetic variation is decided by the process of natural selection.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) None of the above
Answer key: C
Solution:
Genetic Diversity refers to the variety of genes contained within species of plants, animals and
micro-organisms.
New genetic variation in individuals occurs by gene and chromosomal mutation, and in
organisms with sexual reproduction may be spread across the population by recombination. It
means in the process of inheritance, nucleotides are shuffled and recombined to form new
combinations that are different than the parents.
The differences could be in alleles (different variants of the same gene), in entire gene (the traits
determining particular characteristics) or in chromosomal structure. The amount of genetic
variation (gene pool) present in an inter-breeding population is shaped or decided by the process
of natural selection. Hence Statement III is correct.
If a species has more genetic variation, it can adapt better to the changed environmental
conditions, handle environmental stress and can resists diseases. Hence Statement I is
incorrect.
The process of domestication tends to decrease the genetic diversity of selected crop species,
due in part to the genetic bottleneck imposed when only a few plants are selected and
propagated. Hence statement II is correct.
Source: NIOS material
22. Consider the following statement about Convention on Biological Diversity.

I. It was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit.
II. It is a legally binding convention.
III. It bans the commercial utilization of genetic resources.
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(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: A
Solution:
At the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, world leaders agreed on a comprehensive strategy
for sustainable development -- meeting our needs while ensuring that we leave a healthy and
viable world for future generations.
One of the key agreements adopted at Rio was the Convention on Biological
Diversity. Statement I is correct.
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) entered into force in 1993. It has 3 main
objectives:
a. The conservation of biological diversity.
b. The sustainable use of the components of biological diversity.
c. The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
Hence Statement III is incorrect.
CDB is a legally binding convention that recognises conservation of biological diversity is a
common concern of humankind and is an integral part of development process. The agreement
covers all ecosystem, species and genetic resources. Statement II is correct.
Source: CBD website
23. Consider the following statements regarding the Tiger Census of 2019.
I. The population of tiger has been increased by 1/3rd since the 2014.
II. The tiger population has increased in all the tiger reserves of India.
III. India has completed the target of St. Petersburg declaration ahead.
Which among the above statement is/are correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) I only
(D) II and III only
Answer key: B
Solution:
According to the latest Tiger Census of 2019, India now has about 2,967 tigers in the wild, with
more than half of them in Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka.
Statement I is correct: The range for the total tiger population in the wild is 2,603-3,346. The
population has increased by nearly 33% since the last census in 2014 when the total estimate
was 2,226.
Statement II is incorrect: The growth has not been uniform across all 18 states where tigers
are found. The count has decreased drastically from 46 to 19 in Chhattisgarh. In Odisha, it has
been on a continual decline over the years and now stands at 28. These are also states with
highest diversion of forest land for mining.
Madhya Pradesh showed the highest increase of 218 tigers, reaching an estimated 526, followed
by Karnataka with 524.
Statement III is correct: India along with 12 other tiger range countries had committed to
doubling the population of tigers in their respective countries by 2022, as part of the World
Wildlife Foundation (WWF) programme Tx2, known as St. Petersburg Declaration in 2010. India
has doubled the tiger population since 2010 and achieved the target well ahead of 2022.
Source: Live Mint and Down to Earth
24. Consider the Following statements regarding Liberalised Remittance scheme (LRS):
I. Under this, remittances for the purposes of investment abroad is not allowed.
II. It restricts remittances to non-cooperative countries under the Financial action task force
(FATF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I nor II.
Answer key: B
Solution:
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The Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allows resident
individuals to remit a certain amount of money (currently $250,000) during a financial year to
another country for investment and expenditure (Both capital and current transactions). Hence,
statement I is incorrect.
This money can be used to pay expenses related to travelling (private or for business), medical
treatment, studying, gifts and donations, maintenance of close relatives and so on.
Apart from this, the remitted amount can also be invested in shares, debt instruments, and be
used to buy immovable properties in overseas market. Individuals can also open, maintain and
hold foreign currency accounts with banks outside India for carrying out transactions permitted
under the scheme.
However, LRS restricts buying and selling of foreign exchange abroad, or purchase of lottery
tickets or sweep stakes, proscribed magazines and so on, or any items that are restricted under
Schedule II of Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000. And
remittances directly or indirectly to countries identified by the Financial Action Task Force as
“non co-operative countries and territories”. Hence, statement II is correct.
Source: RBI
25. Which of the following are the components of Fiscal deficit?

I. Government’s net borrowing at home.
II. Government’s borrowing from abroad
III. External Commercial Borrowings of private sector
IV. Government’s borrowing from RBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) II and IV only
Answer key: B
Solution:
Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts
excluding borrowing.
Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)
It indicates total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources.
Gross fiscal deficit= Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from Abroad
Borrowings of private sector is not accounted in fiscal deficit.
Net borrowing at home includes that directly borrowed from the public through debt instruments
(for example, the various small savings schemes) and indirectly from commercial banks through
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Source: Arthapedia and NCERT
26. Which of the following measures can control inflation?

I. Importing goods in demand
II. Increasing the production of goods in demand
III. Tax cuts
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
All statements are correct.
Inflation can occur either due to demand-pull or cost-push. The governments resort to the
following options to check rising inflation:
a. As a supply side measure, the government may go for import of goods which are in short
supply as a short-term measure. As a long-term measure, governments go on to increase the
production to matching the level of demand.
b. As a cost side measure, governments may try to cool down the price by cutting down the
production cost of goods showing price rise with the help of tax breaks.
c. The government may cut down the money supply in the economy by means of a tighter
monetary policy. i.e. Increasing interest rates.
Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh
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27. The Finance Ministry, recently, made changes in the applicability of angel tax. Consider the
following statements about the tax:
I. Angel tax is aimed at curbing money-laundering.
II. Angel tax is imposed on the excess share capital raised by a listed firm.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Finance Minister has provided relief for the start-up community by announcing that angel tax will
not be applicable on entities registered with the Department for Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade (DPIIT).
The angel tax was looked upon as a major hindrance for early stage start-ups that were looking
to attract funding from angel investors and other entities.
Angel tax is imposed on the excess share capital raised by an unlisted firm, over and above the
fair market value of its shares. This tax usually impacts start-ups and the angel investments
they attract. Statement II is incorrect.
Angel tax is aimed at curbing money-laundering. Angel tax resulted in a large number of genuine
start-ups receiving notices from the tax department. Statement I is correct.
Source: The Hindu
28. The RBI permitted startups, banks and financial institutions to set up regulatory sandbox (RS).
Consider the following statements:
I. RS refers to live testing of new products or services.
II. A controlled regulatory environment is provided for such tests.
III. Its application is limited to financial products and services.
(A) I and III only
(B) I only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
Statement I & II are correct. Statement III is incorrect.
The RBI permitted startups, banks and financial institutions to set up regulatory sandbox (RS)
for live testing of innovative products in areas like retail payments, digital KYC and wealth
management.
It also has potential application in emerging technologies like data analytics, AI, block chain
technology and machine learning.
RS usually refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test regulatory
environment for which regulators may (or may not) permit certain relaxations for the limited
purpose of the testing.
The RS allows the regulator, innovators, financial service providers and customers to conduct
field tests to collect evidence on the benefits and risks of new financial innovations, while
carefully monitoring and containing their risks.
The target applicants for entry to the RS, are fintech companies including startups, banks,
financial institutions and any other company partnering with or providing support to financial
services businesses.
The focus of the RS will be to encourage innovations intended for use in the Indian market in
areas where there is absence of governing regulations and there is a need to temporarily ease
regulations for enabling the proposed innovation.
Source: The Hindu
29. Consider the following statements about SAGAR MAITRI Mission:

I. It is an initiative of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
II. The objective of the mission is to preform and collect research data from Arctic region.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I & II
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Answer key: A
Solution:
Statement I is correct
SAGAR MAITRI is a unique initiative of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
which aligns with the broad objective of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi’s policy declaration
“Safety And Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR)” to promote closer co-operation in socio-
economic aspects as well as greater scientific interaction especially in ocean research among
Indian Ocean Rim (IOR) countries.
Under the aegis of PM’s policy, specific scientific component of DRDO is “MAITRI (Marine & Allied
Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative)”.
SAGAR MAITRI Mission-2 commemorates the Golden Jubilee Celebrations of India’s lone
research ship INS Kistna’s missions as part of the historic International Indian Ocean Expeditions
(IIOE), which took place during 1962-65.
Statement II is incorrect
The prime objectives of the SAGAR MAITRI Mission are data collection from the entire North
Indian Ocean, focussing on the the Andaman Sea and adjoining seas and establishing long-term
collaboration with eight IOR countries in the field of ocean research and development.
The other IOR countries, include Oman, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore,
Indonesia and Myanmar. The programme also aims at establishing long term scientific
collaboration with these countries in the field of ‘Ocean Research & Development’ and data
collection with a focus in the Andaman Sea.
Source: PIB
30. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-dhan Yojana:
I. It is a pension scheme for shopkeeper’s/ retail traders.
II. It does not cover self-employed persons.
III. It is a voluntary and contribution based central sector scheme.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
The Government has approved a pension scheme for shopkeeper’s/ retail traders and self
employed persons for providing monthly minimum assured pension of 3000/- for the entry age
group of 18-40 years. It is a voluntary and contribution based central sector scheme. So,
statement II is incorrect. Statement I & III are correct.
The scheme is an extension of the PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana
The salient features of the scheme are:
(i) All shopkeepers/retail-traders/ self-employed persons in the age group of 18-40 years are
eligible to be the member, on self- declaration.
(ii) A shop keeper/ retail-trader /self-employed person if registered with GSTN, his/ her firm’s
annual turnover should not exceed 1.5 crore.
(iii) He/she should not be an income tax payee.
(iv) He/she should not be a member of EPFO/ESIC/NPS/PM-SYM.
(v) The Central Government’s share will be matching to the subscriber’s contribution
Source: PIB
31. GEMINI device was launched by the Government of India for:

(A) Mapping of minerals on land surface
(B) Mapping potential fishing zones
(C) Mapping disaster zones
(D) Mapping hydrocarbon blocks
Answer key: B
Solution:
GEMINI is a low cost device for ocean states forecast and mapping potential fishing zones. It
provides seamless and effective dissemination of emergency information and communication on
disaster warnings, Potential Fishing Zones (PFZ) and Ocean States Forecasts (OSF) to fishermen.
GEMINI stands for Gagan Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information device.
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The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), an autonomous body
under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), joined hands with Airports Authority of India (AAI)
to utilize the GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) satellite system to transmit the
PFZ, OSF and disaster warnings to fishermen with GAGAN system consisting of three
geosynchronous satellites (GSAT-8, GSAT-10 and GSAT-15). GAGAN foot-print covers the entire
Indian Ocean round the clock.
Source: PIB
32. New and Emerging Strategic Technologies (NEST), recently in news, comes under which
Ministry?
(A) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(B) Ministry of Science and Technology
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(D) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer key: D
Solution:
The Indian foreign ministry has announced the setting up of a new division on New and
Emerging Strategic Technologies (NEST), as India is grappling with issues like the security
implications of the introduction of 5G and artificial intelligence.
The NEST division will act as the nodal point in India’s foreign ministry for all matters connected
to new and emerging technologies including exchange of views with foreign governments and
coordination with domestic ministries and departments.
It will also help assess foreign policy and international legal implications of emerging technology
and technology-based resources.
The desk will also be involved in negotiations to safeguard Indian interests at multilateral fora
like the United Nations or the G20 where rules governing the use and access to such
technologies could be decided.
Source: Live Mint
33. Consider the following statements about Buddha’s Mudra:

I. It depicts Buddha with both the hands in the lap, with the back of the right hand resting on
the palm of the left hand with fingers extended.
II. The thumbs of both hands are shown touching at the tips forming a mystic triangle.
III. This mudra signifies attainment of spiritual perfection.
Which mudra is being referred to here?
(A) Vitarka Mudra
(B) Dhyan Mudra
(C) Abhay Mudra
(D) Dharmachakra Mudra
Answer key: B
Solution:
I. Vitarka Mudra
a) It indicates teaching and discussion or intellectual debate.
b) The tips of the thumb and index finger touch each other, forming a circle.
c) The right hand is positioned at shoulder level and the left hand at the hip level, in the lap,
with
palm facing upwards.
II. Dhyan Mudra
a) It Indicates Meditation and is also called ‘Samadhi’ or ‘Yoga’ Mudra.
b) It depicts Buddha with both the hands in the lap, with the back of the right hand resting on
the palm of the left hand with fingers extended.
c) It signifies attainment of spiritual perfection
III. Abhay Mudra
a) It indicates fearlessness.
b) The right hand is raised to shoulder height with arm bent. The palm of the right-hand faces
outwards and the fingers are upright and joined.
IV. Dharmachakra Mudra
a) It means ‘Turning the Wheel of the Dharma or Law’, i.e., setting into motion the wheel of
Dharma.
b) The right hand is held at chest level with the palm facing outwards. A mystic circle is formed
by joining the tips of the index finger and the thumb.
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c) The left hand is turned inward and the index finger and thumb of this hand join to touch the
right hand’s circle.
Source- Indian Art and Culture- Nitin Singhania
34. Consider the following pairs.

Music Region/state associated with
I. Alha Kashmir
II. Chhakri Uttar Pradesh
III. Laman Himachal Pradesh
Which of the given pairs is/are correctly matched?
(A) None of the above
(B) I only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only
Answer key: C
Solution:
I. Alha, Uttar Pradesh
a) It is a typical ballad of Bundelkhand narrates the heroic deeds of Alha and Udal, the two
warrior brothers who served Raja Parmal of Majoba.
b) This is the most popular regional music of Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh.
c) It highlights the high principles of morality, chivalry, and nobility prevalent in those times.
II. Chhakri, Kashmir
a) It is a group song which is the most popular form of Kashmir’s folk music.
b) It is sung to the accompaniment of the noot (earthen pot) rababs, sarangi and tumbaknari
(an earthen pot with high neck).
III. Laman, Himachal Pradesh
a) In Laman music, a group of girls sing a stanza and a group of boys give reply in the song.
b) Most of these songs are sung especially in Kullu Valley.
Source- CCRT website
35. Consider the following statements about the ‘Nagara temple style’:
I. These temples usually have elaborate boundary walls.
II. The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
III. The Lakshmana Temple, Khajuraho is an example of Nagara temple.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(A) Only III
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. In
North India, it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading
up to it.
Nagara temples usually doesn’t have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. So, statement I is
incorrect.
Garbhagriha is the sanctum sanctorum, the innermost sanctum of a Hindu temple where resides
the idol or icon of the primary deity of the temple. The garbhagriha is always located directly
under the tallest tower of nagara temples. So, statement II is correct.
The Lakshmana temple dedicated to Vishnu is the grandest temple of Khajuraho. It was built in
AD 954 by the Chandela king, Dhana. It is a nagara temple. So, the statement III is correct.
Source- NCERT- Art and Culture
36. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Warli Painting’?
I. These paintings don’t employ religious iconography.
II. It is art created by the tribal people from the Maharashtra.
III. Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
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Answer key: D
Solution:
All the statements are correct.
Maharashtra is known for its Warli folk paintings. Warli is the name of the largest tribe found in
North-Western part of Maharashtra.
Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings.
These paintings do not depict mythological characters or images of deities but depict social life.
These paintings don’t employ religious iconography. Images of human beings and animals, along
with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern.
Local materials like white colour and rice paste and local vegetable glue are used in the
paintings.
Geometric patterns like squares, triangles, and circles are widely drawn. Dots and crooked lines
are the units of these composition.
Source- NIOS- Art and Culture
37. Introduction of double domes feature in Architecture is associated with which dynasty?
(A) Mughal dynasty
(B) Maratha dynasty
(C) Lodi dynasty
(D) Vijaynagara dynasty
Answer key: C
Solution:
Under the Lodi dynasty, growth and progress of Architecture declined. Only tombs were
commissioned during this period. However, one important feature of architecture during this
period was the introduction of double domes.
It consisted of a hollow dome inside the top dome. The reasons for the use of double domes
were:
a) To give strength to the structure
b) To lower the inner height of the dome.
Source- Indian Art and Culture- Nitin Singhania
38. Which of the following legal provisions provide for the implementation of the Fundamental
Duties?
I. Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955)
II. Right to Information Act (2005)
III. Wildlife Protection Act (1972)
Select the answer using the given code:
A) I only
B) I and III only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement I and III are correct.
Statement II is NOT correct. Right to Information is a claim and hence becomes a Right and
NOT a Duty.
The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) identified the existence of
legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties.
They are mentioned below:
1. The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the
Constitution of India, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. The various criminal laws in force provide for punishments for encouraging enmity between
different sections of people on grounds of language, race, place of birth, religion and so on.
3. The Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955) provides for punishments for offences related to
caste and religion.
4. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) declares the imputations and assertions prejudicial to national
integration as punishable offences.
5. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of 1967 provides for the declaration of a communal
organization as an unlawful association.
6. The Representation of People Act (1951) provides for the disqualification of members of the
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Parliament or a state legislature for indulging in corrupt practice, that is, soliciting votes on the
ground of religion or promoting enmity between different sections of people on grounds of caste,
race, language, religion and so on.
7. The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 prohibits trade in rare and endangered species.
8. The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 checks indiscriminate deforestation and diversion of
forest land for non-forest purposes.
Source: Indian Polity by Lakshmikanth
39. According to the Indian Constitution, the creation of a second chamber in a State requires:
I. Special Majority of the Legislative assembly of the State.
II. An amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
Which of the above-mentioned statement(s) is/are the answer?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect.
The Constitution provides for the abolition of the Second Chamber (that is, the Legislative
Council) in a State where it exists as well as for the creation of such a Chamber in a State where
there is none at present, by a simple procedure which does not involve an amendment of the
Constitution.
The procedure prescribed is a resolution of the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
passed by a special majority (that is, a majority of the total membership Of the Assembly not
being less than two-thirds of the members actually present and voting), followed by an Act of
Parliament with simple majority.
Source: DD Basu – Introduction to the Constitution of India
40. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution ensures Political Equality?
I. All persons are eligible to be included in electoral rolls irrespective of religion, race, caste or
sex.
II. Adult suffrage for elections to Lok Sabha and State assemblies.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: C
Solution:
There are two provisions in the Constitution that seek to achieve political equality.
One, no person is to be declared ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls on grounds of religion,
race, caste or sex (Article 325).
Two, elections to the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies to be on the basis of adult suffrage
(Article 326).
Source: Indian Polity by M. Lakshmikanth & NCERT
41. Which of the following features are part of a Unitary Polity?

I. Appointment of the Head of the State government by the Central Government
II. Impartial judiciary
III. Single citizenship
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
The Indian federal set up stands out with certain distinctive unitary features. The makers of our
constitution provided for division of powers favoring the Central Government, appointment of the
Head of the State government by the Central Government, single unified judiciary, single
citizenship indicate the unitary nature of our federalism.
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While impartial judiciary is a feature of Indian judiciary system, Independent and integrated
judiciary brings it in line with the unitary polity.
Source: NIOS
42. Provincial/Local Representation in Indian Legislative Council was first introduced by

(A) Charter Act of 1833
(B) Charter Act of 1853
(C) Indian Councils Act 1861
(D) Indian Councils Act 1892
Answer key: B
Solution:
Option B is correct.
The Charter Act of 1853 introduced for the first-time local representation in the Indian
Legislative Council.
Of the six new legislative members of the Governor general’s council, 4 members were
appointed by the local governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra. This is different from
representation of Indians in British administration.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 made a beginning of representative institutions by associating
Indians with the law-making process.
Source: Lakshmikanth – Indian Polity
43. Directive Principles of State policy strive to achieve which of the following objectives?
I. Social Reform
II. Economic Reform
III. Guide to the State in law making and policy making.
IV. Reduce poverty of the masses.
(A) I and III only
(B) I, II and III only
Answer key: D
Solution:
In addition to Fundamental Rights, the Constitution also has a section called Directive Principles
of State Policy.
This section was designed by the members of the Constituent Assembly to ensure greater social
and economic reform, and to serve as a guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws
and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.
Source: NCERT
44. Rowlatt Committee was set up in 1917 to look into issues related to
(A) Privatization of the education sector
(B) Indigenization of Army
(C) Militant Nationalist activities
(D) Tax reforms in the British India
Answer key: C
Solution:
In 1917, a committee was set up under the presidentship of Sir Sydney Rowlatt to look into the
militant Nationalist activities. The purpose of the Rowlatt Committee was to evaluate political
terrorism in India, especially in the Bengal and Punjab Provinces, its impact, and the links with
the other countries.
On the basis of its report, the Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 by the Central Legislative
Council.
As per this Act, any person could be arrested on the basis of suspicion. No appeal or petition
could be filed against such arrests. This Act was called the Black Act and it was widely opposed.
45. What was/were the major reasons(s) for extreme poverty in British India?
I. Increased pressure of Population on agriculture.
II. Destruction of the self-sufficient village economy
III. Deindustrialization of the country
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Select the answer using the below codes:

(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) I and III
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
All the above statements were causes of the extreme poverty of India under British rule.
British policies over many years led to the decay of the traditional industries in India.
Handicraftsmen and artisans failed to find alternative employment. The only choice open to them
was to crowd into agriculture. Moreover, the British rule also upset the balance of economic life
in the villages. The gradual destruction of rural crafts broke up the union between agriculture
and domestic industry in the countryside and thus contributed to the destruction of the self-
sufficient village economy.
Thus British conquest led to the deindustrialization of the country and increased dependence of
the people on agriculture. According to Census Reports, between 1901 and 1941 alone the
percentage of population dependent on agriculture increased from 63% to 70%. This increasing
pressure on agriculture was one of the major causes of the extreme poverty of India under
British rule.
46. The tribal ‘Kuki Revolt’ was mainly organised to

(A) Oppose the oppressive policies of the Zamindars
(B) Oppose the new taxes imposed on the forest goods.
(C) Oppose the British policies of recruiting labour during the first World War.
(D) Oppose the encroachment on the forest lands.
Answer key: C
Solution:
Kuki Revolt (1917-19) was organised in Manipur. It was organised against British policies of
recruiting labour during the first World War.
It was the one of the longest, largest, costliest military operations of the British Empire. Kuki
rebels used guerrilla tactics against the British Empire.
The raising of forced Labour Corps served as the main cause of the Kuki Uprisings of 1917-1919.
It should be remembered that the subjugation of the Kukis to minority in terms of social,
economic and political were the backbone which ignited the spark by the recruitment of the
forced Labour Corps during the First World War.
Source- A Brief History of Modern India- Rajiv Ahir
47. Which among the following statements is/are features of ‘Town Planning of Harappan
Civilisation’?
I. Regional variations in the layout of the towns.
II. Criss-cross pattern in roadbuilding
III. Uniformity in sizes of Houses.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: A
Solution:
The most interesting urban feature of Harappan civilization is its town-planning. It is marked by
considerable uniformity, though there are evidences of some regional variations as well. The
uniformity is noticed in the layout of the towns, streets, structures, brick size, drains, etc. So,
the statement I is correct.
The residential buildings are built in the lower town. The streets intersect each other at right
angles in a criss-cross pattern. A crisscross is a pattern of lines that cross or intersect each
other. It divides the city in several residential blocks. So, the statement II is correct.
The houses of common people differed in size from a single-room house in Harappa to bigger
structures. The houses were largely built of burnt bricks. The bigger houses had many rooms
surrounding a square courtyard. These houses were provided with private wells, kitchens and
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bathing platforms. The difference in the size of the houses suggests that the rich lived in the
larger houses whereas the one-room buildings or barracks might have been intended for the
poorer section of the society. So, the statement III is incorrect.
Source- NIOS- History
48. Which of the following statement is/are correct about ‘Mansabdari System’?
I. The rank given to the officer under this system was not hereditary.
II. It was introduced by king Aurangzeb.
III. All appointments were directly made by the emperor.
(A) II and III only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) Only I
Answer key: C
Solution:
Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration. Under this system, every officer
(Mansabdar) was assigned a rank (mansab). The lowest rank was 10 and the highest was 5,000
for the nobles. Princes of royal blood received even higher ranks. So, the statement II is
incorrect.
The mansab rank was not hereditary. All appointments and promotions, as well as dismissals,
were directly made by the emperor. The ranks were further divided into two,
i) Zat
- Zat means personal rank.
- It decides the salary due to officer apart from fixing the personal status of a person in the
administrative hierarchy.
ii) Sawar
Sawar rank indicates the number of cavalrymen (sawars) an officer was required to maintain.
So, statements I and III are correct.
Source- Ancient and Medieval India- Poonam Dalal and NCERT- Medieval India
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Din Ilahi’ religion?
I. It was aimed at bridging the gulf that separated different religions.
II. It believed in Polytheism.
III. It was promulgated by Akbar.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
King Akbar promulgated a new religion called Din Ilahi (Divine Faith) in 1582. It believed in one
God and rejected polytheism. So, statement II is incorrect and III is correct.
It contained good points of all religions. Its basis was rational. It upholds no dogma. It was
aimed at bridging the gulf that separated different religions. So, statement I is correct.
Source- Tamil Nadu -Medieval History (11 th standard)
50. Why October Heat phenomenon occurs in India?

(A) Due to descending air in over the tropic of cancer.
(B) Due to tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal.
(C) Due to Western Disturbances.
(D) Due to retreating southwest monsoon.
Answer key: D
Solution:
The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The
land is still moist therefore the increased temperature causes evaporation thus increasing the
humidity. Owning to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes
rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’.
Source: NCERT
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51. Which among the following is/are similarities between Hot desert and Cold Desert of India.
I. Both the deserts receive precipitation of about 10 cm annually.
II. Both deserts lie in the rain shadow areas of mountains.
III. Both the deserts experiences high annual temperature range.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
(A) I and II only
(B) I only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
Answer key: D
Solution:
Ladakh is the cold desert of India which lies in the Great Himalayas on the eastern side Kashmir.
It is surrounded by Karakoram range in North and Zaskar mountains in the south. Indus river
flows through it.
Thar Desert in the Rajasthan is the Hot Desert of India, it lies west of Aravalli mountain range.
Statement I is correct: Both the deserts receives annual precipitation of about 10 cm.
Statement II is incorrect: Ladakh receives low precipitation because it lies in the rain shadow
of the Himalayas while the Thar desert receives low rainfall because the monsoon winds runs
parallel to the Aravalli mountain ranges. If the Aravalli mountain acts as barrier to the monsoon
winds, there could have been no desert in the region. Hence the Thar desert doesn’t lies in the
rain shadow region.
Statement III is correct: In Ladakh during summer the day temperature is about 150-200C,
while in night it is about – 250 C, during winter the day temperature is about 00 C while in night
it goes up to -400 C.
In Thar desert the during summer the day temperature about 400 C and goes as high as 500 C,
while in night it is about 25-300 C, during winter, the day temperature is about 300 C, while in
night it is about 6-70 C.
Source: NCERT and en.climate-data.org
52. Consider the following statements regarding the coral reefs in India.
I. Barrier reefs are not found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
II. Fringing reefs are found in Gulf of Manner and Palk bay.
III. Atolls are found in Lakshadweep islands.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
Reefs can be divided into three types:
1. Fringing reefs: Reefs that grow close to the shore and extend out into the sea like a
submerged platform.
2. Barrier reef: Reefs separated from the land by wide expanses of water and follow the
coastline.
3. Atolls: Roughly a circular ring of reefs surrounding a lagoon, a low-lying island, common in
the Indian and South pacific oceans.
Statement I, II and III are correct: The major reef formations in India are restricted to the
Gulf of Mannar, Palk bay, Gulf of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep
islands.
While the Lakshadweep reefs are atolls, the others are all fringing reefs.
Source: Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
53. Which among the following pairs of regions experience highest and lowest variability of mean
annual rainfall?
(A) Eastern Coast – Northern Plains
(B) Western Ghats – North Eastern states
(C) Western Rajasthan – Northern Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Kashmir Valley – Kerala
Answer key: C
Solution:
A characteristic feature of rainfall in India is its variability.
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One of the feature of rainfall in India is, it varies not just spatially but also from year to year.
The amount of variation also varies from region to region. It varies less than 25 per cent on
western coasts, Western Ghats, northeastern Peninsula, eastern plains of the Ganga,
northeastern India, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh and south-western part of Jammu and
Kashmir. A variability of over 50 per cent exists in the western part of Rajasthan, northern part
of Jammu and Kashmir and interior parts of the Deccan plateau. Rest of India have a variability
of 25-50 per cent.
From the map it can be observed that the highest variation is in Western Rajasthan and some
part of Gujrat and lowest is Northern Arunachal Pradesh, hence option ‘c’ is correct.
Source: NCERT
54. Consider the statements regarding Financial Stability and Development Council:
I. It was set up to develop the financial sector by increasing savings and investments.
II. It is headed by RBI Governor.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: D
Solution:
With a view to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability
and enhancing inter-regulatory coordination, Indian Government has setup an apex-level
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), through a notification.
FSDC has replaced the High Level Coordination Committee on Financial Markets (HLCCFM),
which was facilitating regulatory coordination, though informally, prior to the setting up of FSDC.
Mandate:
1. Without prejudice to the autonomy of regulators, this Council would monitor macro prudential
supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates.
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2. It will address inter-regulatory coordination issues and thus spur financial sector
development. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
3. It will also focus on financial literacy and financial inclusion.
4. What distinguishes FSDC from other such similarly situated organizations across the globe is
the additional mandate given for development of financial sector.
Composition:
1. The Chairman of the FSDC is the Finance Minister of India. Hence, statement II is
incorrect. and its members include the
a. heads of the financial sector regulatory authorities (i.e, SEBI, IRDA, RBI, PFRDA and FMC)
b. Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs,
c. Secretary, (Department of Financial Services) and
d. The Chief Economic Adviser.
Source: Arthapedia
55. Which among the following is/are the quantitative tools to control credit creation by RBI?
I. Open Market Operations
II. Repo Rate
III. Margin Requirements
IV. Bank rate
(A) I and II only
(B) III only
(D) III and IV only
Answer key: C
Solution:
Various methods used by central bank to control creation can be divided into quantitative and
qualitative methods.
Qualitative methods are: Margin Requirements, Regulation of consumer Credit, credit Rationing
Policy, Direct Action.
Quantitative methods: Open Market Operation, Repo Rate, Variable Reserve Ratio, Bank Rate.
Source: NCERT
56. “Impossible Trinity” of a government means a country cannot maintain all three policy goals.
Which of the below goals it refers to?
(A) A stable financial market, global integration and stable exchange rate.
(B) Free capital flow, a fixed exchange rate and an independent monetary policy.
(C) A stable exchange rate, global integration and continuous economic growth.
(D) Low Fiscal deficit, high social welfare and high economic growth.
Answer key: B
Solution:
This is a term to show the central bank’s dilemma in targeting for stable exchange rate, interest
rate and inflation while announcing the credit and monetary policy for the economy. As this task
not only challenging but also not possible. It is called as the “impossible trinity”. It is also called
the Mundell-Fleming trilemma. This theory exposes the instability inherent in using the three
primary options available to a country when establishing and monitoring its international
monetary policy agreements.
For instance, a central bank that chooses to increase the total money supply by adopting loose
monetary policy cannot hope to maintain the foreign exchange value of its currency unless it
resorts to restricting the sale of domestic currency in the currency market.
Source: Indian economy by Ramesh Singh.
57. The Consumer Subsidy is the difference between economic cost and
(A) Procurement incidentals and distribution costs.
(B) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns.
(C) State Issue Price.
(D) Central Issue Price.
Answer key: C
Solution:
Food subsidy comprises of two main Components
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a. subsidy provided to the Food Corporation of India (FCI) for procurement and distribution of
wheat and rice under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 and other welfare schemes
and for maintaining the buffer stock of food grains as a measure of food security.
b. subsidy provided to States undertaking decentralized procurement.
Economic cost: The acquisition and distribution costs of procuring food grains for the central
pool.
The difference between the per quintal economic cost and the per quintal Central Issue Price
(CIP) gives the quantum of per quintal consumer subsidy.
Source: Investopedia & Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh
58. Consider the following features regarding Import substitution industrialization:

I. Nationalization of resources
II. Subsidization of industries
III. High tariffs on imports
Which of the features is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
Import substitution industrialization (ISI) is a trade and economic policy which advocates
replacing foreign imports with domestic production. ISI is based on the premise that a country
should attempt to reduce its foreign dependency through the local production of industrialized
products.
It was undertaken by countries in nascent stages of industrialization to protect their industries
from foreign competition. Countries undertake import substitution to generate income and
employment for their residents, become self-sufficient. ISI works by having the state lead
economic development through nationalization, subsidization of vital industries (agriculture,
power generation, etc.), increased taxation, and highly protectionist trade policies.
Source: egyankosh
59. Which among following statements is/are correct about High Energy Materials Research
Laboratory (HEMRL)?
I. It primarily engages in developing Rocket and Gun Propellants and High Explosive Systems.
II. It is a premier laboratory of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect.
Ministry of Defence inaugurated the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
Igniter Complex at High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL) in Pune.
HEMRL is a premier laboratory of DRDO and primarily engages in developing Rocket and Gun
Propellants, Pyrotechnic Devices, High Explosive Systems and synthesis of high energy
molecules.
Source-PIB and Indian Express
60. The report ‘Countdown on Health and Climate Change’ has been published by
(A) World Health Organisation
(B) Doctors without borders
(C) United Nations Environment Program
(D) Lancet
Answer Key: D
Solution:
The Lancet has published a report titled- ‘Countdown on Health and Climate Change’. It’s a
comprehensive yearly analysis tracking progress across 41 key indicators. It demonstrates how
actions to meet Paris Agreement targets or inactions affect human health. The project is a
collaboration between 120 experts from 35 institutions, including the World Health Organisation,
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the World Bank, University College London, and Tsinghua University in Beijing.
Source: The Hindu
61. Which of the following are the initiatives launched under the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)?
I. Atal Tinkering labs
II. Mentor India campaign
III. ARISE
Select the answer using the code given below.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
AIM is the Government of India’s flagship initiative to promote a culture of innovation and
entrepreneurship in the country. AIM’s objective is to develop new programs and policies for
fostering innovation in different sectors of the economy, provide platform and collaboration
opportunities for different stakeholders, create awareness and create an umbrella structure to
oversee innovation ecosystem of the country.
Six major initiatives of AIM:
1. Atal Tinkering Labs-Creating problem-solving mindset across schools in India.
2. Atal Incubation Centers-Fostering world-class start-ups and adding a new dimension to the
incubator model.
3. Atal New India Challenges-Fostering product innovations and aligning them to the needs of
various sectors/ministries.
4. Mentor India Campaign- A national Mentor network in collaboration with public sector,
corporates, and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission.
5. Atal Community Innovation Center- To stimulate community-centric innovation and ideas in
the unserved /underserved regions of the country including Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.
6. Atal Research & Innovation for Small Enterprises (ARISE) -To stimulate innovation and
research in the MSME industry.
Source: PIB
62. The religious site ‘Thotlakonda’ recently in news is associated with which faith?
(A) Jainism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Hinduism
(D) Vir Shaivism
Answer key: B
Solution:
Thotlakonda Buddhist site is said to be the sacred place of Buddhists during 300 BC to 300 AD,
will be renovated as a meditation place for Vizagites and tourists. The ancient Maha Stupa at
Thotlakonda collapsed on one side due to heavy rains recently.
Source: The Hindu
63. Consider the following statements about ‘Geotail’.

I. It is a part of magnetic envelope of Earth’s called the magnetosphere
II. It extends beyond the orbit of moon.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: C
Solution:
1. Our Sun emits a continuous outflowing stream of electrons and protons into the solar system,
called the solar wind. The solar wind plasma which has charged particles embedded in the
extended magnetic field of the Sun, moves at speeds of a few hundred km per second and
interacts with solar system bodies including Earth and its moon.
2. Since the Earth has a global magnetic field, it obstructs the solar wind plasma and results in
the formation of a magnetic envelope around Earth, called the magnetosphere.
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3. The Earth’s magnetosphere is compressed into a region approximately three to four times the
Earth radius (~22000 km above the surface) on the side facing the Sun.
4. But is stretched into a long tail on the opposite side that goes beyond the orbit of Moon. This
tail is called the Geotail.
5. Approximately, once every 29 days, Moon traverses the geotail for about 6 days centered
around full moon. This region in space allows the best observations.
Source: The Indian Express
64. In which cities, the following monuments can be found?

I. Flora Fountain
II. Gloria Church
III. Keneseth Synagogue
(A) New Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Panaji
(D) Mumbai
Answer key: D
Solution:
In a major recognition to Mumbai’s heritage conservation, three monuments from the cities won
the UNESCO Asia- Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation Awards 2019.
a) Flora Fountain
b) Gloria Church
c) Keneseth Synagogue
Along with these monuments, Vikram Sarabhai Library from Ahmedabad also won the Award.
Source- Times of India
65. What was/were the reasons behind organization of the Jallianwala Bagh Assembly?
I. Launch of Non-cooperation Movement
II. Condemn arrest of main leaders
III. Celebrations of Baisakhi festival
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) III only
Answer key: B
Solution:
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919 when General Dyer ordered troops of
the British Indian Army to fire their rifles into a crowd of unarmed civilians in Jallianwala Bagh,
Amritsar, Punjab.
Unarmed civilians were gathered in the annual Baisakhi celebrations. Baisakhi is a festival widely
celebrated in Punjab region. They also gathered to condemn the arrest and deportation of
leaders,Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satya Pal. So, statements II and III are correct.
Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in August 1920. So, statement I is incorrect.
66. Which of the following leaders was/were associated with Swarajists Party?
I. Vallabh Bhai Patel
II. Motilal Nehru
III. C. R. Rajagopalachari
(A) I, II and III
(B) I and II only
(C) II only
(D) II and III only
Answer key: C
Solution:
The Swarajist Party was formed by one section of the Congress, known as pro-changers, after
the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement. They suggested that nationalists should end
the boycott of Legislative Councils, enter the councils, obstruct their working and expose the fact
that the councils did not work in people’s interest.
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Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das were involved in the formation of Swarajists Party. However, Rajendra
Prasad, Vallabhbhai Patel, C. R. Rajagopalachari, etc. opposed its formation.
Source- Shodhganga
67. Arrange the following events chronologically:

I. Ultimate given to accept the Gandhi’s Eleven Demands
II. Lahore Session of Congress under Jawaharlal Nehru’s presidency was held.
III. Launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(A) II- I- III
(B) II- III- I
(C) I- III- II
(D) I- II- III
Answer key: A
Solution:
Civil Disobedience Movement begun on March 12, 1930, when the Dandi March was launched.
Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law by picking up a lump of salt at Dandi on April 6.
To carry forward the mandate given by the Lahore Congress, Mahatma Gandhi presented eleven
demands to the government and gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept or reject
these demands.
Lahore session of the Congress was held on December 1929. Jawaharlal Nehru was the
president of the Session.
Source- NCERT- Modern India
68. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Khudai Khitmatgars movement’?
I. It was popularly known as the Red-Shirts.
II. It was active in the North-west part of the Indian subcontinent.
III. It was organised by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
(A) I and III only
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Answer key: C
Solution:
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan’s educational and social reform work among the Pathans had politicized
them. Gaffar Khan was also called as Badshah Khan and Frontier Gandhi. He started the first
Pushto political monthly ‘Pukhtoon’. He organized a volunteer brigade ‘Khudai Khitmatgars’,
popularly known as the ‘Red-Shirts’, who were pledged to the freedom struggle and non-
violence. So, statement I is correct and III is incorrect.
This organization was active in the North-west part of the Indian-Subcontinent. So, statement
II is correct.
Source- A Brief History of Modern India- Rajiv Ahir and NCERT
69. Which of the following events was/were organized by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar?
I. Mahad Satyagraha
II. Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha
III. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
(A) Only II
(B) I and III
(C) Only I
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar had experienced the worst form of caste-discrimination during his
childhood. He fought against upper caste tyranny throughout his life. He organized the All India
Scheduled Castes Federation for this purpose.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar led the Mahad Satyagraha in March 1927 to challenge the regressive
customs of the caste Hindus. He led a procession of ‘untouchables’ through the town of Mahad to
the public tank of water tank from which the untouchables were not allowed to draw water. Dr.
Ambedkar took water from the tank and drank it.
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Dr. Ambedkar established the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha in 1924 to highlight the difficulties and
grievances of the Dalits before the government. Its motto was: ‘Educate, Agitate and Organise’.
Source- A Brief History of Modern India- Rajeev Ahir
70. Political democracy is primarily promoted by which of the following provisions of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Federal Governance
Answer key: B
Solution:
The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the idea of political democracy. They operate
as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. They are
justiciable in nature, that is, they are enforceable by the courts for their violation.
71. Consider the following statements about the 73rd amendment act:
I. It made reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the offices of
Chairperson mandatory.
II. It provides for reservation of one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the
panchayats at each level for women.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct.
The state legislature was given the power (not mandatory) to provide for the reservation of
offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs.
The 73rd amendment act mandates only provision for the reservation of seats for scheduled
castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in proportion of their
population to the total population in the panchayat area.
The act provides for the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for
women- including the number of seats reserved for women belonging the SCs and STs.
Further, not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the panchayats
at each level shall be reserved for women.
The act also authorizes the legislature of a state to make any provision for reservation of seats
in any panchayat or offices of chairperson in the panchayat at any level in favour of backward
classes.
72. Which of the following is/are the reasons for the creation of Union Territories in India?
I. Political and administrative consideration.
II. Cultural distinctiveness
III. Strategic importance
IV. Hilly topography
Select the correct option:
(A) I and IV only
(B) I and III only
(C) I, II and III only
Answer key: C
Solution:
Statements I, II and III are correct.
The union territories have been created for a variety of reasons. These are
mentioned below:
1. Political and administrative consideration—Delhi and Chandigarh.
2. Cultural distinctiveness—Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.
3. Strategic importance—Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
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Hilly topography is not a consideration for creation of Union Territory.

73. Consider the following statements about Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):
I. It is a statutory body.
II. It was setup on the recommendations of Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
III. It aids Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and Lokpal in its functioning.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
Statement I is incorrect. Statement II and III are correct.
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of
Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status
of an attached office.
The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also
merged with the CBI.
The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption (1962-1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi
Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It plays an important role
in the prevention of corruption and maintaining integrity in administration. It also provides
assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal.
74. Who among the following administers the office of the Custodian of Enemy Property for India?
(A) Parliament of India
(B) Office of the President of India
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Union Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer key: D
Solution:
Option D is the correct answer.
The work relating to Enemy Property lies with Ministry of Home Affairs in the year 2007. The
Office of the Custodian of Enemy Property for India is presently functioning under the provisions
contained in the Enemy Property Act, 1968 which was enacted for continued vesting to preserve
and manage the Enemy Property vested in the Custodian of Enemy Property for India.
Under the Act, all immovable and movable properties all over India belonging to, or held by, or
managed, on behalf of Pakistan nationals between the period from September 10, 1965 to
September 26, 1977, are vested in Custodian of Enemy Property for India.
Source: Governance in India by Lakshmikanth
75. Consider the following pairs with respect to grasslands and associated regions.
Grassland Region
I. Steppe Greater Himalayas
II. Banni Gujrat
III. Phumdi Rajasthan
IV. Shola Western Ghats
Which among the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a. I and II only
b. I, II and III only
c. II and IV only
d. II, III and IV only
Answer key: C
Solution:
Grasslands occupies about 24% of geographical area of India. Major types of grassland in India
are:
i. Apline Meadows of the Greater Himalayas
ii. Chaurs of Himalayan foothills
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iii. Terai of Gangetic and Brahmaputra flood plains

iv. Phumdi or floating grassland of Loktak lake of Manipur
v. Banni and Vidis of Gujrat
vi. Savannas of western and peninsular India
vii. Dry grassland of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
viii. Shola of Western Ghats
ix. Plateau and valley grassland in Satpuras and Maikal hills.
x. Steppe of trans Himalayas
Source: Ecology and Management of Grassland Habitats in India by ENVIS Wildlife and Protected
Area
76. Enrichment of a material makes it economically viable to exploit, process and refine a material.
The term Enrichment is closely associated with which of the following process?
(A) Weathering
(B) Mass wasting
(C) Erosion
(D) Deposition
Answer key: A
Solution:
Weathering is action of elements of weather and climate over earth materials. There are a
number if processes within weathering which are either individually or together to affect the
earth materials.
When rocks undergo weathering, some materials are removed through chemical or physical
leaching by ground water and thereby the concentration of remaining (valuable) material
increases.
Without such a weathering taking place, the concentration of the same valuable material is not
sufficient and economically viable to exploit, process and refine. This process is called
enrichment.
Source: NCERT
77. Which among the following statements correctly describes the ‘cold point’?
(A) The height in the tropopause where decrease of temperature with increasing altitude stops.
(B) A region on the earth surface with lowest mean annual temperature.
(C) A place in the arctic circle with lowest temperature ever recorded.
(D) Temperature at which the water vapour in the atmosphere directly turns to solid.
Answer key: A
Solution:
The height in the tropopause where decreasing of temperature increasing altitude stops in called
cold point.
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh
78. The land becomes warm and cold more quickly than the water body. Which among the following
is/are a reason for this phenomenon?
(A) The opaqueness of land.
(B) More evaporation in water bodies.
(C) The albedo effect is more in water bodies than land.
(D) All of the above.
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Answer key: D
Solution:
The land becomes warm and cold more quickly than the water body due to following reasons:
1. Opaqueness of Land: The sun’s rays penetrate to a depth of only 3 feet in land because it is
opaque but they penetrate to greater depth of several metres in water because it is transparent
to solar radiation.
2. Concentration of Heat: The heat is concentrated at the place where insolation is received and
there is very slow process of redistribution of heat by conduction because land surface is static.
Thus, the land surface becomes warm during day and cold during night very rapidly. On the
other hand, water is mobile.
3. Evaporation: There is more evaporation from the seas and the oceans and hence more heat is
spent in this process with the result oceans get less insolation than the land surface. On the
other hand, there is less evaporation from the land surface because of very limited amount of
water.
4. Specific Heat: The specific heat (the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one
gram of a substance by 1°C) of water is much greater than the land because the relative density
of water is much lower than that of land surface.
5. Albedo Effect: The reflection (albedo) of incoming solar radiation from the oceanic water
surface is far more than from the land surface and thus water receives less insolation than land.
Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh
79. Which of the following species are protected and conserved under the Development of Wildlife
Habitats programme?
I. Tigers
II. Gangetic Dolphin
III. Red Panda
IV. Crocodiles
Select the correct answer using codes:
(A) I, II and III only
(B) II and III only
(D) I and III only
Answer key: B
Solution:
Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats’ (IDWH) is meant for providing support to protected
areas (national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservation reserves and community), protection of
wildlife outside protected areas and recovery programmes for saving critically endangered
species and habitats.
1. Project Tiger (Exclusive for tigers)
2. Development of Wildlife Habitats
3. Project Elephant (Exclusive for elephants)
Development of Wildlife Habitats: Under this scheme 21 species, most of which are critically
endangered are identified to protect and conserve these species. It includes: Dolphin, Hangul,
Nilgiri Tahr, Marine Turtles, Dugongs, Edible Nest Swiftlet, Asian Wild Buffalo, Nicobar
Megapode, Manipur Brow-antlered Deer, Vultures, Malabar Civet, Indian Rhinoceros, Asiatic Lion,
Swamp Deer and Jerdon’s Courser.
These four species were added in 2018: Northern River Terrapin, Clouded Leopard, Arabian Sea
Humpback Whale, and the Red Panda.
Source: Down To Earth and Vikaspedia
80. Which among the following funds is not administered by the World Bank?
(A) Forest Carbon Partnership Fund
(B) Biocarbon Fund
(C) Clean Technology Fund
(D) Special Climate Change Fund
Answer key: D
Solution:
Forest Carbon Partnership Fund: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global partnership of
governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions
from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable
management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries
(REDD+ activities).
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Biocarbon Fund: The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a
multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It
promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest
degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as
smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Clean Technology Fund: It promotes scaled-up financing for demonstration, deployment and
transfer of low-carbon technologies with significant potential for long-term greenhouse gas
emissions savings. Channelled through the African Development Bank, Asian Development Bank,
European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, Inter-American Development Bank, and
World Bank Group. The fund is administered by World Bank.
Special Climate Change Fund: The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established under
the UNFCCC in 2001 to finance projects relating to: adaptation; technology transfer and capacity
building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and
economic diversification.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF), as an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism for
UNFCCC, it has been entrusted to operate the SCCF.
Source: Websites of respective funds
81. Which among the following type of ecosystem is not found in the Southern Hemisphere?
(A) Tropical Evergreen forest.
(B) Wetlands
(C) Coniferous forest
(D) Temperate grasslands
Answer key: C
Solution:
Coniferous forest/boreal extend as a continuous belt across north America and north Eurasia
below the arctic tundra.
Coniferous forest could not be found in the southern hemisphere as there is narrow and small
land at this latitude, and these lands are influenced by the seas/oceans hence, southern
hemisphere don’t have coniferous forest.
Distribution of Coniferous forest:
Source: NIOS
82. One of the effective control methods for Harmful Algae Blooms (HABs) is Bio-Manipulation. What
does it mean?
(A) It means removal of harmful algae through algaecides.
(B) Killing HABs through its natural predators.
(C) Restricting the growth of HABs by introducing other useful algae.
(D) Cleaning the waterbody through manipulating the temperature and salinity of water.
Answer key: B
Solution:
Bio-manipulation involves alteration of a food web.
This involves the use of other form of simple lives other than algae, introducing them to the
water bodies so as to feed on the algae and bacteria which cause decomposition of the algae
bloom faster hence eliminating the occurrence of eutrophication
Source: wetlands.org
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83. Consider the following statements with reference to the Conference of the Parties (COP) to
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
I. It is the supreme decision-making body of UNFCCC.
II. The COP meets once in every two years.
III. The first COP meeting was held on March 1995 in Berlin, Germany
(A) I and II only
(B) II only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
Statements I and III are correct
The COP is the supreme decision-making body of United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC).
The COP meets in Bonn (the seat of UNFCCC secretariat), unless a Party offers to host its
session. The first COP meeting was held on March 1995 in Berlin, Germany.
Statement II is incorrect: All States that are Parties to Convention are represented at COP
which meets every year, unless the Parties decide otherwise.
Functions taken at COP:
1. At the COP the Parties review the implementation of Convention and any other legal
instruments that COP adopts and take decisions necessary for promoting effective
implementation of Convention
2. COP Presidency rotates among 5 recognized UN regions, namely, Asia, Central and Eastern
Europe Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, and Western Europe and Others. The COP
venue also shifts among these groups.
COP Conference:
1. The annual summit is a key event which allows representatives from about 200 countries to
monitor as well as discuss current situation of world’s warming climate.
2. Madrid in Spain will be hosting the world’s annual climate conference, called COP-25
(Conference of the Parties) from 2 to 13 December 2019.
Source: UNFCC website
84. The term ‘New Arrangement to Borrow(NAB) is recently seen in the news in relation to?
(A) World Trade Organizations (WTO)
(B) International Monetary Authority (IMF)
(C) BRICS
(D) European Union (EU)
Answer key: B
Solution:
The New Arrangement to Borrow is the fund mobilization arrangement of the IMF to mobilise
additional funds through borrowing from member countries. Under NAB, member countries and
institutions can stand ready to lend to the Fund. The NAB is structured as a set of credit
arrangements between the IMF and 38-member countries (can be changed) and institutions.
Source: The Hindu
85. Which of the following is/are features of Microbots?

I. They are extremely small in size.
II. They use very less power.
III. Useful in networking and communications.
Select the correct answer using the code:
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
Microbots are robots that are the size of a speck of dust. They might be a boon to neural
scientists, burrowing into the brain to measure nerve signals. The robots are made using
conventional silicon technology. The robots run on a fraction of a volt and consume only 10
billionths of a watt.
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Source: The Hindu
86. Which among the following species is called as ‘Living Fossil’?

(A) African Elephant
(B) Purple Frog
(C) Brown Hawks
(D) Pygmy Hogs
Answer key: B
Solution:
Purple frog is also called a ‘living fossil’ as its evolutionary roots suggest it could have shared
space with dinosaurs going back almost 70 million years ago.
Wildlife Advisory Board of Kerala is considering the Purple Frog to declare it as State Amphibian
of Kerala.
The title of ‘the state amphibian’ would help in protecting its fragile habitat and knowing more
about its rich antecedents.
Researchers have found that the Purple frog, which lives almost its entire life in underground
tunnels, comes out to the surface for a single in a year to breed. It is listed as endangered on
the red list of the IUCN. It is endemic to southern portion of Western Ghats in Kerala and Tamil
Nadu.
87. Which among the following statements is/are true about Project MANAV?
I. It is a project for mapping every tissue of the human body.
II. It is launched by the Department of Biotechnology.
III. It is aided by the World Health Organization.
Choose the correct option.
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: C
Solution:
‘MANAV: Human Atlas Initiative’ is a project for mapping every tissue of the human body to help
better understand the roles of tissues and cells linked to various diseases.
Recently the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), under the Union Ministry of Science and
Technology launched the Project MANAV.
DBT has invested Rs 13 crore, shared between the two institutions in Pune — National Centre for
Cell Science and Indian Institute of Science, Education, and Research.
88. ‘‘Food and Nutrition Security Analysis 2019 Report, India’ is published by _________.
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Ministry of Social Justice
(D) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Answer key: D
Solution:
The ‘Food and Nutrition Security Analysis, India, 2019’, was a report by the Ministry of Statistics
and Programme Implementation and the World Food Programme. It has listed Maharashtra as
one of the six States with high levels of stunting and underweight.
The report highlights hunger and malnutrition amongst children in large pockets of India.
Source- The Hindu
89. Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘MARPOL Convention’?
I. It is the main international convention covering prevention of military activities in the space.
II. It comes under the aegis of the United Nation Security Council.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: D
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Solution:
Recently the Ministry of Shipping has informed the parliament about the steps taken to tackle
marine pollution.
It states that India is a signatory to MARPOL (International Convention on the Prevention of
Marine Pollution).
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) is the main
international convention covering prevention of pollution of the marine environment by ships
from operational or accidental causes.
The MARPOL Convention was adopted on 2 November 1973 at the International Maritime
Organisation (IMO). So, statement I and II are NOT correct.
Source-PIB and IMO website
90. The Yuelu Proclamation of UNESCO is related to

(A) Protecting Cultural Heritage sites in case of warfare.
(B) Protection and Promotion of Linguistic language.
(C) Developing new culture heritage sites of modern era
(D) None of the above
Answer key: B
Solution:
The Yuelu Proclamation, made by the UNESCO at Changsha, The People’s Republic of China, in
2018, says:
The protection and promotion of linguistic diversity helps
a. To improve social inclusion and partnerships,
b. To reduce the gender and social inequality between different native speakers,
c. Guarantee the rights for native speakers of endangered, minority, indigenous languages, as
well as non-official languages and dialects to receive education,
d. Enhance the social inclusion level and social decision-making ability by encouraging them to
participate in a series of actions to promote cultural diversity, endangered language protection,
and
e. The protection of intangible cultural heritage
Source: The Hindu
91. Which of the following was/were included in ‘Home Charges’?

I. Purchases made abroad for government stores in India
II. Pensions to British Indian officials and army officers
III. Costs of army training
IV. Interest on railways
Select the correct code.
(A) Only II
(B) II and III
(C) I, II and III
Answer key: D
Solution:
‘Home Charges’ referred to the expenditure incurred in England by the Secretary of State on
behalf of India. The Home Charges were annually remitted to England to pay interest on money
expended in India for various activities and works.
Home Charges included,
i) Pensions to British Indian officials and army officers
ii) Military and other stores purchased in England
iii) Costs of army training
iv) Transport and campaigns outside India but charged on Indian finances
v) Guaranteed interest on railways etc.
Source- Modern India- B. L. Grover
92. Match the following pairs.

Leaders Publication
I. Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a) Satyarth Prakash
II. Swami Dayanand Saraswati (b) Gulamgiri
III. Mahatma Phule (c) Gift to Monotheism
(A) I- a, II-c, III- b
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(B) I- b, II- a, III- c

(C) I- c, II- a, III-b
(D) I-d, II- b, III-a
Answer key: C
Solution:
Rammohan Roy believed in the modern scientific approach and principles of human dignity and
social equality. He put his faith in monotheism. He wrote Gift to Monotheists (1809).
Mahatma Phule’s works, Sarvajanik Satya dharma, and Gulamgiri became sources of inspiration
for the common masses.
Swami Dayanand Saraswati’s views were published in his famous work ‘Satyarth Prakash (The
True Exposition)’. It was written in 1875 and revised by him in 1882. The book deals with
reforms advocated by Dayanand Saraswati.
Source- Old NCERT- Modern History
93. Consider the following statements about the Sangam Literature.

I. It was written in mainly Tamil and Telugu languages.
II. All Sangam assemblies took place under the patronage of the Chola kings.
III. It was secular in nature.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) III Only
(D) I Only
Answer key: C
Solution:
The earliest South Indian literature is called Sangam literature. It was written in Tamil. It has
influence of Sanskrit also to some extent. However, it hadn’t been written in Telugu. So, the
statement I is incorrect.
The Sangam age refers to that period in the early history of south India when large numbers of
poems in Tamil were composed by a number of authors. The term Sangam refers to an
assembly or meeting together of Tamil poets. Traditionally, three Sangams or assemblies are
believed to have been convened one after the other. All the three Sangams took place at
different places under the patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai. So, statement II is
incorrect.
Sangam Literature is secular in nature. A remarkable feature of the Sangam literature is its vivid
portrayal of the contemporary society and culture of Tamil region and its peaceful and
harmonious interaction with the northern culture. Poems within the Sangam literature were
composed on two broader themes of love and war. So, statement III is correct.
Source- NCERT- Ancient India
94. Under the Indian Constitution, the President occupies the same position as the King under the
English Constitution. In this context which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?
I. He is the head of the Executive.
II. He represents the nation and rules the nation.
III. He is the symbol of the nation.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statements I and II are incorrect. Statement III is correct.
Under the Indian Constitution, the President occupies the same position as the King under the
English Constitution.
a. He is the head of the State but not of the Executive.
b. He represents the nation but does not rule the nation.
c. He is the symbol of the nation.
d. His place in administration is that of a ceremonial device or a seal by which the nation’s
decisions are made known. He is generally bound by the advice of his ministers. He can do
nothing contrary to their advice nor can he do anything without their advice.
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95. The term “satisfaction of the President” used in several places in Indian Constitution refers to
(A) Personal satisfaction of the President
(B) Satisfaction of the cabinet ministers
(C) Satisfaction of the council of ministers
(D) Satisfaction of the Prime Minister
Answer key: C
Solution:
According to the Supreme Court, wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the
President, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the President but it is the
satisfaction of the council of ministers with whose aid and on whose advice the President
exercises his powers and functions.
Source: IGNOU
96. Consider the following statements.

I. Major wheat producing states of India are located in northern parts of India.
II. Major rice producing states of India are located in southern parts of India.
III. Which among the above statements is/are correct?
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) Both I and II
Answer key: A
Solution:
Statement I is correct:
Major wheat producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of
Madhya Pradesh.
Statement II is incorrect: Major rice producing states are located in Eastern parts of India.
Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas, deltaic regions.
Development of dense network of canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow
rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana , Western Uttar Pradesh and parts of
Rajasthan.
Source: Xth NCERT
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97. ‘Colombo Declaration’ of United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is related to which of
the following issues?
(A) Sustainable Development Goals
(B) Sustainable Nitrogen Management
(C) Combating desertification
(D) Doubling the global tiger population
Answer key: B
Solution:
The member states of United Nations proposed road map for action on nitrogen challenges called
Colombo Declaration on Sustainable Nitrogen Management.
It was organized by Sri Lanka with the support of UN and its member nations. The Declaration
was developed with technical support from International Nitrogen Management System (INMS).
INMS is a joint activity of UNEP and Internationals Nitrogen Initiative
Outcome:
1. The aim of the Declaration is to halve nitrogen waste by 2030
2. The event endorsed UN plans for a campaign called “Nitrogen for Life”. The campaign aims at
sustainable management of Nitrogen.
3. It is based on the Sustainable Management Resolution that was adopted during the fourth
session of the UN Environment Assembly that was held in Nairobi, Kenya in March 2019
Problems caused due to reactive Nitrogen:
1. Reactive Nitrogen is the scientific term used for nitrogen compounds like nitrogen oxides,
nitrous oxide, ammonia, etc. Most of them are result of intensive farming and misuse of
fertilizers.
2. They affect environment negatively and make underground water unfit for drinking.
3. They also leach out the soil and pollute aquatic ecosystems causing Eutrophication.
This declaration will help to reduce Eutrophic zones that are affecting fishing and tourism.
Source: unenvironment.org
98. Consider the following statements regarding Innovating for Clean Air initiative:
I. It is an initiative of United Nations Environment
II. It will support India’s transition to Electric Vehicles
III. It is funded by Newton Fund
(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: B
Solution:
Statement I is incorrect: The Innovating for Clean Air (IfCA) is a two-year UK-India joint
initiative.
Statement II is correct: The initiative provides a unique measurement system for air quality
and helps to support India’s transition to electric vehicles
Statement III is correct: The programme is led by Innovate UK -- part of UK Research and
Innovation (UKRI) -- and is funded by the Newton Fund with matched resources from various
partners in Karnataka and India.
The key partners for the programme are the Indian Institute of Science, Project Lithium,
Confederation of Indian Industry, C40 Cities and Clean Air Platform, World Resources Institute,
IIT-B and India Smart Grid Forum.
Source: Business Standard
99. Consider the following statements regarding e-waste in India.

I. E-waste includes discarded computers, mobile phones, television sets, air conditioners and
refrigerators.
II. India is the second largest e-waste producing country in Asia.
III. Most of the e-waste in India is recycled by the informal sector.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III
Answer key: B
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Solution:
Statement I is correct: Electronic waste (e-waste) typically includes discarded computer
monitors, motherboards, mobile phones and chargers, compact discs, headphones, television
sets, air conditioners and refrigerators.
Statement II is incorrect: According to the Global E-Waste Monitor 2017, India generates
about 2 million tonnes (MT) of e-waste annually and ranks fifth among e-waste producing
countries, after the US, China, Japan and Germany.
In Asia, India is third largest e-waste producer after China and Japan.
Statement III is correct: About 95 per cent of India’s e-waste is recycled in the informal
sector and in a crude manner.
Source: Down To Earth
100. Arrange the following countries in descending order of their greenhouse gases (GHGs)
emissions as per the Emissions gap report.
(A) USA- European Union- Brazil- China
(B) China- USA- European Union- India
(C) USA- China- Brazil- European Union
(D) China- USA- India- Brazil
Answer key: B
Solution:
Recently the United Nations Environmental Programme (UNEP) released the ‘Emission Gap
Report 2019’.
The report says that the top four emitters (China, USA, European Union and India) contribute to
over 55% of the total emissions over the last decade, excluding emissions from a land-use
change such as deforestation.
If land-use change emissions were included, the rankings would change, with Brazil likely to be
the largest emitter.
Source: Indian Express
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7. Consider the following statements about the Margadarshan scheme:

The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in

10. Consider the following statements:

(D) I, II and III

Source: Atlas & Maps of India

Source: NCERT and MOSPI (PLFS)

18. Consider the following regarding “Invest India”:

19. Which among the following is/are examples of Primary Consumers?

20. What is ecological efficiency?

21. Consider the following statements about Genetic Diversity:

22. Consider the following statement about Convention on Biological Diversity.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

25. Which of the following are the components of Fiscal deficit?

26. Which of the following measures can control inflation?

29. Consider the following statements about SAGAR MAITRI Mission:

(D) Neither I nor II

31. GEMINI device was launched by the Government of India for:

33. Consider the following statements about Buddha’s Mudra:

34. Consider the following pairs.

41. Which of the following features are part of a Unitary Polity?

42. Provincial/Local Representation in Indian Legislative Council was first introduced by

Select the answer using the below codes:

46. The tribal ‘Kuki Revolt’ was mainly organised to

50. Why October Heat phenomenon occurs in India?

58. Consider the following features regarding Import substitution industrialization:

63. Consider the following statements about ‘Geotail’.

64. In which cities, the following monuments can be found?

67. Arrange the following events chronologically:

Hilly topography is not a consideration for creation of Union Territory.

iii. Terai of Gangetic and Brahmaputra flood plains

Source: Physical Geography by Savindra Singh

85. Which of the following is/are features of Microbots?

Source: The Hindu

86. Which among the following species is called as ‘Living Fossil’?

90. The Yuelu Proclamation of UNESCO is related to

91. Which of the following was/were included in ‘Home Charges’?

92. Match the following pairs.

(B) I- b, II- a, III- c

93. Consider the following statements about the Sangam Literature.

96. Consider the following statements.

Source: Xth NCERT

99. Consider the following statements regarding e-waste in India.

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