Ipc MCQS1

Indian Penal Code:
1. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?
A. a general intention to defraud, without the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person of
wrongful loss to another
B. to prove intention of defraud, it is not at all necessary that there should have been some persons
defrauded, or who possibly might have been defrauded by his act
C. the word defraud is of double meaning
D. all of them
Ans: D
2. The word ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC includes any matter expressed or described upon
by any substance:
A. by means of letters, figures or marks only
B. by more than one of those means intended to be used, or which may used, as evidence of that matter
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. none of them
Ans: C
3. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it was in the possession of a declosed

person at his death, and that it has not since been in the possession of any person legally entitled to
it and if the offender at the time of such person’s declose was employed by him as a clerk or servant
is dealt under
A. Section 401 of IPC
B. Section 402 of IPC
C. Section 403 of IPC
D. Section 404 of IPC
Ans: D
4. Which of the following can be called a ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC?
A. banker’s cheque
B. power of attorney
C. map
D. all of them
Ans: D
5. Which of the following conditions are necessary to fulfil the requirements of Section 34 of the
Indian Penal Code?
A. the person must be present on the scene of occurrence
B. there must a prior concert or a pre-arranged plan
C. either (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
6. Making preparation to commit dacoity is dealt under
Ans: B
7. The three accused armed with firearms and Accused 1 with lathi came to the shot of the incident
for the purpose of avenging the old enmity. It was alleged that it was on the exhortation made by
the Accused 1, not to spare the deceased that the other accused started firing at the deceased. It was
held that when all the accused had reached the place of incident for the purpose of avenging the old
enmity nurtured by them should they wait for Accused 1 to make exhortation to use the words
“don’t allow him to flee and don’t spare him this time.”. Which of the following judgment is the
correct judgment regarding the mentioned case?
A. apart from Accused 1 all others were convicted u/ss. 302/34
B. all of them were convicted u/ss. 302/34
C. Accused 1 was accordingly acquitted, as no common intention could be attributed to him.
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
8. Unlawful compulsory labour is dealt under

Ans: D
9. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled for conviction on circumstantial evidence?
A. the circumstances from which the conclusion is to be drawn should be fully established and not “may
be established”
B. the circumstances must be of a conclusive nature and tendency
C. it should exclude every possible hypothesis except the one to be proved
D. all of them
Ans: D
10. Selling or letting to hire a minor for purposes of prostitution, etc is dealt under
Ans: B
11. Which of the following creates a new offence?
A. Section 34 of the IPC
B. Section 35 and Section 36 of the IPC
C. Section 37 of the IPC
D. None of them
Ans: D
12. A, a jailor, has the charge of Z, a prisoner. A, intending to cause Z’s death, illegally omits to
supply Z with food; in consequence of which Z is much reduced in strength, but the starvation is
not sufficient to cause his death. A is dismissed from his office, B succeeds him. B, without collution
with A, illegally omits to supply Z with food, knowing that he is likely thereby to cause Z’s death. Z
dies. Which of the following judgment applies to both A and B under Section 37 of the IPC?
A. A is only guilty of an attempt to commit murder while B is guilty of murder
B. A is guilty of murder while B is guilty of an attempt to murder
C. Both A and B are guilty of murder
D. Both A and B are guilty of attempt to murder
Ans: A
13. The act voluntarily done in effect and substance in Section 39, IPC means:
A. act done intentionally
B. act done with the knowledge of end result being crime
C. act done when the doer has a reason to believe that the actus reus would be an offence
D. all of them
Ans: D
14. Abetment of any offence, if the person abetted does the act with a different intention from that
of the abettor is dealt under
Ans: B
15. The accused attacked the victim with a spear and the others inflicted blows on legs and arms
with lathies.
A. only those accused who used lathies are guilty
B. only the accused who used the spear is guilty
C. each accused must be convicted for the offence of which he is actually found to be guilty
D. all the accused are guilty
Ans: C
16. Which of the following is the test to check whether an offence involves moral turpitude?
A. check whether the act leading to a conviction is such as could shock the moral conscience of the
society in general
B. check whether the motive leading to the act was a base one
C. check whether on account of the act having been committed the perpetrator is to be looked down in the
society as a depraved man
D. all of them
Ans: D
17. The accused persons noticed someone stealing the crops grown by the accused and beat the thief
to death.
A. IPC Section 304 read with IPC Section 34 is applicable in this case
B. IPC Section 304 Pt. II read with IPC Section 35 is application in this case
C. IPC Section 38 is applicable in this case
D. IPC Section 308 is applicable in this case
Ans: C
18. A sets fire, by night, to an inhabited house in a large town, for the purpose of facilitating a
robbery and thus causes the death of person.
A. A did not intend to cause any death. It was an accident
B. A is guilty of robbery only
C. If A knew that he was likely to cause he would have done so voluntarily to carry out the robbery
D. None of them
Ans: C
19. Abetment of any offence, when an effect is caused by the act abetted different from that
intended by the abettor is dealt under
Ans: D
20. A boy of 13 committed rape on a child 2 years. The accused should be awarded
A. one year R.I. with fine of Rs. 2000

B. three year R.I with fine of Rs. 5000
C. only one year R.I.
D. only fine of Rs. 5000
Ans: A
21. Abetment of any offence, if abettor is present when offence is committed dealt under
Ans: A
22. Concealing a design to commit an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life, if the
offence be committed is dealt under
Ans: B
23. A public servant concealing a design to commit an offence which it is his duty to prevent if the
offence be committed dealt under
Ans: C
24. Which of the following punishment an offender is liable to under the provision of Section 53,
IPC
A. Death and imprisonment for life
B. Imprisonment and fine

C. Forfeiture of property
D. all of them
Ans: D
25. Which of the following punishment have been abolished?
A. Death penalty
B. Whipping
C. Detention in reformatories
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
offence be punishable with death or imprisonment for life is dealt under
Ans: B
27. Abetment of any offence, punishable with imprisonment, if the offence be not committed in
consequence of the abetment is dealt under
Ans: C
28. What is the minimum term of imprisonment in case of, at the time of committing robbery or
dacoity, the offender uses any deadly weapon or causes grievous hurt to any person, he is punished
with imprisonment of not less than:
A. four years under Section 397, IPC
B. five years under Section 397, IPC

C. six years under Section 397, IPC
D. seven years under Section 397, IPC
Ans: D
offence be not committed is dealt under
Ans: D
30. Abetment of an offence punishable with imprisonment, if the abettor or the person abetted be a
public servant, whose duty is to prevent the offence is dealt under
Ans: A
31. Which of the following is false of Section 67 of the IPC?
A. the imprisonment so awarded shall be simple
B. fine not exceeding Rs. 50 – term not exceeding 4 months
C. fine exceeding Rs. 100 to any amount – term not exceeding 6 months
D. the term shall not in any case be in excess of the Magistrate’s powers under S. 32 of Cr. PC
Ans: B
32. Criminal conspiracy to commit an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
rigorous imprisonment for a term of 2 years or upwards is dealt under
A. Section 119B of IPC
B. Section 120B of IPC
C. Section 121B of IPC

D. Section 122B of IPC
Ans: B
33. Waging or attempting to wage war, or abetting the waging of war, against the Government of
India is dealt under
Ans: A
34. Collecting arms, etc, with the intention of waging war against the Government of India is dealt
under
Ans: C
35. Assaulting President Governor, etc, with intent to compel or restrain the exercise of any lawful
power is dealt under
Ans: B
36. A sees Z commit what appears to A to be a murder. A, in the exercise to the best of his judgment
exerted in good faith, of the power which the law gives to all persons of apprehending murderers in
the act, seizes Z, in order to bring Z before the proper authorities.
A. A has committed an offence, while Z was acting in self-defence
B. Both A and Z committed an offence.

C. A has committed no offence, though it may turn out that Z was acting in self-defence
D. None of them
Ans: C
37. A is at work with a hatchet; he head flies off and kills who is standing by
A. A’s act is excusable
B. A’s act is unpardonable
C. A’s act is one of deliberate act
D. None of them
Ans: A
38. A, in a great fire pulls down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. He
does this with the intention in good faith of saving human life or property.
A. A is not guilty
B. A is guilty
C. The action was intentional
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: A
39. In a case the accused was alleged to kill four children at a time. He raised the plea of insanity.
A. the plea is to be reject outright
B. the plea is to be considered only after the prosecution succeeds in proving the case against the accused
C. the plea is must be considered putting aside the arguments of the prosecution
D. None of them
Ans: B
40. A and Z agrees to fence each other for amusement. In the course of fencing, without any foul
play, A hurts Z.
A. A is guilty of offence
B. Both are guilty for indulging in a violent game
C. A is not guilty of any offence

D. None of them
Ans: C
41. A in good faith for his child’s benefit without the consent of his child cut for the stone by a
surgeon knowing it to be likely that the operation will cause the child’s death, but not intending to
cause the child’s death.
A. A is guilty as he acted without the consent of his child attracts punishment as per Section 89 of IPC
B. A is guilty as he knowingly caused the death of his child and attracts punishment Section 89 of IPC
C. A is within the exception of Section 89 of IPC as inasmuch his object was the cure of his child
D. None of them
Ans: C
42. Wantonly giving provocation with intent to cause riot, if rioting be committed is dealt under
Ans: B
43. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to national integration is dealt under
A. Section 153B of IPC
B. Section 154B of IPC
C. Section 155B of IPC
D. Section 156B of IPC
Ans: A
44. Agent of owner or occupier for whose benefit a riot is committed not using all lawful means to
prevent it is dealt under

Ans: C
45. Being hired to take part in an unlawful assembly or riot is dealt under
Ans: C
46. Committing affray is dealt under
Ans: B
47. Public servant framing an incorrect document with intent to cause injury is dealt under
Ans: B
48. Public servant unlawfully buying or bidding for property is dealt under
Ans: A
49. Wearing garb or carrying token used by public servant with fraudulent intent is dealt under
Ans: C
50. Undue influence at an election is dealt under
A. Section 168 F of IPC
B. Section 169 F of IPC
C. Section 170 F of IPC
D. Section 171 F of IPC
Ans: D
51. False statement in connection with elections is dealt under
A. Section 170 G of IPC
B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 172 G of IPC
D. Section 173 G of IPC
Ans: B
52. Promoting enmity between classes in place of worship, etc is dealt under
A. Section 153 A of IPC
B. Section 154Aof IPC
C. Section 155Aof IPC
D. Section 156Aof IPC
Ans: A
53. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient
dies in consequence of the shock.
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties

C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: D
54. The defendant was set to watch his master’s premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and
hailed him and then shot at him aiming at his legs. He missed and shot the deceased whom he had
not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the deceased
B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was danger
D. none of them
Ans: B
55. Criminal intimidation and if threat be to cause death or grievous hurt, etc is dealt under
Ans: B
56. A disabled man having only one hand was attacked by a strong man by bamboos. The disabled
man, a tea garden labourer fought for his life and hit the aggressor by the pen-knife resulting in his
death.
A. the man acted was well within the bounds of his right to self defence
B. the man exceeded the bounds of the right to self defence
C. the man is guilty of manslaughter
D. both (B) and (C)
Ans: A
57. Owner or occupier of land not giving information of riot, etc is dealt under

Ans: C
58. Two parties A and B gather together for free fight in order to settle a land dispute and in the
process end up inflicting injuries on one another. Here:
A. the plea of private defence of property is valid
B. the plea of self defence is valid
C. the plea of private defence of any kind is invalid
D. none of them
Ans: C
59. In a certain case in revision by accused against conviction and sentence under Section 279, IPC,
the provisional Court on maintaining conviction added a direction to RTO to cancel his license. It
was held that it is enhancement of sentence and no such enhancement is legal without notice to
accused.
A. Md. Shabir v. State of Maharashtra, 1978
B. Ranji Lai Modi v. State of U.P. Air 1957 Section 620
C. Mithu v. State of Punjab, AIR 1983 Section 473
D. Gian Kaur v. States of Punjab, Air 1996 Section 946
Ans: A
60. Insult intended to provoke breach of the peace is dealt under
Ans: D
61. ‘S’ is found in possession of property reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is arrested
by ‘P’, a police officer. ‘S’ is excited to sudden and violent passion by the arrest and fires at him but
kills ‘D’ who was standing near ‘P’, neither intending nor knowing himself to be likely to kill ‘D’.
This is:
(a) culpable homicide not amounting to murder, because ‘S’ had been deprived of the power of self-
control by grave and sudden provocation
(b) murder, because provocation was given by a thing done by a public servant in lawful discharge of his
powers
(c) culpable homicide not amounting to murder, because the death of ‘D’ occurred by mistake or accident
(d) none of these.
Ans. (b)
62. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:
(a) necessary that the act abetted must be committed
(b) not necessary that the act abetted must be committed
(c) necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor
Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?
(a) Only (b)
(b) Both (b) and (c)
(c) Only (a)
(d) Only (c).
Ans. (a)
63. Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:
(a) every murder is culpable homicide
(b) every culpable homicide is murder
(c) every robbery is either theft or extortion
(d) every extortion is robbery
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (a) and (c)
(b) (b) and (c)
(c) (a) and (d)
(d) (b) and (d).

Ans. (a)
64. With respect to the difference between kidnapping from lawful guardianship and abduction
which of the following statements is correct:
(a) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a minor or a person of unsound mind. Abduction is
committed in respect of a person of any age.
(b) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out of lawful guardianship. Abduction has reference
exclusively to the person abducted.
(c) In kidnapping, consent of the person kidnapped or enticed is immaterial. In abduction, consent of the
person moved, if freely and voluntarily given, condones abduction.
(d) All these.
Ans. (d)
65. ‘A’ and ‘Z’, both adults, agree to engage each other in fencing for amusement. In course of such
fencing, without any foul play, ‘A’ causes a superficial hurt to “Z”. Here, ‘A’:
(a) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon as he attacked ‘Z’
(b) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on the part of ‘Z’ to suffer such harm
(c) is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport
(d) both (1) and (3).
Ans. (b)
66. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in the field of criminal law, the maxim: ‘de
minimis non curat lex’:
(a) Section 85, IPC
(b) Section 88, IPC
(c) Section 95, IPC
(d) Section 96, IPC.
Ans. (c)
67. The doctrine of Necessity has been elaborately considered in the landmark decision of:
(a) R. v. McNaghten, (1843) 8 Eng Rep 718
(b) Basdev v. State of PEPSU, AIR 1956 SC 488
(c) R. v. Dudley and Stephens, (1884) 14 QBD 273

(d) Bimbadar Pradhan v. State of Orissa, AIR 1956 SC 469.
Ans. (c)
68. H takes property belonging to S out of the possession of S in good faith, believing at the time
when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself. Later on realizing his mistake, H continues to
appropriate the property to his own use. H has committed the offence of:
(a) Robbery
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal Misappropriation
(d) Cheating.
Ans. (c)
69. Under Section 44 of I.P.C. the term ‘Injury’ means any harm:
(a) Illegally caused to a person in body and mind
(b) Illegally caused to a person in body and property
(c) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property
(d) Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation.
Ans. (c)
70. Under the Indian Penal Code, an act may be an offence under the Code, but for the existence of
a justification which may form a defence. Which of the following is not such a defence:
(a) Act done by a child under seven years of age
(b) Act done by a person of unsound mind
(c) Act done by a child of immature understanding, above seven years and under twelve in age
(d) Act done outside the territorial limits of India.
Ans. (d)
71. Consider the following statements:
(1) ‘A’ willfully by a misrepresentation misled a police officer to arrest ‘B’ instead of ‘C’
(2) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’, ‘B’ refuses to do so
(3) ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘D’, ‘B’ stabs ‘D’. ‘D’ survives from wound
Which of the above constitute the offence of abetment?

(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (1) and (3) only
(c) (2) and (3) only
(d) (1) and (2) only.
Ans. (a)
72. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for marriage and takes her to another city.
What offence has been committed by A:
(a) A has committed kidnapping
(b) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her own consent
(c) A has committed abduction
(d) A is himself minor. Hence A has commit no offence.
Ans. (a)
73. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act
must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly. Reason (R):
Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the
other members of that assembly liable:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
74. Assertion (A): In a criminal trial, the accused and the defendant mean the same thing Reason
(R): It depends which way you look, for the prosecution a person is accused, for the person he is
defendant against the accusation:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true.
Ans. (a)
75. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act,
attacks Y, who in self-defense and in order to ward off the attack hits him thereby injuring him. Y
has not committed an offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under the
Indian Penal Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
76. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act,
attacks Y, who in self-defence and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y
has not committed an offence. Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section
98 of the Indian Penal Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (a)
78. The paddy lands of A and D lie adjacent to each other. The prosecution case that when D was
deepening the channel on the boundary of his own land, the accused A pursuant to an altercation
hit D hard on head by a spade that proved fatal.
A. the fact that the body of D lay on the land of A or the existence of any altercation between the two is
not sufficient to proof the exercise of the right of self defence by A
B. the complainant party is in possession of the land and the accused party taking the law in hands attacks
the complainant, does not entitle the accused A to right of private defence
C. Neither (A) nor (B)
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
79. False statement, rumour, etc, circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the
public peace is dealt under

Ans: A
80. A enters by night which he is legally entitled to enter. Z, in good faith mistaking A to be a
burglar attacks him.
A. Z has no offence as he acts under misconception
B. Z is guilty
C. A has the same right of private defence against Z under the same circumstance
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
81. A person with fraudulent intention going through the ceremony of being married knowing that
he is not thereby lawfully married is dealt under
Ans: D
82. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He cannot effectually exercise his right of
private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot fire without risk of harming young
children who are mingled with the crowd.
A. A must not use his right to private defence
B. A will be guilty of manslaughter if he fires on the mob
C. A will not be committing any offence if he has to fire on the mob
D. None of them
Ans: C
83. Illegal payments in connection with elections is dealt under
A. Section 169 H of IPC

B. Section 170 H of IPC
C. Section 171 H of IPC
D. Section 172 H of IPC
Ans: C
84. Absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding from a public servant is dealt
under
Ans: A
85. Not obeying a legal order to attend at a certain place in person or by agent, or departing
therefrom without authority is dealt under
Ans: A
86. Intentionally omitting to produce a document to a public servant by a person legally bound to
produce or deliver such document is dealt under
Ans: A
87. Intentionally omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally
bound to give such notice or information is dealt under

Ans: C
88. Intentional omitting to give notice or information to a public servant by a person legally bound
to give such notice or information if the notice or information is required by an order passed under
sub-section (1) of section 356 of this Code is dealt under
Ans: A
89. Knowingly furnishing false information to a public servant, if the information required respects
the commission of an offence etc is dealt under
Ans: C
90. Being legally bound to state truth and refusing to answer questions is dealt under
Ans: A
91. Knowingly stating to a public servant on oath as true that which is false is dealt under

Ans: C
92. Resistance to the taking of property by the lawful authority of a public servant is dealt under
Ans: A
93. Bidding by a person under a legal in capacity to purchase it for property at a lawfully
authorized sale or bidding without intending to perform the obligation incurred thereby is dealt
under
Ans: C
94. Preventing the service or the affixing of any summons of notice or the removal of it when it has
been affixed or preventing a proclamation is dealt under
Ans: C
95. Failure to appear at specified place and specified time as required by a proclamation published
under sub-section (1) of section 82 of this Code is dealt under
A. Section 172-AofIPC
B. Section 173-AofIPC
C. Section 174-AofIPC
D. Section 175-A of IPC
Ans: C
96. Which of the following not true of Section 75, IPC?
A. it provides for special maximum sentence
B. it provides for a minimum sentence
C. it is not incumbent in every case of a previous conviction that such conviction should be taken into
account.
D. all of them
Ans: B
97. Which of the following may be said to be non-compos mentis (not of sound mind)?
A. drunk
B. Made non compos by illness
C. lunatic or a madman
D. all of them
Ans: D
98. To invoke the defence of insanity, which of the following must be clearly proved at the time of
committing the act?
I. the accused was labouring under defect of reason
II. from disease of the mind
III. does not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing
IV. if he did know, he did not know what he was doing was wrong
A. I and IV
B. I and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Ans: D
99. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise than on grave provocation is dealt under
Ans: D
100. Insanity is a valid defence on a charge of commission of an act prima facie criminal because of
want of:
A. mens rea
B. actus reus
C. repondeat superior
D. none of them
Ans: A
101. Printing or enegrtacing matter knowing it to be defamatory against the president or the Vice-
President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union territory or a Minister in respect
of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by
the public prosecutor and Printing or engraving matter knowing it to be defamatory in any other
case is dealt under
Ans: B
102. Which of the following is true of people suffering from delirium tremens?
A. they are dangerous to themselves and others
B. they see various objects lying around or crawling about
C. he cannot be criminally held responsible for his acts
D. all of them
Ans: D
103. Attempt to commit robbery or dacoity when armed with deadly weapons is dealt under
Ans: A
104. In which of the following case voluntary drunkenness can be an excuse:
A. when the state of intoxication is such that the accused is incapable of forming the specific intent
essential to constitute the crime
B. habitual drunkenness which results in a diseased condition of the mind that the accused is incapable of
knowing the nature of the act or that he is doing is either wrong to contrary to the law
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Either (A) or (B)
Ans: C
105. In which of the following way Section 88 differs from Section 87?
A. under it any harm except death may be inflicted
B. the age of the person is not mentioned
C. the age of the consenting party must be at least twelve years
D. both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
106. Theft is dealt under
Ans: D
107. Which of the following is not a true consent as described in Section 90, IPC?
I. by a person under the fear of injury
II. by a person under a misconception
III. by a person of sound mind
IV.by a person who is intoxicated
V. by a person who is under twelve years of age
A. I, II
B. Ill
C. IV, V
D. I, II, IV, V
Ans: D
108. Harm in Section 94, IPC means:
A. injurious mental reaction
B. infectious mental disease
C. injurious mental condition
D. all of them
Ans: A
109. Which of the following is not pardonable under Section 94, IPC?
A. murder
B. offences against the state punishable with death
C. robbery
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
110. Theft by clerk or servant of property in possession of master or employer is dealt under

Ans: B
111. As per the Supreme Court the right of private defence is:
A. defensive right circumscribed by the statute
B. availed in the favour of the aggressor
C. available only when the circumstances clearly justifies it
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
112. On which of the general principle the Supreme Court held that the right to private defence
rests?
A. where a crime is endeavoured to be committed by force, it is lawful to repeal that force in self defence
B. that a person could only claim the right to use force after he had sustained a serious injury by an
aggressive wrongful assault
C. it is to protect the aggressor
D. Both (A) and (B)
Ans: D
113. A, a public officer is authorised by a warrant from a Court of Justice to apprehend Z. B,

knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, wilfully represents to A that C is Z, and they
intentionally causes A to apprehend C. Here:
A. A abets by instigation the apprehension of C
B. B abets by instigation the apprehension of C
C. B abets by instigation the apprehension of A
D. C abets by instigation the apprehension of Z
Ans: B
114. Kidnapping or obtaining the custody of a minor in order that such minor may be employed or
used for purposes of begging is dealt under
A. Section 363A of IPC

B. Section 364A of IPC
C. Section 365A of IPC
D. Section 366A of IPC
Ans: A

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Indian Penal Code:

1. Which of the following is true of intent of defraud?

C. the word defraud is of double meaning

A. by means of letters, figures or marks only

C. Both (A) and (B)

3. Dishonest misappropriation of property, knowing that it was in the possession of a declosed

A. Section 401 of IPC

B. Section 402 of IPC

C. Section 403 of IPC

D. Section 404 of IPC

4. Which of the following can be called a ‘document’ as per Section 29 of IPC?

A. the person must be present on the scene of occurrence

B. there must a prior concert or a pre-arranged plan

C. either (A) or (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

6. Making preparation to commit dacoity is dealt under

A. Section 398 of IPC

B. Section 399 of IPC

C. Section 400 of IPC

D. Section 401 of IPC

A. apart from Accused 1 all others were convicted u/ss. 302/34

B. all of them were convicted u/ss. 302/34

C. Accused 1 was accordingly acquitted, as no common intention could be attributed to him.

D. both (A) and (C)

8. Unlawful compulsory labour is dealt under

A. Section 371 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

B. the circumstances must be of a conclusive nature and tendency

C. it should exclude every possible hypothesis except the one to be proved

A. Section 371 of IPC

B. Section 372 of IPC

C. Section 373 of IPC

D. Section 374 of IPC

11. Which of the following creates a new offence?

A. Section 34 of the IPC

B. Section 35 and Section 36 of the IPC

C. Section 37 of the IPC

B. A is guilty of murder while B is guilty of an attempt to murder

C. Both A and B are guilty of murder

D. Both A and B are guilty of attempt to murder

A. act done intentionally

B. act done with the knowledge of end result being crime

A. Section 109 of IPC

B. Section 110 of IPC

C. Section 111 of IPC

D. Section 112 of IPC

A. only those accused who used lathies are guilty

B. only the accused who used the spear is guilty

D. all the accused are guilty

C. IPC Section 38 is applicable in this case

D. IPC Section 308 is applicable in this case

A. A did not intend to cause any death. It was an accident

B. A is guilty of robbery only

A. Section 110 of IPC

B. Section 111 of IPC

C. Section 112 of IPC

D. Section 113 of IPC

A. one year R.I. with fine of Rs. 2000

C. only one year R.I.

D. only fine of Rs. 5000

A. Section 114 of IPC

B. Section 115 of IPC