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1. Ram Nath Kovind is the and scheduled tribes in the legislative

_______President of India. assemblies of every state.
A. 13th B. 16th • Article 330 to 342 make special
C. 14 th
D. 15th provisions for safeguarding the interest of
Ans. C Scheduled castes, Scheduled Tribes,
Sol. Anglo-Indians and Backward Classes.
a) Ram Nath Kovind is the 14th
President of India. The first president of 4. Which of the following Articles of the
India was Dr. Rajendera Prasad. Constitution of India is associated with
b) He is the second Dalit President of the election of the President of India?
Inda. K.R Narayanan was the first dalit A. Article 103 B. Article 78
president. C. Article 74 D. Article 54
c) He served as the Governor of Bihar Ans. D
from 2015 to 2017 and became president Sol.
after winning the 2017 presidential * Article 54 of the Constitution of India
election in July 2017. is associated with the election of the
President of India.
2. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a * The President is elected by an electoral
Satyagraha in the Kheda district of college consisting of the elected members
Gujarat in support of the of both Houses of Parliament and of the
______________. Legislative Assemblies of the States.
A. cotton mill workers who were Ram Nath Kovind is the Present
demanding better wages President of India.
B. tribals whose customary rights were
being violated 5. Who among the following was
C. women who were struggling against appointed as the first Deputy Speaker of
the oppressive patriarchal system the Lok Sabha?
D. peasants who were affected by crop A. M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
failure and a plague epidemic B. G V Mavalankar
Ans. D C. Vithalbhai J Patel
Sol. D. V Narahari Rao
a) Mahatma Gandhi organised a Ans. A
Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Sol.
Gujarat in support of the peasants who * Madabhushi Ananthasayanam
were affected by crop failure and a Ayyangar is the first deputy speaker of
plague epidemic. Lok Sabha. He became deputy speaker on
b) It was the third Satyagraha movement 30 May 1952.
after Champaran Satyagraha and * The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ahmedabad mill strike. is the vice-presiding officer of the Lok
Sabha. In case of the absence of the
3. Which article of the Constitution of Speaker, He presides over the sessions of
India provisions for reservations of seats the Lok Sabha and conducts the business
for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the house.
in the House of People?
A. Article 325 B. Article 321 6. The powers, privileges and immunities
C. Article 330 D. Article 335 of either House of Parliament and of its
Ans. C Committees and Members have mainly
Sol. been laid down in article ____________
• Article 330 provides for the of the Constitution of India.
reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for A. 115 B. 107
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. C. 105 D. 102
• Similarly, Article 332 provides for the Ans. C
reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Sol.

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a) The powers, privileges and immunities
of the Houses of Parliament and of the
Members and the Committees are given
in Article 105 of the Constitution.
b) The language of Article 105 is mutatis
mutandis.
c) The powers, privileges and immunities
of the State Legislatures , their
Members and their committees deals with
article 194.
7. Members of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme (MPLADS) was
introduced in December _________.
A. 2014 B. 2004
C. 1991 D. 1993
Ans. D
Sol.
• Members of Parliament Local Area
Development Scheme was introduced on
Monday 23 December 1993.
• Initially, this scheme was administered
by Ministry of Rural Development
and formulated by Government of India.
• This scheme enables the Members of
Parliament to recommend works for
creation of durable community assets
based on locally felt needs like drinking
water, education, public health,
sanitation, roads etc to be taken up in
their constituencies.
8. Matters, which are not points of order,
can be raised by way of Special Mentions
under Rule _______of Lok Sabha.
A. 377 B. 302
C. 223 D. 214
Ans. A
Sol.
• Matters, which are not points of order,
can be raised by way of Special
Mentions under Rule 377 of Lok
Sabha.
• The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
takes follow-up action on matters raised
under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure
and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha
and by way of Special Mentions in Rajya
Sabha.
9. Who among the following was the
Speaker of the 15th Lok Sabha?
A. P A Sangma B. Rabi Ray
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C. Meira Kumar D. Sumitra Mahajan
Ans. C
Sol.
• Meira Kumar served as the the 15th
Speaker of Lok Sabha from 2009 to
2014.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the
presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.
• Currently, Om Birla is serving as the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha (17th Lok
Sabha).
• As per Article 93 of Indian Constitution,
the Lok Sabha has a Speaker and a
Deputy Speaker.
• In the Lok Sabha, both presiding
officers—the Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker- are elected from among its
members by a simple majority of
members present and voting in the
House.
10. According to Article 243 V of the
Constitution of India, the minimum age
requirement for becoming a member of a
Municipalty is ____.
A. 24 years B. 28 years
C. 32 years D. 21 years
Ans. D
Sol.
• According to Article 243 V of the
Constitution of India, the minimum age
requirement for becoming a member of
Municipality is 21 years.
• Article 84 (b) of Constitution of India
provides that the minimum age for
becoming a candidate for MP election
shall be 25 years.
• Article 173 (b) of Constitution of India
provides that the minimum age for
becoming a candidate for MLA election
shall be 25 years.
• Article 243F (1)(a) of Constitution of
India provides that the minimum age for
becoming a candidate for Panchayats
shall be 21 years.
11. Which of the following words was
inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd
Amendment of the Constitution of India?
A. Economic B. Integrity
C. Belief D. Political
Ans. B
Sol.
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The major provisions of 42nd
constitutional amendment act are as
follow-
• The 42nd Amendment amended
Preamble adding two words ‘Socialist’
and ‘Secular’.
• It also changed the words "unity of the
nation" to "unity and integrity of the
nation".
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment
act is popularly known as ‘Mini
Constitution’.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment
act added the Part IVA with article 51A
containing Fundamental Duties of the
citizens.
12. The quorum to constitute a sitting of
the Lok Sabha is _____ of the total
number of Members of the House under
article 100(3) of the Constitution of India.
A. one-tenth B. one-fifth
C. one-third D. half
Ans. A
Sol.
• The quorum to constitute a sitting
of the Lok Sabha is one-tenth of the
total number of Members of the House
under article 100(3) of the Constitution of
India.
• The maximum strength of the House
allotted by the Constitution of India is
552.
• Currently, the house has 545 seats
which is made up by the election of up to
543 elected members and at a maximum,
2 nominated members of the Anglo-
Indian Community by the President of
India which was abolished in 2019.
13. The first session of the first Lok Sabha
commenced on ______.
A. 26th January 1950
B. 15th August 1947
C. 15th August 1951
D. 13th May 1952
Ans. D
Sol.
• The First Session of the first Lok Sabha
was commenced on 13 May 1952.
• The First Lok Sabha was constituted on
17 April 1952 after India's first general
election.
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• The 1st Lok Sabha lasted its full tenure
of five years and was dissolved on 4 April
1957.
14. Who decides the admissibility of
Questions in Lok Sabha?
A. Speaker B. Prime Minister
C. Deputy Speaker D. Vice President
Ans. A
Sol.
• Lok Sabha Speaker decides the
admissibility of Questions in Lok Sabha.
• If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha feels
that the question asked by the member is
misuse of the right to inquire or it affects
the procedure of the House or is against
the rules of the House, he can reject such
questions.
15. What is the minimum age
requirement to become a Member of the
Legislative Assembly?
A. 32 years B. 42 years
C. 20 years D. 25 years
Ans. D
Sol.
• The qualifications to become a member
of the Legislative Assembly are largely
like the qualifications to be a member of
Parliament.
(i) The person should be a citizen of India.
(ii) He/She shouldn’t be less than 25
years of age to be a member of the
Legislative Assembly.
• He shouldn’t be less than 30 years as
per Article 173 of Indian Constitution to
be a member of the Legislative
Council.
16. Which of the following is incorrect
match of state and its chief minister?
A. Arunachal Pradesh – Gegong Apang
B. Odisha – Naveen Patnaik
C. Sikkim – P S Golay
D. Andhra Pradesh – Jagmohan Reddy
Ans. A
Sol.
Option A is an incorrect match.
• Pema Khandu (Since 17 July 2016) is
serving as the Chief Minister of Arunachal
Pradesh.
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• Naveen Patnaik (Since 5 March 2000)
is the current and 14th Chief Minister of
Odisha.
• Yeduguri Sandinti Jaganmohan
Reddy (Since 30 May 2019) is serving as
the 17th and current Chief Minister of
Andhra Pradesh.
• P. S. Golay (27 May 2019) is the
current Chief Minister of Sikkim.
17. As of June 2019, who among the
following is the chairman of the 15th
Finance Commission of India?
A. Shaktikanta Das
B. Arvind Panagariya
C. N K Singh
D. Y V Reddy
Ans. C
Sol.
• The Fifteenth Finance Commission
is an Indian Finance Commission
constituted in November 2017.
• The commission's chairman is N. K.
Singh, with its full-time members being
Ajay Narayan Jha, Ashok Lahiri and
Anoop Singh.
• Shaktikanta Das served as a member
of the commission from November 2017
to December 2018.
18. As per the Constitution of India, the
President may resign his office by writing
under his hand addressed to :
A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. The Vice President
Ans. D
Sol.
• Article 56 of the Constitution stipulates
that the President shall hold office for a
term of five years from the date on which
he enters upon his office.
• As per the Constitution's article 56,
the President may resign his office by
writing under his hand addressed to
the Vice President.
• The President of India is the head of
state of the Republic of India.
• The President is the formal head of the
executive, legislature and judiciary of
India.
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• He is also the commander-in-chief of
the Indian Armed Forces.
19. Which committee was appointed to
give a detailed report on the Non
Performing Assets of public sector banks?
A. Malegam Committee
B. Srikrishna Committee
C. Pannir Selvam Committee
D. Mandal Committee
Ans. C
Sol.
The purpose of committees given in
option are-
* Pannir Selvam Committee was
appointed to give a detailed report on the
Non Performing Assets of public sector
banks.
* Melagam Committee was constituted
by RBI to monitor bad loans, rising cases
of frauds and audits.
* Srikrishna Committee was
constituted for data protection.
* Mandal Committee was formed to
"identify the socially or educationally
backward classes" of India.
20. In Parliamentary proceedings, how
many matters per day as per their priority
in the ballot can be raised during 'Zero
Hour'?
A. 21 B. 18
C. 19 D. 20
Ans. D
Sol.
• In Lok Sabha, only 20 matters can be
raised during the Zero Hour.
• In Rajya Sabha, total number of
requests is not allowed to exceed seven
on a single day.
• The total time allocated for Zero Hour is
30 minutes wherein a member gets
three minutes to raise the issue.
• The session should be completed before
1 pm.
• Moreover, a member can make only one
Zero Hour request during a week.
• It is not mandatory to have a Zero Hour
every day during the session.
21. Who presides over the joint sitting of
the two Houses of Parliament?
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A. Prime Minister B. The Speaker of
the Lok Sabha
C. The Vice President
D. President
Ans. B
Sol.
• As per Article 108 of Constitution, a
Joint session of Parliament can be
summoned .
• The joint sitting of the Parliament is
called by the President and is presided
over by the Speaker or, in his absence,
by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha.
22. According to the Constitution of India,
how many members from the Anglo-
Indian community can be nominated to
the Lok Sabha by the President?
A. Five B. Two
C. Three D. Four
Ans. B
Sol.
• As per the Constitution, Lok Sabha can
have a maximum of 552 members out
of which 530 are to be elected from the
states and 20 from the Union Territories.
• Two members are nominated by the
President from the Anglo-Indian
community.
23. As per the Constitution of India,
Panchayats at the intermediate level may
NOT be constituted in a State having a
population not exceeding:
A. Thirty lakhs B. Forty lakhs
C. Ten lakhs D. Twenty lakhs
Ans. D
Sol.
As per the Constitution of India,
Panchayats at the intermediate level
may NOT be constituted in a State
having a population not exceeding 20
lakhs.
* The above said clause is mentioned in
Artcile 243B of Indian Constitution.
* The 73rd Constitution amendment act,
1992 made 3 tier system of Panchayati
raj for all states.
* The 73rd Constitution amendment act,
1992 came into effect from 24 April,
1993.
24. The power to enquire into and decide
all doubts and disputes arising out of
election of the President is vested in:
A. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Election Commission
Ans. C
Sol.
The power to enquire into and decide
all doubts and disputes arising out of
election of the President is vested in
the Supreme Court.
* A dispute application regarding doubts
and disputes in Presidential election can
be filled by any of Presidential candidates
or any 20 or more electors as joint
petitioners.
* Petition should be filed within 30 days
of declaration of the result.
* If after SC declares election as void, the
acts done by President before the SC
orders continue to remain in force.
25. Article 35A was incorporated into the
Constitution of India in _____ by an order
of the then President Rajendra Prasad on
the advice of the Jawaharlal Nehru
Cabinet.
A. 1956 B. 1959
C. 1954 D. 1950
Ans. C
Sol.
• Article 35A was added to the
Constitution through a Presidential Order,
"The Constitution (Application to
Jammu and Kashmir) Order", 1954 –
issued by the President of India on 14th
May 1954, under Article 370.
• Article 35A of the Indian Constitution
was an article that empowered the
Jammu and Kashmir state's legislature to
define "permanent residents" of the state
and provide special rights and privileges
to those permanent residents.
• On 5th August 2019, the President of
India Ram Nath Kovind issued a
Presidential Order, whereby all the
provisions of the Indian Constitution are
to apply to the State without any special
provisions.

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26. Article ______ of the Constitution of
India provides special rights and
privileges to permanent residents of
Jammu and Kashmir.
A. 32 A B. 34 A
C. 35 A D. 31 A
Ans. C
Sol.
• Article 35A of the Constitution of India
provides special rights and privileges to
permanent residents of Jammu and
Kashmir.
• On 5th August 2019, the President of
India Ram Nath Kovind issued a
Presidential Order, whereby all the
provisions of the Indian Constitution are
to apply to the State without any special
provisions.
27. Which Schedule of the Indian
Constitution deals with the
disqualification of elected members on
the ground of defection?
A. Tenth B. Ninth
C. Eleventh D. Twelfth
Ans. A
Sol.
• The Tenth Schedule was inserted in
the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd
Amendment Act.
• It lays down the process by which
legislators may be disqualified on grounds
of defection by the Presiding Officer of a
legislature based on a petition by any
other member of the House.
28. In January 2019, President Ramnath
Kovind gave his assent to the 124th
constitutional Amendment Bill (which is
now the 103rd Amendment Act of the
Constitution of India) providing _______
reservation for economically weaker
sections from the upper castes.
A. 10% B. 15%
C. 5% D. 20%
Ans. A
Sol.
• In January 2019, President Ramnath
Kovind gave his assent to the 124th
constitutional Amendment Bill.
• It is now the 103rd Amendment Act
of the Constitution of India.
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• It provides 10% reservation for
economically weaker sections from
the upper castes.
• The amendment changed two
fundamental rights, Article 15 and 16.
• The amendments provide for the
advancement of the “economically
weaker sections” of the society.
29. A not-for-profit organisation ‘Youth
for Equality’ has moved the Supreme
Court by questioning the constitutional
validity of the _________ Constitutional
Amendment Act which provides 10%
quota for economically weaker sections.
A. 100th B. 103rd
C. 99 th
D. 143rd
Ans. B
Sol.
● Under 103rd Constitutional
Amendment the economically
Weaker Section has been provided
10% quota in education and
government jobs of India .
● General Category having an annual
family income less than 8 lakhs along
with some property constraints classified
as EWS.
● ‘Youth for Equality’ has moved the
Supreme Court by questioning the
constitutional validity of this 103rd
Constitutional Amendment Act.
● The major reason behind the appeal is
that in Indira Sahani case 1992,
Supreme Court held that The total
reserved quota should not exceed 50%
except in some extraordinary situations
whereas the EWS amendment is
exceeding this quota.
30. ________ was Chief Justice of India
from January 1950 to November 1951.
A. Bijan Kumar Mukherjee
B. Bhubaneswar Prasad Sinha
C. Meher Chand Mahajan
D. Harilal Jekisundas Kania
Ans. D
Sol.
• Harilal Jekisundas Kania was the first
Chief Justice of India.
• He died while serving in office in 1951.
• He was the Chief Justice of from 1950
to 1951.
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• Sharad Arvind Bobde is an Indian Judge
serving as the 47th and current Chief
Justice of India.
• He assumed the office on 18
November 2019.
• He replaced Ranjan Gogoi.
31. Under Article __________ of the
Constitution of India, the number of
quorum to start a meeting of the House
of Parliament is one-tenth of the total
number of members of the House.
A. 101 B. 100
C. 102 D. 103
Ans. B
Sol.
• Article 100 of the Constitution of India
stipulates that at least 10% of total
number of members of the House must
be present to constitute the quorum to
constitute a meeting of either House of
Parliament.
• A quorum is a body that uses
parliamentary procedure, such as a
legislature.
32. The opening session of the Supreme
Court of India took place on __________.
A. 29 January 1950 B. 28 January 1950
C. 31 January 1950 D. 26 January 1950
Ans. B
Sol.
• The opening session of the
Supreme Court of India took place on
28th January 1950.
• The Supreme Court of India replaced
both the Federal Court of India and the
Judicial Committee of the Privy Council
which were then at the apex of the Indian
court system.
• It is regarded as the most powerful
government institution in India.
• Article 124(1) and Amendment act of
2019 states that there shall be a Supreme
Court of India consisting of a Chief justice
of India (CJI) and 34 judges including the
CJI.
33. The Panchayat Raj System was first
adopted by the state of ___.
A. Rajasthan B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu D. West Bengal
Ans. A
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Sol.
* The Panchayati Raj System was first
adopted by Rajasthan. The first
institution was adopted in Nagaur district
of Rajasthan on 2nd October 1959.
* Andra Pradesh was the second state to
adopt the Panchayati Raj System.
* On 24 April 1993, the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act 1992
came into force to provide constitutional
status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
It provided Panchayati Raj Institutions for
the implementation of the 29 subjects
listed in the eleventh schedule of the
constitution.
* The committees constituted for
recommendations regarding
Panchayati Raj in India:
Balwant Rai Mehta committee 1957,
VT Krishnamachari Committee 1960,
Ashok Mehta Committee 1978 and LM
Singhvi Committee in 1986.
34. The state of Jharkhand was formed by
division of Bihar in which year?
A. 2002 B. 2001
C. 2003 D. 2000
Ans. D
Sol.
* The state of Jharkhand was formed
by division of Bihar in the year 2000.
* Jharkhand is known as "The land of
forest".
* It is a state in eastern India.
* It was carved out of the southern part
of Bihar on 15 November 2000.
* The state shares its border with the
states of Bihar to the north, Uttar Pradesh
to the northwest, Chhattisgarh to the
west, Odisha to the south and West
Bengal to the east.
35. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy served as
________ from 1956 to 1959.
A. Chief Minister
B. President
C. Member of Rajya Sabha
D. Deputy Chief Minister
Ans. A
Sol.
* Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth
President of India.
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* He served as the President of India from
1977 to 1982.
* He also served as 4th the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha from 17th March 1967 to
19th July 1969.
* He served as the first chief minister of
Andhra Pradesh from 1st November
1956 to 11th January 1959.
* He again became the Chief Minister of
Andhra Pradesh in 1962 for one year.
36. The Election Commission celebrated
its golden jubilee in which year?
A. 1998 B. 1997
C. 2001 D. 2011
Ans. C
Sol.
* Election Commission of India is a
permanent Constitutional Body.
* The Election Commission was
established in accordance with the
Constitution on 25th January 1950.
* The Commission celebrated its Golden
Jubilee in 2001.
* A golden jubilee is a celebration held to
mark a 50th anniversary.
* The Election Commission operates
under the authority of Constitution per
Article 324.
37. Article 35A was incorporated into the
Indian Constitution based on the ______
Delhi agreement entered between them
Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and the
then Prime Minister of Jammu and
Kashmir Sheikh Abdullah.
A. 1960 B. 1952
C. 1956 D. 1955
Ans. B
Sol.
• Article 35A was incorporated into the
Indian Constitution based on the "1952
Delhi agreement" entered between
them Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru
and the then Prime Minister of Jammu
and Kashmir Sheikh Abdullah.
• Article 35A of the Indian Constitution
was an article that empowered the
Jammu and Kashmir state's legislature to
define "permanent residents" of the state
and provide special rights and privileges
to those permanent residents.
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• On 5th August 2019, the President of
India Ram Nath Kovind issued a
Presidential Order, whereby all the
provisions of the Indian Constitution are
to apply to the State without any special
provisions.
38. The Presidential order was issued
under _____ of India which allows the
President to make certain “exceptions
and modification” to the Constitution for
the benefit of ‘State subjects’ of Jammu
and Kashmir.
A. Article 304 (1) (d)
B. Article 340 (1) (d)
C. Article 370 (1) (d)
D. Article 314 (1) (d)
Ans. C
Sol.
• The Presidential order was issued under
article 370 (1) (d) of India which allows
the President to make certain “exceptions
and modification” to the Constitution for
the benefit of ‘State subjects’ of Jammu
and Kashmir.
• Article 370 of the Indian constitution
gave special status to Jammu and
Kashmir.
• The government of India revoked this
special status in August 2019 through
a Presidential Order and the passage of
a resolution in Parliament.
39. As of January 2019, the number of
high courts in India is _______.
A. 25 B. 20
C. 18 D. 30
Ans. A
Sol.
• There are 25 High Courts in India at
present (including all the States and
Union Territories).
• The High Court for Telangana is the
25th High Court in the country.
• As per the Constitution of India,
Articles 214-231 deals with the
provisions of the High Courts in India.
40. Rule ______ (of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha) does NOT involve a formal motion
before the Parliament House, hence no
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voting can take place after discussion on A. Voluntary Code of Conduct

matter under this rule. B. Precautionary Code
A. 158 B. 186 C. List of jobs to be done
C. 193 D. 149 D. Polling List Center
Ans. C Ans. A
Sol. Sol.
• 158-Voting by Division * The social media intermediary members
• 186- Admissibility of motions. of the Internet and Mobile Association of
• 149- Procedure consequent on disposal India (IAMAI) have recently adopted a
of amendments by Council. voluntary code of ethics for the
• 193- Notice for raising discussion upcoming general elections.
* Under the Code, participants have
41. In India, which of the following voluntarily undertaken to establish a
articles of the Constitution of India high-priority communication channel with
provides for the formation of a new state? the nodal officers designated by the ECI.
A. Article 9 B. Article 2
C. Article 1 D. Article 3 44. How many sessions of the Lok Sabha
Ans. D are normally held in a year?
Sol. A. 7 B. 3
• 1-Name and territory of the Union. C. 5 D. 2
• 2-Admission or establishment of new Ans. B
States. Sol.
• 3-Formation of new States and Three sessions of Lok Sabha take place
alteration of areas, boundaries or names in a year:
of existing States. 1) Budget session: February to May.
• 9-Persons voluntarily acquiring 2) Monsoon session: July to September.
citizenship of a foreign State not to be 3) Winter session: November to mid
citizens. December.

42. Right to move freely throughout the 45. Which article of the Constitution of
territory of India’ is a fundamental right India talks about the provisions for
under______ of the Constitution of India. impeachment of the President of India?
A. Article 24 B. Article 21 A. Article 54 B. Article 51
C. Article 14 D. Article 19 C. Article 63 D. Article 61
Ans. D Ans. D
Sol. Sol.
Article 19(1) says : • Article 54-Election of President.
(a) to freedom of speech and expression • Article 51-Promotion of international
(b) to assemble peaceably and without peace and security.
arms • Article 63-The Vice-President of India.
(c) to form associations or unions • Article 61-Procedure for impeachment
(d) to move freely throughout the of the President.
territory of India
(e) to reside and settle in any part of the 46. In the year 1978, the _______
territory of India amendment eliminated the right to
(f) to practice any profession, or to carry acquire, hold and dispose of property as
on any occupation, trade or business. a fundamental right.
A. 41st B. 42nd
43. In March 2019, Social Media Platforms C. 43 D. 44th
rd

and Internet and Mobile Association of Ans. D

India (IAMI) introduced __________ to Sol.
the Election Commission of India for the
general elections 2019.

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• In 1978, 44th amendment eliminated
the right to acquire, hold and dispose of
property as a fundamental right.
• It was made legal right instead of
fundamental one.
• Article 19(1)(f), which guarantees the
citizens the right to acquire, hold and
dispose of property and article 31 relating
to compulsory acquisition of property
have been omitted.
47. In case the President of India wants
to resign, he would address his
resignation to the _________.
A. Chief Justice of India
B. Vice President of India
C. Chief Election Commissioner of India
D. Prime Minister of India
Ans. B
Sol.
• President offers his resignation to Vice
President.
• The president is indirectly elected by an
electoral college comprising the elected
members of Parliament of India (both
houses) and the legislative assemblies.
48. Which of the following countries has
the largest parliament in the world?
A. UK B. Japan
C. China D. India
Ans. C
Sol.
* China has the largest parliament in
the world.
* It has 2,980 members in 2018.
* It is also known as National People's
Congress of the People's Republic of
China.
49. Name the first judge of the Supreme
Court, against which the proposal of
impeachment was presented in the
Parliament of independent India.
A. Justice Ramswami
B. Justice Mahajan
C. Justice Veerswamy
D. Justice Subba Rao
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Ans. A
Sol.
* Veeraswami Ramaswami was a
judge of the Supreme Court of India and
the first judge against whom removal
proceedings were initiated in independent
India.
* The removal motion was placed in the
Lok Sabha for debate and voting on 10
May 1993. Well known lawyer and a
Congress politician Kapil Sibal was his
defence lawyer.
* Of 401 members present in the Lok
Sabha that day, there were 196 votes for
impeachment and no votes against and
205 abstentions by ruling Congress and
its allies.
50. In which year was All India Anna
Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK)
founded?
A. 1949 B. 1999
C. 1972 D. 1997
Ans. C
Sol. All India Anna Dravida Munnetra
Kazhagam (AIADMK) is an Indian political
party in the state of Tamil Nadu and in
the Union Territory of Puducherry. It is
currently in power in Tamil Nadu and is
the third largest party in the Lok Sabha.
It is a Dravidian party and was founded
by M. G. Ramachandran (popularly
known as MGR) on 17 October 1972 as a
breakaway faction of the Dravida
Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK). From 1989
to 2016, AIADMK was led by Jayalalithaa,
who served as the Chief Minister of Tamil
Nadu on several occasions. The party has
won majorities in the Tamil Nadu
Legislative Assembly seven times,
making it the most successful political
outfit in the state's history. The party
headquarters is located in the Royapettah
neighborhood of Chennai, Tamil Nadu, in
a building donated to the party in 1986
by Mrs. Janaki Ramachandran, MGR's
wife.
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