MCQs on Indian Penal Code (With Answers) A. Sherras v. De Rutzen B. R. v.

Dudley & Stephen

C. Harding v. Price D. R. v. Prince.
1. The motive under section 81 of IPC should be: Ans. A
A. prevention of harm to person 12. Which of the following is correct for the aforesaid:
B. prevention of harm to property I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas.
II. The mental aspect of crime is mens rea.
C. both (a) and (b)
III. The motive is the desire to commit crime
D. either (a) or (b). Ans. D
A. I & II are correct but III is not correct
B. only II & III C. only II & III
2. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided under:
D. all the above. Ans. D
A. section 80 B. section 81 C. section 82 D. section 84.
13. Section 84 of IPC provides for:
Ans. C
A. medical insanity B. legal insanity
3. Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence
C. moral insanity D. unsoundness of mind of any kind.
which is done by a child under:
Ans. B
A. six years of age B. seven years of age
14. Irresistible impulse is a defence:
C. nine years of age D. ten years of age.
A. in India B. in England
Ans. B
C. in India and England both
4. Section 82 of IPC enunciates:
D. neither in India nor in England. Ans. D
A. a presumption of fact
15. A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the
B. a rebuttable presumption of law
order of the court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue
C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
of:
D. none of the above.
A. section 77 of IPC B. section 78 of IPC
Ans. C
C. section 79 of IPC D. section 76 of IPC.
5. A person is stated to be partially incapax under section
Ans. B
83, IPC if he is aged:
16. Insanity as a defence means that a person at the time of
A. above seven years and under twelve years
doing an act, by reason of unsoundness of mind is
B. above seven years and under ten years
incapable of knowing:
C. above seven years and under sixteen years
A. the nature of the act
D. above seven years and under eighteen years.
B. that what he is doing is wrong
Ans. A
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
6. Section 83 of IPC lays down:
D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
A. a presumption of fact
Ans. D
B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of law
17. Which of the following is correct:
C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
A. the burden of proof that the accused was not insane at
D. irrebuttable presumption of fact.
the time of commission of offence is on the prosecution
Ans. B
B. the burden of proving that the accused was insane at the
7. Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of:
time of commission of offence is on the accused
A. wholly incapax B. partially incapax
C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that accused
C. both (a) & (b) D. either (a) or (b).
was insane at the time of commission of the offence
Ans. A
D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the court on
8. Under section 82 & section 83 of IPC an offence is
the facts proved by the prosecution.
punishable if it is done by a child:
Ans. B
A. of below seven years of age
18. For unsoundness of mind, the impairment of the
B. of above seven years of age but below twelve years if he
cognitive faculty of mind to escape criminal liability:
has not attained sufficient maturity and understanding
A. must be total B. must be partial
C. of above seven years of age but below twelve years
C. both (a) & (b) D. none of the above.
having attained sufficient maturity and understanding
Ans. A
D. all the above.
19. Intoxication as defence is contained in:
Ans. C
A. section 85 of IPC B. section 86 of IPC
9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched:
C. section 87 of IPC D. both (a) & (b).
A. Mens Rea – R. v. Prince
Ans. D
B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard
20. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal
C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case
liability, the degeneration of mental faculties:
D. Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu.
A. must be total B. must be partial
Ans. C
C. both (a) & (b)
10. The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea’ means:
D. only (b) above is correct & (a) is incorrect.
A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
Ans. A
B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
21. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
liability, the intoxication:
D. criminal mind leads to crime. Ans. B
A. can be self-administered
11. “In every statute, mens rea is to be implied unless the
B. administered against his will or knowledge
contrary is shown.”:
C. should not be self-administered D. all the above.
This view was expressed in-
Ans. B
22. In cases where the act involves a specific mens rea, in C. section 96 of IPC D. section 98 of IPC.
cases of intoxication under section 86 of IPC: Ans. C
A. the existence of mens rea is presumed 34. The right to private defence is based on the natural
B. the specific mens rea is not presumed instinct of:
C. the specific mens rea depends upon the attending A. self-preservation B. self-respect
circumstances & the degree of intoxication C. self-sufficiency D. self-reliance. Ans. A
D. none of the above. 35. The right to private defence is:
Ans. C A. unrestricted
23. The doctrine ‘volenti nonfit injuria’ is contained in: B. subject to restriction contained in section 99 of IPC
A. section 87 of IPC B. section 88 of IPC C. subject to restrictions contained in Chapter IV of IPC
C. section 89 of IPC D. all the above. D. subject to restrictions contained in any other provision
Ans. D of IPC. Ans. B
24. The defence of ‘consent’ applies to: 36. Right to private defence is:
A. private wrongsB. public wrongs A. available under all circumstances
C. both (a) & (b) D. neither (a) nor (b). B. available where there is time to have the recourse to the
Ans. A protection of public authorities
25. The defence of ‘consent’ is restrictive in its applicability C. available where there is no time to have recourse to the
in cases involving: protection of public authorities
A. alienable rights B. inalienable rights D. all of the above.
C. both (a) &(b) D. neither (a) nor (b). Ans. C
Ans. B 37. The law on private defence in India:
26. The defence of ‘consent’ is not available in cases of: A. is the same as in England
A. consent to cause death B. is narrower than the one in England
B. consent to cause grievous hurt C. is wider than the one in England
C. both (a) & (b) D. either (a) or (b). D. none of the above. Ans. C
Ans. C 38. The right to private defence is available with respect to:
27. Operation of consent to all offences, short of causing A. harm to body B. harm to movable property
death intentionally, has been extended under: C. harm to immovable property
A. section 88 of IPC B. section 90 of IPC D. all the above. Ans. D
C. section 91 of IPC D. section 87 of IPC. 39. Under section 98 right to private defence also is
Ans. A available against a:
28. Under section 89 the consent in respect of infants A. person of unsound mind
under 12 years of age or persons of unsound mind: B. person who does not have maturity of understanding
A. can be given by their guardians without any restriction C. both (a) & (b) D. neither (a) nor (b). Ans. C
B. can be given by the guardian subject to restrictions 40. Every person has a right of private defence of his own
mutually agreed upon body and the body of any other person against any offence
C. can be given by the guardians subject to restrictions affecting the human body, has been provided:
imposed by law A. under section 96 of IPC B. under section 97 of IPC
D. all the above. C. under section 98 of IPC D. under section 99 of IPC.
Ans. C Ans. B
29. The consent is not a valid consent under section 90: 41. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be made to the
A. if given under a fear of injury or misconception of fact Supreme Court by a person who himself has suffered only.
B. if given by a person of unsound mind Under which of the following, a relative or friend of a
C. if given by a child below 12 years of age person aggrieved can file a writ petition:
D. all the above. Ans. D A. Habeas CorpusB. Mandamus
30. Consent given under compulsion arising out of threat of C. Certiorari D. all of the above.
injury: Ans. A
A. excuses the causing of death 42. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be
B. excuses causing of any offence against the state suspended:
punishable with death A. by the Parliament B. by the State Legislature
C. both (a) & (b) D. neither (a) nor (b). C. by the Supreme Court of India
Ans. D D. when proclamation of emergency is in operation.
31. The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ means: Ans. D
A. law would not take action on small & trifling matter 43. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are
B. law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest subject to the rule of Res judicata except:
harm A. Quo Warranto B. Habeas Corpus
C. law would not take action in serious matters C. Certiorari D. Prohibition. Ans. B
D. all the above. Ans. A 44. The right given by Article 32:
32. The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is contained in: A. cannot be abrogated by the Act of Legislature
A. section 92 of IPC B. section 93 of IPC B. cannot be abrogated unless the Constitution itself is
C. section 94 of IPC D. section 95 of IPC. Ans. D amended
33. The right of private defence is contained in: C. can be altered by the State Legislature
A. section 94 of IPC B. section 95 of IPC D. none of the above. Ans. B
45. The Supreme Court has power under Article 32 to issue
directions or orders or writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari:
A. only when there is a question of enforcement of a
fundamental right
B. when there is a question of internal disputes among
communal groups
C. when there is a question of election disputes
D. when there is a question of riotous situation.
Ans. A
46. Under which one of the following cases the traditional
rule of filing petition only by the person aggrieved except in
the case of habeas corpus is relaxed:
A. Trilokchand Moichand v. H.B. Munshi
B. Joginder Nath v. UOI
C. Rabindranath Bose v. UOI
D. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP. Ans. D
47. Under Article 32:
A. time limit can be imposed on filing of petitions and so
the Indian Limitation Act applies
B. there is no lower and upper limit. The party aggrieved
must move the court at the earliest possible time and it is
the discretion of the court to decide whether it is
reasonable delay or not.
C. time limit can be imposed by council of ministers
D. all of the above. Ans. B
48. According to Article 30 ‘minorities’ have the right for
the administration of educational institutions:
A. which have been established by them only
B. which not necessarily have not been established by them
but belong to their religion or language
C. Article 30 does not speak about minority but deals with
Scheduled Tribes only
D. none of the above. Ans. B
49. According to Articles 25 and 26, what constitutes an
essential part of religion or religious practice is to be
decided by the court on the basis of:
A. doctrines of particular religion B. by referendum
C. by majority D. by convening a religious meeting.
Ans. A
50. The fundamental rights as envisaged under Articles 12-
35 are:
A. absolutely flexible B. can be amended
C. not justifiable D. cannot be amended at all.
Ans. B
51. Right of disabled employee as equal citizens not to be
defeated by their superiors and they have no right to
defeat their lawful rights:
A. Sunil Poddar v. Union Bank of India
B. Mani v. State of Tamil Nadu
C. Bhagwan Dass v. Punjab State Electricity Board
D. None of the above. Ans. C
52. In the case of People’s Union for democratic Rights v.
UOI:
A. non-payment of minimum wages is violative of Article 21
B. the decision in this case did not hearld for right to live
with basic human dignity
C. Article 21 does not envisage right to live with human dignity
D. none of the above. Ans. A
53. The protection given to the accused under Article 20(3)
against compulsion ‘to be witness’ also includes ordinary
documentary and testimonial evidence:
A. the protection given under Article 20(3) is not attracted
by the above statement
B. the protection given under Article 20(3) is attracted by
the above statement
C. witness means other than an accused to whom
protection is not given
D. none of the above. Ans. B
54. In case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, the
Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found conflicting with
the two Articles:
A. Articles 14 and 17 B. Articles 19 and 21
C. Articles 23 and 25 D. Articles 23 and 32. Ans. B
55. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was
declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A.K.
Gopalan v. State of Madras:
A. Article 17 B. Article 11 C. Article 14 D. Article 19
Ans. C
56. In a Calcutta case, Manager of a Bank took security for
overdraft from the customer and caused the security to be
entered into the books of the banks. The Manager shortly
afterwards returned the security to the customer before
satisfaction of the overdraft. The fact of return of security
was mentioned in the books of accounts.
A. The Manager acted dishonesty under Section 24
B. The customer acted of dishonesty under Section 24
C. both the Manager and the customer acted dishonestly
under Section 24
D. Neither of them is guilty Ans. C
57. One Mrs. Komai bought a car on the name of her
daughter, Kiran, who is a minor, and got the insurance
policy transferred on her name (Mrs. Komal). The car met
with an accident on two counts and she file for a claim on
both the counts, from the insurance agency. She
acknowledged the receipt of the money as Kiran. The
insurance company her prosecuted under Section 467 of
the IPC alleging fraud on the appellant’s part?
A. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she made the
insurance company believed that she is Kiran
B. Mrs. Komal is not guilty of forgery because the said
deceit did not secure her any advantage as the entire
transaction was that of Mrs. Komal
C. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she signed all the
papers in the name of Kiran
D. Both (A) and (C) Ans. B
58. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it
was in possession of a deceased person at his death and
that it has not since been in the possession of any person
legally entitled to it is dealt under-
A. Section 402 of IPC B. Section 403 of IPC
C. Section 404 of IPC D. Section 405 of IPC Ans. C
59. 148 Criminal breach of trust is dealt under-
A. Section 406 of IPC B. Section 407 of IPC
C. Section 408 of IPC D. Section 409 of IPC Ans. A
60. Which of the following is false of Section 34 of the
Indian Penal Code?
A.it is only a rule of evidence
B. it does not create a distinct offence
C. lays down principle of liability
D. it is a penal provision Ans. D
61. In a case P, a married lady was found in a pool of blood
and lying on the ground. On the way to hospital in
ambulance she breathed her last. It transpired in the
evidence that when P was seated outside her jhuggi, her
brother came near her and challenged as to why she made
a complaint against her own brother R to the police, Her
other brother R and Sharma too came. There was an
altercation wherein Sharma stabbed her to death. Which of
the following is true regarding this particular case?
A. As to the vicarious liability of R & C, that the accused
Sharma was not carrying an open knife in his hand and
there was no evidence to show that this fact was in the
knowledge of the other accused.
B. Sharma had not given any call to his brothers that P
should be stabbed to death. Otherwise all the accused had
not come together and for that reason it is difficult to
assume that all had a prior meeting of mind to cause the
death of their sister.
C. The words used by C were to teach P a lesson for making
false accusations. Keeping in view the close relationship, it
is difficult to assume that all of them had shared the
common intention to kill P. Under these circumstances,
there is no reason to rope C and R by aid of Section 34, IPC
and they were acquitted.
D. All of them Ans. D
62. belonging to gang of persons associated for the purpose
of habitually committing dacoity is dealt under-
A. Section 398 of IPC B. Section 399 of IPC
C. Section 400 of IPC D. Section 401 of IPC Ans. C
63. Buying or obtaining possession of a minor for the same
purposes is dealt under-
A. Section 371 of IPC B. Section 372 of IPC
C. Section 373 of IPC D. Section 374 of IPC Ans. C
64. Which of the following does not attract Section 34 of
the IPC?
A. the accused husband killed his wife and threw her dead
body into the well to the knowledge of co- accused. As yet
co-accused took the false plea that on date and hour
incident the deceased was present in the house.
B. the accused was involved in looting the victims in broad
daylight on the main public road. Main accused indulged in
looting but co-accused was simply standing nearby.
C. Driver and cleaner of a bus when form a common
intention to kill the deceased and in pursuance of the plan
kill him and take away the sale proceeds of the grain sold
by him
D. all of them except the co-accused in B.
Ans. D
65. Habitual dealing in salves is dealt under-
A. Section 371 of IPC B. Section 372 of IPC
C. Section 373 of IPC D. Section 374 of IPC Ans. A
66. Which of the following is false of Section 34 and Section
149 of the IPC?
A. S. 34 does not by itself create any specific offence
whereas S. 149 does so
B. Some active participation in crime is required in S. 34
while it is not needed in S. 149
C. S. 34 speaks of common intention while S. 149
contemplates common object
D. S. 34 requires at least five persons who must share the
common intention while S. 149 requires at least two
persons to share the common intention
Ans. D
67. A attacks Z under such circumstances of grave provoca-
tion that his killing of Z would be only culpable homicide
not amounting to murder. B, having ill-will towards Z, and
intending to kill him and not having been subject to the
provocation, assists A in killing Z. Which of the following
judgment under Section 38 of IPC applies to A and B?
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide and B is guilty of murder
B. B is guilty of culpable homicide and A is guilty of murder
C. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
D. Both A and B are guilty of murder
Ans. A
68. The basic principle which runs through Section 32 to 38
of IPC is that:
A. in certain circumstances some part of the act is
attributed to a person who may have performed only a
fractional part of it.
B. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a
person who may have performed only a fractional part of it.
C. in certain circumstances an entire act is attributed to a
person who may have performed the whole of it.
D. in certain circumstances no act is attributed to a person
who may have performed only a fractional part of it.
Ans. B
69. Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted is
committed in consequence, and where no express
provision is made for its punishment is dealt under-
A. Section 109 of IPC B. Section 110 of IPC
C. Section 111 of IPC D. Section 112 of IPC
Ans. A
70. A quarrel arose between C on the one side and A and B
on the other. C abused A, whereupon A struck him with a
stick, and B struck him down with an axe on the head. He
also received two other wounds with the axe on the other
parts of the body. Any one of the three axe wounds was
sufficient enough to cause death, especially the one on the
head.
A. C is guilty for voluntarily provoking the attack while B is
guilty of culpable homicide
B. A is guilty of culpable homicide, while B is guilty of
voluntarily causing hurt
C. B is guilty of culpable homicide, while A is guilty of
voluntarily causing hurt
D. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
Ans. C
71. All about ‘intention’ is true except one:
A. is a state of mind B. is an objective element
C. rarely susceptible to proof
D. always a matter of inference Ans. B
72. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to everything:
A. which is an offence
B. which is prohibited by law
C. which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all of them Ans. D
73. Several persons assemble at the door of the house of
one K and the appellant struck a blow with a kencha which
fell on the left thigh of a workman working in the house of
one K whom the appellant and others wanted to attack,
and as the appellant struck at the very first person who
opened the door and that was how that came to receive
the injury.
A. every person is guilty of vicarious liability excluding the
appellant
B. only the appellant is to be convicted for the said injury
C. none is guilty of vicarious liability D. none of them
Ans. B
74. Abetment of any offence when one act is abetted and a
different act is done; subject to proviso is dealt under-
A. Section 109 of IPC B. Section 110 of IPC
C. Section 111 of IPC D. Section 112 of IPC Ans. C
75. In a case the accused was convicted u/s. 325 I.P.C. and
was sentenced by trial Court to two months R.I. with fine of
Rs. 500 for offence under S. 325 I.P.C. The trial pended for
seven long years.
A. the sentence is improper for an offence under Section
325 I.P.C
B. the sentence is proper and appropriate
C. the accused should be sentenced to fine and imprison-
ment till the rising of Court
D. both (A) and (C) Ans. D
76. A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A may have
committed the offence of voluntarily causing hurt to Z by
the whole beating and also by each of the blows which
make up the whole beating. As per Section 71 of IPC which
of the following should be the punishment?
A. A is liable for every blow and should be imprisoned for
fifty years one for each blow
B. A is only liable for blows he delivered on the victim
C. A is liable to one punishment for the whole beating
D. A should be separately punished for beating and
delivering blows
Ans. C
77. Abetment of any offence, punishable with death or
imprisonment for life, if the offence be not committed in
consequence of the abetment is dealt under-
A. Section 115 of IPC B. Section 116 of IPC
C. Section 117 of IPC D. Section 118 of IPC Ans. A
78. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or
by more than ten persons is dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC D. Section 120 of IPC Ans. A
79. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable
with imprisonment, if offence be committed if the offence
be not committed is dealt under-
A. Section 119 of IPC B. Section 120 of IPC
C. Section 121 of IPC D. Section 122 of IPC Ans. B
80. In which of the following death sentence is awarded?
A. Waging war against the Government of India
B. Abetting mutiny actually committed
C. Murder D. All of them Ans. D
81. Which of the following is true about imprisonment?
A. it is characterised by hard labour
B. it is characterised by confinement to jail
C. is subject to the kind of imprisonment
D. all of them Ans. D
82. Abetment of an offence, punishable with death or
imprisonment for life if an act, which causes harm to be
done in consequence of the abetment, is dealt under-
A. Section 115 of IPC B. Section 116 of IPC
C. Section 117 of IPC D. Section 118 of IPC Ans. A
83. Abetting the commission of an offence by the public or
by more than ten persons is dealt under-
A. Section 117 of IPC B. Section 118 of IPC
C. Section 119 of IPC D. Section 120 of IPC Ans. A
84. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case of,
at the time of attempting robbery or dacoity, the offender
is armed with any deadly weapon, he is punished with
imprisonment of not less than:
A. four years under Section 397, IPC
B. five years under Section 397, IPC
C. six years under Section 397, IPC
D. seven years under Section 397, IPC Ans. D
85. Which of the following Section of the IPC has not been
omitted?
A. Section 56 B. Section 57
C. Section 58 D. Section 59 Ans. B
86. Which of the following Section of the IPC has been
repealed?
A. Section 60 B. Section 61
C. Section 62 D. Both (B) and (C) Ans. D
87. Which of the following Section of the IPC deals with
solitary confinement?
A. Section 71 B. Section 72
C. Section 73 D. Section 74 Ans. C
88. Whoever is a party to a criminal conspiracy other than a
criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable is
dealt under-
A. Section 118B of IPC B. Section 119B of IPC
C. Section 120B of IPC D. Section 121B of IPC Ans. C
89. Conspiring to commit certain offences against the State
is dealt under-
A. Section 120A of IPC B. Section 121A of IPC
C. Section 122A of IPC D. Section 123A of IPC Ans. B
90. Concealing with intent to facilitate a design to wage war
is dealt under-
A. Section 120 of IPC B. Section 121 of IPC
C. Section 122 of IPC D. Section 123 of IPC Ans. D
91. A is beating Z and Y jumps in to stop the beating. In the
process A intentionally strikes Y. As per Section 71 of IPC
which of the following should be the punishment?
A. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt
to Z and to another for the blow given to Y
B. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt
only to Z
C. A is liable to one punishment for voluntarily causing hurt
only to Y
D. None of them Ans. A
92. In a case the accused who was a widower led a homely
life with his 12-year-old son, nephew and unmarried
daughter. The accused suffered from no insanity. One day
the accused accompanied by his son went with an axe in his
hand to woods to gather siadi leaves. Sometimes after his
nephew who had been working in the field discovered the
accused sleeping under a tree with the blood stained axe
beside him. There was no trace of the son of the accused.
Later his son was found hacked to death. It transpired in
evidence that the accused for the time being was seized of
a state of mind in which he visualised that a tiger was going
to pounce on him and as such mistaking his son as the tiger
he cut him into pieces.
A. the accused is lying and is guilty of culpable homicide
B. it was mistake and the accused had no intention of
causing the death of his son whom he dearly loved.
C. the accused is not his sound frame of mind
D. none of them Ans. B
93. A, the captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without
any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a
position that before he can stop his vessel, he must
inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty to thirty
passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his
vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk
of running down a boat C with only two passengers on
board, which he may possibly clear. Here if A alters his
course without any intention to run down the boat C and in
good faith for the purpose of avoiding the danger to the A. Section 166 of IPC B. Section 167 of IPC
passengers in boat B. But in the course of this action A runs C. Section 168 of IPC D. Section 169 of IPC
down boat C. Ans. C
A. A is guilty 104. Personating public servant is dealt under-
B. A is not guilty of any offence A. Section 169 of IPC B. Section 170 of IPC
C. A did not intentionally run down boat C C. Section 171 of IPC D. Section 172 of IPC
D. Both (A) and (C) Ans. B Ans. B
94. A accused of murder, alleges that by reason of 105. Bribery is dealt under-
unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature of the A. Section 167 E of IPC B. Section 168 E of IPC
act. C. Section 169 E of IPC D. Section 171 E of IPC
A. The burden of proof is on the police Ans. D
B. The burden of proof is on A 106. Personation at an election is dealt under-
C. The burden of proof is on the Court A. Section 171 F of IPC B. Section 172 F of IPC
D. None of them Ans. B C. Section 173 F of IPC D. Section 174 F of IPC
95. The accused without any provocation caught hold of the Ans. A
legs of a 7 year old child and dashed his head thrice in quick 107. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot,
succession resulting in the death of the boy. Immediately if rioting be not committed is dealt under-
after the occurrence the accused ran away. The accused A. Section 151 of IPC B. Section 152 of IPC
pleaded insanity in defence. C. Section 153 of IPC D. Section 154 of IPC Ans. C
A. the offence falls under Clause (iii) of Section 300, IPC 108. Z is thrown from his horse and is insensible. A, a
B. the offence falls under Clause (iv) of Section 300, IPC surgeon, finds out that Z requires to be trepanned. A, not
C. the offence falls under Clause (v) of Section 300, IPC intending Z’s death, but in good faith for Z’s benefit,
D. the offence falls under Clause (vi) of Section 300, IPC performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging
Ans. B for himself.
96. A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is A. A has committed offence
likely to cause the death of Z, who suffers under painful B. A has committed no offence
complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, and C. A has committed culpable homicide
intending, in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the D. both (A) and (C) Ans. B
operation with Z’s consent. 109. Mr. V, an appellant is an owner of a house in City A.
A. A is guilty of culpable homicide The wife of the first respondent Y, was tenant of a part of
B. A deliberately caused the Z’s death the first floor in that house. On January 17, 1966, one R a
C. A is not guilty of any offence servant of the appellant, called the wife of the first
D. None of them Ans. C respondent a thief and Halkat. On the following day, the
97. Assaulting or obstructing public servant when first respondent slapped R on his face which was followed
suppressing riot, etc. is dealt under- by heated exchange of abusive words and between the first
A. Section 150 of IPC B. Section 151 of IPC respondent and the appellant’s husband.
C. Section 152 of IPC D. Section 153 of IPC Ans. C The first respondent was annoyed and threw at the
98. Knowingly carrying arms in any procession or organizing appellant’s husband a file of papers. The file did not hit the
or holding or taking part in any mass drill or mass training appellant’s husband, but it hit the elbow of the appellant
with arms is dealt under- causing a scratch. The appellant lodged information to the
A. Section 151AA of IPC B. Section 152AA of IPC police complaining that the first respondent had committed
C. Section 153AA of IPC D. Section 154AA of IPC a house trespass in order to the committing of an offence
Ans. C punishable with imprisonment, had thrown a shoe at her
99. If committed in a place of public worship, etc. is dealt and had slapped her servant R.
under During the course of the investigation the appellant and R
A. Section 152B of IPC B. Section 153B of IPC refused to be examined at a public hospital, claiming that a
C. Section 154B of IPC D. Section 155B of IPC Ans. B private medical practitioner had certified that the appellant
100. Harbouring persons hired for an unlawful assembly is had suffered from bleeding incision.
dealt under- As a judge of the case you would:
A. Section 157 of IPC B. Section 158 of IPC A. convicts the accused under Section 95 of the IPC
C. Section 159 of IPC D. Section 160 of IPC Ans. A B. acquit the accused under Section 95 of the IPC
101. ‘Sedition’ as offence was held constitutionally valid in C. fine the appellant under Section 95 of the IPC
Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar, AIR 1962 SC 955 us dealt D. Both (A) and the (C)
under- Ans. C
A. Section 124 A of IPC B. Section 128 of IPC 110. The accused shot dead his father who was abusing his
C. Section 136 of IPC D. Section 138 of IPC Ans. A mother and was going to cut her throat. The accused:
102. Public servant disobeying a direction of the law with A. acted with vindictive feelings
intent to cause is dealt under- B. acted so due to the imminent danger to his mother’s life
A. Section 164 of IPC B. Section 165 of IPC C. is not guilty D. (B) and (C)
C. Section 166 of IPC D. Section 167 of IPC Ans. D
Ans. C 111. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication
103. Public servant unlawfully engaging in trade is dealt or having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat
under- comes is dealt under-
A. Section 506 of IPC B. Section 507 of IPC A. Section 376A B. Section 376B
C. Section 508 of IPC D. Section 509 of IPC C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C D. All of the above.
Ans. B Ans. D
112. The people of the village S having assembled 3. According to Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, the
proceeded to cut the bandh. People of the village K resisted right of private defence of the body extends to the
but were turned back. Meanwhile a large crowd collected voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the
on both sides, armed with lathis, spears and garases. assistant if the offence which occasions the exercise of the
People of K seeing that the people of S were not likely to right is the act of:
listen to their remonstrance, proceeded in a body to A. Stalking B. Voyeurism
prevent the cutting of the bandh to drive them away. There C. Acid Attack D. All of the above. Ans. C
was one man from village S who received fatal injuries and 4. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an
died. offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
A. the action is well within the bounds of the right to A. Section 326A B. Section 326B
private defence of person and property C. Section 228A D. Section 228. Ans. B
B. the conviction of the accused under Section 302 of the 5. A demand or request for sexual favour from a woman is
IPC, cannot be sustained punishable offence under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
C. neither (A) nor (B) D. both (A) and (B) A. Section 354A B. Section 354B
Ans. D C. Section 354C D. Section 354D. Ans. A
113. Person for whose benefit or on whose behalf a riot 6. A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment
takes place not using all lawful means to prevent it is dealt under section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he
under- commits:
A. Section 155 of IPC B. Section 156 of IPC (i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and
C. Section 157 of IPC D. Section 158 of IPC explicit sexual overtures.
Ans. A (ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.
114. G’s party was engaged in the peaceful pursuit of (iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman.
worship at their own takhat was busy attending to the Puja (iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
for the Nepali pilgrim. At that point of time they were not A. (i) and (ii) B. (i) and (iii)
members of an unlawful assembly. It was the party of A C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
who left their place and came to G’s takhat, presumably Ans. D
raising a dispute over the offerings made by the Nepali 7. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis,
pilgrim. They came armed with deadly weapons and one of to any extent, into the ________ of a woman:
them inflicted a severe blow on the S and G’s side which A. Vagina B. Mouth
resulted in his death and others received as many as 27 C. Urethra or Anus D. All of the above. Ans. D
serious injuries. 8. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part
A. G’s party exercise the right to self defence of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the
B. Both G and A’s party cannot claim the right to self urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him
defense or any other person, he commits:
C. A’s party had full intention of causing harm A. Rape B. Sexual Harassment
D. Both (A) and (C) C. Sexual Assault D. None of the above.
Ans. D Ans. A
115. Criminal intimidation by anonymous communication 9. To establish section 34 of IPC:
or having taken precaution to conceal whence the threat A. common intention be proved but not overt act be
comes is dealt under- proved
A. Section 506 of IPC B. Section 507 of IPC B. common intention and overt act both be proved
C. Section 508 of IPC D. Section 509 of IPC C. common intention need not be proved but overt act be
Ans. B proved
Objective Questions and Answers on Indian Penal Code D. all the above. Ans. A
1. Consider the following statement and select the correct 10. Section 34 of IPC:
answer: A. creates a substantive offence B. is a rule of evidence
A. All the recommendations of the Justice Verma C. both (a) and (b) D. neither (a) nor (b).
Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law Ans. B
(Amendment) Act, 2013 11. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice Verma spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:
Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
(Amendment) Act, 2013 B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice Verma C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
Committee are incorporated in the Criminal Law D. both (a) & (c). Ans. B
(Amendment) Act, 2013 12. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect caused by
D. None of the above. Ans. D means whereby a person intended to cause it or by means,
at the time of employing those means, know or had reason
2. Which of the following sections have been inserted in the to believe to be likely to cause it under:
Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) A. section 39 B. section 38 C. section 37 D. section 40.
Act, 2013, namely: Ans. A
13. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
A. life of a human being
B. life of an animal
C. life of human being and of an animal both
D. life of either human being or animal.
Ans. A
14. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:
A. death of a human being B. death of an animal
C. death of a human being and of an animal both
D. death of either human being or an animal. Ans. A
15. Illegal signifies:
A. everything which is an offence
B. everything which is prohibited by law
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
D. all the above. Ans. D
16. Animal denotes:
A. any living creature including human being
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. any creature – live or dead
D. either (a) or (c). Ans. B
17. How many types of punishments have been prescribed
under the Indian Penal Code:
A. three B. six C. five D. four. Ans. C
18. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of
imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:
A. has to be wholly rigorous
B. has to be wholly simple
C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
D. either (a) or (b). Ans. C
19. Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine
under section 64 of IPC:
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an
offender has been sentenced
B. shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
C. shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
D. both (b) & (c). Ans. A
20. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of imprisonment for
non-payment of fine shall be limited to:
A. one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed
for the offence
B. one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed
for the offence
C. one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for
the offence
D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for
the offence. Ans. B
21. In case of an offence punishable with fine only,
imprisonment for non-payment of fine:
A. has to be rigorous B. has to be simple
C. can be rigorous or simple
D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.
Ans. B
22. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:
A. harassment of the woman B. physical cruelty only
C. mental cruelty only D. cruelty by wife.
Ans. A
23. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an
offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding
Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default
of payment of fine shall not exceed:
A. two months B. three months
C. four months D. six months. Ans. C
24. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an
offender who is sentenced to pay a fine exceeding Rs. 100,
the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not
exceed:
A. one year B. six months C. four months D. two months.
Ans. B
25. Section 64 of IPC provides for:
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for non-
payment of fine
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of imprisonment
for non-payment of fine
D. limits of imprisonment for non-payment of fine but does
not prescribe the nature of imprisonment.
Ans. C
26. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall terminate:
A. on payment of fine
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for non-payment
C. both (a) & (b) D. neither (a) nor (b).
Ans. C
27. In case of imprisonment for non-payment of fine, if a
part of the fine is paid, such sentence:
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to the fine paid
C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion of the
court as to the quantum of reduction
D. all of the above.
Ans. A
28. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of
solitary confinement to be:
A. one year B. two years
C. three months D. six months. Ans. C
29. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not
exceeding six months, the solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed 15 days
B. shall not exceed one month
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed forty-five days. Ans. B
30. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term
exceeding six months but not exceeding one year, the term
of solitary confinement:
A. shall not exceed one month
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. shall not exceed two months
D. shall not exceed three months. Ans. C
31. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term
exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement shall
not exceed:
A. one month B. two months
C. three months D. six months. Ans. C
32. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in
goodfaith which is done or believed without due care &
intention – is the definition of goodfaith contained in:
A. section 29 of IPC B. section 29A of IPC
C. section 52 of IPC D. section 52A of IPC.
Ans. C
33. General exceptions are contained in:
A. chapter III of IPC B. chapter IV of IPC
C. chapter V of IPC D. chapter VI of IPC.
Ans. B
34. Section 76 provides that nothing is an offence which is
done by a person who is or who by reason of:
A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there
by law to do it appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract life
B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound imprisonment.
by law to do it D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will attract capital
do it punishment. Ans. B
D. all the above. Ans. A 46. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to
35. Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done the use of the English law?
by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be interpreted on
mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be: the basis of principles governing self defence under the
A. bound by law to do it B. justified by law to do it English law
C. bound by morality to do it D. all the above. B. Reliance on case decided under the English law –
Ans. B misleading
36. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means: C. In defamation cases the court must with reference –
A. ignorance of law is no excuse Section 499
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English Common Law in
C. ignorance of law is an excuse respect to the major offences which are universally
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse. Ans. A applicable Ans. A
37. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the general 47. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or
exception of: grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt under-
A. mistake of law B. mistake of fact A. Section 385 of IPC B. Section 386 of IPC
C. both mistake of law and fact C. Section 387 of IPC D. Section 388 of IPC
D. either mistake of law or of fact. Ans. C
Ans. B 48. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea means?
38. Accident as an exception has been dealt with in: A. a deed, a material result of human conduct
A. section 77 B. section 78 B. the intent and act must both concur to constitute the
C. section 80 D. section 82. Ans. C crime
39. Under section 80, the exception of accident is available C. putting to death D. uncommended manner
when an offence is committed while: Ans. B
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means 49. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink intending to
B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means kill him. However, Z also happened to sip from Y’s glass.
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any means They both died. The medical report claimed that Y actually
D. all the above. Ans. A died of a cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance
40. The principle as to the way in which a man should administered was insufficient to cause his death. In
behave when he has to make a choice between two evils is addition, Z died due to the effect of the poison. So:
illustrated in: A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the death of Z
A. section 80 of IPC B. section 81 of IPC B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor of Z
C. section 82 of IPC D. section 78 of IPC. Ans. B C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z
41. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the D. X is liable for the death of Z only
Indian Penal Code? Ans. B
A. Lord William Bentinck B. Lord Curzon 50. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing delivery of
C. Lord Macaulay D. Lord Irwin property, or the making alteration or destruction of a
Ans. C valuable security is dealt under-
42. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent A. Section 417 of IPC B. Section 418 of IPC
to outrage her modesty is dealt under- C. Section 419 of IPC D. Section 420 of IPC Ans. D
A. Section 354 of IPC B. Section 355 of IPC 51. Literally, mens rea means:
C. Section 356 of IPC D. Section 357 of IPC Ans. A A. guilty mind
43. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose
application in Jammu and Kashmir? C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and wilfulness
A. Indian Legislative Act B. Ranbir Penal Code D. All of the above Ans. D
C. Indian Penal Act D. Mahomedan Act Ans. B 52. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen.
44. Assault or use of criminal force in an attempt to The deceased was taken promptly to hospital and the
wrongfully confine a person is dealt under- wound was stitched but few days later he died. The
A. Section 357 of IPC B. Section 358 of IPC evidence showed that at the time of death the wound had
C. Section 359 of IPC D. Section 360 of IPC Ans. A healed. But due to terramycin injection being given in
45. Which of the following is the principle applied in excess lungs had become over logged and caused
construing a penal Act? pneumonia on the question of causation:
A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there A. The appellant can be acquitted
appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved against B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
the person who would be liable to the penalty. C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted
B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions, “there D. The doctor must be acquitted Ans. A
appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be resolved in the 53. Habitually dealing in stolen property is dealt under-
favour of the person who would be liable to the penalty. A. Section 411 of IPC B. Section 412 of IPC
C. Section 413 of IPC D. Section 414 of IPC IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact
Ans. C A. I and II only B. I and III only
54. Cheating is dealt under- C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
A. Section 417 of IPC B. Section 418 of IPC Ans. D
C. Section 419 of IPC D. Section 420 of IPC 63. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing lurking house
Ans. A trespass or house breaking is dealt under-
55. Fraudulent removal or concealment of property of A. Section 458 of IPC B. Section 459 of IPC
himself or any other person or assisting in the doing C. Section 460 of IPC D. Section 461 of IPC
thereof, or dishonesty releasing any demand or claim to Ans. B
which he is entitled is dealt under- 64. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening any closed
A. Section 421 of IPC B. Section 422 of IPC receptacle containing or supposed to contain property is
C. Section 423 of IPC D. Section 424 of IPC dealt under-
Ans. D A. Section 458 of IPC B. Section 459 of IPC
56. Even though a man’s knowledge that a particular C. Section 460 of IPC D. Section 461 of IPC
consequence will probably result from his act is sometimes Ans. D
an insufficient basis for saying that he intends it, there are 65. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company for
strong reasons for holding that as a legal matter he can be introducing into interstate commerce drugs that were
held to intend something that he knows for sure he is misbranded. The President pleaded lack of knowledge of
doing. This is called: this fact?
A. skewed intent B. oblique intent A. The President must be convicted
C. hypothetical intent D. square intent Ans. B B. The President must be acquitted
57. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an C. The President and the company must be convicted
essential ingredient for offences under- D. none of them Ans. A
A. Revenues Acts B. Public nuisance 66. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to create
C. Criminal case which are in summary mode D. All of these enmity, hatred or ill-will between different classes is dealt
Ans. D under-
58. House-trespass in order to the commission of an A. Section 169 of IPC B. Section 505 of IPC
offence punishable with imprisonment if the offence is C. Section 171 of IPC D. Section 172 of IPC
theft is dealt under- Ans. B
A. Section 448 of IPC B. Section 449 of IPC 67. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle which was
C. Section 450 of IPC D. Section 451 of IPC without insurance. Y was convicted for violation of Road
Ans. D Traffic Act, 1988, who was not even driving the vehicle at
59. During house trespass or house-breaking in order to the that time. Y appealed against it in the court.
commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment A. the conviction should be upheld
and if the offence is theft is dealt under- B. the conviction must be set aside
A. Section 169 of IPC B. Section 170 of IPC C. both the X and Y must be convicted
C. Section 171 of IPC D. Section 454 of IPC D. only X must be convicted Ans. B
Ans. D 68. The question whether a corporate body should or
60. Defamation against the President or the Governor of a should not be liable for criminal action resulting from the
State or Administrator of a Union Territory or Minister in acts of some individuals must depend on:
respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public A. nature of the offense disclosed by the allegations in the
functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the complaint or in the charge sheet
Public Prosecutor is dealt under- B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-a-vis the
A. Section 497 of IPC B. Section 498 of IPC corporate body
C. Section 498A of IPC D. Section 500 of IPC C. other relevant facts and circumstances which could show
Ans. D the corporate body as such meant or intended to commit
61. A had an argument with B and asked her to go leave that act
him alone and go home. B refused and A struck her on the D. all of them Ans. D
head and rendered her unconscious. A dragged B to the 69. Automation in legal sense implies:
parking lot during which B’s head hit the pavement which A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts
caused her death. B. without any knowledge of acting or action
A. A is not responsible for her death as that was not the C. with no consciousness of what is being done
intent D. all of them Ans. D
B. A is only responsible for assaulting her 70. Which of the following is false about the presumption
C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was caused of innocence?
due A’s negligence A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including criminal
D. None of them trials
Ans. C B. in this case the crime must be brought to a prisoner
62. Presumption of culpable mental state of a person as per C. it can be easily rebutted
Section 10-C of the IPC includes: D. graver the crime, greater will be the degree of doubt
I. Intention that is reasonable
II. Motive Ans. C
III. Knowledge of fact
71. Which of the following is pointed out by the Supreme 80. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship
Court regarding the rejection of the prosecution case on etc, with intent to create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt
paltry ground? under-
A. The public are generally reluctant to come forward to A. Section 128 of IPC B. Section 201 of IPC
depose before the court hence it not correct to reject the C. Section 505 of IPC D. Section 302 of IPC
prosecution version on the ground that all witnesses to the Ans. C
occurrences have not been examined. 81. Under which section of the IPC a person irrespective of
B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the his nationality can be held guilty and is liable to punishment
prosecution story, perhaps for the fear of disbelief, which is for any offence within India?
not a ground to throw the case overboard. A. Section 2 of IPC B. Section 5 of IPC
C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of C. Section 7 of IPC D. Both (A) and (C)
corroboration by the independent witnesses if the case Ans. A
made out is otherwise true or acceptable. 82. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing
D. All of them death, or hurt, etc. is dealt under-
Ans. D A. Section 438 of IPC B. Section 439 of IPC
72. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a criminal C. Section 440 of IPC D. Section 441 of IPC Ans. C
intent a married woman is dealt under- 83. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle containing
A. Section 497 of IPC B. Section 498 of IPC or supposed to contain any property, and fraudulently
C. Section 498A of IPC D. Section 500 of IPC opening the same is dealt under-
Ans. B A. Section 462 of IPC B. Section 463 of IPC
73. Which of the following is not true of the absence of C. Section 464 of IPC D. Section 465 of IPC Ans. A
explanation from the accused? 84. Under which of the following a corporation is
A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a presumption as indictable?
that of innocence A. Vicarious liability
B. it is capable of being taken into account to corroborate B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
other evidence C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the
C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere absence of corporation the conduct and state of mind of an individual
explanation D. All of them Ans. D
D. it is not material Ans. C 85. X participated in the child marriage of Y in another
74. Forgery is dealt under- country. Both X and Y were still Indian citizens at the time
A. Section 464 of IPC B. Section 465 of IPC the marriage took place.
C. Section 466 of IPC D. Section 467 of IPC A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3
Ans. B B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a foreign soil
75. Having possession of a document, knowing it to be C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment under Section 3
forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if the document is D. None of them
one of the description mentioned in section 466 of the Ans. C
Indian Penal Code is dealt under- 86. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc.
A. Section 471 of IPC B. Section 472 of IPC dealt under-
C. Section 473 of IPC D. Section 474 of IPC A. Section 438 of IPC B. Section 439 of IPC
Ans. D C. Section 440 of IPC D. Section 441 of IPC Ans. B
76. In which of the following case the Supreme Court 87. Which of the following section makes all the offences
pointed out this fact in relation to the above question? under the Code without exception to be extra territorial?
A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975) A. Section 2 B. Section 4
B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954) C. Section 5 D. Section 7 Ans. B
C. Tika v. State of UP (1974) D. None of them 88. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to compel her
Ans. B marriage or to cause her defilement etc. is dealt under-
77. Attempting to commit offences punishable with A. Section 365 of IPC B. Section 366 of IPC
imprisonment of life or imprisonment, and in such attempt C. Section 367 of IPC D. Section 368 of IPCAns. B
doing any act towards the commission of the offence is 89. Extradition is:
dealt under- A. to surrender of one State to another of a person desired
A. Section 510 of IPC B. Section 511 of IPC to be dealt with crimes of which he has been accused or
C. Section 512 of IPC D. Section 513 of IPC convicted and which are justifiable in the Courts of the
Ans. B other countries
78. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or an
partem? arrangement ad hoc
A. notice of the case to be met B. good faith C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or on
C. opportunity to explain D. Both (A) and (C) reciprocal arrangement
Ans. D D. all of them Ans. D
79. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than on Police 90. Knowingly selling goods marked with counterfeit
report, under which section charges are framed? property mark is dealt under-
A. Section 240 Cr. PC. B. Section 246 Cr. PC. A. Section 485 of IPC B. Section 486 of IPC
C. Section 256 Cr. P.C. D. None of them Ans. B C. Section 487 of IPC D. Section 488 of IPC
Ans. B
91. Over which of the following admiralty jurisdiction Ans. B
extends?
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the seas
B. Offences committed on foreign ships in Indian territorial
waters
C. Piracy D. All of them Ans. D
92. Which of the following is true about special law?
A. relates to a particular subject
B. applies only to a particular part of the country
C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans. D
93. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the
printer is dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC B. Section 489 E of IPC
C. Section 490 of IPC D. Section 491 of IPC
Ans. C
94. Which of the following section of the IPC does not affect
the provisions of any Act for punishing mutiny and
desertion of officers, soldiers, sailors or airmen in the
service of the Government of India or the provisions of any
special or local law?
A. Section 3 of IPC B. Section 4 of IPC
C. Section 5 of IPC D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C
95. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:
A. contempt committed in facie curiae
B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus non
derogrant
C. contempt committed in ultra vires
D. contempt committed in ad hoc
Ans. A
96. Robbery is dealt under-
A. Section 391 of IPC B. Section 392 of IPC
C. Section 393 of IPC D. Section 394 of IPC
Ans. B
97. False statement in connection with elections is dealt
under-
A. Section 170 G of IPC B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 172 G of IPC D. Section 173 G of IPC
Ans. B
98. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship,
etc. is dealt under-
A. Section 153A of IPC B. Section 154A of IPC
C. Section 155A of IPC D. Section 156A of IPC
Ans. A
99. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his
opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in
consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the
communication
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties
C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. D
100. The defendant was set to watch his master’s premises.
He saw a man on the garden wall and hailed him and then
shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed and shot the
deceased whom he had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased
B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger
D. none of them