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Problem Set 0 Solution
Problem Set 0 Solution
1 2 3 2 4 6
(i) 2× =
4 5 6 8 10 12
(2 + 3) × 1 2 3 5 10 15
(ii) = and
4 5 6 20 25 30
1 2 3 1 2 3 5 10 15
2× +3× =
4 5 6 4 5 6 20 25 30
2 3
1 2 3 18 20
(iii) 2× × 2 2 = and
4 5 6 48 56
1 1
2 3
1 2 3 18 20
2× × 2 2 =
4 5 6 48 56
1 1
3 3 2 1 18 18 2 1 3 3 9 9
(iv) × = and × =
3 3 4 5 18 18 4 5 3 3 27 27
Q2. We have a random variable, X. Using the variable, we construct a new variable Y, defined
below: Y = 3X+5. Calculate the mean and variance of Y in terms of X.
Q3. We have two random variables, X and Y. Using the two random variables, we construct
new variables, A and B as following:
A=5X+2
B=X+Y
Q4. The following table shows the monthly returns of asset X and Y.
Asset X Asset Y
0.1 0.2
-0.2 -0.11
0.16 -0.02
0.07 0.3
-0.15 -0.01
Asset X Asset Y
Expected returns -0.40% 7.20%
Variances 0.0257 0.0292
Cov(X,Y) = 0.0157
Q5. Daniel argues that some mutual funds consistently outperform the market (that is, the
return of the mutual fund is higher than the return of S&P 500). He found that there are 5,000
mutual funds reported in The Wall Street Journal on February 18. His friend Bill believes that
performance relative to the market is driven by luck, we mean that each fund has a 50–50
chance of outperforming the market in any year and that performance is independent from year
to year. With the investment period of 10-year, Bill wants to calculate the probability that any
particular fund outperforms the market in all 10 years.
P(Xi1=1, Xi2=1, Xi3=1, Xi4=1, Xi5=1, Xi6=1, Xi7=1, Xi8=1, Xi9=1, Xi10=1).
The important assumption given in the question is that performance is independent from year
to year. This means that the performance of a fund this year does not affect the performance of
next year. Hence, the random variables, Xit, in the above equation are independent. This enable
us to rewrite the above equation as:
P(Xi1=1)*P(Xi2=1)*P(Xi3=)1*P(Xi4=1)*P(Xi5=1)*P(Xi6=1)*P(Xi7=1)*P(Xi8=1)*P(Xi9=1)*P(
Xi10=1).
( = 1) = (0.5) = 1/1024.